EMT

Approximately how many bones are in the human body? A: 206 B: 210 C: 204 D: 208

A: 206

If a pacemaker does not function properly, as when the battery wears out, the patient may experience syncope, presenting with a pulse less than: A: 60 beats per minute. B: 40 beats per minute. C: 30 beats per minute. D: 20 beats per minute.

A: 60 beats per minute.

If a patient is lying supine on a backboard, the head end of the backboard will have approximately ____________ of the weight of the patient. A: 68% to 78% B: 52% to 64% C: 35% to 48% D: 79% to 85%

A: 68% to 78%

The path air takes during exhalation goes through the following route: A: Alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, epiglottis, oropharynx B: Oropharynx, larynx, trachea, carina, bronchi, alveoli C: Bronchioles, carina, larynx, oropharynx, epiglottis D: Alveoli, trachea, carina, epiglottis, pharynx, mouth

A: Alveoli, bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, epiglottis, oropharynx

When the EMT-B finds a sucking chest wound, what type of dressing should be used to cover the injury? A: An occlusive dressing B: A 4 x 4 gauze patch C: A pressure bandage D: A triangle bandage

A: An occlusive dressing

________ shock is an exaggerated allergic reaction. A: Anaphylaxis B: Cardiogenic C: Neurogenic D: Septic

A: Anaphylaxis

Which body structure is most likely injured during a passenger unrestrained rear-end collision? A: Cervical spine B: Knees C: Chest D: Abdomen

A: Cervical spine

The organization in the United States government that is responsible for establishing the National Standard Curriculum for each EMT level is the: A: Department of Transportation. B: Department of Health and Human Services. C: Department of Homeland Security. D: Department of Defense.

A: Department of Transportation.

Which of the following is another name for a bruise? A: Ecchymosis B: Hematoma C: Hematemesis D: Hemoptysis

A: Ecchymosis

A(n) _________ bleed is bleeding outside the dura mater in the skull. A: Epidural B: Subdural C: Intracerebral D: Concussion

A: Epidural

Before administering epinephrine for injection from an AnaKit (commercial bee sting kit), what is the first step? A: Get an order B: Clean/wipe thigh C: Place needle in proper position D: Check expiration date of medication

A: Get an order

Recording specific results of your early assessment is particularly valuable in which condition? A: Hypothermic B: Hyperthermic C: Coma patients D: Cardiac arrest patients

A: Hypothermic

An oral pain medication is less useful than which of the following medications when pain relief is needed within minutes: A: IV pain medication B: gelatin capsule C: fast-acting tablet D: OTC medication

A: IV pain medication

Which of the following is not a common sign and symptom of allergic reactions in the respiratory system? A: Increase in pulse B: Hoarseness C: Tightness in the chest or throat D: Wheezing and/or stridor

A: Increase in pulse

Which of the four avenues of poisoning can be the most worrisome? A: Injection B: Absorption C: Digestion D: Inhalation

A: Injection

What tissue is the eye is colored giving the eyes its colored hues? A: Iris B: Conjunctiva C: Lacrimal gland D: Lens

A: Iris

What is the GEMS diamond? A: It serves as an acronym reminder of the considerations in assessing the older patient. B: It is a government award issued to EMS agencies that safely transport geriatric patients. C: It is a certification for EMTs who properly complete Medicare billing forms. D: It is a certification for EMTs who successfully complete a "carpe diem" course.

A: It serves as an acronym reminder of the considerations in assessing the older patient.

In what manner should the EMT-B flush the eye when there is a foreign body in it? A: Nose to outside of the eye B: Outside of the eye to the nose C: Top of eye towards the mouth D: None of the above

A: Nose to outside of the eye

Prompt hospital treatment should be provided for a pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding. Which of the following should NOT be done in this emergency? A: Place a sanitary pad or trauma dressing in the vagina B: Have her on her left side during the transport C: Give her high-flow oxygen D: Save any tissue that may be passed from the vagina.

A: Place a sanitary pad or trauma dressing in the vagina

Which blood vessel returns blood from the lungs to the left atrium? A: Pulmonary vein B: Pulmonary artery C: Aorta D: Vena cava

A: Pulmonary vein

Where will you find localization of pain for a patient with a kidney stone? A: Radiating to the genitalia B: Involving the spleen C: In the chest D: Lower back

A: Radiating to the genitalia

What is tachypnea? A: Rapid breathing B: Rapid heart rate C: Loss of oxygen exchange D: None of the above

A: Rapid breathing

An advanced airway adjunct that provides a direct channel to allow removal of gas, blood, and toxins from the stomach used primarily to relieve gastric distention is the: A: Sellick maneuver. B: gastric tube. C: nasopharyngeal airway. D: orotracheal intubation tube.

A: Sellick maneuver.

In the older patient with tachycardia, tachypnea, and hot, flushed skin, the EMT-B should suspect: A: Septicemia. B: stroke. C: diabetic shock. D: heart attack.

A: Septicemia.

Smooth muscle can be found in the following location in the body: CORRECT XA: The intestines 0B: The thigh 0C: The heart 0D: The brain

A: The intestines

Biological agents can pose many difficult issues when used as a WMD, including which of the following? A: They can be almost undetectable and cause disease similar to common minor illnesses. B: Symptoms can be overlooked for days before MARK 1 antidote kits are available for use. C: There are no vaccines available to counteract biological weapons of mass destruction. D: Symptoms resemble those of the nerve agents, resulting in misdiagnosis and treatment.

A: They can be almost undetectable and cause disease similar to common minor illnesses.

Where is the air humidified in the respiratory tree? A: Turbinates B: Septum C: Bronchiole D: Oropharynx

A: Turbinates

Which of the following is not a safe way to remove the stinger and attached muscle injected by a honeybee into the patient? A: Use clean tweezers B: Use a clean credit card to scrape it C: Use the edge of a sharp, stiff object to scrape it D: Use the side of a tongue depressor to scrape it

A: Use clean tweezers

What is the first question you should ask a person suspected of ingesting (swallowing)a poison such a lye? A: What substance did you take? B: Where is the rest of the substance? C: What is your age and weight? D: Did you take another substance?

A: What substance did you take?

As soon as the head is delivered, use the index finger of your other hand to feel whether the umbilical cord is wrapped around the neck, this is commonly called: A: a nuchal cord. B: a blue cord. C: a tightly wound cord. D: a suffocative cord.

A: a nuchal cord.

One of the newer delivery systems that come in prescription or OTC forms is: A: adhesive patch. B: topical medications. C: gels. D: metered-dose medication.

A: adhesive patch.

A patient who to takes an occasional gasping breath after their heart has stopped has: A: agonal respirations. B: ataxic respirations. C: apneic respirations. D: hypoxic respirations.

A: agonal respirations.

After taking BSI precautions, the EMT-B should focus on the patient's: A: airway. B: breathing pattern. C: circulation. D: chief complaint.

A: airway

A term that is used for any abnormal rhythm of the heart is: A: arrhythmia. B: bradycardia. C: cardioversion. D: defibrillation.

A: arrhythmia.

The electrode that is placed on the patient's chest near the left shoulder is: A: black. B: white. C: red. D: green.

A: black.

The symptoms of difficulty breathing, toothache or arm cramps, and syncope in the older patient often indicate: A: cardiovascular disease. B: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. C: cerebrovascular accident D: chronic bowel obstruction.

A: cardiovascular disease.

At the scene of an unexplained infant death, or SIDS call, the EMT-B should: A: carefully inspect the scene for signs of illness, the general condition of the house, and family interaction. B: attempt to calm the parents by telling them, "I know exactly how you must feel." C: treat the house as a crime scene because SIDS results from child abuse or neglect. D: withhold attempting CPR as SIDS is not reversible.

A: carefully inspect the scene for signs of illness, the general condition of the house, and family interaction.

When assessing breathing for a patient in shock, an increased respiratory rate can be a sign of: A: compensated shock. B: decompensated shock. C: respiratory arrest. D: respiratory failure.

A: compensated shock.

A 78-year-old woman's skin is bluish around the lips and nailbeds, and her breathing is labored. She has a condition called: A: cyanosis. B: conjunctiva. C: sclera. D: jaundice.

A: cyanosis.

An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is a classic heart attack. Infarction means: A: death of tissue B: irregular heart beat C: insufficient oxygen mixing with the blood D: collapse of blood vessels in and around the heart

A: death of tissue

Of all the patients the EMT-B will care for, the geriatric patient is someone who should have a(n): A: detailed physical exam. B: do not resuscitate order. C: rapid physical assessment. D: APGAR assessment

A: detailed physical exam.

If initial BLS airway maneuvers fail to open the patient's airway, you should consider: A: endotracheal intubation based on local protocol. B: immediately transporting to the nearest hospital without ventilations. C: preparation for insertion of an airway through the cricoid membrane. D: making a surgical incision through the cricoid membrane.

A: endotracheal intubation based on local protocol

When writing a patient care report, you should take care to: A: ensure proper spelling of medical terms. B: report your opinions of the patient's condition. C: cover your omissions with good documentation. D: use as many abbreviations as possible.

A: ensure proper spelling of medical terms.

Considerations necessary for preparation of helicopter medical evacuation include: A: establishing a flat, baseball-diamond sized landing area, well clear of trees and overhead wires. B: using hand-held road flares to direct the landing by waving them overhead. C: lying a fully open bed sheet on the ground to clearly mark the landing zone. D: stretching crime-scene tape between four persons at each corner of the landing site.

A: establishing a flat, baseball-diamond sized landing area, well clear of trees and overhead wires.

After prolonged exposure to the cold, the skin may be freezing while the deeper tissues are unaffected. This condition is called: A: frostnip. B: frostbite. C: blanching. D: trench foot condition.

A: frostnip.

When a patient has their knees drawn up to their chest to minimize abdominal pain, it is called: A: guarding. B: tenderness. C: gasping. D: peritonitis.

A: guarding.

Geriatric patients are at risk for atherosclerosis resulting in: A: heart attack and stroke. B: slowed conduction through the peripheral nerves. C: loss of elastin in the skin and decreased kidney function. D: decreased elasticity in the lungs and the formation of cataracts.

A: heart attack and stroke.

Regardless of the method used, epinephrine causes a burning sensation where it is injected. Following the injection, the patient's: A: heart rate will increase. B: blood pressure will increase. C: respiration rate will decrease. D: injection site will swell up and then discolor rapidly, causing severe pain.

A: heart rate will increase.

Abnormal skin characteristics such as paleness, coolness, or moistness may indicate: A: hypoperfusion. B: hypertension. C: jaundice. D: coagulation

A: hypoperfusion.

Generally speaking, most patients with chest pain should be transported: A: immediately. B: after the administration of medications. C: only by ALS ambulance. D: only after a full, focused physical exam, including SAMPLE and OPQRSTU.

A: immediately.

The type of consent that assumes that an unconscious person would want to receive care is: A: implied consent. B: expressed consent. C: informed consent. D: denied consent.

A: implied consent.

If local protocol allows you to administer activated charcoal, you should administer the premixed suspension: A: in a covered cup with a straw. B: in a cup, but not with a straw. C: directly from the container, after shaking the container vigorously. D: in two separate doses, from the container, half the contents in each dose.

A: in a covered cup with a straw.

In compensated shock, the pulse of the patient usually: A: increases. B: decreases. C: stays the same. D: becomes absent.

A: increases.

Fever in children is a common reason for parents to call for an ambulance. A fever can result from: A: infection. B: lack of oxygen. C: blood loss. D: cold environments.

A: infection.

A complication of IV therapy at the IV site that the EMT should recognize is the escape of fluid into the surrounding local tissue. This is called: A: infiltration. B: phlebitis. C: occlusion. D: hematoma.

A: infiltration.

Stroke is a common cause of brain disorder that: A: is potentially treatable. B: is impossible to treat. C: has an 87% death rate. D: is directly related to a severe angina attack.

A: is potentially treatable.

The extent of elder abuse is not well known because: A: it has been hidden from society, definitions vary, and victims are hesitant to make reports. B: prosecution is difficult because the victims are often unable to identify their assailant. C: the media does not consider it widespread or a great concern of the general public. D: cases of elder abuse are too infrequent to attract public attention.

A: it has been hidden from society, definitions vary, and victims are hesitant to make reports.

To relieve choking in a conscious child, the EMT-B should: A: kneel behind the child, encircle the child with both arms, and apply five rapid abdominal thrusts. B: place the child on a chair, table, or countertop and apply six to ten abdominal thrusts. C: lie the child on his or her back, straddle the child, and deliver five abdominal thrusts. D: deliver five deliberate back blows and encouraged the child to cough.

A: kneel behind the child, encircle the child with both arms, and apply five rapid abdominal thrusts

A significant difference between adults and children in shock is: A: loss of even a small volume of blood can lead to shock in the child. B: children require greater amounts of blood loss to develop shock. C: capillary refill is the most reliable indicator of shock in adults. D: adults can compensate for blood loss better than children.

A: loss of even a small volume of blood can lead to shock in the child.

Regarding characteristics of diabetic emergencies, the hypoglycemic patient's blood pressure will be: A: low. B: high. C: normal. D: rapid and bounding.

A: low.

Of the two primary sizes IV administration drip sets are supplied in, the one that is best used for rapid fluid replacement and trauma is the: A: macrodrip set. B: microdrip set. C: pediatric tubing. D: mini-drip tubing.

A: macrodrip set

Patients with altered mental status should be placed in a lateral recumbent position and: A: make sure that suction is readily available. B: take vital signs every two minutes. C: place them in the recovery position. D: place them in a warm, comfortable environment.

A: make sure that suction is readily available.

The carrier of an infectious organism: A: may never know that they have the disease. B: will always tell an EMT-B that they are contagious. C: can only transmit the disease by exposure to blood. D: can be traced through an investigation.

A: may never know that they have the disease

Treatment focuses on support: assessing and maintaining the ABC's, being sure to: A: monitor the patient's breathing. B: monitor the patient's pulse. C: monitor the patient's temperature. D: level of consciousness.

A: monitor the patient's breathing.

Like most dyspnea patients, those with spontaneous pneumothorax are usually: A: more comfortable sitting up. B: more comfortable lying down. C: more comfortable standing. D: left in the recovery position.

A: more comfortable sitting up.

The EMT should consider the presence of an odorless toxin at scenes where: A: more than one person has collapsed or is in respiratory distress. B: there is a green diamond placard, clearly displayed on the carton. C: there is a yellow placard with purple lettering in the shape of a propeller. D: there is a strong, gusty wind.

A: more than one person has collapsed or is in respiratory distress.

Trauma patients usually have more than one body area injured. These patients are described as a: A: multisystem trauma patient. B: double trauma patient. C: suspicion of injury patient. D: mechanism of injury patient.

A: multisystem trauma patient.

Signs of respiratory distress in children include: A: nasal flaring, grunting, wheezing or stridor, retractions, and tripod positioning. B: loud crying, effective coughing, ability to speak, and flushed color. C: cyanosis in the beds of the fingernails with shivering. D: respiration rates between 20 to 30 breaths/min.

A: nasal flaring, grunting, wheezing or stridor, retractions, and tripod positioning.

Nasal intubation is performed: A: only in breathing patients. B: using a laryngoscope and curved blade. C: if there is evidence of skull fracture. D: using a tube one-half to one full size larger than normal.

A: only in breathing patients.

The roles and responsibilities of the EMT-B do not include: A: placing yourself or your partner at risk to save a patient's life. B: providing essential immediate intervention. C: advising the patient of any procedures you will perform. D: documenting all findings and care on the patient care report.

A: placing yourself or your partner at risk to save a patient's life.

When using topographic anatomy, the patient's wrist is _______ to the hand but _______ to the elbow.: A: proximal, distal B: distal, proximal C: lateral, medial D: inferior, superior

A: proximal, distal

Remember, the condition of a patient with an acute abdomen can change: A: rapidly from stable to unstable. B: slowly, even if transport is delayed. C: quickly if you don't administer an IV ( EMT-I and Paramedics by your request). D: none of the above.

A: rapidly from stable to unstable.

If you have difficulty or are unsuccessful gathering the patient's history, a technique frequently used by mental health professionals is to gain insight into the patient's thinking. This is called: A: reflective listening. B: asking questions slowly and clearly. C: threatening to get law enforcement involved. D: communicative assessment.

A: reflective listening.

Once you receive an order from medical control, you should: A: repeat the order back, word for word, and then receive confirmation. B: ask your partner to confirm the order. C: proceed with treatment. D: repeat the order to the patient.

A: repeat the order back, word for word, and then receive confirmation.

When solid organs are injured, the EMT-B should suspect: A: severe internal bleeding. B: pain. C: tenderness. D: peritonitis.

A: severe internal bleeding

The role of the EMT in the phases of an extrication operation is: A: similar to the phases of the ambulance call. B: directed by the designated Logistics Officer at the scene. C: varied depending if the EMT has certification in PHTLS or BTLS. D: direct care of the patient only after disentanglement and removal.

A: similar to the phases of the ambulance call.

While only a small percentage of individuals conduct terrorism to achieve their goals, terrorists are more likely to have an affiliation with: A: single-issue, political extremist, or apocalyptic religious groups. B: governments and the military. C: private corporations and business. D: private citizens and civic organizations.

A: single-issue, political extremist, or apocalyptic religious groups.

The diabetic patient in insulin shock will display or need all of the following, except: A: slow onset of altered mental status. B: rapid onset of altered mental status. C: hypogylcemia. D: sugar immediately.

A: slow onset of altered mental status.

When treating a patient with an impaled object in the eye, the EMT-B should: A: stabilize the object in place. B: remove the object. C: flush with sterile saline. D: cover with a Styrofoam cup.

A: stabilize the object in place.

Vehicles that meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances are identified by display of: A: the Star of Life®. B: a National Registry of EMT decal. C: a revolving red light mounted on the roof. D: "AMBULANCE" in reverse block letters on the hood.

A: the Star of Life®.

Nerve agents, such as VX and Sarin gas, are in the class of organophosphates, intended to cause A: the body's organs to become over stimulated and burn out resulting in cardiac arrest. B: burn-like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract. C: damage to lung tissues and result in severe pulmonary edema. D: sudden death by affecting the body's ability to use oxygen.

A: the body's organs to become over stimulated and burn out resulting in cardiac arrest

Patients with CHF (congestive heart failure) often take several medications, in addition to obtaining a list of those medications, be sure to pay special attention to: A: the events that lead up to the present problem. B: skin tone of the patient. C: respirations of the patient. D: a and c are correct.

A: the events that lead up to the present problem.

If untreated, a severe anaphylactic reaction can proceed rapidly to death. More than two-thirds of patients who die, do so within: A: the first half hour. B: the first hour. C: three hours. D: twelve hours.

A: the first half hour

Post delivery care includes drying the baby off and wrapping it immediately in a blanket or towel, and placing it on one side, with: A: the head slightly lower than the rest of the body. B: the head slightly higher than the rest of the body. C: more face down than face up. D: a high flow of oxygen.

A: the head slightly lower than the rest of the body.

While preparing an ECG on a patient with severe chest pain, you note the electrodes are having trouble sticking to the patient. This most likely means: A: the patient is diaphoretic. B: the electrodes have passed their storage date. C: the last crew restocked the ECG with the wrong electrodes. D: the patient is moving excessively, causing the electrode to pull free.

A: the patient is diaphoretic.

Safety during rescue or extrication begins with: A: the proper mind-set and protective equipment. B: identifying a location for the Tactical Command Post. C: stabilization of the vehicle by letting the air out of all the tires. D: traffic control and maintaining order at the scene.

A: the proper mind-set and protective equipment.

Treat stroke and AMS in children: A: the same way you do for adults. B: with caution, the cause may be dangerous to you. C: routinely, it is a child not an adult you're treating. D: give baby aspirin immediately.

A: the same way you do for adults.

Head injuries are common in children because: A: the size of the head is larger in relation to the body than an adult. B: helmets designed for children offer less protection than expected. C: they are more likely to suffer whiplash in auto accidents. D: infants haven't fully developed balance for walking.

A: the size of the head is larger in relation to the body than an adult.

When treating a patient with a serious head injury and the patient is a known organ donor and may not live, you should: A: treat the patient in the same manner you would another patient with similar injuries. B: give the patient extra oxygen. C: give the patient a higher priority because they can save several lives. D: treat the patient as if they had a do not resuscitate order.

A: treat the patient in the same manner you would another patient with similar injuries.

The most important components of the incident command system as it relates to EMS include: A: triage, treatment, and transportation sectors. B: danger, decontamination, and rehabilitation sectors. C: logistics, planning, and finance sectors. D: rescue, extrication, and HazMat sectors.

A: triage, treatment, and transportation sectors.

In some situations, the postical state may be characterized by hemiparesis or: A: weakness on one side of the body, resembling a stroke. B: rolling of the eyes, with a long period of "twitching". C: slight bleeding from the nose and one or both ears. D: a state of "bliss", very calm and serene.

A: weakness on one side of the body, resembling a stroke.

When treating a patient with a helmet on you should remove the helmet only when: A: you are otherwise unable to maintain an airway. B: it is uncomfortable for the patient. C: you can't apply a cervical collar. D: the helmet will not fit on a backboard.

A: you are otherwise unable to maintain an airway.

What is the normal breathing rate for an adult? A: 12 to 18 breaths per minute B: 12 to 20 breaths per minute C: 15 to 30 breaths per minute D: 20 to 30 breaths per minute

B: 12 to 20 breaths per minute

Using the Glasgow Coma Scale what total score would you give a patient that opens his eyes to your voice, answers all questions correctly and is able to obey your motor commands? A: 15 B: 14 C: 8 D: 3

B: 14

If a D-sized oxygen cylinder contains 300 L of oxygen and is at 2,000 PSI at the start of call, the best estimate for the amount of time a patient can receive 15 L/min with a nonrebreathing mask is: A: 10 minutes. B: 20 minutes. C: 30 minutes. D: 40 minutes.

B: 20 minutes.

As the time for delivery nears, certain complications can occur, preeclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension, a condition that can develop after the: A: 10th week of gestation. B: 20th week of gestation. C: 24th week of gestation. D: 28th week of gestation.

B: 20th week of gestation.

Keeping yourself hydrated while on duty is very important, especially during periods of heavy exertion or work in the heat. You should drink how much water a day or more when exertion or heat is involved? A: 2 liters or more B: 3 liters or more C: 4 liters or more D: 5 liters or more

B: 3 liters or more

Excessive bleeding occurs when the bleeding exceeds: A: 350 mL. B: 500 mL. C: 750 mL. D: 900 mL.

B: 500 mL.

What is the "halo test"? A: A test for level of consciousness B: A test for CSF in the blood C: A test for neurological responses D: None of the above

B: A test for CSF in the blood

Which of the following will not help perfusion to the brain while easing respiratory effort? A: Place the patient in a comfortable position B: Administer Benadryl ( per protocol) C: Generally position supine D: Elevate the head and shoulders

B: Administer Benadryl ( per protocol)

Your decision regarding whether the patient is high priority should be made at which step in the assessment? A: When receiving dispatch information B: After the initial assessment is performed C: After vital signs are taken D: After the focused physical exam is performed

B: After the initial assessment is performed

Because behavioral emergencies are fraught with legal dangers, which of the following is not essential information if the case is reviewed for medicolegal reasons? A: Everything that happened on the call B: All situations, even everything that happened prior to your arrival C: All situations that required restraints D: Why restraints were used and what type was used

B: All situations, even everything that happened prior to your arrival

What is the correct term for a fracture of the orbit? A: Orbit fracture B: Blowout fracture C: Zygomatic fracture D: Global fracture

B: Blowout fracture

What are the greatest threats to the EMT from weapons of mass destruction? A: Panic and mass hysteria may lead to EMT injury as the victims attempt to flee. B: Contamination and cross-contamination from direct contact with exposed individuals C: Entrapment and injury from structure collapse and explosion of secondary devices D: Penetrating injury and baro-trauma from close proximity to the blast zone

B: Contamination and cross-contamination from direct contact with exposed individuals

What is another name for the skull? A: Foramen magnum B: Cranium C: Occiput D: Face

B: Cranium

An examination of the geriatric patient's residence for steep stairs, missing handrails, adequate food, and the overall appearance of the home would fall under which aspect of the GEMS diamond? A: G B: E C: M D: S

B: E

The party responsible for ensuring that an EMT-B maintains his or her ability to provide high-quality EMS care and updates his or her knowledge of EMS care is the: A: state regulatory authority. B: EMT-B. C: medical director. D: EMS agency chief.

B: EMT-B.

Pick the four links of the "chain of survival" in their correct order. A: Early CPR; early defibrillation; early access; early advanced care B: Early access; early CPR; early defibrillation; early advanced care C: Early access; early defibrillation; early CPR; early advanced care D: Early advanced care; early access; early CPR; early defibrillation

B: Early access; early CPR; early defibrillation; early advanced care

What is the most common complication of a head injury? A: Subdural bleed B: Epidural bleed C: Cerebral edema D: Retrograde amnesia

B: Epidural bleed

Definitive signs of death include the following except: A: Dependent lividity B: Exposed brain tissue C: Rigor mortis D: Decapitation

B: Exposed brain tissue

Because a considerable amount of lung tissue may not be functioning, what is mandatory care for a patient with pulmonary embolism? A: Obtaining vital sign every two minutes B: Giving supplemental oxygen C: Inhaler dose administered ASAP D: Paramedics called to the scene to draw stat blood

B: Giving supplemental oxygen

The federal specifications that cover basic ambulance design are known as: A: USDOT / NHTSA curricula. B: KKK - A - 1822C, 1990. C: 29 CFR 1910 standards. D: Guidelines 2000 for ECC.

B: KKK - A - 1822C, 1990.

Diverticulitis occurs in which quadrant? A: Left upper quadrant B: Left lower quadrant C: Right upper quadrant D: Right lower quadrant

B: Left lower quadrant

An aortic aneurysm will occur in which area of the body? A: Low back and both left quadrants B: Low back and lower quadrants C: Upper back and lower quadrants D: Upper back and upper quadrants

B: Low back and lower quadrants

What is the most posterior portion of the cranium? A: Foramen magnum B: Occiput C: Frontal bone D: Parietal bone

B: Occiput

Because of supine hypotensive syndrome, a pregnant patient should be placed in what position when a backboard is not necessary? A: On her right side B: On her left side C: On her back with head up D: On her back with feet up

B: On her left side

What is the bony socket that holds the eye in place called? A: Globe B: Orbit C: Conjunctiva D: Zygomatic bone

B: Orbit

The tracing made by the cardiac monitor of the electrical conduction can be described by the alphabet chain: A: A-B-C-D-E. B: P-Q-R-S-T. C: O-P-Q-R-S-T. D: AEIOU-TIPS.

B: P-Q-R-S-T

When splinting a hip fracture what should the EMT-B apply between the patient's legs? A: Ice B: Pad C: A rigid board D: Heat

B: Pad

You are working on a night shift on an ambulance and arrive on the scene of an assault at a residence. The house is dark and the front screen door has been knocked off its hinges. No law enforcement is on scene yet and the street is quiet. Which of the following is your best course of action? A: Get out of the ambulance and approach the house, calling out, "EMS—we're here to help." B: Park your ambulance several houses away and wait for the police. C: Take your equipment and quietly head up to the house. D: Pull the ambulance onto the front lawn to get it as close as possible to use for shelter.

B: Park your ambulance several houses away and wait for the police.

__________ is the exchange of air in the lung tissue. A: Ventilation B: Respiration C: Carbon dioxide D: Oxygen

B: Respiration

What does "R" in the acronym RICES stand for? A: Reassure B: Rest C: Reassess D: Raise

B: Rest

What is the correct term for the white of the eye? A: Conjunctiva B: Sclera C: Cornea D: Globe

B: Sclera

The main intrinsic pacemaker site in the heart's conduction system is the: A: Purkinje system. B: Sinoatrial node. C: AV node. D: cardiac sinus.

B: Sinoatrial node.

What equipment for personal safety at an extrication scene is required for the EMT-B? A: Full firefighter-style turnout gear B: The equipment necessary will depend on the situation C: Disposable examination gloves, during direct patient contact D: Leather gloves over exam gloves, helmets with face shields, and heavy coats

B: The equipment necessary will depend on the situation

During a transport to the hospital, you should give the following information in a radio report except: A: The physical findings of your exam B: The patient's race and insurance status C: The result of any treatment you have given D: Your ambulance level and type of service

B: The patient's race and insurance status

What is the soft tissue landmark used in determining the four quadrants of the abdomen? A: Pubic symphysis B: Umbilicus C: Iliac crest D: Costal arch

B: Umbilicus

Heart attack has three serious consequences, which of the following is not one of the three? A: Sudden death B: Ventricular arrhythmia C: Cardiogenic shock D: Congestive heart failure

B: Ventricular arrhythmia

A number of factors will affect how a person deals with a cold or hot environment. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding age? A: Small infants have poor thermoregulation at birth and do not have the ability to shiver and generate heat. B: Young children dehydrate quicker and need stimulants to counteract their dehydration C: Poor circulation contributes to increased heat loss and gain in either environment D: Medications taken by older persons can also affect their bodies' thermostats, putting them at higher risk for hot or cold problems.

B: Young children dehydrate quicker and need stimulants to counteract their dehydration

When a patient has one pupil larger than the other the EMT-B should suspect: A: an impaled object. B: a head injury. C: a blowout fracture. D: nothing.

B: a head injury.

When setting up a 12-Lead ECG, the white, green, black, and red electrodes are placed as they would be for the 3 or 4 lead ECG, with additional electrodes placed: A: along the lowest rib, from the xiphoid to the midclavicular line. B: along the 4th or 5th rib space from just right of the sternum to under the left arm. C: across the chest from the right armpit to the left armpit, along the top of the 5th rib. D: along the 4th or 5th rib space from just left of the sternum to under the right arm.

B: along the 4th or 5th rib space from just right of the sternum to under the left arm.

A(n) _______ bleed will be characterized as bright red and spurting. A: venous B: arterial C: capillary D: hemorrhagic

B: arterial

Often, a patient may have experienced a warning prior to the seizure event. The warning is referred to as a/an: A: febrile seizure. B: aura. C: absence seizure. D: pre-seizure or grand mal seizure.

B: aura.

What controls the body's vital organs? A: somatic nervous system B: autonomic nervous system C: the brain D: sensory nerves

B: autonomic nervous system

Bruising behind the ear is known as _________, and it is considered a later sign of a head injury. A: raccoon eyes B: battle's sign C: ecchymosis D: turner's sign

B: battle's sign

Assisting with the IV set up requires the EMT to: A: insert a disposable catheter using venipuncture techniques. B: be familiar with how to assemble the IV equipment. C: choose the size and type of catheter to be used. D: contact medical control for authorization.

B: be familiar with how to assemble the IV equipment.

During the baseline vital sign check, the last vital sign to go is: A: respiratory function. B: blood pressure. C: unconsciousness. D: pulse rate.

B: blood pressure.

Sulfur mustard, CX and Lewisite are common forms of vesicants that are intended to cause: A: the body's organs to become over stimulated and burn out resulting in cardiac arrest. B: burn-like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract. C: damage to lung tissues and result in severe pulmonary edema. D: sudden death by affecting the body's ability to use oxygen.

B: burn-like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract.

The three stages of the body's reaction to stress (general adaptation syndrome) do not include: A: the alarm response. B: burnout. C: reaction and resistance. D: recovery or exhaustion.

B: burnout.

The primary level the brain stem uses to control respirations is the level of: A: oxygen in the blood stream. B: carbon dioxide in the blood stream. C: nitrogen in the blood stream. D: all of the above.

B: carbon dioxide in the blood stream

In determining legal negligence, the following four elements must be present: duty, breach of duty, damages and: A: abandonment. B: cause. C: neglect. D: consent.

B: cause.

If you are en route with a conscious adult patient who is having chest pain and becomes unconscious, the first step is to: A: check respirations. B: check for a pulse. C: stop the vehicle immediately. D: get medical control permission to use the AED.

B: check for a pulse.

A _________ fracture is a fracture where the bones are broken in more than two fragments. A: greenstick B: comminuted C: pathologic D: epiphyseal

B: comminuted

When an adult patient quickly loses approximately 20% of his or her circulating blood volume, the patient?s blood pressure will: A: increase. B: decrease. C: remain the same. D: cause kidney damage.

B: decrease.

Although depression can create behavioral problems in geriatric patients, another cause of abnormal behavior is: A: low blood pressure. B: dementia. C: high blood glucose. D: attitude.

B: dementia.

Damage to the spinal cord that produces neurogenic shock will cause the blood vessels to: A: constrict. B: dilate. C: remain normal. D: collapse.

B: dilate

Using hand powered or hydraulic tools to pull or roll-up the dashboard away from a trapped occupant of a vehicle is called: A: extraction. B: disentanglement. C: tactical rescue. D: simple access.

B: disentanglement.

The process of killing pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose is called: A: cleaning. B: disinfection. C: high-level disinfection. D: sterilization.

B: disinfection.

If a mentally competent patient with a minor injury refuses transport to a hospital, you should: A: return to service immediately. B: document your assessment on a patient care report and have the patient sign a refusal form. C: contact law enforcement to have the patient arrested and taken to the hospital. D: restrain the patient and transport them to the hospital.

B: document your assessment on a patient care report and have the patient sign a refusal form.

The second most common cause of death in children is: A: child abuse. B: drowning. C: sport injuries. D: poisoning.

B: drowning.

Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing is known as: A: acute pulmonary edema. B: dyspnea. C: lower airway infection. D: congestive heart failure.

B: dyspnea.

Any action on the part of geriatric individual's family, caregiver, or other associated person to take advantage of the individual's person, property, or emotional state is called: A: dependent abuse. B: elder abuse. C: personal abuse. D: provider abuse.

B: elder abuse.

"Simple access" may be described as: A: the rapid removal of a patient who is not entrapped. B: entry to the patient without the use of tools or force. C: the removal of the entrapped patient using special tools and equipment. D: the removal of the wrecked motor vehicle from around the patient.

B: entry to the patient without the use of tools or force.

An incomplete or untidy patient care report may be viewed by a court as: A: acceptable if you work for a busy service. B: evidence of incompetence by the author. C: understandable if you are a volunteer. D: excusable if it only happens rarely.

B: evidence of incompetence by the author.

During decompensated shock, the blood pressures will: A: rise. B: fall. C: stay normal. D: none of the above.

B: fall.

Problems leading to cardiopulmonary arrest in children include: A: coronary artery disease, heart attack, and elevated cholesterol. B: foreign body obstruction, respiratory infection, and electrocution. C: congestive heart failure, diseased heart valves, and dysrhythmia. D: acute myocardial infarction, stroke, and kidney failure.

B: foreign body obstruction, respiratory infection, and electrocution.

A ________ burn extends through all the layers of the skin and the patient may have no feeling to the burned area. A: partial-thickness B: full-thickness C: superficial D: second-degree

B: full-thickness

Schizophrenia and depression are good examples of: A: organic brain disorders. B: functional disorders. C: dysfunctional disorders. D: d. disorders that are ignored by the EMT-B and handled only by police.

B: functional disorders.

The leading causes of death in the geriatric patient include: A: vehicle crashes and burns. B: heart disease and stroke. C: poisoning and substance abuse. D: measles and chicken pox.

B: heart disease and stroke.

A patient that almost always has an altered or decreased level of consciousness, usually is suffering from: A: hyperglycemia. B: hypoglycemia. C: hypertension. D: hyperactivity.

B: hypoglycemia.

Once the infant is born, the umbilical cord is of no further use to the mother or infant. Post delivery care of the umbilical cord is important because: A: the tissue of the cord is very tough and must be cut quickly. B: infection is easily transmitted through the cord to the baby. C: a moot situation, it is of no further value. D: it will quickly detach itself from the placenta.

B: infection is easily transmitted through the cord to the baby

The aspect of natural ventilation that involves the diaphragm contracting and the chest wall expanding is: A: metabolism. B: inhalation. C: exhalation. D: airway expansion.

B: inhalation.

If you arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving a truck with a black and white diamond-shaped label stating "corrosive" that is leaking a fluid, you should: A: slowly walk around the vehicles, looking for more leaks. B: keep a safe distance from the scene and notify dispatch of a hazardous material. C: quickly but carefully run to the cab of the truck to check for patients. D: begin treating any patients.

B: keep a safe distance from the scene and notify dispatch of a hazardous material.

The "cushion of safety" is: A: the padding on cabinet corners and other sharp objects in the patient compartment. B: keeping a 4- or 5-second spacing between the ambulance and other vehicles. C: the soft material used in equipment bags to protect oxygen tanks and regulators. D: a device used to surround and protect the seizure patient from further injury.

B: keeping a 4- or 5-second spacing between the ambulance and other vehicles.

While performing a log roll of a patient, you should kneel as close to the patient as possible and: A: reach using your arms to their maximum extension. B: lean forward at your hips, keeping your back straight. C: pull the patient with one arm and push with the other. D: lift straight up using your thigh muscles.

B: lean forward at your hips, keeping your back straight.

Any call that involves three or more patients, or poses a great demand on the available resources is considered a/an: A: disaster event. B: mass-casualty incident. C: casualty collection area. D: incident command system.

B: mass-casualty incident.

When evaluating the _________, you will consider the energy forces that have acted upon the body. A: index of suspicion B: mechanism of injury C: potential energy D: injury pattern

B: mechanism of injury

Of the two primary sizes IV administration drip sets are supplied in, the one that is ideal for pediatric patients and medication administration is the: A: macrodrip set. B: microdrip set. C: blood tubing. D: trauma tubing.

B: microdrip set.

Eating certain foods, such as shell fish or nuts, may result in a relatively slow reaction that still can be quite severe. That relatively slow reaction time is: A: more than 15 minutes. B: more than 30 minutes. C: more than 45 minutes. D: more than 60 minutes.

B: more than 30 minutes.

Opioids are medications with actions similar to: A: atropine ( Jimson weed). B: morphine. C: nerve gas. D: cocaine.

B: morphine.

When a rigid splint is in use, the EMT-B should apply _______ to the splint to prevent local pressure and discomfort. A: ice B: padding C: heat D: traction

B: padding

At the scene of a hazardous materials incident, anyone who enters into the hazard zone must: A: approach from the downwind side. B: pass through a decontamination area. C: be evaluated in the triage and treatment area. D: be transported to a hospital for overnight evaluation.

B: pass through a decontamination area.

When blood or fluid collect inside the sac around the heart it is called: A: myocardial contusion. B: pericardial tamponade. C: hemothorax. D: tension pneumothorax.

B: pericardial tamponade

During a SAMPLE history, the "P" stands for: A: position of comfort. B: pertinent past history. C: provocation. D: penicillin.

B: pertinent past history.

A complication of IV therapy at the IV site that the EMT should recognize is the inflammation of the vein. This is called: A: infiltration. B: phlebitis. C: occlusion. D: hematoma.

B: phlebitis.

A common source of confusion, vomiting, or even unconsciousness, especially in toddlers, is: A: infection. B: poisoning. C: near drowning. D: sport injury.

B: poisoning.

Emergency management of the child in seizure includes: A: physically restraining the arms and legs until the seizure ends. B: preventing injury by clearing away close objects and focusing on the ABC's. C: placing several taped tongue blades between the teeth to prevent biting. D: placing ice packs at the nape of the neck and armpits to rapidly cool the patient.

B: preventing injury by clearing away close objects and focusing on the ABC's.

The blood vessel that returns to the heart with oxygen-rich blood is the: A: pulmonary artery. B: pulmonary vein. C: vena Cava. D: aorta.

B: pulmonary vein

An ambulance operator may use emergency lights and sirens when: A: requested to do so by the 9-1-1 caller, as relayed by the dispatcher. B: responding to a true emergency, with due regard for the safety of others. C: returning to the ambulance base, to quickly return to service. D: responding to a scheduled transfer from a skilled care facility or hospital.

B: responding to a true emergency, with due regard for the safety of others.

A patient who is developing early stages of hypoxia may exhibit: A: cyanosis. B: restlessness. C: a weak pulse. D: a pulse oximetry reading below 80%.

B: restlessness

In assessing a nonthreatening patient in a behavioral emergency, it can be useful to gather information ( choose best way): A: with parents, relatives, or caregivers present. B: separately from parents, relatives, or caregivers. C: in a quiet area, with someone known to the patient present. D: immediately upon arrival of police at the scene, with someone known to the patient present.

B: separately from parents, relatives, or caregivers.

Remember, the presence of hypoperfusion or respiratory distress indicates that the patient is having a severe enough allergic reaction to lead to death. Hypoperfusion is: A: stridor. B: shock. C: pallor. D: nostril flaring.

B: shock.

The "street" name for crack cocaine, amphetamine, methamphetamine is: A: coke. B: speed. C: ecstacy. D: meth.

B: speed

When ligaments are torn or stretched it is called a: A: strain. B: sprain. C: dislocation. D: fracture.

B: sprain.

Another common name for envenomation is: A: hives. B: sting. C: snake bite. D: wheezing.

B: sting.

Sudden unconsciousness in the older patient from standing too quickly, bearing down for a bowel movement, diabetic shock, or heart attack is called: A: sepsis. B: syncope. C: stroke. D: seizure.

B: syncope.

When treating a patient with a venous bleed on the forearm, your first step would be to: A: apply direct pressure. B: take personal protection. C: use a pressure point. D: apply a tourniquet.

B: take personal protection.

The T in "DCAP-BTLS" stands for: A: tingling. B: tenderness. C: tightness. D: turgor.

B: tenderness.

After you insert an ETC you note your initial ventilation attempts fail to cause chest rise indicating: A: the device is properly placed but the BVM needs to be squeezed more forcefully. B: the ETC is in the trachea and you need to ventilate through the shorter, clear tube. C: the ETC is in the esophagus and you should continue to ventilate through the blue tube. D: the device is inserted too deeply and should be slowly pulled back until chest rise is noted.

B: the ETC is in the trachea and you need to ventilate through the shorter, clear tube.

Before providing transport of an older patient from a skilled care facility or nursing home, the EMT-B should obtain: A: several complete sets of vital signs. B: the chief complaint and why the patient is admitted. C: an official copy of the do not resuscitate order. D: a complete copy of the patient's entire medical record.

B: the chief complaint and why the patient is admitted.

Children between the age of one and three years of age are considered to be: A: infants. B: todlers. C: preschoolers. D: adolescents.

B: todlers.

The process if sorting patients based in the severity of injury and medical need to establish treatment and transport decisions is known as: A: coding. B: triage. C: sampling. D: tagging.

B: triage.

The most common complications of ET insertion are detected by: A: the patient vomiting. B: unequal or absent breath sounds. C: color change on the ETCO2 device. D: the absence of gurgling sounds over the epigastrium.

B: unequal or absent breath sounds.

When it is necessary to move a stable patient with a suspected spinal injury from a seated position to a supine position, the best method is to: A: have the patient stand up and then lie down onto the backboard. B: use a vest-type short immobilization device. C: use rapid extrication onto a backboard. D: use a stair chair.

B: use a vest-type short immobilization device.

Properly performed suctioning of a patient may still cause: A: hypoxia. B: vomiting. C: gastric distention. D: aspiration.

B: vomiting.

When responding to a victim in a trench, the EMT should: A: park next to the trench and tie a rope to the bumper for safety before entry into the trench. B: wait for personnel trained in trench rescue to bring the patient to the ambulance. C: immediately attempt to remove the patient as long as the trench is at least 4 ft. deep. D: call for heavy construction equipment to dig the trench wider before entry.

B: wait for personnel trained in trench rescue to bring the patient to the ambulance.

Regarding characteristics of diabetic emergencies, the skin condition of a patient with hyperglycemia will be: A: pale and dry. B: warm and dry. C: pale and moist. D: hot and moist.

B: warm and dry.

It is important to establish your patients baseline status, in other words their usual condition and: A: precise vital signs while the patient is seated. B: what is different. C: pertinent past history. D: find out if the are suffering sleep deprivation.

B: what is different.

Time of onset is critical because it helps determine: A: how long the problem has existed. B: whether the patient is a candidate for treatment with clot dissolving drugs. C: whether the patient is a candidate for Tylenol or acetaminophen. D: if the patient should receive up to three sprays of nitroglycerine.

B: whether the patient is a candidate for treatment with clot dissolving drugs.

The electrode that is placed on the patient's chest near the right shoulder is: A: black. B: white. C: red. D: green.

B: white.

A patient at a large scale incident who has stable vital signs with multiple suspected fractures would be triaged as: A: red. B: yellow. C: green. D: black.

B: yellow.

If the patient's condition is stable and no life threats exist, vital signs should be obtained at least every: A: 5 minutes. B: 10 minutes. C: 15 minutes. D: 20 minutes.

C: 15 minutes

In dealing with a car vs. pedestrian collision, put in correct order the steps in evaluating the mechanism of injury: 1. Was victim pulled under vehicle or thrown clear? 2. Speed of vehicle 3. Apparent injuries 4. Damage to the vehicle A: 1, 3, 2 and 4 B: 3, 2, 4 and 1 C: 2, 1, 4 and 3 D: 4, 3, 1 and 2

C: 2, 1, 4 and 3

How many lobes does the right lung have? A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4

C: 3

At one time or another, one in how many Americans has some type of mental disorder? A: 3 B: 4 C: 5 D: 10

C: 5

How many major bones are in the face? A: 4 B: 5 C: 6 D: 8

C: 6

At what systolic blood pressure should you recognize that an adult patient is in decompensated shock? A: 80 mm Hg B: 70 mm Hg C: 90 mm Hg D: 100 mm Hg

C: 90 mm Hg

Mild hypothermia will occur at which one of the following? A: 89 to 92 degrees B: 80 to 88 degrees C: 90 to 95 degrees D: Below 80 degrees

C: 90 to 95 degrees

When transporting a premature infant, keep the temperature of the vehicle (ambulance) at what temperature? A: 80 to 85 degrees B: 85 to 90 degrees C: 90 to 95 degrees D: 95 degrees or higher

C: 90 to 95 degrees

In the most severe cases how much blood can a hematoma hold? A: A pint B: A quart C: A liter D: A gallon

C: A liter

What type of dressing should you apply to an open chest wound? A: Gauze B: Dry sterile dressing C: An occlusive dressing D: A wet dressing

C: An occlusive dressing

The basic supplies carried on the ambulance should be: A: adequate to provide care to more than one patient at a time. B: available in adult, child, and infant sizes. C: Both A and B are correct. D: Neither A nor B is correct

C: Both A and B are correct.

What is the sixth important general step in administering medication? A: Verify the form, dose, and route of medication. B: Verify the proper medication and prescription. C: Document. D: Reassess the vital signs.

C: Document.

The rate and amount of heat loss or gain by the body can be modified in three ways. Which of the following is NOT one of those three ways? A: Increase or decrease heat production B: Move to an area where heat loss is decreased or increased C: Drink lots of hot drinks ( hot chocolate, tea, coffee, etc.) D: Wear insulated clothing, which helps to decrease heat loss in several ways

C: Drink lots of hot drinks ( hot chocolate, tea, coffee, etc.)

What is the correct term for an abdominal cavity wound with organs protruding? A: Laceration B: Amputation C: Evisceration D: Incision

C: Evisceration

What type of splint should the EMT-B use when dealing with a broken femur? A: Rigid B: Air C: Hare traction D: Vacuum

C: Hare traction

Which of the following is not true regarding ways to help reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) deaths? A: Early access B: Increased number of laypeople trained in CPR C: Having nitroglycerine available for laypeople and EMTs to give on arrival D: Public access defibrillation

C: Having nitroglycerine available for laypeople and EMTs to give on arrival

Which of the following is the most common serious illness caused by heat? A: Heat cramps B: Heatstroke C: Heat exhaustion or heat prostration D: Heat hypoevaporation

C: Heat exhaustion or heat prostration

A ________ is a smooth, sharp cut in the skin. A: Laceration B: Avulsion C: Incision D: Abrasion

C: Incision

When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway, it is important to do all the following except: A: Measure the size from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. B: Ensure that the bevel faces the septum when inserting into the right nare. C: Insert with a constant rotating motion. D: Lubricate the airway with a water-based lubricant.

C: Insert with a constant rotating motion.

The diaphragm fulfills all of the following functions except: A: It divides the abdomen from the thorax. B: It contracts to allow air to be drawn into the lungs. C: It provides a palpable division between body cavities. D: It forces air out during relaxation.

C: It provides a palpable division between body cavities.

Which of the following is not a type of muscle found in the body? A: Cardiac B: Skeletal C: Joint D: Smooth

C: Joint

Which organ in the urinary system is a solid organ? A: Ureter B: Bladder C: Kidney D: Urethra

C: Kidney

Diabetics often suffer from medical complications, which one of the following is not an expected complication? A: Cardiovascular disease B: Ulcers or infections of the feet and toes C: Large/oversized arteries D: Visual disturbances

C: Large/oversized arteries

The _________ collision is one of the most deadly collisions associated with motor vehicle crashes. A: Rear-end B: Frontal C: Lateral D: Interior

C: Lateral

After BSI what should the EMT-B do to control epistaxis? A: Apply direct pressure B: Keep patient calm C: Lean the patient forward D: Apply ice on the nose

C: Lean the patient forward

Which of the following organs is not a hollow organ? A: Bladder B: Intestine C: Liver D: Ureter

C: Liver

The central nervous system is divided into three areas. Which of the following areas is not included in those three? A: Cerebrum B: Brain stem C: Meninges D: Cerebellum

C: Meninges

The EMT-B uses Newton?s Laws in understanding energy transmission. Which law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction? A: Newton?s first law B: Newton?s second law C: Newton?s third law D: Newton?s fourth law

C: Newton?s third law

When administering or assisting in the administration of medication, it is imperative that you follow five steps. The first step is: A: Check the expiration date and condition of the medication. B: Verify that you are giving the proper medication. C: Obtain an order from medical direction. D: Verify the form, dose, and route of the medication.

C: Obtain an order from medical direction.

If you do not have a pediatric backboard, how should you stabilize a child on a regular backboard? A: Do not use a regular backboard B: Pad the entire body C: Pad the shoulders D: Elevate only the feet on the backboard

C: Pad the shoulders

What is the most common sign or symptom of internal bleeding? A: Tachycardia B: Hypovolemia C: Pain D: Dyspnea

C: Pain

Compliance with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) generally has the following effect: A: Protected heath information can be shared EMS providers for training. B: Follow-up with hospitals regarding patient care has become easier. C: Protected health information may be shared with those directly providing patient care. D: All of the above.

C: Protected health information may be shared with those directly providing patient care.

The drawbacks to the use of cellular telephones for EMS include: A: Low cost infrastructure B: Limited versatility C: Risk of system overload in emergencies D: All of the above

C: Risk of system overload in emergencies

When you are communicating with a patient, appropriate behaviors include: A: Using nicknames such as "Honey" or "dear" B: Standing over the patient so they have to look up C: Telling the truth, even if it is "I don't know" D: Using medical terminology to explain the situation

C: Telling the truth, even if it is "I don't know"

When assessing a patient, you may observe signs including the following except: A: The patient has a swollen ankle. B: The patient's forehead has beads of sweat. C: The patient complains of pain in the ankle. D: The patient has a pulse in his foot.

C: The patient complains of pain in the ankle.

Why is the year 1966 usually referred to as the beginning of the modern era of EMS? A: It was the year the first EMT textbook was published. B: It was the year the term "paramedic" was first used. C: The report "Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society" was published. D: The first "van ambulance" was manufactured.

C: The report "Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society" was published.

Respiratory failure is distinguished from respiratory distress by: A: the patient refusing to sit upright, preferring to lie flat. B: the heart rate returning to normal and skin color improving. C: a decreased level of consciousness and developing cyanosis. D: respiration rates between 20 to 30 breaths/min indicating an increase in hypoxia.

C: a decreased level of consciousness and developing cyanosis.

When dealing with the death of a child, the EMT-B should: A: attempt to joke with the family regarding the circumstances. B: tell the family that child is going to "make it." C: acknowledge to the family that the child is dead. D: not tell the family anything until a clergy member is present.

C: acknowledge to the family that the child is dead.

Emergency Medical Dispatch has been developed to: A: provide an exact location of the caller using GPS. B: see what is going on at the scene. C: allow dispatchers to provide instructions to the caller until EMS arrives. D: all of the above.

C: allow dispatchers to provide instructions to the caller until EMS arrives.

Specific legal documents that direct relatives and care providers about the extent of treatment that may be given for patients who cannot speak for themselves is known as: A: a standard operating procedure. B: online medical direction. C: an advance directive. D: a will.

C: an advance directive.

Identified as a prehospital standard of care, every ambulance should be equipped with: A: a securable box containing emergency cardiac drugs. B: heavy rescue equipment such as the Jaws of Life C: an automated external defibrillator. D: high-angle rope harnesses and gear.

C: an automated external defibrillator.

The term "geriatric" refers to patients who: A: have senile dementia. B: are morbidly obese. C: are older than 65 years old of age. D: reside in convalescent homes.

C: are older than 65 years old of age.

The diastolic pressure is a measurement of the pressure in the: A: veins caused by relaxation of the heart. B: lungs during an exhalation. C: arteries during relaxation of the heart. D: arteries during contraction of the heart.

C: arteries during relaxation of the heart.

During your assessment of the patient's breath sounds, you should: A: tap the chest wall to hear an echo. B: auscultate the chest the ventral wall. C: auscultate the chest from the dorsal wall. D: ask them to exhale forcefully so you can listen.

C: auscultate the chest from the dorsal wall.

Assisting the advanced life support team with cardiac monitoring requires the EMT to: A: be able to correctly interpret complex dysrhythmias. B: administer manual defibrillation countershocks. C: be familiar with electrode placement and basic ECGs. D: fully understand cardiac cell action potential.

C: be familiar with electrode placement and basic ECGs.

The three basic causes for shock are poor pump function, _______, and blood vessels dilating. A: pulmonary edema B: allergic reaction C: blood or fluid loss D: emotional response

C: blood or fluid loss

The EMT-B should expose the patient who has penetrating trauma to look for: A: an entrance wound. B: an exit wound. C: both an entrance and exit wound. D: cavitation.

C: both an entrance and exit wound.

After BSI precautions, the first step in taking care of a patient covered in dry chemical is to: A: flush with water. B: leave the chemical alone and transport. C: brush it off. D: cover with a sterile dressing.

C: brush it off.

Essentially poisons get into the patients body by inhalation, injection, ingestion, and: A: through the ears and eyes. B: on the tongue. C: by absorption. D: by dilution.

C: by absorption.

An alert and cooperative patient with trouble breathing needs to be carried to the ambulance from the second floor of a house. The most appropriate method is to: A: assist the patient in walking down the stairs. B: use the wheeled ambulance stretcher from the second floor. C: carry the patient using a stair chair. D: place the patient on a backboard and carry them down.

C: carry the patient using a stair chair.

The cardiovascular system contains all of the following EXCEPT: A: blood vessels. B: blood and body fluids. C: cerebrospinal fluid. D: the heart.

C: cerebrospinal fluid.

Considerations in immobilization of a small child with a suspected head and neck injury include: A: children are less likely to experience cervical trauma than adults. B: children should always be removed from child restraint seats for transport. C: children should be secured to a backboard with padding under the shoulders. D: children should be secured to a backboard, head before torso, to minimize panic.

C: children should be secured to a backboard with padding under the shoulders.

An unmonitored IV administration can lead to a systemic complication that presents with shortness of breath, jugular venous distention, increased blood pressure, and often crackles and peripheral edema. This is known as: A: air embolus. B: catheter shear. C: circulatory overload. D: anaphylaxis.

C: circulatory overload.

The following are all indications for applying the PASG EXCEPT: A: control of massive soft-tissue bleeding in the lower extremities. B: control of internal bleeding associated with pelvic fractures. C: control of massive bleeding in a pregnant woman. D: stabilize fractures of the pelvis and femurs.

C: control of massive bleeding in a pregnant woman

The brain controls the body through the endocrine system by: A: sending electrical impulses to the body. B: inhibiting the absorption of oxygen. C: controlling the release of hormones. D: stimulating the release of enzymes.

C: controlling the release of hormones.

When dealing with an evisceration, the EMT-B should: A: replace protruding organs. B: cover the wound with a dry dressing. C: cover the wound with a wet sterile dressing. D: clean the organs and replace them in the abdominal cavity.

C: cover the wound with a wet sterile dressing.

Agents containing phosgene, chlorine, or ammonia are common forms of chemical weapons that are intended to cause: A: the body's organs to become over stimulated and burn out resulting in cardiac arrest. B: burn-like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract. C: damage to lung tissues and result in severe pulmonary edema. D: sudden death by affecting the body's ability to use oxygen.

C: damage to lung tissues and result in severe pulmonary edema.

An unconscious patient with unequally sized pupils should be assumed to have: A: diabetes. B: a rapid pulse rate. C: decreased brain function. D: an artificial eye.

C: decreased brain function

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: A: drug abuse. B: drug abuse by O.T.C. drugs and prescription drugs. C: depression. D: changing a job.

C: depression.

The basic equipment for endotrachael intubation includes a properly sized ET tube, a bendable stylet, a laryngoscope handle and: A: an end-tidal carbon dioxide detection device. B: 15 mL and 100 mL syringes. C: detachable curved and straight blades. D: a # 10 scalpel blade and handle.

C: detachable curved and straight blades

Attacks against the citizens of one's own country, such as the Oklahoma City Bombing, are acts of: A: weaponization. B: domestic violence. C: domestic terrorism. D: international terrorism.

C: domestic terrorism.

Remember the patient is in pain and is probably anxious, requiring all your skills of rapid assessment and: A: rapid transport. B: quick communication to medical control. C: emotional support. D: advanced life support care.

C: emotional support.

When working with a potentially hostile or violent patient, remove: A: all outer clothing of the patient. B: all dangerous implements in the area. C: everyone who is not needed. D: all items from the patient's pockets.

C: everyone who is not needed.

At the scene of a minor motor vehicle crash, one patient is refusing to be treated or transported by EMS. Your next step should include: A: treating the patient anyway. B: request law enforcement to place the patient under arrest. C: explain the risks of the patient's decision to the patient. D: leave the scene immediately.

C: explain the risks of the patient's decision to the patient.

The removal of a patient from a dangerous situation or position, such as removal from a wrecked vehicle is known as: A: simple access. B: tactical access. C: extrication. D: extraction.

C: extrication.

Almost every situation, medical or trauma will have some behavioral component, it is just as important to treat the behavioral problem as it is to treat the medical or traumatic problem, however ( pick best answer): A: get a good history first. B: reduce the stress of the situation first. C: focus on assessing and treating life threats. D: call immediately for law enforcement back-up.

C: focus on assessing and treating life threats.

The primary role of the EMT-B is to provide emergency care and prevent further injury to the patient, but at the extrication scene may also include: A: establishing a tactical command post. B: containment and disposal of hazardous materials. C: gaining access and disentanglement. D: traffic control and maintaining order at the scene.

C: gaining access and disentanglement.

When using a bag-valve-mask device, the key finding to observe to assure adequate ventilation is: A: three seconds between squeezing the bag and lifting the mask off the face. B: the patient's weight in kilograms. C: good chest rise and fall. D: the location of the patient's cricoid cartilage.

C: good chest rise and fall.

After taking BSI precautions, the first step in treating a patient suffering from epistaxis is to: A: apply direct pressure. B: apply ice. C: help the patient sit forward. D: transport the patient.

C: help the patient sit forward.

When there is blunt trauma to the kidney area and blood appears in the urine, this is called: A: hematoma. B: hematocrit. C: hematuria. D: hemothorax.

C: hematuria

Blood in the pleural space is called a(n): A: pneumothorax. B: flail chest. C: hemothorax. D: pericardial tamponade.

C: hemothorax

Shock is the result of __________ to the cells. A: injury B: hyperperfusion C: hypoperfusion D: homeostasis

C: hypoperfusion

When treating a finger amputation the EMT-B should put the amputated part: A: in paper bag, packed on ice. B: directly on ice. C: in a plastic bag, wrapped and laid on ice. D: none of the above.

C: in a plastic bag, wrapped and laid on ice

Contrary to the thinking of television detectives, the only other parties who are likely to have injected a patient with poison are: A: date rapists or other rapists. B: mentally ill persons. C: insects and animals. D: a killer/murderer.

C: insects and animals.

Chest pain or discomfort that is related to the heart usually stems from a condition called ischemia or: A: high blood pressure. B: insufficient red blood cells. C: insufficient oxygen. D: low blood pressure.

C: insufficient oxygen.

The goal of universal precautions is to: A: protect you from all infectious diseases. B: protect you from all hazardous materials. C: interrupt the transmission of germs. D: prevent exposure to stressful situations.

C: interrupt the transmission of germs.

If a patient is grunting with each breath and using muscles near her neck to help her breath, her breathing could be characterized as: A: normal breathing. B: quality breathing. C: labored breathing. D: tracheal breathing.

C: labored breathing.

A newer alternative airway device, originally developed for the operating room, is the: A: end tidal carbon dioxide detection device B: pharyngeotracheal lumen airway. C: laryngeal mask airway. D: tracheostomy tube.

C: laryngeal mask airway.

A bladder infection called cystitis, is more common than kidney infection, especially in women. Patients with cystitis usually have: A: back pain. B: groin pain. C: lower abdominal pain. D: upper abdominal pain.

C: lower abdominal pain.

As you approach the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you observe that the vehicle appears to have struck a telephone pole on a rural road at high speed. The windshield is cracked near the driver's seat and the hood has been bent up significantly. You have observed the: A: nature of illness. B: scene safety. C: mechanism of injury. D: history of the accident.

C: mechanism of injury.

An advance directive is a document that specifies: A: when an EMT-B should not resuscitate a patient. B: who an EMT-B should call if the patient becomes unconscious. C: medical treatments that a patient would like to withhold or receive if they become unable to make decisions. D: types of "comfort care" that an EMT-B should assist with.

C: medical treatments that a patient would like to withhold or receive if they become unable to make decisions.

An inflammation of the layers of tissue around the brain and spinal cord is known as: A: neoplasm. B: infarction. C: meningitis. D: epilepsy.

C: meningitis

Abduction is defined as: A: bending of a joint. B: straightening of a body part. C: motion away from the midline. D: motion toward the midline.

C: motion away from the midline.

With the use of an AED, when an error occurs it is usually the operator's fault. The most common error is: A: not turning the AED on. B: not removing the AED from its case. C: not having a charged battery. D: not having cords that are long enough.

C: not having a charged battery.

At the scene of a truck or train tanker accident, if the EMT can see a placard or other warning sign, he should: A: establish a tactical command post. B: attempt containment and disposal of the hazardous materials. C: note the color, wording, symbols, and numbers to report to the HazMat team. D: move close enough to read the sign with the naked eye.

C: note the color, wording, symbols, and numbers to report to the HazMat team.

A complication of IV therapy at the IV site that the EMT should recognize is the physical blockage of a vein or catheter. This is called: A: infiltration. B: phlebitis. C: occlusion. D: hematoma.

C: occlusion.

The ongoing assessment is necessary with all geriatric patients because: A: older patients are more forgetful of the results of assessments done more than 5 minutes apart. B: older patients are less likely to provide meaningful information during the initial assessment. C: older patients are unable to compensate for loss of blood and oxygenation. D: older patients are more likely to be discovered to be a victim of abuse through frequent reassessments.

C: older patients are unable to compensate for loss of blood and oxygenation.

A large percentage of ambulance calls will involve: A: emergency childbirth. B: gunshot wounds. C: older people. D: building collapse.

C: older people.

When administering nitroglycerin, each spray is equivalent to: A: one-half a dose. B: one and one-half doses. C: one tablet. D: two tablets.

C: one tablet.

The type of medical control where a physician may either confirm or modify a proposed treatment plan over the radio or telephone is referred to as: A: offline or indirect medical control. B: retrospective Medical control. C: online or direct medical control. D: implied medical control.

C: online or direct medical control.

For the conscious patient in insulin shock, protocols usually recommend: A: assisting the patient to take his/her insulin. B: administering low-sugar or sugar free drinks, never alcohol. C: oral glucose. D: any type of juice that is free of sugar

C: oral glucose

Scenes involving hazardous materials require the EMT to: A: rush quickly in and out of the "danger zone" to evacuate the patient. B: identify the exact materials that are present. C: park at a safe distance and await a special HazMat team. D: change into full firefighter turnout gear and SCBA.

C: park at a safe distance and await a special HazMat team.

If you suspect that a patient has a communicable disease, you may: A: refuse to treat them. B: delay treating them while you wait to learn the seriousness of the condition. C: pause to don appropriate personal protective equipment. D: none of the above.

C: pause to don appropriate personal protective equipment.

This route of medication delivery is frequently used with children: A: inhalation B: sublingual (SL) C: per rectum (PR) D: per os (OS)

C: per rectum (PR)

To slow bleeding, you can massage the mother's abdomen in a firm, circular motion after the baby is delivered, stimulating the uterus to contract. You can also: A: administer two tablespoons of oxytoxin , if the mother has it available. B: raise the upper half of the mother's body. C: place the infant on the mother's breast to nurse. D: place one or two sanitary napkins into the vagina, approximately four inches

C: place the infant on the mother's breast to nurse.

In geriatric patients you should consider a headache as: A: normal, the brain naturally deteriorates with aging. B: a neurologic emergency requiring rapid transport. C: potentially serious. D: a sign of blood pressure problems, most like very high.

C: potentially serious.

The ________ is the center of the iris, which allows light into the back of the eye. A: lens B: retina C: pupil D: optic nerve

C: pupil

The electrode that is placed on the patient's side near the lowest left rib is: A: black. B: white. C: red. D: green.

C: red.

An unruptured amniotic sac may contain a foul smelling greenish color fluid. This information must be: A: included in your narrative report only. B: given to the parents to pass along to their pediatrician. C: relayed in your report to medical control. D: ignored, this is normal in 50% of births.

C: relayed in your report to medical control

Using the AVPU scale, a patient who responds by groaning when you pinch his ear is: A: awake and alert. B: responsive to verbal stimuli. C: responsive to pain. D: unresponsive.

C: responsive to pain.

The _____________________ is commonly defined by state law and outlines the care that an EMT-B may provide. A: standard of care B: duty to act C: scope of practice D: Good Samaritan law

C: scope of practice

When performing a lift of a patient on a carrying device, your feet should be: A: heels touching. B: heel to toe. C: shoulder width apart. D: about six inches apart.

C: shoulder width apart.

Once the advanced life support provider has inserted the catheter in place and the IV is flowing properly, the site must be secured with: A: tape wrapped tightly all the way around the extremity. B: the venous constricting band tied in a tight knot. C: small strips of tape or a Tegaderm® sheet D: roller gauze or elastic bandage.

C: small strips of tape or a Tegaderm® sheet

All of the following are common signs and symptoms of allergic reactions related to the circulatory system, except: A: decrease in blood pressure. B: increase in pulse rate (initially). C: sneezing, itchy runny nose ( initially). D: loss of consciousness and coma.

C: sneezing, itchy runny nose ( initially).

Anytime there are injuries to the face or head the EMT-B should suspect: A: respiratory arrest. B: respiratory failure. C: spinal injuries. D: a decreased level of consciousness.

C: spinal injuries.

Data regarding patient care information is recorded using a: A: standard national form. B: secure website administered by NHTSA. C: state or local form based on national data points. D: special EMS handheld device

C: state or local form based on national data points.

A general rule for establishing a safe zone to protect team members and the public is: A: keep everyone downhill of the accident site until a HazMat team arrives. B: keep everyone downwind of the accident until a HazMat team arrives. C: stay back further than you think is necessary until a HazMat team arrives. D: only the EPA or a HazMat team are able to determine the safe zone.

C: stay back further than you think is necessary until a HazMat team arrives.

While at the scene of a cardiac arrest, the AED from the ambulance is unable to be used because the defibrillation pads are not made for that unit and will not plug in to the AED. The individual with the greatest liability in this case is: A: the last EMT-B to use the unit. B: the ambulance company management. C: the EMT-B who last checked the unit's readiness. D: the supplier of the AED replacement defibrillator pads.

C: the EMT-B who last checked the unit's readiness.

Remember, the sensation of not getting enough air can be terrifying, regardless of its cause. As an EMT-B , you should be prepared to treat not just the symptoms and the underlying problem, but also: A: vomiting it produces. B: bronchitis lapses it produces. C: the anxiety it produces. D: severe headache that accompanies it.

C: the anxiety it produces.

Rapid extrication technique should be used to remove a single patient from a car when: A: the patient is alert and talking, but bleeding from the forehead. B: the patient is complaining of trouble breathing and is intoxicated. C: the patient is unresponsive with snoring respirations. D: all of the above.

C: the patient is unresponsive with snoring respirations.

Base station radios differ from mobile radios and portable radios in that they: A: are able to utilize multiple frequencies. B: the operator must be in close proximity to the antenna. C: the radio is located in a fixed location. D: they generally broadcast with less than 100 watts of power.

C: the radio is located in a fixed location.

Dehydration can present a serious problem to the infant or small child and should be suspected if: A: the child has produced frequent wet diapers. B: the child has unexplained, tearful crying. C: the skin is loose and has no elasticity. D: the child has excessive saliva or drooling.

C: the skin is loose and has no elasticity.

An altered mental status may be caused by all of the following, except: A: intoxication. B: poisoning. C: vomiting. D: head injury.

C: vomiting.

One of the simplest and most effective ways to control disease transmission is to: A: wear latex gloves on all EMS calls. B: wear a HEPA mask during long transports. C: wash your hands after every call. D: recap a dirty needle after it is used.

C: wash your hands after every call.

The general impression of the patient should be formed: A: after the vital signs are taken. B: during the SAMPLE history. C: while observing the patient during your approach and initial conversation. D: based on the dispatch information.

C: while observing the patient during your approach and initial conversation.

The DHS Advisory Systems identifies a current terror threat level of significant risk with the color: A: red. B: orange. C: yellow. D: blue.

C: yellow.

How many vertebrae are in the thoracic region of the spinal cord? A: 5 B: 7 C: 4 D: 12

D: 12

How long should the EMT-B irrigate a burn to the eye caused by a strong acid or alkali? A: 5 minutes B: 10 minutes C: 15 minutes D: 20 minutes

D: 20 minutes

Normal blood glucose level is 80 to 120 mg/dL. What level of glucose causes excess glucose to be excreted by the kidney? A: 140 mg/dL B: 150 mg/dL C: 175 mg/dL D: 200 mg/dL

D: 200 mg/dL

Petit mal seizure typically occurs in children from: A: 3-5 years old. B: 2-4 years old. C: 4-7 years old. D: 4-12 years old.

D: 4-12 years old.

The fetus develops inside a fluid-filled, bag-like membrane called the amniotic sac or bag of waters, and contains: A: 200-250 mL of fluid. B: 250-359 mL of fluid. C: 350-500 mL of fluid. D: 500-1,000 mL of fluid.

D: 500-1,000 mL of fluid.

When forming a general impression of the patient during the initial assessment, which important "scale" information should be included? A: PAT scale B: Rule of nines scale C: SARS scale D: AVPU scale

D: AVPU scale

At what age do young children have the ability to shiver and generate heat? A: Ages 4 months to 6 months B: Ages 6 months to 8 months C: Ages 8 months to 12 months D: Ages 12 months to 18 months

D: Ages 12 months to 18 months

During a rollover, which of the following can cause life-threatening injuries to a passenger? A: Ejection or partial ejection B: Car striking several objects during the rollover C: Unrestrained objects inside the car D: All of the above

D: All of the above

What should the EMT-B assess on a patient with a gunshot wound? A: Type of gun used B: Entrance and exit wound C: How many rounds were fired D: All of the above

D: All of the above

What should the EMT-B use to stabilize a flail chest? A: A small pillow B: A towel C: A large bulky dressing D: All of the above

D: All of the above

When an eyeball has been displaced from its socket what should the EMT-B do? A: Cover the eye B: Stabilize the eye C: Cover both eyes D: All of the above

D: All of the above

When the EMT-B encounters a probable fracture, what should be assessed below the injury? A: Pulse and capillary refill B: Sensation and motor function C: None of the above D: Both a and b

D: Both a and b

You should always do at least three neurologic tests on patients you suspect of having a stroke, which of the following is not correct? A: Test their speech B: Test facial movement C: Test arm movement D: Check blood sugar if a glucose meter is available

D: Check blood sugar if a glucose meter is available

This is one of the most addicting drugs known: A: MXDA B: Valium C: Nembutal D: Cocaine

D: Cocaine

EMS providers who can perform advanced cardiac life support skills, may use a manual defibrillator, and are trained for 800 to 1,500 hours are called: A: first responders. B: EMT-Basics. C: EMT-Intermediates. D: EMT-Paramedics.

D: EMT-Paramedics.

_________ is the coughing up of blood. A: Dyspnea B: Tachypnea C: Hematoma D: Hemoptysis

D: Hemoptysis

What should you suspect from a patient that has just fallen from a significant height? A: Decreased level of consciousness B: Deformities C: No injuries D: Internal injuries

D: Internal injuries

What is meant by the term "polypharmacy"? A: It describes the use of several drug stores to fill the same prescription. B: It describes taking a prescription and over-the-counter medication for the same condition. C: It describes attempted suicide by taking a specific combination of drugs. D: It describes the use of multiple prescription drugs by the same patient.

D: It describes the use of multiple prescription drugs by the same patient.

When you suspect a head or spinal injury, how would you open the airway? A: Head tilt B: Chin lift C: Do not open the airway D: Jaw thrust

D: Jaw thrust

The term "power lift" refers to lifting a patient using your ____________ as the primary muscles to move. CORRECT 0A: Shoulder 0B: Upper back 0C: Arms XD: Legs

D: Legs

Which one of the following is not a risk factor to assess level of danger? A: Posture B: Physical activity C: The scene D: Nervous gestures.

D: Nervous gestures.

Which of the following medications is prescribed for chest pain and is often given sublingually (SL) as a spray or a tablet? A: Activated charcoal B: Oral glucose C: Epinephrine D: Nitroglycerin

D: Nitroglycerin

What is the first step listed to help a patient self-administer medication from an inhaler? A: Check the expiration date of the inhaler B: Stop administering supplemental oxygen C: Shake inhaler vigorously before using D: Obtain an order from medical control or local protocol

D: Obtain an order from medical control or local protocol

Which of the following would not be a proper intervention for a respiratory problem? A: Positive pressure ventilations B: Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position. C: Positioning the patient in a position of comfort D: Oxygen via non-breathing mask at 24 or higher L/min

D: Oxygen via non-breathing mask at 24 or higher L/min

How should the EMT-B take care of a dislocated shoulder? A: Lift the arm straight out and splint it in place B: Put the arm in a sling C: Tie the arm against the chest with a triangle bandage D: Pad between the arm and the chest and sling the arm

D: Pad between the arm and the chest and sling the arm

During a frontal impact collision, there are three collisions that take place. What is the second collision? A: Car vs. object B: Airbag vs. car C: Passengers? organs vs. solid structures of the body D: Passengers vs. interior of car

D: Passengers vs. interior of car

The cranial nerves are a part of which nervous system? A: Connective nervous system B: Central nervous system C: Motor nervous system D: Peripheral nervous system

D: Peripheral nervous system

Use OPQRST to ask the patient what makes the pain better or worse. The "S" stands for: A: how Sick the patient feels. B: Sudden onset of pain. C: Secondary survey questions. D: Severity of pain, 1-10 scale.

D: Severity of pain, 1-10 scale.

What organ is responsible for temperature regulation in the body? A: Liver B: Heart C: Sweat glands D: Skin

D: Skin

Differences in anatomy between adults and children that influence treatment decisions, include: A: The proportionately larger diameter airway of the child is less easily obstructed by secretions. B: The proportionately larger tongue of the child is less likely to cause obstruction. C: The epiglottis is larger in the child than adult and is more likely to prevent aspiration. D: The child's occiput is larger and rounder than an adult, requiring careful positioning.

D: The child's occiput is larger and rounder than an adult, requiring careful positioning.

What actions are necessary to protect the patient during auto extrication operations? A: Ventilations should be provided by use of self contained breathing apparatus B: The patient should wear the same protective clothing as the rescuer C: Cover the patient with disposable, paper cot sheets D: Use heavy blankets and backboards as a shield

D: Use heavy blankets and backboards as a shield

Which medication can have potentially fatal interactions with nitroglycerin? A: Nitrgolygerin B: Alprazolam C: Albuterol D: Viagra

D: Viagra

The dispatcher transmits the following information to your unit " Ambulance 5, please respond to 350 South Union Street for the medical call. Police are also responding, time out 0612." What additional information is most important to ask for? A: How old is the patient? B: What sex is the patient? C: What is the wind direction and speed? D: What is the nature of the illness?

D: What is the nature of the illness?

5: Signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock seen in the skin are: A: urticaria and flushing. B: edema of the face, tongue and lips. C: itching and burning. D: all of the above.

D: all of the above.

A pulse oximeter may provide an inaccurate reading if the patient has been exposed to: A: cold weather. B: carbon monoxide. C: cyanide gas. D: all of the above.

D: all of the above.

Deviation from the established standard of care may: A: result in Civil Prosecution. B: bring sanctions from state regulatory agencies. C: cause criminal charges to be filed. D: all of the above.

D: all of the above.

The "power grip" is preferred when lifting a patient on a rigid carrying device because: A: the palm and fingers are stronger than fingers alone. B: you will be able to "curl" the device should it need to go higher. C: it will be easier to operate release handles on the underside of the device. D: all of the above.

D: all of the above.

The portion of the thorax that is anterior and midline is referred to as the: A: manubrium. B: xiphoid process. C: sternum. D: all of the above.

D: all of the above.

When you are required to carry a patient weighing greater than 300 lb down stairs to an ambulance, steps you should take to ensure safety include: A: requesting additional assistance to make the carry. B: checking the stairs for structural soundness and obstruction. C: confirming that your patient carrying device can handle the weight. D: all of the above.

D: all of the above.

The PAT or pediatric assessment triangle is a structured assessment tool to rapidly determine the child's condition using: A: muscle tone, facial grimace, and activity. B: respiratory rate, pulse, and capillary refill. C: patient weight, height or body length, and age. D: appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin.

D: appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin.

Laryngoscope assembly requires that the: A: blade is forced onto the locking bar of the handle at a 90-degree angle. B: batteries be removed during blade attachment to prevent burning out the lightbulb. C: locking bar be removed from the handle prior to blade attachment. D: blade be attached to the locking bar with the blade parallel to the handle.

D: blade be attached to the locking bar with the blade parallel to the handle.

Managing problems related to diabetes and altered mental status poses very little risk to you. You must do all the following, except: A: use gloves. B: wash your hands carefully. C: follow BSI precautions. D: check mouth, tongue, and inside cheeks for any bleeding.

D: check mouth, tongue, and inside cheeks for any bleeding

While delivering assisted ventilations to an elderly patient with a bag-valve-mask device attached to oxygen you note a pulse oximetry reading of only 85%, you should: A: consider this a normal sign and continue ventilation using the same technique. B: consider this a normal sign but have your patient apply cricoid pressure anyway. C: consider this an abnormal sign but continue ventilation using the same technique D: consider this an abnormal sign and begin preparations for endotracheal intubation.

D: consider this an abnormal sign and begin preparations for endotracheal intubation.

Poisons that come in contact with the surface of the body can affect the patient in many ways, therefore, it is important to distinguish between contact absorption and: A: contact rashes. B: contact hydrocarbons ( petroleum). C: contact dermatitis. D: contact burns.

D: contact burns.

According to Dr. Kubler-Ross, the stage of the grieving process identified by the open expression of grief, hopelessness, and the desire to die is: A: denial. B: acceptance. C: bargaining. D: depression.

D: depression.

Determining the chief complaint in the older medical patient is: A: easier than in younger patients because they keep good personal medical files. B: easier than in younger adults because they visit their family physician more often. C: difficult, compared to younger patients, because they have a fear of being left at home. D: difficult, compared to other patients, because their symptoms may be vague or atypical.

D: difficult, compared to other patients, because their symptoms may be vague or atypical

The process by which carbon dioxide moves from a high concentration in the capillaries to the lower concentration in alveoli is: A: ventilation. B: hypoxia. C: wicking. D: diffusion.

D: diffusion

Tablets and capsules are typically taken by mouth and enter the bloodstream through the: A: bone marrow. B: endocrine system. C: lungs. D: digestive system.

D: digestive system.

When you suspect an internal injury to the abdomen, you should always: A: take cervical and spinal precautions. B: treat for shock. C: administer high-flow oxygen. D: do all of the above.

D: do all of the above.

Prior to turning a copy of your PCR in to the hospital, you discover that you made an error in recording a treatment. Your most appropriate next step should be: A: rip up the original and rewrite the form. B: turn the PCR into the hospital with the mistake still on it. C: black out the original information completely with a pen. D: draw a single line through the error and place your initials next to it.

D: draw a single line through the error and place your initials next to it

A large piece of avulsed skin on the scalp should be covered with a(n): A: occlusive dressing. B: wet dressing. C: dry dressing. D: dry sterile dressing.

D: dry sterile dressing.

During your focused physical exam, you find that the patient has good pulse in his feet, but has trouble moving them or feeling your touch. You should: A: ask the patient if he can take a few steps, while you hold his arm. B: bend his knees to see if the sensation improves. C: place the patient on oxygen. D: ensure that proper spinal immobilization steps have been taken.

D: ensure that proper spinal immobilization steps have been taken.

At violent situations, EMS personnel should: A: assume that parties will not try to harm EMS providers. B: enter the scene as soon as law enforcement arrives. C: trust that bystanders will protect them from possible harm. D: enter the scene only when law enforcement indicates it is safe.

D: enter the scene only when law enforcement indicates it is safe.

During the focused physical exam, the first step listed to the assess the abdomen is: A: palpate all four quadrants. B: determine if the patient has a history of acute abdomen. C: determine whether the abdomen is tender when palpated. D: explain to the patient what you are about to do.

D: explain to the patient what you are about to do.

A _________ is any break in the bone surface. A: dislocation B: sprain C: strain D: fracture

D: fracture

The most common complication of the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device is: A: pneumothorax. B: hypoventilation. C: cricoid pressure. D: gastric distention.

D: gastric distention

During your initial assessment, you observe that the patient can only answer questions in two- to three-word sentences. Based on this finding, you should: A: apply a pulse oximeter to see if he is having trouble breathing. B: place him in a supine position and begin to give them artificial respirations. C: give him oxygen at 6 L/min by nasal cannula. D: give him oxygen at 15 L/min by nonrebreathing mask.

D: give him oxygen at 15 L/min by nonrebreathing mask.

The electrode that is placed on the patient's side near the lowest right rib is: A: black. B: white. C: red. D: green.

D: green.

A complication of IV therapy at the IV site that the EMT should recognize is a collection of blood in the tissues surrounding the catheter. This is called: A: infiltration. B: phlebitis. C: occlusion. D: hematoma.

D: hematoma

A Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) system is designed to: A: identify medical mistakes and punish those who commit them. B: identify new trends in medical care and implement them. C: identify EMS providers who have to recertify. D: identify areas of improvement and appropriate education to help fix them.

D: identify areas of improvement and appropriate education to help fix them.

When obtaining a SAMPLE history of the patient and OPQRST, be sure to ask: A: if family is available to assist. B: where patient's prescriptions and OTC medications are kept. C: what the normal baseline is. D: if and what interventions were taken before you arrived.

D: if and what interventions were taken before you arrived.

Examination of the airway, breathing, and circulation of a geriatric patient to form a general impression of distress and make a transport decision are important phases of the: A: focused history and physical exam. B: scene size-up. C: ongoing assessment. D: initial assessment.

D: initial assessment.

If the diabetic patient has taken insulin but has not eaten, the problem is more likely to be: A: diabetic coma. B: suffering from insulin coma. C: diabetes mellitus. D: insulin shock.

D: insulin shock

A benefit of using a multilumen (ETC) airway in the unconscious patient is that: A: it does not require the use of a syringe. B: it is available in one size that fits all patients. C: O2 supply tubing is directly attached so a BVM is unnecessary. D: it is inserted blindly, requires little additional equipment, and minimal skill to maintain.

D: it is inserted blindly, requires little additional equipment, and minimal skill to maintain.

Strategies that EMT-Bs may use to positively manage the stress of the job include the following except: A: sustaining friends and interests outside of EMS. B: regular physical activity. C: eating a balanced diet of carbohydrates, protein, and limited fats. D: learning how to hold your stress reaction inside.

D: learning how to hold your stress reaction inside.

The chamber of the heart that is most muscular is the: A: right atrium. B: right ventricle. C: left atrium. D: left ventricle.

D: left ventricle.

Bruising of the upper right quadrant might lead the EMT-B to suspect an internal injury to the: A: stomach. B: bladder. C: spine. D: liver.

D: liver.

When communicating with the older patient, you should adjust your interviewing techniques by: A: addressing the patient as "Honey," "Dearie," "Gramps," or "Gram." B: raising your voice and shouting so you can be sure you are heard. C: using medical terms and jargon, as older people are familiar with them. D: maintaining eye contact, while speaking slowly and distinctly.

D: maintaining eye contact, while speaking slowly and distinctly.

The most powerful and fastest moving form of radiation is from: A: alpha particles. B: beta radiation. C: gamma or X-rays. D: neutron energy.

D: neutron energy.

When placing an older patient with kyphosis onto a backboard, it is important to: A: allow the patient to keep their knees bent. B: use PASG to pad and immobilize the pelvis. C: first secure the patient into a vest-type device. D: pad the void behind the patient's head and neck.

D: pad the void behind the patient's head and neck.

When treating a patient with a kyphosis (curved spine) who needs spinal immobilization, you should: A: gently force their head against the backboard. B: not immobilize them because of the risk of further injury. C: place them face down on the backboard. D: pad underneath the upper back and neck with blankets and towels to immobilize them.

D: pad underneath the upper back and neck with blankets and towels to immobilize them.

The first phase of an ambulance call is: A: dispatch of the call. B: response to the scene. C: scene safety. D: preparation.

D: preparation.

Anxiety, bad news, or sight of blood can cause ________ shock. A: septic B: hypovolemic C: neurogenic D: psychogenic

D: psychogenic

The proper sequence of steps to assemble an IV administration set is: A: hang the bag, remove the protective seal from the bag, run fluid through the tubing, spike the bag. B: spike the bag, run fluid through the tubing, remove the protective seal from the bag, hang the bag. C: spike the bag, hang the bag, remove the protective seal from the bag, run fluid through the tubing. D: remove the protective seal from the bag, spike the bag, run fluid through the tubing, hang the bag.

D: remove the protective seal from the bag, spike the bag, run fluid through the tubing, hang the bag.

All patients who are severely injured are at risk for hypothermia. The first step of five steps listed to prevent further cold injury is: A: prevent conduction heat loss. B: prevent convection heat loss. C: remove the patient from the cold environment as promptly as possible. D: remove wet clothing and keep the patient dry.

D: remove wet clothing and keep the patient dry

Following your detailed physical exam for an unstable medical patient, you should begin transport, then: A: repeat the initial assessment and vital signs every 15 minutes. B: remove the oxygen to get an accurate reading for pulse oximetry. C: wait until you are arriving at the hospital to reassess. D: repeat the initial assessment and vital signs at least every 5 minutes.

D: repeat the initial assessment and vital signs at least every 5 minutes.

The termination phase of the rescue operation involves: A: investigating the cause of the crash. B: contacting management to log "hazard pay." C: moving the patient in one fast, continuous step. D: returning the emergency units and specialized equipment to service.

D: returning the emergency units and specialized equipment to service.

The first arriving EMS unit at a mass-casualty incident should utilize the incident command structure by: A: investigating the cause of the crash or reason for the incident. B: b. "freelancing" or wandering between action areas to assist as you see fit. C: the senior EMT establishing command until the incident is terminated. D: starting the triage of patients and establishing a designated treatment area.

D: starting the triage of patients and establishing a designated treatment area

If you are transporting a patient while performing CPR, before you can use an AED in the ambulance you must: A: get permission from medical control. B: turn on and check the AED. C: notify the receiving hospital that you will be using an AED. D: stop the vehicle.

D: stop the vehicle

The presence of air in the soft tissue produces a characteristic crackling sensation known as: A: emphysema. B: air embolism. C: pulmonary embolism. D: subcutaneous emphysema.

D: subcutaneous emphysema.

Metabolic agents, such as hydrogen cyanide (AC) and cyanogen chloride (CK), are intended to cause: A: the body's organs to become over stimulated and burn out resulting in cardiac arrest. B: burn-like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract. C: damage to lung tissues and result in severe pulmonary edema. D: sudden death by affecting the body's ability to use oxygen.

D: sudden death by affecting the body's ability to use oxygen.

During your assessment of a 3-month-old infant, you find a pulse rate of 170 beats/min. That rate could be described as: A: bradycardia. B: supercardia. C: normal. D: tachycardia.

D: tachycardia

The EMT-B is likely to encounter children with tracheostomy tubes, artificial ventilators, central IV lines, gastrostomy tubes, or shunts in the home environment because: A: these children have poor prognosis for survival and are sent home to die. B: home health care services and visiting nurses are often incapable of providing proper care. C: parents of these children are more likely to become panicked easily and call 9-1-1. D: technology continues to improve and health care continues to focus on decreasing hospitalizations.

D: technology continues to improve and health care continues to focus on decreasing hospitalizations

Signs and symptoms of hypothermia generally become progressively more severe as: A: shivering stops. B: the body core temperature is less than 80 degrees. C: the body core temperature stabilizes. D: the body core temperature falls.

D: the body core temperature falls.

The second phase of a coordinated continuum of care is: A: the patient receives assessment and stabilization in the hospital emergency department. B: the patient receives the necessary definitive specialized care. C: the patient recognizes an emergency and initiates the EMS system. D: the patient is assessed, treated, packaged, and transported to the hospital.

D: the patient is assessed, treated, packaged, and transported to the hospital.

Children may have experienced a serious injury even though there may be little or no outward signs such as fractured ribs, bleeding, or contusions, because: A: their bodies can absorb energy better than an adult's. B: their organs are closer to the surface than an adult's. C: their organs contain more blood vessels than an adult's. D: their bodies can compensate better for significant blood loss.

D: their bodies can compensate better for significant blood loss.

Do not be distracted by the seriousness of the situation or by frightened family members who want you to rush. Look first for: A: pulselessness. B: slurred speech. C: seizures or related trauma. D: threats to your safety.

D: threats to your safety.

When bleeding will not stop the last resort is to apply a(n): A: PASG. B: air splint. C: pressure. D: tourniquet.

D: tourniquet

When you are called to assist a patient who is uncooperative and verbally abusive, you should: A: treat the patient in a similar manner to gain control of the situation. B: leave the scene and go back in service. C: threaten the patient with force if they don't calm down D: treat the patient with respect and call for law enforcement assistance.

D: treat the patient with respect and call for law enforcement assistance.

A spontaneous pneumothorax is caused by: A: blunt trauma. B: respiratory distress. C: blood in the lungs. D: weak areas of the lungs.

D: weak areas of the lungs.

When using the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, an EMT-B: A: must use a stethoscope. B: has to feel the brachial pulse when releasing the pressure in the cuff. C: should apply the blood pressure cuff upside down. D: will not be able to obtain a diastolic reading.

D: will not be able to obtain a diastolic reading.

Injection of medications such as penicillin may cause an immediate and severe reaction. Immediate is described as: A: within one minute. B: within five minutes. C: within 15 minutes. D: within 30 minutes.

D: within 30 minutes.

The difference in attempting to clear a foreign body from the airway in the adult, child, and infant is: A: you perform blind finger sweeps in the infant, but not in the adult. B: you perform back blows in children and infants, but not in the adult. C: you perform two initial breaths in the adult, but only one in children and infants. D: you perform abdominal thrusts in adults and children, but back slaps and chest thrusts in infants.

D: you perform abdominal thrusts in adults and children, but back slaps and chest thrusts in infants.