EMT - ALL Questions (Chapter 16-41)

Which of the following questions should you ask if you suspect a patient may have congestive heart failure? "How many hours of sleep do you get each night?" "In what position do you normally sleep?" "How many pillows do you sleep on?" "Do you take any medication to help you sleep at night?"

"How many pillows do you sleep on?" The need to sleep on several pillows suggests early congestive heart failure.

Which of the following is true about the use of activated charcoal in treating poisoning? - The usual adult dose is 15 to 30 g. - Before you give a patient charcoal, you must obtain approval from medical control. - If the patient has a decreased LOC and cannot protect his or her airway, do not give activated charcoal. - The adverse effects of ingesting activated charcoal include diarrhea and bloody stools.

- Before you give a patient charcoal, you must obtain approval from medical control. - If the patient has a decreased LOC and cannot protect his or her airway, do not give activated charcoal. Correct. You should contact medical control and you should not give activated charcoal to patients with altered LOC.

You are assessing a patient reporting pain in the lower left quadrant of his abdomen. Rearrange the quadrants into the correct sequence in which they should be palpated. Upper left Lower left Lower right Upper right

- Lower Right - Upper Right - Upper Left - Lower Left You should palpate in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is tender or painful, ending with the quadrant the patient indicates is tender or painful.

Pediatric Pulse Rate

0-3 Months: 85-205 3-24 Months: 100-190 2-10 Years: 60-140 10 and up: 60-100

Ricin

A neurotoxin derived from mash that is left from the castor bean; causes pulmonary edema and respiratory and circulatory failure leading to death.

JumpSTART triage

A sorting system for pediatric patients younger than 8 years or weighing less than 100 lb (45kg). There is a minor adaptation for infants since they cannot ambulate on their own.

special weapons and tactics team (SWAT)

A specialized law enforcement tactical unit.

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. Select one: A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45%

18%

pediatrics

A specialized medical practice devoted to the care of the young.

ambulance

A specialized vehicle for treating and transporting sick and injured patients.

sling

A bandage or material that helps to support the weight of an injured upper extremity.

swathe

A bandage that passes around the chest to secure an injured arm to the chest.

Which of the following is a normal change in pregnancy? Decreases in blood volume Tightening of joints Increased respiratory rates and decreased minute volumes Blood clotting decreases

A normal change in a pregnant woman is increased respiratory rates and decreased minute volumes.

Nerve Agents

A class of chemical called organophosphates; they function by blocking an essential enzyme in the nervous system, which causes the body's organs to become overstimulated and burn out.

hyperthermia

A condition in which the body core temperature rises to 101°F (38.3°C) or more.

hypoperfusion

A condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called shock.

Dissecting Aneurysm

A condition in which the inner layers of an artery, such as the aorta, become separated, allowing blood (at high pressures) to flow between the layers.

placenta previa

A condition in which the placenta develops over and covers the cervix.

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

A condition in which the sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach opens, allowing stomach acid to move up into the esophagus, usually resulting in a burning sensation within the chest; also called acid reflux.

flail chest

A condition in which three or more ribs are fractured in two or more places or in association with a fracture of the sternum so that a segment of the chest wall is effectively detached from the rest of the thoracic cage.

acute abdomen

A condition of sudden onset of pain within the abdomen, usually indicating peritonitis; immediate medical or surgical treatment is necessary.

pulmonary embolism

A condition that causes a sudden blockage of the pulmonary artery by a venous clot.

hemophilia

A congenital abnormality in which the body is unable to produce clots, which results in uncontrollable bleeding.

optic nerve

A cranial nerve that transmits visual information to the brain.

flutter valve

A one-way valve that allows air to leave the chest cavity but not return; formed by taping three sides of an occlusive dressing to the chest wall, leaving the fourth side open as a valve; may also be part of a commercial vented occlusive dressing

decompression sickness

A painful condition seen in divers who ascend too quickly, in which gas, especially nitrogen, forms bubbles in blood vessels and other tissues; also called "the bends."

Keeping a safe distance between your vehicle and the one in front of you, checking for tailgaters behind your ambulance, and being aware of objects in your mirror's blind spots are considered maintaining what? A buffer zone Open space A cushion of safety An evasion area

A cushion of safety Keeping a safe distance between your vehicle and the one in front of you, checking for tailgaters behind your ambulance, and being aware of objects in your mirror's blind spots are considered maintaining a cushion of safety.

laceration

A deep, jagged cut in the skin.

posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A delayed stress reaction that develops after a horrifying ordeal that involved physical harm or the threat of physical harm

breech presentation

A delivery in which the buttocks come out first.

vertex presentation

A delivery in which the head of the newborn comes out first.

limb presentation

A delivery in which the presenting part is a single arm or leg.

acidosis

A pathologic condition that results from the accumulation of acids in the body.

spina bifida

A development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord or meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area.

mechanical piston device

A device that depresses the sternum via a compressed gas-powered plunger mounted on a backboard.

CPR board

A device that provides a firm surface under the patient's torso.

pelvic binder

A device to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain.

Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)

An agency that assists emergency responders in identifying and handling hazardous materials transport incidents.

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: A) is in shock B) has an ectopic pregnancy C) has an infection D) is pregnant

A) is in shock ch 23 patient assessment pg 835

Anthrax

A disease caused by deadly bacteria (Bacillus anthracis) that lay dormant in a spore (protective shell); the germ is released from the spore when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture. The routes of entry are inhalation, cutaneous, and gastrointestinal (from consuming food that contains spores).

What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child? 5 seconds 10 seconds 15 seconds 20 seconds

10 seconds As with an adult, assessing for spontaneous breathing should take no longer than 10 seconds.

What are the recommended dimensions for a landing zone for a medivac helicopter? 60 x 60 feet 80 x 80 feet 100 x 100 feet 150 x 150 feet

100 x 100 feet The recommended size of the site for the landing zone is 100 x 100 feet.

When performing CPR on an adult, you should compress the chest to what depth and at what a rate of compressions per minute? 1 to 1.4 inches (2.5 to 3.5 cm); 80 to 100 compressions per minute 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm); 80 to 100 compressions per minute 1 to 1.4 inches (2.5 to 3.5 cm); 100 to 120 compressions per minute 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm); 100 to 120 compressions per minute

2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm); 100 to 120 compressions per minute

Arteriosclerosis

A disease that causes the arteries to thicken, harden, and calcify.

A disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is known as what? Dislocation Fracture Sprain Strain

A dislocation is a disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact.

epilepsy

A disorder in which abnormal electrical discharges occur in the brain, causing seizure and possible loss of consciousness.

Atherosclerosis

A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of blood vessels, eventually leading to partial or complete blockage of blood flow.

Atherosclerosis

A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of the blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow.

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

A disorder in which the heart loses part of its ability to effectively pump blood, usually as a result of damage to the heart muscle and usually resulting in a backup of fluid into the lungs.

functional disorder

A disorder in which there is no known physiologic reason for the abnormal functioning of an organ or organ system.

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

A disorder of the brain in which brain cells temporarily stop working because of insufficient oxygen, causing stroke-like symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours of onset.

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) pain exacerbated by breathing B) SOB or dyspnea C) sudden unexplained sweating D) irregular heartbeat

A) pain exacerbated by breathing Ch 16 pathophysiology pg 638-6639

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: Select one: A. is wrapped around the baby's neck. B. has separated from the placenta. C. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

A. is wrapped around the baby's neck.

When a light is shone into the pupil: Select one: A. it should become smaller in size. B. the opposite pupil should dilate. C. both pupils should dilate together. D. it should become larger in size.

A. it should become smaller in size.

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: Select one: A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities. C. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. D. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control.

A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: A. the four-person log roll. B. the use of a scoop stretcher. C. the direct patient carry. D. the clothes drag.

A. the four-person log roll.

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. deformed steering wheel B. intrathoracic hemorrhage C. caved-in passenger door D. collapsed dashboard

A. deformed steering wheel ch. 24 blunt trauma, pg 851

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: Select one: A. diaphragm. B. aorta. C. stomach. D. spleen.

A. diaphragm.

START triage

A patient sorting process that stands for Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment and uses a limited assessment of the patient's ability to walk, respiratory status, hemodynamic status, and neurologic status.

Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)

A preliminary action guide for first responders operating at a hazardous materials incident in coordination with the US Department of Transportation's labels and placards marking system. Jointly developed by the DOT, the Secretariat of Communications and Transportation of Mexico, and Transport Canada.

vascular access

A procedure that gains access to a patient's circulatory system in order to inject or remove fluids, medicines, or blood products. Vascular access is usually obtained through an intravenous catheter placed in a vein, but sometimes through a needle or catheter placed in an artery or a needle placed into bone.

Sterilization

A process, such as heating, that removes microbial contamination.

Phosgene

A pulmonary agent that is a product of combustion, such as might be produced in a fire at a textile factory or house or from metalwork or burning Freon. Phosgene is a very potent agent that has a delayed onset of symptoms, usually hours.

wheal

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin resulting from an insect bite or allergic reaction.

Tachycardia

A rapid heart rate, more than 100 beats/min.

Ventricular Tachycardia

A rapid heart rhythm in which the electrical impulse begins in the ventricle (instead of the atrium), which may result in inadequate blood flow and eventually deteriorate into cardiac arrest.

Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)

A rapidly fatal condition in which the walls of the aorta in the abdomen weaken and blood leaks into the layers of the vessel, causing it to bulge.

technical rescue situation

A rescue that requires special technical skills and equipment in one of many specialized rescue areas, such as technical rope rescue, cave rescue, and dive rescue.

syncope

A fainting spell or transient loss of consciousness often caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain.

Syncope

A fainting spell or transient loss of consciousness.

A simple pneumothorax: Select one: A. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. B. is caused by penetrating chest trauma. C. often has a nontraumatic cause. D. heals on its own without any treatment.

A. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: Select one: A. the overlying skin is no longer intact. B. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. C. a large laceration overlies the fracture. D. bone ends protrude through the skin.

A. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

cold zone

A safe area at a hazardous materials incident for the agencies involved in the operations. The incident commander, the command post, EMS providers, and other support functions necessary to control the incident should be located in the cold zone. Also referred to as the clean zone or the support zone.

open fracture

Any break in a bone in which the overlying skin has been broken/damaged.

closed fracture

Any break in a bone in which the overlying skin is not broken.

trauma score

A score calculated from 1 to 16, with 16 being the best possible score. It relates to the likelihood of patient survival with the exception of a severe head injury. It takes into account the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, respiratory rate, respiratory expansion, systolic blood pressure, and capillary refill.

Apgar score

A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of five areas of assessment.

In general, what is the maximum amount of acute blood loss the adult body can tolerate? 10% of total blood volume 20% of total blood volume 2 liters 12 pints

20% of total blood volume The adult body cannot tolerate an acute blood loss of greater than 20% of its total blood volume, or more than 2 pints (1 liter).

When working around undeployed air bags after a vehicle crash, you should maintain at least a ________ clearance between yourself and the passenger-side airbag. 5-inch 10-inch 15-inch 20-inch

20-inch Correct. You should leave at least a 20-inch (51-cm) clearance around a passenger-side airbag.

Revised Trauma Score (RTS)

A scoring system used for patients with head trauma.

secondary device

A secondary explosive used by terrorists, set to explode after the initial bomb.

partial (focal) seizure

A seizure affecting a limited portion of the brain.

Generalized (tonic-clonic; grand mal) seizure

A seizure characterized by severe twitching of all the body's muscles that may last several minutes or more; formerly known as grand mal seizure

generalized tonic-clonic seizure

A seizure that features rhythmic back-and-forth motion of an extremity and body stiffness.

aura

A sensation experienced before a seizure; serves as a warning sign that a seizure is about to occur.

excited delirium

A serious behavioral condition in which a person exhibits agitated behavior combined with disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions; also called agitated delirium or exhaustive mania.

antivenin

A serum that counteracts the effect of venom from an animal or insect.

Crew Resource Management (CRM)

A set of procedures for use in environments where human error can have disastrous consequences. It empowers people within a team to communicate effectively with one another with a goal of improving team situational awareness, patient and crew safety, and overall communication.

delirium tremens (DTs)

A severe withdrawal syndrome seen in alcoholics who are deprived of ethyl alcohol; characterized by restlessness, fever, sweating, disorientation, agitation, and seizures; can be fatal if untreated.

Gonorrhea

A sexually transmitted disease caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Chlamydia

A sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.

incision

A sharp, smooth cut in the skin.

recovery position

A side-lying position used to maintain a clear airway in unconscious patients without injuries who are breathing adequately and do not have suspected injuries to the spine, hips or pelvis.

nondisplaced fracture

A simple crack in the bone that has not caused the bone to move from its normal anatomic position; also called a hairline fracture.

hymenoptera

A family of insects that includes bees, wasps, ants, and yellow jackets.

You are assessing a 6-year-old boy who has a fever of 102 and is showing signs of altered LOC. He is complaining of pain when he tries to turn his head. What condition should you suspect? Anaphylactic shock Febrile seizure Meningitis Spinal cord injury

A fever and pain in the neck are signs of meningitis.

structure fire

A fire in a house, apartment building, office, school, plant, warehouse, or other building.

You are reassessing a patient and you find that her left pupil is dilated and fixed. What does this indicate? Decreased blood pressure Increased blood pressure Increased intracranial pressure Drug abuse

A fixed, dilated pupil indicates increased ICP.

gum elastic bougie

A flexible device that is inserted between the glottis under direct laryngoscopy; the endotracheal tube is threaded over the device, facilitating its entry into the trachea

splint

A flexible or rigid appliance used to protect and maintain the position of an injured extremity.

Neisseria meningitidis

A form of bacterial meningitis characterized by rapid onset of symptoms, often leading to shock and death.

Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

A form, provided by manufacturers and compounders (blenders) of chemicals, containing information about chemical composition, physical and chemical properties, health and safety hazards, emergency response, and waste disposal of a specific material; also known as a safety data sheet (SDS).

kyphosis

A forward curling of the back caused by an abnormal increase in the curvature of the spine.

Spiral Fx

A fracture caused by a twisting or spinning force, causing a long, spiral-shaped break in the bone. This is sometimes the result of abuse in young children.

displaced fracture

A fracture in which bone fragments are separated from one another, producing deformity in the limb.

Oblique Fx

A fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. This is usually the result of a sharp, angled blow to the bone.

Comminuted Fx

A fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments.

blow out fracture

A fracture of the orbit or of the bones that support the floor of the orbit.

Pathologic Fx

A fracture of weakened or diseased bone, seen in patients with osteoporosis, infection, or cancer; often produced by minimal force.

Incomplete Fx

A fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a nondisplaced partial crack.

Epiphyseal Fx

A fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child's bone and may lead to growth abnormalities.

Transverse Fx

A fracture that occurs straight across the bone. This is usually the result of a direct-blow injury.

acromioclavicular (AC) joint

A simple joint where the bony projections of the scapula and the clavicle meet at the top of the shoulder.

Prolapse of the umbilical cord

A situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the fetus.

hypnotic

A sleep-inducing effect or agent.

To ensure you have enough reaction time to avoid hitting a motorist who does not move over, you should drive, at minimum, how many seconds behind vehicles traveling at an average speed? 2 4 6 8

4 Always maintain a safe following distance. Use the "4-second rule": stay at least 4 seconds behind another vehicle in the same lane.

child abuse

A general term applying to all forms of child abuse and neglect of children.

What is the proper compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult two-rescuer CPR? 15:2 30:2 50:2 60:2

30:2 is the proper compression-to-ventilation ratio.

Osteoporosis

A generalized bone disease, commonly associated with postmenopausal women, in which there is a reduction in the amount of bone mass leading to fractures after minimal trauma in either sex.

Which of the following patients has the most significant chance of having a contraindication to epinephrine? A 6-year-old with significant peanut allergies An 80-year-old male with a history of acute coronary syndrome A 47-year-old female with bronchospasms A teenager with no history of allergies

A geriatric patient with a history of coronary issues is most at risk of having a bad reaction to the administration of epinephrine.

Crepitus

A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together

Crepitus

A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together; also air bubbles under the skin that produce a crackling sound or crinkly feeling.

If amniotic fluid is green, what does this signify? Premature rupture of the placenta The presence of meconium Prolonged gestation Maternal infection

A green color in amniotic fluid is an indication of the presence of meconium.

Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

A group of complex disorders of brain development, characterized by difficulties in social interaction, repetitive behaviors, and verbal and nonverbal communication.

neuropathy

A group of conditions in which the nerves leaving the spinal cord are damaged, resulting in distortion of signals to or from the brain.

viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF)

A group of diseases caused by viruses that include the Ebola, Rift Valley, and yellow fevers, among others. This group of viruses causes the blood in the body to seep out from the tissues and blood vessels.

cerebral palsy

A group of disorders characterized by poorly controlled body movement.

Acute Coronary Syndrome

A group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia; includes angina and myocardial infarction.

Bradycardia

A slow heart rate, less than 60 beats/min.

Cardiac Output

A measure of the volume of blood circulated by the heart in 1 minute, calculated by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate.

B-NICE

A memory device to recall the types of weapons of mass destruction: biologic, nuclear, incendiary, chemical, and explosive.

psychosis

A mental disorder characterized by the loss of contact with reality.

diabetes mellitus

A metabolic disorder in which the ability to metabolize carbohydrates (sugars) is impaired, usually because of a lack of insulin.

mobile integrated healthcare (MIH)

A method of delivering health care which involves providing health care within the community rather than at a physician's office or hospital.

decay

A natural process in which a material that is unstable attempts to stabilize itself by changing its structure.

DuoDote Auto-Injector

A nerve agent antidote kit containing atropine and pralidoxime chloride; delivered as a single dose through one needle.

sarin (GB)

A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; a highly volatile colorless and odorless liquid that turns from liquid to gas within seconds to minutes at room temperature.

tabun (GA)

A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; is 36 times more persistent than sarin and approximately half as lethal; has a fruity smell and is unique because the components used to manufacture the agent are easy to acquire and the agent is easy to manufacture.

Which of the following is a normal glucose level in an adult? 20 mg/dL 80 mg/dL 140 mg/dL 200 mg/dL

80 mg/dL A normal glucose level is 80- 120 mg/dL. > 70 mg/dL for neonates

injury to C6, C7 or above = injury below C5 = injury to C3 or above =

= loss of intercostal muscle contraction (active part of breathing; C6, C7 supplies intercostal muscles) = loss of intercostal muscle movement, but diaphragm still contracts (phrenic nerves C3, C4, C5 supply diaphragm) = may lose ability to breath entirely

A useful tool to determine blood pressure in children ages 1 to 10 years (lower limits) is:

70 + (2 × child's age in years) = Systolic Blood Pressure

soman (GD)

A nerve agent that is one of the G agents; twice as persistent as sarin and five times as lethal; it has a fruity odor, as a result of the type of alcohol used in the agent, and is a contact and an inhalation hazard that can enter the body through skin absorption and through the respiratory tract.

seizure

A neurologic episode caused by a surge of electrical activity in the brain; can be a convulsion characterized by generalized, uncoordinated muscular activity, and can be associated with loss of consciousness.

A jump kit contains everything you might need in the first 5 minutes with a patient, including which of the following? An AED A CPR board A BVM Long backboard

A BVM Jump kits do contain BVMs with masks for adults, children, and infants.

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

A Department of Homeland Security system designed to enable federal, state, and local governments and private-sector and nongovernmental organizations to effectively and efficiently prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity, including acts of catastrophic terrorism.

What level of trauma center provides prompt assessment, resuscitation, and stabilization of injured patients and emergency operations, but not definitive care for all patients? Level I Level II Level III Level IV

A Level III trauma center provides prompt assessment, resuscitation, and stabilization of injured patients and emergency operations.

What is the difference between a stroke and a transient ischemic attack? A TIA has longer-lasting effects than a stoke. A TIA involves surges of electrical activity in the brain. A TIA resolves completely within 24 hours of onset. A TIA affects a limited portion of the brain.

A TIA resolves completely within 24 hours of onset.

urinary tract infection (UTI)

A bacterial infection that affects the urinary tract.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

A bacterium that causes infections in different parts of the body and is often resistant to commonly used antibiotics; can be found on the skin, in surgical wounds, in the bloodstream, lungs, and urinary tract.

vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)

A bacterium that is normally present in the human intestines and the female reproductive tract, but which can cause infection and which is resistant to the antibiotic vancomycin.

Homeostasis

A balance of all systems of the body.

ligament

A band of fibrous tissue that connects bones to bones. It supports and strengthens a joint.

quaternary blast injury

A blast injury that falls into one of the following categories: burns, crush injuries, toxic inhalation, medical emergencies, or mental health disorders. Any other injury caused by a blast occurs in this way. This includes:Toxic inhalation of combustion gasesBurnsMedical emergency (like a myocardial infarction) sustained while fleeing the scene of an explosionMental health disorder that develops immediately after or days to weeks after detonation of an explosive device

Lewisite (L)

A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produces immediate, intense pain and discomfort on contact.

phosgene oxime (CX)

A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produces immediate, intense pain and discomfort on contact.

Occlusion

A blockage, usually of a tubular structure such as a blood vessel.

embolus

A blood clot or other substance in the circulatory system that travels to a blood vessel where it causes a blockage.

Thromboembolism

A blood clot that has formed within a blood vessel and is floating within the bloodstream.

thrombosis

A blood clot, either in the arterial or venous system. When the clot occurs in a cerebral artery, it may result in the interruption of cerebral blood flow and subsequent stroke.

artery

A blood vessel, consisting of three layers of tissue and smooth muscle that carries blood away from the heart.

Commotio Cordis

A blunt chest injury caused by a sudden, direct blow to the chest that occurs only during the critical portion of a person's heartbeat.

coup-contrecoup brain injury

A brain injury that occurs when force is applied to the head and energy transmission through brain tissue causes injury on the opposite side of original impact.

Eustachian tube

A branch of the internal auditory canal that connects the middle ear to the oropharynx.

contusion

A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin.

contusion

A bruise from an injury that causes bleeding beneath the skin without breaking the skin; also see ecchymosis

Ecchymosis

A buildup of blood beneath the skin that produces a characteristic blue or black discoloration as the result of an injury; also see contusion.

flame burn

A burn caused by an open flame.

contact burn

A burn caused by direct contact with a hot object.

steam burn

A burn caused by exposure to hot steam.

flash burn

A burn caused by exposure to very intense heat, such as in an explosion.

scald burn

A burn caused by hot liquids.

altered mental status

A change in the way a person thinks and behaves that may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body.

subcutaneous emphysema

A characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues.

hemostatic agent

A chemical compound that slows or stops bleeding by assisting with clot formation.

toddler

A child age 1 to 3 years.

load-distributing band (LDB)

A circumferential chest compression device composed of a constricting band and backboard that is either electrically or pneumatically driven to compress the heart by putting inward pressure on the thorax.

head tilt-chin lift maneuver

A combination of two movements to open the airway by tilting the forehead back and lifting the chin; not used for trauma patients.

single command system

A command system in which one person is in charge, generally used with small incidents that involve only one responding agency or one jurisdiction.

unified command system

A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency response or multiple jurisdictions are involved.

Schizophrenia

A complex difficult-to-identify mental disorder whose onset typically occurs during early adulthood. Sx typically become more prominent over time and include delusions, hallucinations, a lack of interest in pleasure, and erratic speech.

fetal alcohol syndrome

A condition caused by the consumption of alcohol by a pregnant woman; characterized by growth and physical problems, mental retardation, and a variety of congenital abnormalities.

gastric distention

A condition in which air fills the stomach, often as a result of high volume and pressure during artificial ventilation.

type 2 diabetes

A condition in which insulin resistance develops in response to increased blood glucose levels; can be managed by exercise and diet modification, but is often managed by medications.

hypovolemic shock

A condition in which low blood volume, due to massive internal or external bleeding or extensive loss of body water, results in inadequate perfusion.

status epilepticus

A condition in which seizures recur every few minutes or last more than 30 minutes.

position of function

A hand position in which the wrist is slightly dorsiflexed and all finger joints are moderately flexed.

stridor

A harsh, high-pitched respiratory sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway; may be audible without a stethoscope.

eyes-forward position

A head position in which the patient's eyes are looking straight ahead and the head and torso are in line.

community paramedicine

A health care model in which experienced paramedics receive advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or conditions, and patient advocacy.

Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

A heart attack; death of heart muscle following obstruction of blood flow to it. Acute in this context means "new" or "happening right now."

heat exhaustion

A heat emergency in which a significant amount of fluid and electrolyte loss occurs because of heavy sweating; also called heat prostration or heat collapse.

What is a hematoma? A characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissue A flap of skin that is separated from the underlying muscle and fascia A collection of blood within the tissues A rupture of the eye

A hematoma is a collection of blood within the tissues.

hemophilia

A hereditary condition in which the patient lacks one or more of the blood's normal clotting factors.

sickle cell disease

A hereditary disease that causes normal, round red blood cells to become oblong, or sickle shaped.

Wheezing

A high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways; occurs in asthma and bronchiolitis.

Smallpox

A highly contagious disease; it is most contagious when blisters begin to form.

respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

A highly contagious virus that causes an infection of the upper and lower respiratory system.

Insulin

A hormone produced by the islets of Langerhans (endocrine gland located throughout the pancreas) that enables glucose in the blood to enter cells; used in synthetic form to treat and control diabetes mellitus.

tactical situation

A hostage, robbery, or other situation in which armed conflict is threatened or shots have been fired and the threat of violence remains.

sprain

A joint injury involving damage to supporting ligaments, and sometimes partial or temporary dislocation of bone ends.

Ischemia

A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.

ischemia

A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow; potentially reversible because permanent injury has not yet occurred.

heat stroke

A life-threatening condition of severe hyperthermia caused by exposure to excessive natural or artificial heat, marked by warm, dry skin; severely altered mental status and often irreversible coma

open-book pelvic fracture

A life-threatening fracture of the pelvis caused by a force that displaces one or both sides of the pelvis laterally and posteriorly.

pneumonic plague

A lung infection, also known as plague pneumonia, that is the result of inhalation of plague-causing bacteria.

Which of the following is true about electrical burns? They are always more severe than the external signs indicate. They always have an entrance wound but only occasionally have an exit wound. The patient can go into cardiac arrest at any time within 24 hours of contact with electricity. Seriousness of electrical burns depends on the type of current, amperage, and conductivity.

A major danger associated with electrical burns is the amount of deep tissue damage done. Electrical burns are always more severe than the external signs indicate.

hematoma

A mass of blood that has collected within damaged tissue beneath the skin or in a body cavity.

A patient with epilepsy is likely to have which of the following medical devices? Central venous catheter LVAD Shunt Vagus nerve stimulator

A patient with epilepsy may have a vagus nerve stimulator. This device is a form of treatment used for seizures that are not controlled with antiepileptic medications.

traumatic asphyxia

A pattern of injuries seen after a severe force is applied to the chest, forcing blood from the great vessels back into the head and neck.

articular cartilage

A pearly white layer of specialized cartilage covering the articular surfaces (contact surfaces on the ends) of bones in synovial joints.

You are using JumpSTART in a triage situation involving several children. How would you rate a patient who is breathing spontaneously, has a peripheral pulse, and is appropriately responsive to painful stimuli? Green tag Yellow tag Red tag Black tag

A pediatric patient who is breathing spontaneously, has a peripheral pulse, and is appropriately responsive to painful stimuli is a yellow tag. Treatment and transport can be delayed.

secondary blast injury

A penetrating or nonpenetrating injury caused by ordnance projectiles or secondary missiles. Penetrating or nonpenetrating injury that results from being struck by flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles or secondary missiles, that has been set in motion by the explosion Objects are propelled by the force of the blast and strike the victim, causing injury.

Which of the following is true about injuries to the kidneys? Injuries are unusual because the kidneys are well protected. A penetrating wound that reaches the kidneys almost always involves other organs. An indication of kidney injury is bruising to the left upper quadrant. A sign of kidney damage is hematuria.

A penetrating wound that reaches the kidneys almost always involves other organs. A sign of kidney damage is hematuria.

sensorineural deafness

A permanent lack of hearing caused by a lesion or damage of the inner ear.

Depression

A persistent mood of sadness, despair, and discouragement; may be a symptom of many different mental and physical disorders, or it may be a disorder on its own.

spotter

A person who assists a driver in backing up an ambulance to compensate for blind spots at the back of the vehicle.

cavitation

A phenomenon in which speed causes a bullet to generate pressure waves, which cause damage distant from the bullet's path.

spontaneous pneumothorax

A pneumothorax that occurs when a weak area on the lung ruptures in the absence of major injury, allowing air to leak into the pleural space.

toxin

A poison or harmful substance produced by bacteria, animals, or plants.

toxin

A poison or harmful substance.

jump kit

A portable kit containing items that are used in the initial care of the patient.

preeclampsia

A pregnancy complication that is characterized by high blood pressure, headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy-induced hypertension or toxemia of pregnancy.

ectopic pregnancy

A pregnancy that develops outside of the uterus, typically in a fallopian tube

term gestation

A pregnancy that has reached full term, between 39 weeks and 40 weeks, 6 days.

bloody show

A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and may include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate.

Cardiogenic Shock

A state in which not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body, caused by low output of blood from the heart. It can be a severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction, as well as other conditions.

addiction

A state of overwhelming obsession or physical need to continue the use of a substance.

symptomatic hyperglycemia

A state of unconsciousness resulting from several problems, including ketoacidosis, dehydration because of excessive urination, and hyperglycemia.

Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)

A structured assessment tool that allows you to rapidly form a general impression of the infant or child without touching him or her; consists of assessing appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin.

opiate

A subset of the opioid family, referring to natural, non-synthetic opioids. Ex: codeine

Epinephrine

A substance produced by the body (commonly called adrenaline), and a drug produced by pharmaceutical companies that increases pulse rate and blood pressure; the drug of choice for an anaphylactic reaction.

sedative

A substance that decreases activity and excitement.

antidote

A substance that is used to neutralize or counteract a poison.

Mutagen

A substance that mutates, damages, and changes the structures of DNA in the body's cells.

poison

A substance whose chemical action could damage structures or impair function when introduced into the body.

delirium

A sudden change in mental status marked by the inability to focus, think logically, and maintain attention; this condition is generally acute and reversible.

colostomy

A surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) between the colon and the surface of the body.

tracheostomy

A surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) into the trachea; a stoma in the neck connects the trachea directly to the skin.

urostomy

A surgical procedure to create an opening (stoma) which connects the urinary system to the surface of the skin and allows urine to drain through the abdominal wall.

ileostomy

A surgical procedure to create an opening between the small intestine and the surface of the body.

aneurysm

A swelling or enlargement of the wall of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the vessel wall

shaken baby syndrome

A syndrome seen in abused infants and children; the patient has been subjected to violent, whiplash-type shaking injuries inflicted by the abusing individual that may cause coma, seizures, and increased intracranial pressure due to tearing of the cerebral veins with consequent bleeding into the brain.

opioid

A synthetically produced narcotic medication, drug, or agent similar to the opiate morphine, but not derived from opium; used to relieve pain. Ex: hydrocodone

Incident Command System (ICS)

A system implemented to manage disasters and mass-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander.

rule of nines

A system that assigns percentages to sections of the body, allowing calculation of the amount of skin surface involved in the burn area.

scuba gear

A system that delivers air to the mouth and lungs at various atmospheric pressures, increasing with the depth of the dive; stands for self-contained underwater breathing apparatus.

length-based resuscitation tape

A tape used to estimate an infant or child's weight on the basis of length; appropriate drug doses and equipment sizes are listed on the tape.

technical rescue group

A team of individuals from one or more departments in a region who are trained and on call for certain types of technical rescue.

apneic oxygenation

A technique in which oxygen administered via a high-flow nasal cannula is left in place during an intubation attempt, allowing for continuous oxygen delivery into the airways during all phases of the procedure.

aseptic technique

A technique that helps ensure pathogens are not introduced anywhere in the procedure through the sterilization of equipment and use of antiseptics or disinfectants; often used for fast, invasive procedures, such as starting an IV line.

active compression-decompression CPR

A technique that involves compressing the chest and then actively pulling it back up to its neutral position or beyond (decompression); may increase the amount of blood that returns to the heart, and thus, the amount of blood ejected from the heart during the compression phase.

sterile technique

A technique that involves thorough decontamination, as well as the use of sterile fields around the procedure and full-scale, sterile PPE; often used during long, highly invasive surgical procedures.

Delirium

A temporary change in mental status characterized by disorganized thoughts, inattention, memory loss, disorientation, striking changes in personality and affect, hallucinations, delusions, or a decreased level of consciousness.

Cyanide

An agent that affects the body's ability to use oxygen. It is a colorless gas that has an odor similar to almonds. The effects begin on the cellular level and are very rapidly seen at the organ and system levels.

concussion

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without actual physical damage to the brain.

Thrombophilia

A tendency toward the development of blood clots as a result of an abnormality of the system of coagulation.

Artifact

A tracing on an ECG that is the result of interference, such as patient movement, rather than the heart's electrical activity.

Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)

A traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes.

gamma (x-ray)

A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source that is far faster and stronger than alpha and beta rays. These rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration.

beta

A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source; is slightly more penetrating than alpha and requires a layer of clothing to stop it.

Alpha

A type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source; it is the least harmful penetrating type of radiation and cannot travel fast or through most objects.

secondary triage

A type of patient sorting used in the treatment sector that involves retriage of patients.

primary triage

A type of patient sorting used to rapidly categorize patients; the focus is on speed in locating all patients and determining an initial priority as their conditions warrant.

hemorrhagic stroke

A type of stroke that occurs as a result of bleeding inside the brain.

ischemic stroke

A type of stroke that occurs when blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage (eg, a blood clot) inside a blood vessel.

impedance threshold device (ITD)

A valve device placed between the endotracheal tube and a bag-mask device that limits the amount of air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions.

In which condition are you most likely to encounter a vasoocclusive crisis? Symptomatic hypoglycemia Sickle cell disease Hemophilia Thrombophilia

A vasoocclusive crisis is caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells that obstruct blood flow to a portion of the body.

sulfur mustard (H)

A vesicant; it is a brownish, yellowish oily substance that is generally considered very persistent; has the distinct smell of garlic or mustard and, when released, is quickly absorbed into the skin and/or mucous membranes and begins an irreversible process of damaging the cells. Also called mustard gas.

jugular vein distention

A visual bulging of the jugular veins in the neck that can be caused by fluid overload, pressure in the chest, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax.

Aortic Aneurysm

A weakness in the wall of the aorta that makes it susceptible to rupture.

What is a wheal? Widespread areas of generalized itching and/or burning that appear as multiple raised areas on the skin A poison or harmful substance A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin Swelling of the tongue

A wheal is a raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin, usually as a result of a bug bite.

vernix caseosa

A white, cheesy substance that covers the body of the fetus.

disaster

A widespread event that disrupts community resources and functions, in turn threatening public safety, citizens' lives, and property.

multigravida

A woman who has had previous pregnancies.

primigravida

A woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy.

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. A) 18% B) 27% C) 36% D) 45%

A) 18%

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced: A) a ruptured cerebral artery ***** B) an occluded cerebral artery C) acute hypoglycemia D) a complex partial seizure

A) a ruptured cerebral artery chapter 17 stoke pg 679

A 38-year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A) begin CPR and apply the AED. B) begin CPR and transport at once. C) assess for entry and exit wounds. D) fully immobilize his spinal column.

A) begin CPR and apply the AED.

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A) reassess his condition in 5 minutes B) repeat your secondary assessment C) take his vital signs in 15 minutes D) arrange for an ALS rendezvous

A) reassess his condition in 5 minutes Ch 12 Patient Assessment for Shock pg 499

You are triaging victims of a train derailment. Patient A has significant bleeding from an abdominal injury. Patient B has several simple fractures of the femur and ulna. Patient C is conscious and complaining of head and neck pain. Patient D is in cardiac arrest. How would you prioritize these patients? A-red; B-green; C-yellow; D-black A-yellow; B-yellow; C-green; D-red A. A-red; B-yellow; C-green; D-red A-yellow; B-green; C-green; D-yellow

A-red; B-green; C-yellow; D-black Patient A has significant bleeding from an abdominal injury and should be tagged as red. Patient B has relatively minor fractures and should be tagged as green. Patient C likely has a neck injury and should be tagged as yellow. Patient D will likely not survive and should be tagged as black.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 1 minute B. 30 seconds C. 30 minutes D. 1 hour

A. 1 minute

A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her ideal weight. Select one: A. 30% or more B. 40% or more C. 10% or more D. 20% or more

A. 30% or more

What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min? A. 5,600 mL B. 6,000 mL C. 7,400 mL D. 8,000 mL

A. 5,600 mL Ch 10 Physiology of breathing pg 394 (Tidal volume - Dead space) x Respiratory Rate = Minute Volume (aka Alveolar ventilation)

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: Select one: A. 7:57. B. 8:00. C. 7:53. D. 7:59.

A. 7:57.

The normal blood glucose level is between: Select one: A. 80 and 120 mg/dL. B. 30 and 150 mg/dL. C. 160 and 200 mg/dL. D. 60 and 80 mg/dL.

A. 80 and 120 mg/dL.

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? Select one: A. Abrasion B. Avulsion C. Incision D. Laceration

A. Abrasion

Which of the following would indicate that the endotracheal tube is NOT in the trachea? Select one: A. Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform B. Steady increase in the oxygen saturation C. Decreased resistance when ventilating D. Absence of sounds over the epigastrium

A. Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform

Which of the following conditions or factors would be the LEAST likely to result in a change in behavior? Select one: A. Antihypertensive medications B. Low blood glucose levels C. Inadequate blood flow to the brain D. Exposure to excess heat or cold

A. Antihypertensive medications

Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? Select one: A. Aortic rupture B. Pulmonary contusion C. Aortic dissection D. Myocardial contusion

A. Aortic rupture Chapter 29, page 1035, Injuries of the Chest

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min B. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min C. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? Select one: A. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. B. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. C. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. D. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity.

A. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours.

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? Select one: A. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver B. An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury C. Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution D. Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene

A. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Dependent edema B. Labored breathing C. Pulmonary edema D. Flat jugular veins

A. Dependent edema Chapter 16, page 642, Pathophysiology

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? Select one: A. Ears B. Scalp C. Back D. Soles of the feet

A. Ears

__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. Select one: A. Gamma B. Beta C. Neutron D. Alpha

A. Gamma

An abdominal aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. B. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. C. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area. D. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders.

A. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.

A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? Select one: A. He is currently not prescribed any medications B. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 C. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure D. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15

A. He is currently not prescribed any medications

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. I B. II C. IV D. III

A. I

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Local swelling and ecchymosis B. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion C. General weakness and diaphoresis D. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites

A. Local swelling and ecchymosis

A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. Mallory-Weiss tear. B. acute pancreatitis. C. esophagitis. D. esophageal varices.

A. Mallory-Weiss tear.

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? Select one: A. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. B. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. C. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. D. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets.

A. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? Select one: A. Rapid transport to a trauma center B. Early administration of oxygen C. Elevation of the lower extremities D. Intravenous fluid administration

A. Rapid transport to a trauma center

A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance B. Refuse to transport the patient because of his homicidal threat C. Request that a police officer transport him to the hospital D. Transport the patient in a prone position on the stretcher

A. Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"? Select one: A. Rohypnol B. Ketamine C. GHB D. MDMA

A. Rohypnol

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? Select one: A. Somatic B. Sensory C. Central D. Autonomic

A. Somatic

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. B. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. C. Most cells will function normally without glucose. D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.

A. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: A. The environment in which the patient is found B. The patient's family history C. The time of year in which the exposure occurred D. The patient's general physical appearance

A. The environment in which the patient is found

Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? Select one: A. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions B. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear C. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter D. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem

A. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: A. Uterus B. Vagina C. Perineum D. Cervix

A. Uterus

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. a blowout fracture. B. a ruptured eyeball. C. a lacerated globe. D. optic vessel compression.

A. a blowout fracture.

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? A. a confused 55 year old male with tachycardia and pallor B. a semiconscious 40 year old femal without a gag reflex C. a conscious 37 year old female with nausea and vomiting D. An unconscious 33 year old male with cool clammy skin

A. a confused 55 year old male with tachycardia and pallor ch 19 emergency medical care for diabetic emergencies pg 738

You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. Select one: A. a hematoma in the flank region B. nausea C. abdominal distention D. dyspnea

A. a hematoma in the flank region

At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. Select one: A. a raised, well-defined area of the skin B. a series of small, raised pustules C. an uncomfortable depression in the skin D. a large area of red, blotchy skin

A. a raised, well-defined area of the skin

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. a seizure. B. respiratory distress. C. a febrile convulsion. D. an acute stroke.

A. a seizure.

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: Select one: A. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. B. a splint and elevate the extremity. C. digital pressure to a proximal artery. D. additional sterile dressings.

A. a tourniquet proximal to the injury.

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. B. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.

A. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. B. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.

A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: Select one: A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. B. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. C. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. D. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula.

A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother.

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: A. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting. B. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm. C. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance. D. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting.

A. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting.

A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: Choose one answer. A. aggressively manage his airway. B. request a paramedic ambulance. C. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax. D. perform a secondary assessment.

A. aggressively manage his airway.

An open pneumothorax occurs when: Select one: A. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. B. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. C. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung. D. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung.

A. air enters the pleural space from outside the body.

A 62 year old man with a history of CHF presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two-to-three word sentences at a time. You should: A. apply a CPAP device, monitor his BP, and observe him for sings of improvement or deterioration B. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min C. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen

A. apply a CPAP device, monitor his BP, and observe him for sings of improvement or deterioration ch 15 treatment of specific conditions pg 615

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should: Select one: A. ask the daughter how her father normally behaves. B. advise the patient that his behavior is unacceptable. C. conclude that the patient has Alzheimer disease. D. carefully restrain the patient and transport at once.

A. ask the daughter how her father normally behaves.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. B. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door. C. break the window and unlock the door. D. request the rescue team to extricate him.

A. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: Select one: A. assess for an exit wound. B. auscultate bowel sounds. C. obtain baseline vital signs. D. apply a cervical collar.

A. assess for an exit wound.

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: A. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. B. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. C. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. D. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category.

A. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.

After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. B. request a paramedic to administer atropine. C. position him supine and elevate his legs. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen.

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: Select one: A. axial loading. B. hyperflexion. C. distraction. D. hyperextension.

A. axial loading.

When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: A. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. B. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. C. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. D. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.

A. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. Ch. 30 - injuries to the abdomen, page 1060

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct? A. bleeding within the GI tract is a sx of another disease, not a disease itself. B. Lower GI bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome C. In the majority of cases, bleeding within the GI tract occus acutely and is severe D. Chronic bleeding within the GI tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely

A. bleeding within the GI tract is a sx of another disease, not a disease itself. ch 18 pathophysiology pg 710

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: Select one: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. C. nervous system's control over the muscles. D. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.

A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. break in the continuity of the bone. B. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. C. abnormality in the structure of a bone. D. total loss of function in a bone.

A. break in the continuity of the bone.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: Select one: A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. B. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. C. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.

A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: Select one: A. cataracts. B. retinitis. C. conjunctivitis. D. glaucoma.

A. cataracts.

You are attending to a 46-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. Shortly after you begin to render care, an ALS unit arrives and the transfer of care is made. The decision is made to start an intravenous line and administer medication. You should: Select one: A. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient. B. move out of the ALS provider's way and clear the scene. C. ensure that enough assessments have been done to justify the decision. D. acknowledge that it is no longer your patient and stand back, allowing the ALS provider to work.

A. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient.

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: Select one: A. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. B. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. C. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. D. begin documenting the call on the patient care form.

A. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.

A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): Select one: A. colostomy. B. gastrostomy. C. gastric stoma. D. intestinal shunt.

A. colostomy.

You are attending to a 23-year-old female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care. B. ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident. C. contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital. D. immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport.

A. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. B. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. C. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. D. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport.

A. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.

A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: Select one: A. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. B. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once. C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. D. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital.

A. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. C. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. D. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.

A. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.

A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: Select one: A. croup. B. epiglottitis. C. bronchitis. D. asthma.

A. croup.

Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. death from suffocation after submersion in water. B. temporary survival after submersion in water. C. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water. D. water in the lungs following submersion in water.

A. death from suffocation after submersion in water.

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle B. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting C. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate D. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature

A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle ch 16 pathophysiology pg 640

In any case of trauma to a female patient, you should always determine if the patient: A. is on birth control B. is pregnant C. is currently menstruating D. has a history of ovarian cysts

A. is pregnant

You are attending to a 66-year-old male patient in cardiac arrest. As you gather history and begin the resuscitation, an Advanced Life Support (ALS) provider arrives on scene. You should: Select one: A. ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side. B. pause the resuscitation and provide a patient care report as quickly as possible. C. stay focused on the resuscitation and allow the ALS provider to make his or her own assessment. D. . continue the resuscitation and provide a patient care report while you work.

A. ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side.

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. D. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication.

A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. B. checking the medication's expiration date. C. requesting permission from medical control. D. assessing the patient's mental status.

A. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.

Neurogenic shock occurs when A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation B. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container C. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury

A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. ch 12 types of shock pg 493

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: Select one: A. foramen magnum. B. cauda equina. C. foramen lamina. D. vertebral foramen.

A. foramen magnum.

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: Select one: A. frostbite. B. trench foot. C. frostnip. D. immersion foot.

A. frostbite.

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: A. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. B. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. C. provide specific information about the chemical being carried. D. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures.

A. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. has gathered patient history information B. has obtained a complete set of vital signs C. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant D. has formed a general impression of the patient

A. has gathered patient history information ch 23 patient assessment pg 833

When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: Select one: A. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. B. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. C. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. D. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.

A. have a female EMT remain with her if possible.

To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: Select one: A. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. B. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient. C. dismiss the family members from the room or area. D. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient.

A. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time.

You are attending to a 68-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. An ALS provider arrives shortly after you do and the transfer of care is made. The ALS provider asks that you assist in the endotracheal intubation. As part of this process, you may be required to: Select one: A. help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure. B. visualize the airway and look for any potential complications in advance of the intubation. C. ventilate and preoxygenate the patient but not handle any of the equipment required for the intubation. D. perform the intubation with assistance.

A. help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure.

Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. hives. B. swelling. C. burning. D. a wheal.

A. hives.

Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hyperglycemia. B. poisonings or ingestion. C. infection. D. electrolyte imbalances.

A. hyperglycemia.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. immediately resume CPR. B. transport the patient at once. C. assess for a carotid pulse. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

A. immediately resume CPR.

You are at a mass-casualty scene and in the process of organizing a group to be responsible for ongoing patient care. In order for the group to be successful: Select one: A. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals. B. individuals see this as a one-time exercise and that the group may change. C. individual goals are accomplished. D. all individuals have the same roles.

A. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals.

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. Select one: A. infection B. hypovolemia C. hemorrhage D. evisceration

A. infection

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. B. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. C. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol. D. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures.

A. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot.

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. intersections. B. railroad crossings. C. stop lights. D. stop signs.

A. intersections.

hallucinogen

An agent that produce false perceptions in any one of the five senses.

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: Select one: A. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. B. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties. C. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. D. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news.

A. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. Select one: A. larger in proportion to the abdomen B. smaller in proportion to the abdomen C. less likely to bleed when injured D. more protected by the thorax compared to adults

A. larger in proportion to the abdomen

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: Select one: A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen. B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. C. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.

A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. B. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented.

A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: A. liver. B. kidney C. stomach D. spleen

A. liver.

People at a higher risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. married males older than 30 years. B. substance abusers. C. children with parents addicted to alcohol. D. those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness.

A. married males older than 30 years.

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: Select one: A. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. C. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. D. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full.

A. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.

When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: Select one: A. may rise as high as the nipple line. B. contracts and flattens inferiorly. C. descends below the level of the navel. D. is less prone to penetrating trauma.

A. may rise as high as the nipple line.

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: Select one: A. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. B. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. C. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.

A. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.

While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. B. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. C. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. D. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.

A. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.

If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. B. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. C. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. D. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury.

A. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: Select one: A. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches. B. in a supine position with her legs spread. C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. D. on her left side with the right leg elevated.

A. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unresponsive and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should: Select one: A. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations. B. provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for. C. wait for the police to examine him before providing care. D. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes.

A. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations.

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A. opioid. B. hypnotic. C. sympathomimetic. D. cholinergic.

A. opioid.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. B. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.

A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. B. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of the diaphragm.

A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

stimulant

An agent that produces an excited state.

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: Select one: A. 88°F (31°C). B. 95°F (35°C). C. 98°F (37°C). D. 90°F (32°C).

B. 95°F (35°C).

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. partially remove the dressing. B. begin ventilatory assistance. C. begin rapid transport at once. D. call for a paramedic ambulance.

A. partially remove the dressing.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: Select one: A. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. C. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. D. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.

A. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: Select one: A. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. B. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. C. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. D. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood.

A. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.

A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. B. placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum. C. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine. D. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops.

A. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. B. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes. C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. D. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment.

A. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. positive-pressure ventilations. B. suctioning of the upper airway. C. thorough drying with a towel. D. some form of tactile stimulation.

A. positive-pressure ventilations.

Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: A. primary assessment B. patient history C. secondary assessment D. scene size-up

A. primary assessment

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. B. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. C. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. D. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave.

A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. Chapter 24, page 862, Blast Injuries The correct answer is: primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. protect her airway from aspiration. B. rapidly transport her to the hospital. C. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen. D. keep her supine and keep her warm.

A. protect her airway from aspiration.

A 22 year old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feed after an argument with her fiance. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: A. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed B. have her breath into a paper or plastic bag C. position her on her left side and transport at once D. request a paramedic to give her a sedative

A. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed ch 15 treatment of specific conditions pg 617 hyperventilation caused this; breathing into a bag could cause hypoxia

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. pulmonary contusion. B. tension pneumothorax. C. massive hemothorax. D. traumatic asphyxia.

A. pulmonary contusion.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: Select one: A. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. B. careful monitoring her vital signs. C. quickly immobilizing her spinal column. D. requesting a paramedic ambulance.

A. rapidly transporting her to the hospital.

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. remain with the ambulance B. stay with the incident commander C. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue D. locate the safety officer

A. remain with the ambulance

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force B. will most likely be thrown over the steering column C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle D. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard

A. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. remove it B. place the patient on his or her side C. continue chest compressions D. leave it in place

A. remove it

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: Select one: A. the patient had a reported syncopal episode. B. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode. C. she should contact the EMR about the incident. D. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode.

A. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: Choose one answer. A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. B. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. C. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. D. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.

A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. ch 16 pathophysiology - pg 641 - remove nitro because it can worsen the hypotension; elevate LE so blood doesn't pool

A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation B. Should be placed in Trendelenburg position C. is most likely experiencing sever blood loss D. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta

A. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation

You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should: Select one: A. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient. B. insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome. C. inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and management. D. call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out.

A. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. right atrium. B. left ventricle. C. left atrium. D. right ventricle.

A. right atrium.

Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. rupture of a central vein. B. bleeding around the line. C. a local infection. D. clotting of the line.

A. rupture of a central vein.

The stinger from a honeybee should be: Select one: A. scraped away from the skin. B. left in place and covered. C. irrigated with copious amounts of water. D. squeezed with tweezers and removed.

A. scraped away from the skin.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.

A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. ch 15 introduction pg 585

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. sinoatrial node. B. bundle of His. C. atrioventricular node. D. coronary sinus.

A. sinoatrial node.

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: Select one: A. solving a clinical problem. B. learning to perform the skill. C. following local protocol. D. completing the procedure.

A. solving a clinical problem.

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. spleen. B. stomach. C. ureters. D. bladder.

A. spleen

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: Select one: A. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. B. assist his ventilations with a BVM. C. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.

A. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: Select one: A. superficial burn. B. second-degree burn. C. partial-thickness burn. D. full-thickness burn.

A. superficial burn.

Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: Select one: A. superficial. B. third-degree. C. full-thickness. D. partial-thickness.

A. superficial.

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. Select one: A. termination phase B. hazard-control phase C. transfer phase D. support phase

A. termination phase

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted fo

A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: Select one: A. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. B. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. C. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost. D. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

A. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) upon standing because: Select one: A. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. B. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain. C. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. D. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate.

A. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes.

Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. B. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. C. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding. D. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control.

A. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.

Children are often "belly breathers" because _______. Select one: A. their intercostal muscles are not developed B. they are routinely hypoxic C. their diaphragm is not functional D. they are consciously controlling ventilations

A. their intercostal muscles are not developed

A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately: Select one: A. ventilate with a BVM. B. administer naloxone. C. begin chest compressions. D. request an ALS ambulance.

A. ventilate with a BVM.

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: Select one: A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple. B. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. C. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. D. facilitates shedding of the epidermis.

A. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a laryngeal injury? A. wheezing B. difficulty breathing C. hoarseness D. subcutaneous emphysema

A. wheezing ch. 27 - emergency medical care for specific injuries, page 972

What is the preferred method of removing a foreign body in an unresponsive child? Back slaps Abdominal thrusts Chest compressions Manual removal

Abdominal thrusts You should treat a child older than 1 year as you would an adult: with abdominal thrusts.

In ________, the placenta separates prematurely from the wall of the uterus. Abruptio placenta Placenta previa Preeclampsia Vertex presentation

Abruptio placenta

simple access

Access that is easily achieved without the use of tools or force.

Linear skull fracture

Account for 80% of skull fractures; also referred to as nondisplaced skull fractures; commonly occur in the temporal-parietal region of the skull; not associated with deformities to the skull.

involuntary activities

Actions of the body that are not under a person's conscious control.

voluntary activities

Actions that we consciously perform, in which sensory input or conscious thought determines a specific muscular activity.

Which of the following would be part of the "S" component of the GEMS diamond? Activities of daily living Hazardous living conditions Normal changes of aging Polypharmacy

Activities of daily living The "S" in the GEMS diamond stands for "social assessment." Activities of daily living would fall under this category.

Acute coronary syndrome is a group of symptoms caused by what? Bradycardia Ischemia Occlusion Thromboembolism

Acute coronary syndrome is a group of symptoms caused by ischemia, a lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow.

When assessing a patient with a suspected head or spine injury, which of the following should you do? Administer high-flow oxygen. Hyperventilate the patient. Remove the cervical collar during secondary assessment to facilitate reassessment of vital signs. Assess the patient in the position found.

Administer high-flow oxygen. Assess the patient in the position found. Correct. You should administer high-flow oxygen and assess the patient in the position found if at all possible.

You determine that your patient is experiencing internal bleeding. What should you do first? Apply pressure dressings. Immobilize the injury. Administer oxygen. Apply cold packs.

Administer oxygen. It is important for you to remain calm and reassure the patient. Keeping the patient as still and quiet as possible assists the body's clotting process. Provide high-flow oxygen and cover the patient with a blanket to maintain body temperature.

advanced life support (ALS)

Advanced lifesaving procedures used to treat medical conditions, such as cardiac monitoring, administration of intravenous fluids and medications, and the use of advanced airway adjuncts. EMTs may be trained in some of these areas.

mutual aid response

An agreement between neighboring EMS systems to respond to mass-casualty incidents or disasters in each other's region when local resources are insufficient to handle the response.

Which of the following is a nonpreventable factor in stroke? Age Atrial fibrillation Hypertension Obesity

Age is a nonpreventable factor in stroke.

arterial air embolism

Air bubbles in the arterial blood vessels.

air embolism

Air bubbles in the blood vessels.

What is the most dangerous, and most common, emergency in scuba diving? Air embolism Decompression sickness Diving reflex Drowning

Air embolism is the most dangerous, and most common, emergency in scuba diving.

Deadly dozen chest injuries

Airway Obstruction Bronchial Disruption Diaphragmatic Tear Esophageal Injury Open Pneumothorax Tension Pneumothorax Massive Hemothorax Flail Chest Cardiac Tamponade Thoracic Aortic Dissection (leakage from a traumatic aneurysm of the portion of the aorta that lies within the chest) Myocardial Contusion Pulmonary Contusion

AMS mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS:

Alcohol Epilepsy, endocrine, electrolytes Insulin Opiates and other drugs Uremia (kidney failure) Trauma, temperature Infection Poisoning, psychogenic causes Shock, stroke, seizure, space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage Most of these items can be associated with or can cause hypoglycemia.

covert

An act in which the public safety community generally has no prior knowledge of the time, location, or nature of the attack.

presbycusis

An age-related condition of the ear that produces progressive bilateral hearing loss that is most noted at higher frequencies.

grunting

An "uh" sound heard during exhalation; reflects the child's attempt to keep the alveoli open; a sign of increased work of breathing.

Which of the following would you use to stabilize an AC separation? Zippered air splint Rigid splint Sling and swathe Traction splint

An AC separation occurs in the shoulder and so using a sling and swathe is an effective way to splint the injury.

Aneurysm

An abnormal enlargement of a part of an artery, resulting from weakening of the arterial wall

hyperglycemia

An abnormally high blood glucose level

Hypoglycemia

An abnormally low blood glucose level.

Peptic Ulcer Disease

An abrasion of the stomach or small intestine.

tension pneumothorax

An accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity that progressively increases pressure in the chest that interferes with cardiac function with potentially fatal results.

pneumothorax

An accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity.

subdural hematoma

An accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater but outside the brain.

epidural hematoma

An accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater.

What is an air embolism? A crackling sensation felt when palpating the neck resulting from air in the soft tissues A clinical situation in which a vein is punctured and air is sucked into the heart A swelling or enlargement of the wall of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the vessel wall A lack of oxygen that deprives tissues of necessary nutrients, resulting from partial or complete blockage of blood flow

An air embolism is a clinical situation in which a vein is punctured and air is sucked into the heart.

pertussis

An airborne bacterial infection that affects mostly children younger than 6 years, in which the patient is feverish and exhibits a "whoop" sound on inspiration after a coughing attack; highly contagious through droplet infection. Also called whooping cough.

occlusive dressing

An airtight dressing that protects a wound from air and bacteria; a commercial vented version allows air to passively escape from the chest, while an unvented dressing may be made of petroleum jelly-based (Vaseline) gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic.

What is an allergen? A chemical substance released by the immune system in allergic reactions that is responsible for many of the symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as vasodilation A poison or harmful substance A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin resulting from an insect bite or allergic reaction A substance that causes an allergic reaction

An allergen is a substance that causes an allergic reaction.

disease vector

An animal that spreads a disease, once infected, to another animal.

Joint Information Center (JIC)

An area designated by the incident commander, or a designee, in which public information officers from multiple agencies distribute information about the incident.

safe zone

An area of protection providing safety from the danger zone (hot zone).

casualty collection area

An area set up by physicians, nurses, and other hospital staff near a major disaster scene where patients can receive further triage and medical care.

danger zone (hot zone)

An area where individuals can be exposed to hazards such as electric wires, sharp metal edges, broken glass, toxic substances, radiation, or fire.

sexual assault

An attack against a person that is sexual in nature, the most common of which is rape

type 1 diabetes mellitus

An autoimmune disorder in which the individual's immune system produces antibodies to the pancreatic beta cells, and therefore the pancreas cannot produce insulin, onset in early childhood is common.

compartment syndrome

An elevation of pressure within a closed fascial compartment, characterized by extreme pain, decreased pain sensation, pain on stretching of affected muscles, and decreased power; frequently seen in fractures below the elbow or knee in children.

psychiatric emergency

An emergency in which abnormal behavior threatens a person's own health and safety or the health and safety of another person, for example when a person becomes suicidal, homicidal, or has a psychotic episode.

Hypertensive Emergency

An emergency situation created by excessively high blood pressure, which can lead to serious complications such as stroke or aneurysm.

Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)

An emergency situation involving three or more patients or that can place great demand on the equipment or personnel of the EMS system or has the potential to produce multiple casualties.

Identify which of the following statements is/are true with regard to laws and regulations governing ambulances. When you are on an urgent call and cannot wait for traffic lights to change, you can proceed through as long as the ambulance's lights and sirens are activated. An emergency vehicle is never allowed to pass a school bus that has stopped to load or unload children and is displaying its flashing red lights or extended "stop arm." When driving on a highway with your emergency devices activated, always travel in the far left-hand lane. The use of the siren is critical in ensuring the fastest possible travel time to the ED.

An emergency vehicle is never allowed to pass a school bus that has stopped to load or unload children and is displaying its flashing red lights or extended "stop arm." When driving on a highway with your emergency devices activated, always travel in the far left-hand lane. Correct. An emergency vehicle is never allowed to pass a school bus that has stopped to load or unload children and is displaying its flashing red lights or extended "stop arm," and you should always travel in the far left-hand lane.

cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

An interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in the loss of brain function. Also called a stroke.

Stroke

An interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in the loss of brain function; also called a cerebrovascular accident (CVA).

Dysrhythmia

An irregular or abnormal heart rhythm.

While performing a secondary assessment of a patient who was hit with a tire iron on the side of the head, you find a depressed area above the patient's left ear. This indicates that the patient could have which of the following? An intracerebral hematoma A subdural hematoma A subarachnoid hemorrhage An epidural hematoma

An epidural hematoma An epidural hematoma is nearly always the result of a blow to the head that produces a linear fracture.

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score

An evaluation tool used to determine level of consciousness, which evaluates and assigns point values (scores) for eye opening, verbal response, and motor response, which are then totaled; effective in helping predict patient outcomes.

apparent life-threatening event (ALTE)

An event that causes unresponsiveness, cyanosis, and apnea in an infant, who then resumes breathing with stimulation.

overdose

An excessive quantity of a drug that, when taken or administered, can have toxic or lethal consequences.

Anaphylaxis

An extreme, life-threatening systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure.

psychiatric disorder

An illness with psychological or behavioral symptoms and/or impairment in functioning caused by a social, psychological, genetic, physical, chemical, or biologic disturbance.

blunt trauma

An impact on the body by objects that cause injury without penetrating soft tissues or internal organs and cavities.

hazardous materials (HazMat) incident

An incident in which a hazardous material is no longer properly contained and isolated.

closed incident

An incident that is contained; all casualties are accounted for.

open incident

An incident that is not yet contained; there may be patients to be located and the situation may be ongoing, producing more patients.

Greenstick Fx

An incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs in children.

Which MOI causes a fracture or dislocation at a distant point? - Direct blow - Indirect force - Twisting force - High-impact injury

An indirect force is more likely to cause a fracture or dislocation at a distant point.

pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

An infection of the fallopian tubes and the surrounding tissues of the pelvis.

urinary tract infection (UTI)

An infection, usually of the lower urinary tract (urethra and bladder) that occurs when normal flora bacteria enter the urethra and grow.

contagious

An infectious disease that spreads from one human to another; communicable.

meningitis

An inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord; it is usually caused by a virus or a bacterium.

croup

An inflammatory disease of the upper respiratory system that may cause a partial airway obstruction and is characterized by a barking cough; usually seen in children.

When a patient sustains a spinal cord injury above the C3 region, which of the following is likely to happen? Belly breathing due to the loss of power to move the intercostal muscles Loss of the ability to breathe due to loss of ability of phrenic nerves to function Cardiogenic shock Severe pain radiating from C3 down to L1

An injury above C3 is likely to cause the patient to lose his/her ability to breathe entirely.

tertiary blast injury

An injury from whole body displacement and subsequent traumatic impact with environmental objects. Results from whole-body displacement and subsequent traumatic impact with environmental objects (eg, trees, buildings, and vehicles) Other indirect effects include crush injury from the collapse of structures (buildings, bunkers, or tunnels).

amputation

An injury in which part of the body is completely severed.

Avulsion

An injury in which soft tissue is torn completely loose or is hanging as a flap.

open abdominal injury

An injury in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.

closed abdominal injury

An injury in which there is soft-tissue damage inside the body but the skin remains intact.

penetrating wound

An injury resulting from a sharp, pointed object.

crushing injury

An injury that occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body.

primary (direct) injury

An injury to the brain and its associated structures that is a direct result of impact to the head.

open chest injury

An injury to the chest in which the chest wall itself is penetrated by a fractured rib or, more frequently, by an external object such as a bullet or knife.

closed chest injury

An injury to the chest in which the skin is not broken, usually caused by blunt trauma.

sucking chest wound

An open or penetrating chest wall wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound. See also open pneumothorax.

open pneumothorax

An open or penetrating chest wall wound through which air passes during inspiration and expiration, creating a sucking sound; also referred to as a sucking chest wound.

stoma

An opening through the skin and into an organ or other structure.

Incident Action Plan

An oral or written plan stating general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident.

bacterial vaginosis

An overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina; characterized by itching, burning, or pain, and possibly a "fishy" smelling discharge.

tripod position

An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto two arms stretched forward and thrusts the head and chin forward.

sniffing position

An upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open; the optimum position for the uninjured child who requires airway management.

An extreme, life-threatening, systemic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure is known as what? Allergic reaction Anaphylaxis Urticaria Angioedema

Anaphylaxis

lisinopril (Zestril)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE inhibitor); treats hypertension

nonbulk storage vessels

Any container other than bulk storage containers such as drums, bags, compressed gas cylinders, and cryogenic containers. Nonbulk storage vessels hold commonly used commercial and industrial chemicals such as solvents, industrial cleaners, and compounds.

Sympathomimetic and ________ overdoses are very similar because both may cause agitation, tachycardia, and dilated pupils. Anticholinergic Cholinergic Sedative-hypnotic Opiate

Anticholinergic Correct. Sympathomimetic and anticholinergic overdoses are very similar because both may cause agitation, tachycardia, and dilated pupils.

Antihistamines are an example of which of the following? Anticholinergic agent Cholinergic agent Sympathomimetic Synthetic cathinone

Anticholinergic agent Antihistamines are an example of anticholinergic agents that block parasympathetic nerves.

Which of the following would be the first sign of hypovolemic shock? Pale skin color Anxiety Nausea and vomiting Decreasing blood pressure

Anxiety The first sign of hypovolemic shock is a change in mental status, such as anxiety, restlessness, or combativeness.

elder abuse

Any action on the part of an older person's family member, caregiver, or other associated person that takes advantage of the older person's person, property, or emotional state.

weapon of mass destruction (WMD)

Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure (bridges, tunnels, airports, and seaports); also known as a weapon of mass casualty (WMC).

weapon of mass casualty (WMC)

Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure (bridges, tunnels, airports, and seaports); also known as a weapon of mass destruction (WMD).

bulk storage containers

Any container other than nonbulky storage containers such as fixed tanks, highway cargo tanks, rail tank cars, totes, and intermodal tanks. These are typically found in manufacturing facilities and are often surrounded by a secondary containment system to help control an accidental release.

radiologic dispersal device (RDD)

Any container that is designed to disperse radioactive material.

altered mental status

Any deviation from alert and oriented to person, place, time, and event, or any deviation from a patient's normal baseline mental status.

radioactive material

Any material that emits radiation.

projectile

Any object propelled by force, such as a bullet by a weapon.

simple pneumothorax

Any pneumothorax that is free from significant physiologic changes and does not cause drastic changes in the vital signs of the patient.

You respond to a call in which a 6-year-old was hit by a car. She is responsive but struggling to breathe. What position should you place her in? Recovery Supine Fowler Any position of comfort

Any position of comfort Because the child is responsive, allow her to remain in whatever position is most comfortable.

How is a behavioral crisis defined? Any reaction to events that interferes with the activities of daily living A violent act intended to inflict harm A condition in which a person exhibits agitated behavior combined with disorientation, hallucinations, or delusions A mental disorder characterized by the loss of contact with reality

Any reaction to events that interferes with the activities of daily living A behavioral crisis is defined as any reaction to events that interferes with the activities of daily living.

Hazardous Material

Any substance that is toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and causes injury or death with exposure.

Hazardous Material

Any substances that are toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and cause injury or death with exposure.

container

Any vessel or receptacle that holds material, including storage vessels, pipelines, and packaging.

You are dispatched to a home where you find a 70-year-old man. He is exhibiting facial drooping and, when you ask him to tell you what day it is, he says "January." Which part of the brain is most likely to have been affected? Right hemisphere Left hemisphere Brain stem Cerebellum

Aphasia is the inability to produce or understand speech. This occurs when the left hemisphere of the cerebrum is impacted by a stroke. If a patient's right hemisphere is impacted, the patient will be able to speak, but the words may be slurred.*

What should you do first to control external bleeding in an extremity? Elevate the extremity. Apply a pressure dressing. Apply direct pressure. Apply a tourniquet.

Apply direct pressure Most cases of external bleeding can be controlled simply by applying direct, local pressure to the bleeding site.

control zones

Areas at a hazardous materials incident that are designated as hot, warm, or cold, based on safety issues and the degree of hazard found there.

fontanelles

Areas where the neonate's or infant's skull has not fused together; usually disappear at approximately 18 months of age.

Which type of bleeding is characterized by a bright red color and spurting? Arterial Capillary Hemoptysis Venous

Arterial Typically, bleeding from an open artery is bright red (because it is oxygen rich) and spurts in time with the pulse. The pressure that causes the blood to spurt also makes this type of bleeding difficult to control.

Which technique should you use when helping ALS spike an IV bag? Clean Aseptic Sterile Pure

Aseptic Aseptic techniques are often used for fast, invasive procedures such as starting an IV line and refers to techniques that help ensure that pathogens are not introduced anywhere in the procedure.

If you arrive on the scene of a mass-casualty incident, what is the first thing you should do? Declare the area a crime scene. Direct traffic until law enforcement arrives. Ask for additional resources. Begin treating patients.

Ask for additional resources. In a mass-casualty incident, you need to evaluate and ask for additional resources.

The answer to which of the following questions will help you determine whether delivery for this patient is imminent? Have you had a previous complicated pregnancy? Do you know if there is a chance of multiple deliveries? Is this your first baby? Do you use drugs or drink alcohol?

Asking if this is the patient's first baby will help determine whether delivery is imminent. First pregnancies tend to have longer labor.

Where should you position yourself when beginning the primary assessment of a patient displaying a psychiatric issue? At a distance At the patient's dominant side At the patient's nondominant side Directly in front of the patient

At a distance Begin your assessment from the doorway or from a distance so that you can observe for violent behavior.

What is the primary goal of in-line traction? Minimize pain Avoid further neurovascular compromise Reduce swelling Prevent permanent disability

Avoid further neurovascular compromise

Index of suspicion

Awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries may exist when determining the mechanism of injury.

helpful mnemonic to remember is BLSCPR:

B Blood pressure L Level of consciousness S Skin color, temperature, moisture C Capillary refill time P Pulse rate, rhythm, strength R Respiratory rate, effort, pattern

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct?A) A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total BSA. B) The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA. C) The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the BSA. D) The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total BSA. Correct Response B) The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA.

B) The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA.

Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib) is correct? A) Most patient's in V-fib have a weak carotid pulse B) V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow C) V-fib is a state of rapid ventricular contraction D) Defibrillation is only indicated for witnessed V-fib

B) V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow In V-Fib, the heart is not pumping any blood and the patient is pulseless. **** V-fib = NO PULSE **** V-tach = FAST/IRREGULAR PULSE

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that: A) it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults B) age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. C) the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion D) in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in hear rate in shock

B) age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. Ch 7 Older Adults pg 252

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: A) corner of the mouth to the superior ear B) corner of the mouth to the earlobe C) center of the mouth to the posterior ear D) angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth

B) corner of the mouth to the earlobe Ch 10 Basic Airway Adjuncts pg 412-413

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A) place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting B) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation C) insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning D) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once

B) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation Ch 15 patient assessment pg 603

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? A) Rectal B) Oral C) Sublingual D) Inhalation

B) oral Ch 11 How medications work pg 457

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no effect. You should: A) perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding B) reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering C) increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure D) increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure

B) reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering ch 10 assisted and artificial ventilation pg 427 - with positive pressure breathing, the rate of venous return (BP) is decreased due to the increase in intrathoracic pressure in the chest wall

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: Select one: A. 8 hours. B. 16 hours. C. 4 hours. D. 10 hours.

B. 16 hours.

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. Select one: A. 10% B. 20% C. 15% D. 5%

B. 20%

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? Select one: A. 4 B. 3 C. 5 D. 2

B. 3

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: A. 48-hour B. 72-hour C. 96-hour D. 24-hour

B. 72-hour

Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 9. B. 8. C. 7. D. 6.

B. 8.

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: A. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities D. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities

B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal? Select one: A. A Level IV or Level III trauma center B. A Level I or Level II trauma center C. Any designated trauma center is acceptable. D. Only a Level I trauma center

B. A Level I or Level II trauma center

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: A. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min B. A rapid heart rate C. Syncope or dizziness D. Generalized weakness

B. A rapid heart rate Chapter 16, page 653, Heart Surgeries and Cardiac Assistive Devices

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? Select one: A. Vacuum splint B. Air splint C. Sling and swathe D. Cardboard splint

B. Air splint

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? Select one: A. Elevated blood glucose B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Dimly lit environment D. Limited physical contact

B. Alcohol withdrawal

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? Select one: A. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. B. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. C. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. D. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately.

B. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? Select one: A. Hepatitis B B. Blindness C. Depression D. Alcoholism

B. Blindness

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? Select one: A. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider if you yourself are not a female provider. C. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. D. All of these answers are correct.

B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider if you yourself are not a female provider. Chapter 23, page 837, Patient Assessment

Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? Select one: A. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. B. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night. C. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.

B. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night.

Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? Select one: A. Oral glucose B. DuoDote Auto-Injector C. Vacuum splint D. Inhaled bronchodilator

B. DuoDote Auto-Injector

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? Select one: A. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. B. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. C. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. D. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering.

B. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Intracranial bleeding B. Hypovolemia C. Hypoglycemia D. A postictal state

B. Hypovolemia

Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? Select one: A. Hollow-organ rupture B. Improperly placed lab belt C. Stabbing D. Ejection of unrestrained driver

B. Improperly placed lab belt

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: A. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin. B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. C. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. D. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.

B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? Select one: A. The kidneys are not well protected. B. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. C. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma. D. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys.

B. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs.

Which of the following may help reduce your patient's nausea? Select one: A. Oral glucose B. Low-flow oxygen C. Positive-pressure ventilation D. Cricoid pressure

B. Low-flow oxygen

A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. coccygeal spine. B. Lumbar spine. C. symphysis pubis D. thoracic spine

B. Lumbar spine.

Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? Select one: A. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism. B. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age. C. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. D. Autism affects females four times greater than males.

B. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.

A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms? Select one: A. Deep, rapid respirations B. Pale, cool, and clammy skin C. Hypertension D. Warm, red, and dry skin

B. Pale, cool, and clammy skin

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Gallbladder B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver

B. Pancreas

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. B. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. C. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis. D. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis.

B. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? Select one: A. An amputated extremity B. Pelvic fracture with hypotension C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures D. Bilateral femur fractures

B. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? Select one: A. Head trauma B. Poisoning C. Massive stroke D. Brain tumor

B. Poisoning

Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues? Select one: A. Platelets B. Red blood cells C. White blood cells D. Plasma

B. Red blood cells

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select one: A. Brain tumors B. Seizure disorder C. Paralysis D. Type 2 diabetes

B. Seizure disorder

Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function? Select one: A. Large intestine B. Spleen C. Small intestine D. Stomach

B. Spleen

Pleural fluid is contained between the: A. parietal pelura and the chest wall B. Visceral and parietal pleurae C. parietal pleura and the heart D. Visceral pleura and the lung

B. Visceral and parietal pleurae

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: A. How much of the substance was taken? B. Why was the substance ingested? C. What type of substance was taken? D. How long ago was the substance taken?

B. Why was the substance ingested?

Spina bifida is defined as: Select one: A. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. C. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid. D. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae.

B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.

Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: Select one: A. severe blunt trauma. B. a cardiac dysrhythmia. C. an acute ischemic stroke. D. obstruction of the airway.

B. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: Select one: A. skin that is cherry red and hot. B. a normal pulse oximetry reading. C. an abnormally slow respiratory rate. D. an abnormally slow pulse rate.

B. a normal pulse oximetry reading.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: Select one: A. a progressively lowering blood pressure. B. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. C. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury. D. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.

B. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. CSF leakage from the ears. B. a rapid, thready pulse. C. widening pulse pressure. D. decerebrate posturing.

B. a rapid, thready pulse.

A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. B. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. C. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. D. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.

B. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.

CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. a valid living will is unavailable. C. signs of putrefaction are present. D. the carotid pulse is very weak.

B. a valid living will is unavailable.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67 year old female who was awakened by shortness breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect: A. spontaneous pneumonthorax B. acute pulmonary embolism C. actue pulmonary edema D. right-sided hear failure

B. acute pulmonary embolism ch 15 causes of dyspnea pg 600

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: Select one: A. perform a neurologic exam. B. administer high-flow oxygen. C. palpate his radial pulses. D. apply ice to the hematoma.

B. administer high-flow oxygen.

A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: Select one: A. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once. B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. C. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication. D. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity.

B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: A. apply retardant to the leaking fuel B. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle C. search the vehicle for occupants D. disconnect the car battery

B. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle

According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): Select one: A. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical. B. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. C. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department. D. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured.

B. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay.

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. chronic medical conditions. B. an acute onset of dementia. C. alcohol abuse and dependence. D. prescription medication use.

B. an acute onset of dementia. Chapter 35, page 1299, Behavioral Emergencies

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: Select one: A. nerve fiber damage. B. an air embolism. C. a spinal fracture. D. an ischemic stroke.

B. an air embolism.

Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. Select one: A. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock B. are rarely life-threatening C. are often life-threatening D. usually result in permanent damage

B. are rarely life-threatening

When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and Digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? A. epinephrine B. aspirin C. nitroglycerine D. albuterol

B. aspirin ch 11 how meds work pg 456

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar D. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard

B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities.

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. C. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. D. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.

B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. assess the adequacy of his respirations. C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. D. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.

B. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: Select one: A. in the ambulance. B. at the feet. C. at the head. D. en route to the hospital.

B. at the feet.

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: Select one: A. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. B. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. C. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. D. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat.

B. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. Chapter 35, page 1301, Special Considerations in Assessing a Geriatric Medical Patient

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed B. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. C. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve. D. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye.

B. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: Select one: A. frisk the patient for the presence of weapons. B. be direct and clearly state your intentions. C. spend as little time with the patient as possible. D. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety.

B. be direct and clearly state your intentions.

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs when a person: Select one: A. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. B. becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others. C. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month. D. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance.

B. becomes agitated or violent and is a threat to him- or herself or others.

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will.

B. begin CPR until an AED is available.

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: Select one: A. xiphoid process. B. belly button. C. superior diaphragm. D. pubic bone.

B. belly button.

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: A. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. C. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. D. induces vomiting and empties the stomach.

B. binds to the substance and prevents absorption.

Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. Select one: A. penetrating trauma B. blunt trauma C. flying debris D. high-velocity weapons

B. blunt trauma

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. Select one: A. eye B. body C. extremity D. neck

B. body

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: Select one: A. cerebrum. B. brain stem. C. cerebral cortex. D. cerebellum.

B. brain stem.

Hyperventilation during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation: Select one: A. will decrease the likelihood of aspiration. B. can cause gastric distention and hypotension. C. provides a better oxygen reserve for the patient. D. is acceptable if done for fewer than 2 minutes.

B. can cause gastric distention and hypotension.

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. D. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.

B. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an acute arterial rupture. B. cerebral vasodilation. C. an embolism. D. a thrombus.

B. cerebral vasodilation.

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: Select one: A. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. D. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.

B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.

The MOST commonly fracture bone(s) in the body is/are the: A. radius and ulna B. clavicle C. midshaft femur D. scapula

B. clavicle

You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by: Select one: A. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid. B. compressing the sternum between the nipples. C. depressing the sternum more than 2.5 inches in depth. D. compressing quickly and releasing slowly.

B. compressing the sternum between the nipples.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: Select one: A. a detached retina. B. conjunctivitis. C. acute retinitis. D. a corneal abrasion.

B. conjunctivitis.

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): Select one: A. abrasion. B. contusion. C. crush injury. D. hematoma.

B. contusion.

Air bags are designed to A. prevent a second collision inside the car B. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries C. be used with or without a shoulder harness D. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma

B. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: A. hyperglycemic crisis B. diabetic ketoacidosis C. hypoglycemic crisis D. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma

B. diabetic ketoacidosis

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. intercostal margin. B. diaphragm. C. anterior rib cage. D. costovertebral angle.

B. diaphragm.

A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: Select one: A. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. B. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar. C. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds. D. attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem.

B. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar.

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Select one: A. contact the medical director at once. B. discuss the problem after the call. C. engage the team member at once. D. ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

B. discuss the problem after the call.

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: A. proximal radius. B. distal humerus. C. olecranon process. D. radial head.

B. distal humerus.

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she: Select one: A. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions. B. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task. C. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task. D. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor.

B. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: Select one: A. extreme restlessness. B. drooling or congestion. C. skin that is cool and dry. D. acute respiratory distress.

B. drooling or congestion.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. B. dry the chest if it is wet. C. contact medical control. D. perform CPR for 30 seconds.

B. dry the chest if it is wet.

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. obtain proper consent. B. ensure your safety. C. restrain the patient. D. take vital signs.

B. ensure your safety.

Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. exposure to caustic chemicals. B. entrapment in a structural fire. C. scalding water in a bathtub. D. hot items on a stovetop.

B. entrapment in a structural fire.

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: A. cellular metabolism B. external respiration C. pulmonary ventilation D. alveolar ventilation

B. external respiration ch 10 physiology of breathing, pg 396

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: Select one: A. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. C. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. D. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate.

B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: A. anterior hip dislocation B. posterior hip dislocation. C. a thoracic spine fracture D. fracture of the tibia or fibula

B. posterior hip dislocation.

A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: Select one: A. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. B. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. C. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. D. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out

B. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. turnout gear. B. hazardous materials gear. C. face shields. D. safety goggles.

B. hazardous materials gear.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. his blood clots too quickly. B. he has hemophilia A. C. he has a thrombosis. D. he has thrombophilia.

B. he has hemophilia A.

Blood in the urine is known as: A. hemoglobin B. hematuria C. Hematocrit D. hemotysis

B. hematuria

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: Select one: A. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. B. immediately request ALS support. C. perform a focused secondary exam. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway.

B. immediately request ALS support.

You are organizing a group of EMTs to provide triage in a mass-casualty exercise. In order for the group to be successful, it is essential that: Select one: A. individuals understand that this is a one-time exercise and that things will change in the field. B. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals. C. individual goals are accomplished. D. individuals understand that their roles will all be accomplished the same way.

B. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis. B. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. C. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. D. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED.

B. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible.

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: Select one: A. a fracture of the skull. B. intracranial bleeding. C. airway compromise. D. spinal cord injury.

B. intracranial bleeding.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. B. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. C. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. D. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport.

B. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.

A laceration: A. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. B. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. C. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. D. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel.

B. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma.

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. is wearing only a lap belt. B. is ejected or partially ejected C. experiences multiple impacts D. remains within the vehicle

B. is ejected or partially ejected

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: Select one: A. lateral immobilization has been applied. B. it causes a problem managing the airway. C. sensory and motor functions remain intact. D. the patient adamantly denies neck pain.

B. it causes a problem managing the airway.

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: Select one: A. scoliosis. B. kyphosis. C. arthritis. D. miosis.

B. kyphosis.

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one: A. tension pneumothorax. B. laceration of the aorta. C. pericardial tamponade. D. massive hemothorax.

B. laceration of the aorta.

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum. B. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity. C. impairment in the blood's clotting abilities. D. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding.

B. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity.

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: Select one: A. brain. B. liver. C. pancreas. D. kidneys.

B. liver.

The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: Select one: A. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure. B. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. C. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. D. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury.

B. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: A. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status. B. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. C. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma. D. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water.

B. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.

The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. Select one: A. regulate glucose and calcium B. maintain homeostasis C. produce glandular secretions D. regulate blood flow

B. maintain homeostasis

The lower jawbone is called the: A. zygoma B. mandible C. mastoid D. maxillae

B. mandible

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: Select one: A. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. B. move all walking patients to a designated area. C. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. D. focus on the patients who are unconscious.

B. move all walking patients to a designated area.

As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: A. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities. B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. C. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. D. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area.

B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: Select one: A. premature phase. B. neonatal period. C. toddler period. D. start of infancy.

B. neonatal period.

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. B. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. C. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

B. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.

A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. C. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. D. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.

B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: A. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. B. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. C. usually does not require the incident command system process. D. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower.

B. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. C. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. D. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag.

B. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries. B. open his airway and assess his breathing status. C. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. D. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment.

B. open his airway and assess his breathing status.

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed _______. Select one: A. hypoperfusion B. perfusion C. hemorrhage D. coagulation

B. perfusion

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: Select one: A. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. B. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport. C. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport.

B. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.

A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. B. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. C. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher. D. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg.

B. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps.

The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. finance section. B. planning section. C. operations section. D. logistics section.

B. planning section.

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: Select one: A. ischemic stroke. B. pneumonia. C. osteoporosis. D. heart failure.

B. pneumonia. Chapter 35, page 1285, Common Complaints and the Leading Causes of Death in Older People

Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: A. most common with dislocations. B. positive indicators of a fracture. C. only seen with open fractures. D. indicators of a severe sprain.

B. positive indicators of a fracture.

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. B. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. C. vital signs should be monitored frequently. D. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated.

B. prompt transport to the hospital is essential.

You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: Select one: A. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. B. protect the affected part from further injury. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. rewarm his foot in 102°F to 104°F (38.9°C to 40°C) water.

B. protect the affected part from further injury.

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: Select one: A. pelvic girdle. B. proximal femur. C. pubic symphysis. D. femoral shaft.

B. proximal femur.

A functional disorder is a: Select one: A. physiological disorder caused by a structural abnormality. B. psychological disorder in the absence of a structural abnormality. C. physiological disorder in the absence of a structural abnormality. D. psychological disorder caused by a structural abnormality.

B. psychological disorder in the absence of a structural abnormality. Correct answer: C. physiological disorder in the absence of a structural abnormality Chapter 22, Pathophysiology, Page 805

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: Select one: A. increase in heart rate. B. pupillary constriction. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.

B. pupillary constriction.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: Select one: A. triples. B. quadruples. C. doubles. D. is not affected.

B. quadruples.

When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. Select one: A. quickly, within 30 seconds. B. quickly, within 30 minutes. C. slowly, over several hours. D. slowly, over more than 30 minutes.

B. quickly, within 30 minutes.

When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a: Select one: A. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up. D. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet.

B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: Select one: A. passive listening. B. reflective listening. C. intuitive listening. D. active listening.

B. reflective listening.

You are ventilating an apenic woman with a BVM. She has dentures, which are tight fitting, Adequate chest rise is originally present with each ventilation and the patient's O2sat reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, however, you note that her dentures are now loose, and you are finidng it more difficult to ventilate. You should: A. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction. B. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise C. attempt to replace her dentures so that the fit tightly and resume ventilations. D. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations

B. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise Ch 10 FB airway obstruction pg 442

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: A. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. B. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. C. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask. D. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

B. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. Ch 10 Continuous + airway pressure pg 436

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. C. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. D. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.

B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: Select one: A. pancreatic failure. B. renal insufficiency. C. intentional overdose. D. splenic dysfunction.

B. renal insufficiency.

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: Select one: A. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward. B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. C. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech. D. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test.

B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself.

A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: Select one: A. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. B. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. C. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. D. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing.

B. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway B. reposition the patient's airway C. suction the patient's oropharynx D. increase the rate of ventilation

B. reposition the patient's airway ch 13 opening the airway and providing artificial ventilation, pg 526

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should: Select one: A. increase the rate of ventilation. B. reposition the patient's airway. C. insert an oropharyngeal airway. D. suction the patient's oropharynx.

B. reposition the patient's airway.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: Select one: A. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. B. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. C. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. D. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure.

B. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: Select one: A. phosgene oxime. B. sarin. C. lewisite. D. sulfur mustard.

B. sarin.

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. a sudden outburst of violence. B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias. C. acute respiratory depression. D. an increase in her blood pressure.

B. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.

A 70 year old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a BP of 100/64 mmHg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A. pump failure B. septic shock C. a local infection D. decompensated shock

B. septic shock ch 12 types of shock pg 493

When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: Select one: A. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. B. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. C. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling. D. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her.

B. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. Chapter 34, page 1262, Pediatric Trauma Emergencies and Management

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: Select one: A. irregular. B. slow. C. rapid. D. weak.

B. slow.

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. spleen. C. liver. D. gallbladder.

B. spleen.

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: Select one: A. applying chemical ice pack. B. splinting the extremity. C. applying a tourniquet. D. keeping the patient warm.

B. splinting the extremity.

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: Select one: A. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. B. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. C. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once. D. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center.

B. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. B. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. C. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance.

B. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.

Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. altered mental status. B. sunken fontanelles. C. headache and fever. D. a stiff or painful neck.

B. sunken fontanelles.

A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: Select one: A. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. B. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. C. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. D. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin.

B. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: Select one: A. clinical signs and symptoms. B. systolic blood pressure. C. poor general appearance. D. the mechanism of injury.

B. systolic blood pressure.

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: Select one: A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.

B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Chapter 35, pages 1288-1289, Changes in the Cardiovascular System

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: A. severe enough to warrant transport B. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation C. controlled directly by the patient D. not caused by traumatic injury

B. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: Select one: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. rely solely on the parent for information. D. use a toe-to-head assessment approach.

B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver.

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. the standard of care. B. the continuum of care. C. the scope of practice. D. patient care advocacy.

B. the continuum of care.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. D. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.

B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: Select one: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. C. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. D. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.

B. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem.

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the total number of patients that have been triaged. B. the recommended transport destination for each patient. C. the number of patients in each triage category. D. recommendations for movement to the treatment area.

B. the recommended transport destination for each patient.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. heart rate and pupil reaction. B. the right side of the body. C. breathing and blood pressure. D. the right side of the face.

B. the right side of the body.

The Adam's apple is: Select one: A. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. B. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. C. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. D. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.

B. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient.

In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: Select one: A. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. B. weakness or dizziness. C. a low blood pressure. D. diaphoresis and pale skin.

B. weakness or dizziness.

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: Select one: A. victim's statements. B. weather conditions. C. the location type. D. the type of call.

B. weather conditions.

Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________. Select one: A. active adults B. women C. sedentary adults D. men

B. women

Force acting over a distance is the definition of: Select one: A. potential energy. B. work. C. kinetic energy. D. latent energy.

B. work.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. the way in which traumatic injuries occur. B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. C. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. D. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.

B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

Bubonic Plague

Bacterial infection that affects the lymphatic system. It is transmitted by infected rodents and fleas and characterized by acute malaise, fever, and the formation of tender, enlarged, inflamed lymph nodes that appear as lesions, called buboes. Also called the Black Death.

drums

Barrel-like containers used to store a wide variety of substances, including food-grade materials, corrosives, flammable liquids, and grease. Drums may be constructed of low-carbon steel, polyethylene, cardboard, stainless steel, nickel, or other materials.

Which of the following fractures is associated with bruising around the ears and blood coming from the nose? Basilar skull fracture Orbit fracture Mandibular fracture Maxilla fracture

Basilar skull fracture

Battle sign is an indication of which of the following? Concussion Contusion Skull fracture Secondary injury

Battle sign is bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture.

Which of the following is true about a child's breathing? Older children experience intercostal muscle fatigue more quickly than younger children. A child's oxygen demand is about the same as that of an adult. Because less air is exchanged with each breath, detection of poor air movement or complete absence of breath sounds can be difficult. The trachea is proportionally larger in an infant, leading to a greater potential for choking.

Because less air is exchanged with each breath, detection of poor air movement or complete absence of breath sounds can be difficult.

You are treating a patient with significant bruising to her face and a broken nose. She is conscious, but her LOC is significantly altered and her breathing is labored. What should you do to manage this patient's airway? Give oxygen via a nasal cannula at 4 L/min. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. Apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

Because the patient's breathing is labored and her LOC is altered, you should insert an oropharyngeal airway.

You have responded to a scene where the 33-year-old male patient is in obvious respiratory distress, breathing rapidly with audible wheezing. The patient's skin is flushed, red, and covered in hives. When you attempt to question the patient, you find he can speak in only two- to three-word sentences. Respirations are 28 breaths/min and labored. Pulse is 120 beats/min. Skin is pale and cool with widespread urticaria and angioedema of the lips. Blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg, and SpO2 is 88%. Which of the following interventions should you administer first? Provide high-concentration oxygen. Administer epinephrine. Give the patient a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Give the patient an antihistamine.

Because the patient's respiratory distress is an immediate life threat, providing high-concentration oxygen is the first action you should take.

At what point should you begin your primary assessment of a patient who has been entrapped? Before extrication begins After the patient has been extricated from the wreckage Once the patient has been moved to the safe zone En route to the ED

Before extrication begins Unless there is an immediate threat of fire, explosion, or other danger, once entry and access to the patient have been provided, perform a primary assessment and begin immediate emergency care before the process of extrication begins.

Neurotoxins

Biologic agents that are the most deadly substances known to humans; they include botulinum toxin and ricin.

melena

Black tarry stool

melena

Black, foul-smelling, tarry stool containing digested blood.

thermal burns

Burns caused by heat.

full thickness (3rd degree) burn

Burns that affect all skin layers and may affect the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, and internal organs, leaving the area dry, leathery, and white, dark brown, or charred.

subarachnoid hemorrhage

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid circulates.

intracerebral hematoma

Bleeding within the brain tissue (parenchyma) itself; also referred to as an intraparenchymal hematoma.

Vesicants

Blister agents; the primary route of entry for vesicants is through the skin.

Hematoma

Blood collected within the body's tissues or in a body cavity.

Which of the following statements are true about hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)? It causes ketosis. Blood glucose levels are typically 600 mg/dL or higher. It presents with Kussmaul respirations. The signs and symptoms of HHNS and DKA often overlap.

Blood glucose levels are typically 600 mg/dL or higher. The signs and symptoms of HHNS and DKA often overlap. Correct. In HHNS, blood glucose levels are typically 600 mg/dL or higher and the signs and symptoms of HHNS and DKA often overlap.

dependent lividity

Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin; a definitive sign of death.

You are assessing a patient who was hit in the face by a baseball bat. There are multiple contusions on his face, and he reports double vision. His left eye does not track with his right eye. What should you suspect? Blow-out fracture Corneal burn Retinal detachment Foreign object entrapment

Blow-out fracture A blow-out fracture is caused by blunt injury to the bones around the globe. Suspect this in any patient who reports pain, double vision, or decreased vision following a blunt injury about the eye.

Rearrange the agents in the correct order, from deadliest to least deadly. Anthrax Botulinum Ricin VX

Botulinum Ricin VX Anthrax Correct. Botulinum and ricin are neurotoxins, the deadliest substances known to humans. Botulinum is the most potent of the neurotoxins and ricin is 5 times as lethal as VX, a nerve agent. Anthrax is the "least" lethal, although pulmonary anthrax is associated with a 90% death rate if left untreated.

You have tried to gain simple access to a crashed vehicle but the doors are all jammed. What is your next step? Break the front windshield. Use the "jaws of life" to jimmy the driver's side door. Break the window farthest away from the patient. Break the window closest to the patient.

Break the window farthest away from the patient. You should break the window farthest away from the patient to avoid further injury to the victim.

What does respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) cause? Pneumonia Bronchiolitis Epiglottitis Pertussis

Bronchiolitis is a specific viral illness of newborns and toddlers, often caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), that causes inflammation of the bronchioles.

Battle sign

Bruising behind an ear over the mastoid process that may indicate a skull fracture.

Ecchymosis

Bruising or discoloration associated with bleeding within or under the skin.

raccoon eyes

Bruising under the eyes that may indicate a skull fracture.

partial-thickness (2nd degree) burns

Burns that affect the epidermis and some portion of the dermis but not the subcutaneous tissue, characterized by blisters and skin that is white to red, moist, and mottled.

Which level of PPE do you need to wear when dealing with a Level 1 or 2 toxicity level? A B C D

C For slightly hazardous levels of toxicity, you should wear SCBA and a level-C suit.

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis B transmission is incorrect? A) Hepatitis B can be transmitted sexually B) Hepatitis B is far more contagious than HIV C) Everyone who is vaccinated develops immediate immunity. D. Hepatitis B can be transmitted through needle sticks

C) Everyone who is vaccinated develops immediate immunity. ch 14 common or serious communicable disease pg 572-573

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: A) compensating for decreased blood glucose levels B) trying to generate energy by breathing deeply C) attempting to eliminate acids from the blood D) severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2

C) attempting to eliminate acids from the blood ch 19 endocrine emergencies pg 731

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus around his mouth and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: A) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B) insert a nasopharyngeal airway C) perform oropharyngeal suctioning D) begin assisting the patient's ventilations

C) perform oropharyngeal suctioning Ch 10 Suctioning pg 408

An absence seizure is also referred to as a: A) total body seizure B) generalized motor seizure C) petit mal seizure D) grand mal seizure

C) petit mal seizure Ch 17 Seizures pg 682

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?: A) pallor B) hypotension C) wheezing D) dizziness

C) wheezing ch 12 Types of shock pg 495

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. Select one: A. 15 B. 10 C. 30 D. 20

C. 30

The Microdrip administration delivers 1 mL of fluid for every ____ drops. Select one: A. 15 B. 45 C. 60 D. 10

C. 60

Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: A. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building B. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients C. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances D. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity

C. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. thins and begins to separate. B. sheds and is expelled externally. C. becomes engorged with blood. D. diverts blood flow to the vagina.

C. becomes engorged with blood.

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? Select one: A. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye B. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back D. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen

C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Uncontrolled hypertension B. Obstructive lung disease C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm

C. Acute myocardial infarction

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. B. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. C. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. D. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer.

C. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? Select one: A. It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained. B. Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field. C. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations. D. The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent.

C. Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient's emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? Select one: A. Flail chest B. Forehead lacerations C. Aortic rupture D. Extremity fractures

C. Aortic rupture

Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? Select one: A. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms B. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate C. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located D. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles

C. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? Select one: A. Assess his or her neurologic status. B. Triage the patient as delayed. C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses. D. Administer high-flow oxygen.

C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.

___________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment. Select one: A. Psychosis B. Neurosis C. Behavior D. Affect

C. Behavior

A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock? Select one: A. Pulse rate greater than 120/min B. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min C. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg D. Capillary refill time of 4 seconds

C. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: Select one: A. C3 and C4 B. C1, C2, and C3 C. C3, C4, and C5 D. C1 and C2

C. C3, C4, and C5 Ch. 29 - mechanics of ventilation, page 1033

According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube? Select one: A. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube. B. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube. C. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction. D. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax.

C. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? Select one: A. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis. B. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. C. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. D. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.

C. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.

A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? Select one: A. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. B. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. C. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing. D. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing.

C. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.

A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis? Select one: A. Restlessness and irritability B. Hypotension and tachycardia C. Deep and rapid breathing D. Rapid and weak pulse

C. Deep and rapid breathing Ch 19 Endocrine Emergencies pg 730

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: A. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) B. Albuterol (Ventolin) C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head.

C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath B. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time C. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea

C. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? Select one: A. Bladder B. Stomach C. Liver D. Intestine

C. Liver

When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? Select one: A. Always during the secondary assessment B. Only when ordered by medical direction C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury D. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport

C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? Select one: A. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA B. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA C. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA D. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA

C. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect? Select one: A. Severe hypoglycemia B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Congestive heart failure

C. Pulmonary embolism

You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system? Select one: A. An irregular pulse B. Excessive tearing or crying C. Rapid eye movement D. Consistent eye contact

C. Rapid eye movement

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? Select one: A. Left B. Atria C. Right D. Ventricles

C. Right

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? Select one: A. Rear-end and rotational B. Lateral and rollover C. Rotational and rollover D. Frontal and rotational

C. Rotational and rollover

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Liver

C. Spleen

In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? Select one: A. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. B. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress. C. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. D. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic.

C. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area.

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: A. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis. B. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. C. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning. D. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours.

C. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? Select one: A. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. B. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. D. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound.

C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling.

Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? Select one: A. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. B. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. C. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.

C. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.

Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct.

C. Tightness in the chest or throat

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: A. Suctioning to clear the airway B. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway C. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation D. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask

C. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation

When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? Select one: A. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? B. What time did the ingestion occur? C. Why did your child ingest the poison? D. Do you know what substance was ingested?

C. Why did your child ingest the poison?

Organic brain syndrome is defined as: Select one: A. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain. B. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. C. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. D. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow.

C. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: A. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack B. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate C. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded

C. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia ch 16 pathophysiology pg 637

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: Select one: A. bystanders may destroy the evidence. B. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. C. a secondary explosive device may detonate. D. weather conditions may change quickly.

C. a secondary explosive device may detonate.

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: Select one: A. an extra pair of chromosomes. B. a separation of chromosome 21. C. a triplication of chromosome 21. D. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

C. a triplication of chromosome 21.

The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: Select one: A. tightness in the chest. B. dizziness and nausea. C. abdominal or joint pain. D. difficulty with vision.

C. abdominal or joint pain.

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport. B. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. C. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. D. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly.

C. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: A. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible. B. position her legs well above the level of her heart. C. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. D. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine.

C. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.

A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): Select one: A. statute of care. B. physician directive. C. advance directive. D. power of attorney.

C. advance directive.

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.

C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. cervical spine injury. B. damage to the eyes. C. airway compromise. D. mandibular immobility.

C. airway compromise.

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: Select one: A. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child. B. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. C. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. D. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only.

C. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: Select one: A. gestational diabetes. B. placenta previa. C. an ectopic pregnancy. D. preeclampsia.

C. an ectopic pregnancy.

Febrile seizures: Select one: A. are also referred to as absence seizures. B. occur when a child's fever rises slowly. C. are usually benign but should be evaluated. D. often result in permanent brain damage.

C. are usually benign but should be evaluated.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: Select one: A. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. B. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. C. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. D. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.

C. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: Select one: A. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. B. amyl nitrate and naloxone. C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. D. activated charcoal and glucose.

C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride.

You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance. B. perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. C. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen. D. notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status.

C. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. look for drug paraphernalia. B. observe the scene for drug bottles. C. be alert for personal hazards. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

C. be alert for personal hazards.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: A. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. B. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm. C. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. D. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.

C. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

Pale skin in a child indicates that the: Select one: A. child is in severe decompensated shock. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. D. child's core body temperature is elevated.

C. blood vessels near the skin are constricted.

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery. Select one: A. radial B. femoral C. brachial D. carotid

C. brachial

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: Select one: A. meninges and spinal cord. B. cerebrum and meninges. C. brain and spinal cord. D. cerebellum and brain.

C. brain and spinal cord.

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: A. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash. B. may be confused with rheumatoid arthritis. C. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse. D. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks.

C. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together: Select one: A. need less-explicit verbal direction. B. are unable to accomplish their tasks. C. can create delays in patient care. D. often work better under pressure.

C. can create delays in patient care.

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: Select one: A. retrieve all critical patients. B. divert traffic away from the scene. C. carefully assess the situation. D. rope off the entire perimeter.

C. carefully assess the situation.

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene. B. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. C. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. D. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process.

C. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. sterilization. B. disinfection. C. cleaning. D. high-level disinfection.

C. cleaning.

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: Select one: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

C. conduction.

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: Select one: A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. D. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.

C. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

A(n) _____ occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body for a long period of time. A. contusion B. avulsion C. crushing injury D. hematoma

C. crushing injury

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: Select one: A. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. B. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. C. delaying transport of a critically injured patient. D. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.

C. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: Select one: A. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. B. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. C. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. D. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point.

C. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: Select one: A. stabilize her legs with long board splints. B. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. C. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

C. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: Select one: A. incubation. B. aerosolization. C. dissemination. D. weaponization.

C. dissemination.

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A. referred pain B. diffuse bruising C. distention D. nausea or vomiting

C. distention

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: Select one: A. apocalyptic violence. B. an ecoterrorist attack. C. domestic terrorism. D. state-sponsored terrorism.

C. domestic terrorism.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: Select one: A. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. B. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately. C. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. D. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist.

C. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building.

The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: Select one: A. convection. B. radiation. C. evaporation. D. conduction.

C. evaporation.

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. B. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. C. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. D. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.

C. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: A. hyperglycemia. B. lack of exercise. C. family history. D. excess stress.

C. family history.

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: A. single command. B. undermining. C. freelancing. D. logistical chaos.

C. freelancing.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. B. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. D. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport.

C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.

A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: Select one: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. intrathoracic hemorrhaging. C. gastrointestinal bleeding. D. acute appendicitis.

C. gastrointestinal bleeding.

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist. B. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes. C. given the option of being treated by a female EMT. D. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.

C. given the option of being treated by a female EMT. ch 23 patient assessment pg 833

When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. Select one: A. distention. B. instability. C. guarding. D. crepitus.

C. guarding.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: Select one: A. regularly sees a family physician. B. noticed the change during a meal. C. has a history of eye surgeries. D. is allergic to any medications.

C. has a history of eye surgeries.

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. are older than 40 years of age. B. have had a stroke in the past. C. have chronic hypertension. D. regularly take illegal drugs.

C. have chronic hypertension.

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. tachycardia. B. headache. C. hot, dry skin. D. nausea.

C. hot, dry skin.

You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose reads "high." She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia. B. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. D. diabetic ketoacidosis.

C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following except: A. hypotension B. bradycardia C. hypertension D. severe headache

C. hypertension ch 16 Emergency Medical Care for Chest Pain or Discomfort pg 648

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. call medical control for further direction. B. begin triage to determine injury severity. C. immediately request additional resources. D. request law enforcement for traffic control.

C. immediately request additional resources.

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: Select one: A. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication. B. use the rapid extrication technique. C. immobilize him with a vest-style device. D. maintain slight traction to his neck area.

C. immobilize him with a vest-style device.

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: Select one: A. near the side or rear door. B. on the ambulance stretcher. C. in the driver's compartment. D. inside the jump kit.

C. in the driver's compartment.

Improperly applying a splint can cause all of the following, EXCEPT: A. compression of nerves, tissues, and blood vessels B. aggravation fo the distal circulation C. increase of distal circulation if the splint is too tight D. delay in transport of a patient with a life-threatening injury

C. increase of distal circulation if the splint is too tight

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: A. absorption B. injection C. ingestion D. inhalation

C. ingestion

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider. Select one: A. inhalation B. absorption C. injection D. ingestion

C. injection

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: Select one: A. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. B. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. D. does not cause pressure within the skull.

C. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.

In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: Select one: A. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. B. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. C. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. D. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults.

C. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level.

The cricoid cartilage: A. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. B. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage C. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck

C. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: Select one: A. at the angle of the jaw. B. slightly above the ear. C. just anterior to the tragus. D. over the mastoid process.

C. just anterior to the tragus.

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: Select one: A. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. B. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. C. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. D. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint.

C. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.

You are attending to a patient who was experiencing abdominal pain at a local shopping mall. The patient sitting on a bench and appears in moderate distress. You are met by a first responder at the scene who wishes to provide you with a patient care report. Your best course of action is to: Select one: A. move the responder out of the way and begin patient care. B. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient. C. listen to the responder while your partner performs a primary survey. D. ask the responder to wait and take their report after you have completed a primary survey.

C. listen to the responder while your partner performs a primary survey.

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.

C. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: Select one: A. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired. B. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. C. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. D. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help.

C. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: A. renal system. B. cardiovascular system. C. nervous system. D. respiratory system.

C. nervous system.

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. carefully assess the mechanism of injury. B. determine if additional units are needed. C. observe the scene for safety hazards. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

C. observe the scene for safety hazards.

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. Select one: A. determine if rescuers are operating safely B. assist with the rescue operation C. park at least 500 feet from the incident D. park as close to the incident as possible

C. park at least 500 feet from the incident

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: A. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. B. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. D. type of material used to manufacture the device.

C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. location of the patient(s). B. nature of the call. C. patient's medical history. D. caller's phone number.

C. patient's medical history.

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. allow extrication to commence. B. administer high-flow oxygen. C. perform a primary assessment. D. begin treating his or her injuries.

C. perform a primary assessment.

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. Select one: A. emotional B. financial C. physical D. psychological

C. physical

When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: Select one: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. secure the patient's head before the torso. C. place blankets behind the patient's head. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.

C. place blankets behind the patient's head.

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. myocardial contusion. B. cardiac tamponade. C. pneumothorax. D. flail chest.

C. pneumothorax.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. dysphasia. B. polydipsia. C. polyphagia. D. dyspepsia.

C. polyphagia.

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. B. park downhill from the scene. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

C. position the ambulance upwind.

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: A. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. B. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. C. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. D. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States.

C. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. B. remove him or her using a short backboard. C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D. move him or her in one fast, continuous step.

C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: Select one: A. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries. B. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. C. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. D. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence.

C. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated. B. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. D. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.

C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. Ch 16 A&P pg 630

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 58 year old male. Your initial action should be to: A. request a paramedic unit B. have the bystanders stop CPR and assess for a pulse C. quickly apply the AED and follow the prompts D. give two breaths and then check for a pulse

C. quickly apply the AED and follow the prompts ch 16 emergency medical care for cardiac arrest pg 660

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. document the time the restraints were applied. B. inform medical control of the situation. C. reassess the patient's airway and breathing. D. advise the patient why restraint was needed.

C. reassess the patient's airway and breathing.

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. B. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. assuming that other drivers will not see you.

C. regularly using the siren as much as possible.

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient B. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only C. remain outside the danger (hot) zone D. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone

C. remain outside the danger (hot) zone

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: Select one: A. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. B. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. C. removing sodium and water from the body. D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.

C. removing sodium and water from the body.

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: Select one: A. are far less infectious. B. are usually not treatable. C. respond to antibiotics. D. do not replicate in the body.

C. respond to antibiotics.

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes _________. Select one: A. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification B. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance D. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical

C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: Select one: A. .22-caliber pistol. B. handgun. C. shotgun. D. .357 magnum.

C. shotgun.

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. B. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. C. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. D. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.

C. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: A. doomsday cult. B. extremist political group. C. single-issue group. D. violent religious group.

C. single-issue group.

Some women experience ___________ during ovulation. Select one: A. hypotension B. severe bleeding C. slight cramping D. severe abdominal pain

C. slight cramping

Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): Select one: A. basilar skull fracture. B. displaced mandible. C. spinal column injury. D. airway obstruction.

C. spinal column injury.

Solid abdominal organs include the: Select one: A. gallbladder and large intestine. B. stomach and small intestine. C. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas. D. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.

C. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.

when assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should A. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base fo the opposite lung B. pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear reales or rhonchi C. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds D. note the presence fo a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs

C. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds ch 15 patient assessment pg 604

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: Select one: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask. B. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport. C. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport.

C. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. D. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion.

C. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: Select one: A. ligaments. B. cartilage. C. tendons. D. fascia.

C. tendons.

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A. the diaphragm descends B. intrathoracic pressure decreases C. the intercostal muscles contract D. abdominal contents descend

C. the intercostal muscles contract The diaphragm also CONTRACTS/DESCENDS during inspiration

You and your partner respond to a patient who has had his hand nearly severed by a drill press. As you approach, you note that the patient is pale and there appears to be a lot of blood on the floor. The wound continues to bleed copiously. After applying a tourniquet, you write _____ and _____ on a piece of adhesive tape and apply it to the patient's forehead.Select one: A. the patient's name; tourniquet location B. your last name; unit number C. the letters "TK"; the exact time applied D. the date and time; estimated amount of blood loss

C. the letters "TK"; the exact time applied

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: A. deformity and swelling are present. B. the patient is in severe pain. C. the patient is clinically unstable. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.

C. the patient is clinically unstable.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. addiction. B. dependence. C. tolerance. D. withdrawal.

C. tolerance.

Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: Select one: A. cold water temperature. B. too rapid of a descent. C. too rapid of an ascent. D. alcohol consumption.

C. too rapid of an ascent.

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. stabilization B. immobilization C. traction D. reduction

C. traction

According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: Select one: A. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. B. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. C. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. D. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries.

C. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.

4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: Select one: A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline. B. use tweezers to try to remove the object. C. transport her to the emergency department. D. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab.

C. transport her to the emergency department.

A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: Select one: A. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate. B. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. C. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. D. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted.

C. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume.

The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________. Select one: A. kill their human host B. cause an immune response C. use a human body as a home D. spread disease and destruction

C. use a human body as a home

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: Select one: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. contact the poison control center. C. ventilate her with a BVM. D. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam.

C. ventilate her with a BVM.

A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately: A. request an ALS ambulance B. administer naloxone C. ventilate with a BVM D. begin chest compressions

C. ventilate with a BVM ch 13 special resuscitation circumstances pg 548

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. Select one: A. assist in the search on foot B. assume medical command C. wait at the staging area until the patient is located D. direct other incoming EMS units

C. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: A. lungs and chest cavity. B. surface of the abdominal organs. C. walls of the abdominal cavity. D. retroperitoneal space.

C. walls of the abdominal cavity.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: A. with a history of an ischemic stroke. B. who have taken up to two doses. C. who have experienced a head injury. D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

C. who have experienced a head injury.

What is the purpose of crew resource management (CRM)? It empowers team members to speak up when they detect a potential problem. It ensures that the team leader has the ultimate decision-making power in an emergency situation. It clearly defines the roles and responsibilities of each team member prior to engaging in a potentially hazardous event. It provides clear guidelines for providing support to ALS providers in the field.

CRM empowers team members to speak up when they detect a potential problem.

When using the rule of nines, which of the following do you need to include in your calculations? Only full-thickness burns Full- and partial-thickness burns Superficial, full-, and partial-thickness burns Superficial and full-thickness burns

Calculating burn area includes partial- and full-thickness burns. You should document superficial burns but do not include them in the body surface estimation.

Which of the following statements is true about acute renal failure? Can be reversed with prompt diagnosis and treatment Often caused by diabetes or hypertension Requires dialysis or a kidney transplant Kidney tissue shrinks and function diminishes over a period of years

Can be reversed with prompt diagnosis and treatment Acute renal failure is a sudden decrease in function. It occurs from a variety of causes including hemorrhage, dehydration, trauma, shock, sepsis, heart failure, medications, drug abuse, and kidney stones. Acute renal failure can be reversed with prompt diagnosis and treatment.

What is cardiac output? The number of times the heart contracts in 1 minute The volume of blood pumped out by the left ventricle in one contraction The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle in 1 minute The amount of venous flow return to the right atrium

Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle in 1 minute.

Signs of this condition ____________ (referred to as Beck triad) are often subtle until the situation is dire; these include:

Cardiac tamponade (pericardial tamponade) - Distended or engorged jugular veins seen on both sides of the trachea - A narrowing pulse pressure (the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure numbers) - Muffled heart sounds

The phenomenon that results from the rapid changes in tissue and fluid pressure that occur with the passage of a projectile, resulting in serious injury to internal organs distant to the actual path of the bullet, is known as what? Cavitation Drag Fragmentation Tumble

Cavitation is the phenomenon that results from the rapid changes in tissue and fluid pressure that occur with the passage of a projectile, resulting in serious injury to internal organs distant to the actual path of the bullet.

How soon do cells in the brain and spinal cord start to die without constant perfusion? Within 4-6 minutes Within 15-20 minutes Within 45 minutes After 2-3 hours

Cells in the brain and spinal column will start to die after 4-6 minutes.

Which of the following acts as a shock absorber for the CNS? Dura mater Cerebrospinal fluid Fascia Pia mater

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) serves as a shock absorber. The brain and spinal cord essentially float in this fluid, buffered from injury.

________ is/are the recommended way to relieve a severe airway obstruction in an unconscious child. Abdominal thrusts Chest compressions Suctioning Sweeping

Chest compressions Correct. Chest compressions are recommended to relieve a severe airway obstruction in an unconscious child.

Histamine

Chemical substances released by the immune system in allergic reactions that are responsible for many of the symptoms of anaphylaxis such as vasodilation.

Leukotrienes

Chemical substances that contribute to anaphylaxis; released by the immune system in allergic reactions.

adolescents

Children between ages 12 to 18 years.

You can use the mnemonic DUMBELS to remember the signs and symptoms of which of the following? Acetaminophen poisoning Anticholinergic agents Cholinergic agents Food poisoning

Cholinergic agents DUMBELS stands for Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis/muscle weakness, Bradycardia/bronchospasm/bronchorrhea, Emesis, Lacrimation, and Seizures/salivation/sweating, which are the signs and symptoms of cholinergic drug poisoning.

perfusion

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet current needs of the cells.

You are treating a patient who is exhibiting slurred speech, facial droop, and an inability to move his left arm. Which neurologic examination emphasizes these possible stroke signs? Chicago Prehospital Stroke Scale 3-Item Stroke Severity Scale Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale Glasgow Coma Scale

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

cataracts

Clouding of the lens of the eye or its surrounding transparent membranes.

You are assessing a patient and notice he has a collapsed jugular vein. What does this indicate? Cardiac tamponade Hemothorax Tension pneumothorax Commotio cordis

Collapsed jugular veins suggest a hemothorax or shock.

You are assessing a 28-year-old with a rigid cast extending the length of his left leg. The patient is complaining of pain on passive movement and he is showing signs of impaired circulation. What do you suspect? Ecchymosis Compartment syndrome Crush syndrome Avulsion

Compartment syndrome commonly develops in the extremities and may occur in conjunction with open or closed injuries or when swelling occurs under restrictive immobilization devices such as a cast.

strangulation

Complete obstruction of blood circulation in a given organ as a result of compression or entrapment; an emergency situation causing death of tissue.

cardiac tamponade (pericardial tamponade)

Compression of the heart as the result of buildup of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac, leading to decreased cardiac output.

Guarding

Contracting the stomach muscles to minimize the pain of abdominal movement; a sign of peritonitis.

You are treating a patient with significant external bleeding. Rearrange the steps into the correct order in which they should be addressed. Assess for DCAP-BLTS Treat for shock Control bleeding Address ABCs

Control bleeding Address ABCs Treat for shock Assess for DCAP-BLTS Correct. Your priority is to quickly control major external bleeding, even before you address airway and breathing concerns. Then you will need to treat for shock and assess areas for DCAP-BLTS to identify underlying secondary injuries.

Which type of soft-tissue injury is LEAST likely to result in infection? Contusions on the left lateral chest Abdominal laceration Burns to the face Abrasions to the face

Contusions are closed injuries and are less likely to become infected.

A person who stands outside in windy, wintry weather and wears only lightweight clothing is experiencing heat loss mainly by what method? Conduction Convection Evaporation Respiration

Convection A person who stands outside in windy, wintry weather and wears only lightweight clothing is experiencing heat loss mainly by convection.

The ________ is a prominent bony mass at the base of the skull 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. Mastoid process Sternocleidomastoid muscle Sclera Temporomandibular joint

Correct. The mastoid process is a prominent bony mass at the base of the skull 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.

A ________ provides 24% to 44% oxygen concentration. Blow-by BVM Nasal cannula Nonrebreathing mask

Correct. A nasal cannula at 1 to 6 L/min provides 24% to 44% oxygen concentration.

Which of the following factors will help you to determine the severity of a burn? Depth of the burn Extent of the burn Involvement of any critical body areas (face, upper airway, hands, feet, genitalia) Preexisting medical conditions

Correct. All of these are factors in determining the severity of a burn.

________ is a developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction. Autism Bipolar disorder Cerebral palsy Down syndrome

Correct. Autism is a developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

Which of the following are effects of hyperventilation? Oxygen toxicity Gastric distention Increased intrathoracic pressure Increased blood flow to the heart

Correct. Both gastric distention and increased intrathoracic pressure are outcomes of hyperventilation.

Which of the following are late signs of an allergic reaction? Sneezing Hypotension Tachycardia Cyanotic, cool skin

Correct. Both hypotension and cyanotic, cool skin are late stage signs of an allergic reaction.

________ is calculated by multiplying the heart rate by the volume of blood ejected with each contraction. Cardiac output Perfusion Stroke volume ROSC

Correct. Cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the heart rate by the volume of blood ejected with each contraction.

Central nervous system structures are very strong even though they are not well protected. TrueFalse

Correct. Central nervous system structures, whose bony enclosures protect them quite well, are also very fragile.

________ in a patient with a chest injury is a sign that the blood is not being oxygenated sufficiently. Crepitus Cyanosis Pleurisy Tachypnea

Correct. Cyanosis is the classic blue or ashen gray appearance around the lips and fingernails that indicates that blood is not being oxygenated sufficiently.

Which of the following patients is likely to have injuries with entrance and exit wounds? A technician who has been exposed to gamma radiation A do-it-yourselfer who touched a live wire while repairing a light fixture A 19-year old who has been hit by high-caliber gunfire A drug user who has been TASERed

Correct. Electrical burns and high-caliber gunshots leave entrance and exit wounds.

Which of the following categories of allergens is the most common? Chemical Food Insect bites/stings Medication

Correct. Food allergies account for 30% of deaths from anaphylaxis, most commonly in adolescents and young adults.

________ occurs when blood volume is significantly diminished and the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to the body. Hematemesis Hematoma Hemorrhage Hypoperfusion

Correct. Hypoperfusion is a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular function.

In a(n) ________, CSF flows freely from the patient's ear; this type of injury can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph. Basilar skull fracture Intracerebral hematoma Linear skull fracture Subdural hematoma

Correct. In a basilar skull fracture, CSF flows freely from the patient's ear; this type of injury can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph.

Which of the following is true about posterior epistaxis? Originates from the area of the septum Bleeds slowly More severe than anterior epistaxis Causes nausea and vomiting

Correct. Posterior epistaxis is more serious than anterior epistaxis and often causes blood to drain into the patient's throat, causing nausea and vomiting.

Schizophrenia is an example of a(n) ________ disorder. Functional Organic Brain Stress Environmental

Correct. Schizophrenia is a functional disorder, in which there is no known physiologic reason for the abnormal functioning of an organ or organ system.

The structure of the skull and the presence of the meninges in effect reduce the likelihood of problems in closed head injuries. TrueFalse

Correct. The closed bony structure of the skull (which is similar to a vault) and the meninges may lead to serious problems in closed head injuries. Severe injury may cause bleeding within the skull. Such bleeding causes increased pressure inside the skull and compresses softer brain tissue. In many cases, only prompt surgery can prevent permanent brain damage.

From which of the following sources could you find out the physical and health hazards of a chemical as well as signs and symptoms of exposure to the chemical? The Emergency Response Guidebook A material safety data sheet Shipping papers Through medical control

Correct. The material safety data sheet (MSDS) provides basic information about the chemical makeup of a substance, the potential hazards it presents, appropriate first aid in the event of an exposure, and other pertinent data for safe handling of the material.

The most prominent and most easily palpable spinous process is at the seventh cervical vertebra at the base of the neck. TrueFalse

Correct. The most prominent and most easily palpable spinous process is at the seventh cervical vertebra at the base of the neck.

In which of the following instances should you insert your fingers into the pregnant patient's vagina? When there is limb presentation instead of the normal head presentation Prolapse of the umbilical cord In a breech birth In a vertex presentation

Correct. The only times you should insert your fingers into the patient's vagina is in the case of a prolapsed umbilical cord or a breech presentation.

When trying to clear a severe airway obstruction, who should get chest compressions instead of abdominal compressions? Women in late stages of pregnancy Obese patients Children under the age of 3 Geriatric patients (over 65)

Correct. You should perform chest thrusts on women in late stages of pregnancy and obese patients.

You are treating a patient with a facial injury that has displaced the eyeball from the socket. Which of the following actions are appropriate to take? Carefully reposition it back in place. Cover the eye with a moist, sterile dressing. Apply a pressure dressing and use roller gauze wrapped around the circumference of the head. Cover both eyes to decrease sympathetic eye movement.

Cover the eye with a moist, sterile dressing. Cover both eyes to decrease sympathetic eye movement.

Which of the following is a sign that delivery is imminent? Bloody show Contractions Crowning Lightening

Crowning is a definite sign of imminent delivery.

You are treating a patient who went face-first through a windshield. She has extensive head injuries and is displaying hypertension, bradycardia, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Which of the following should you suspect? Cushing triad C6 herniation Concussion Cerebral edema

Cushing triad Cushing triad presents with hypertension, bradycardia, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

Cushing triad in a patient is a sign of which of the following? Spinal cord damage Concussion Intracranial pressure Blood clot in the brain

Cushing triad is a sign of intracranial pressure.

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him? A) "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?" B) "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?" C) "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?"' D) "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?"

D) "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" Ch 4 Therapeutic Communication pg 116-117

Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct? A) The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle. B) Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary C) Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels D) A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle

D) A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle ch 6 The Musculoskeletal System: Anatomy pg 186-187

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A) Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. B) Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. C) As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. D) Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

D) Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? Select one: A. "When are you due?" B. "Is this your first baby?" C. "Do you feel the need to push?" D. "Have you had a sonogram?"

D. "Have you had a sonogram?"

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.03; 0.3 B. 0.1; 0.01 C. 0.01; 0.1 D. 0.3; 0.15

D. 0.3; 0.15

The mastoid process is located approximately: A. half an inch anterior to the external opening of the ear B. 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible C. 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear D. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear

D. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 200 lb B. 150 lb C. 50 lb D. 100 lb

D. 100 lb

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: A. 20; 60 B. 10; 40 C. 10; 70 D. 11; 50

D. 11; 50

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? Select one: A. 5:1 B. 3:1 C. 30:2 D. 15:2

D. 15:2

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: A. 6 months. B. 72 hours. C. 1 week. D. 21 days.

D. 21 days.

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: A. 7; 90 lb B. 6; 70 lb C. 5; 50 lb D. 8; 100 lb

D. 8; 100 lb

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: Select one: A. 11. B. 10. C. 8. D. 9.

D. 9.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly B. A generalized seizure without incontinence C. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura D. A seizure that begins in one extremity

D. A seizure that begins in one extremity

Splinting an extremity even when there is no fracture can help to: A. reduce pain B. minimize damage to an already-injured extremity C. make it easier to move the patient D. All of these answers are correct

D. All of these answers are correct

Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself. Select one: A. injected poison B. irritating toxin C. deadly venom D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Vaginal trauma C. Spontaneous abortion D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? Select one: A. The amount of time since of the patent's last menstrual cycle B. The possibility that the patient may be pregnant C. If the patient is sexually active D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should ________. Select one: A. apply direct pressure first B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? Select one: A. Clotting B. Coagulation C. Vasoconstriction D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________. Select one: A. protect itself B. go on alert C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: A. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. B. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury C. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? Select one: A. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs B. By interfering with normal neurologic function C. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions D. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

D. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

You respond to a 71-year-old woman who is unresponsive. You try to get her to respond but have no success. Her airway is open, and she is breathing at a rate of 14 breaths/min. What structure on her neck should you locate to take a pulse? A. subclavian arteries B. Cricoid cartilage C. Hypothalamus D. Carotid arteries

D. Carotid arteries

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Genital herpes C. Ovarian cysts D. Chlamydia

D. Chlamydia

Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? Select one: A. In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver. B. In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. C. Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition. D. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

D. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

Significant blood loss demands your immediate attention as soon as the _____ has been managed. Select one: A. fracture B. extrication C. airway D. Controlling major external bleeding is always the priority.

D. Controlling major external bleeding is always the priority.

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. Select one: A. SAMPLE B. AVPU C. OPQRST D. DCAP-BTLS

D. DCAP-BTLS

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? Select one: A. Intrusion into the vehicle B. Steering wheel deformity C. Dismounted seats D. Deployment of the air bag

D. Deployment of the air bag

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? Select one: A. Severe strain B. Hairline fracture C. Moderate sprain D. Displaced fracture

D. Displaced fracture

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? Select one: A. Secondary fall after the initial impact B. Lateral impact to the spine C. Direct trauma to the spinal column D. Energy transmission to the spine

D. Energy transmission to the spine

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: A. Widening pulse pressure B. A rapid, irregular pulse C. Diminished breath sounds D. Engorged jugular veins

D. Engorged jugular veins

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: A. Transport B. Treatment C. Triage D. Extrication

D. Extrication

Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)? Select one: A. Kidneys B. Skeletal muscle C. Brain D. Gastrointestinal system

D. Gastrointestinal system

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Chlamydia D. Gonorrhea

D. Gonorrhea

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? Select one: A. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity D. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

D. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? Select one: A. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost. B. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.

D. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.

Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct? Select one: A. Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. B. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. C. An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. D. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.

D. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? Select one: A. Gonorrhea B. Chlamydia C. Bacterial vaginosis D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

D. Pelvic inflammatory disease

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Select one: A. Suction under direct laryngoscopy B. Visualization of the vocal cords C. Placement of the endotracheal tube D. Preoxygenation with a BVM

D. Preoxygenation with a BVM

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? Select one: A. Smell and sight B. Sight and touch C. Sound and smell D. Sight and sound

D. Sight and sound

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: A. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion. B. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. C. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. D. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.

D. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rhonchi B. Rales C. Wheezing D. Stridor

D. Stridor

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? Select one: A. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. B. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate. C. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? Select one: A. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours. B. The patient had a stroke 5 years prior. C. The patient has a history of hypertension. D. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto).

D. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto).

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? Select one: A. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. B. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. C. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.

D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? Select one: A. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. B. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. C. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. D. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.

D. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? Select one: A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. C. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. D. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.

D. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.

During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: Select one: A. an increased risk of COPD. B. air-trapping within the alveoli. C. baseline respiratory distress. D. a decreased ability to cough.

D. a decreased ability to cough. Chapter 35, page 1286, Changes in the Respiratory System

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: Select one: A. an acute stroke. B. hyperglycemia. C. hypoglycemia. D. a heart attack.

D. a heart attack. Chapter 19, page 735, Patient Assessment of Diabetes

An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. acute hyperglycemia. B. a subdural hematoma. C. hypovolemic shock. D. a systemic infection.

D. a systemic infection. Chapter 35, pages 1295-1296, Changes in the Immune System

A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease will typically complain of _________. Select one: A. aches and fever associated with urination B. nausea and vomiting associated with intercourse C. bleeding associated with stress D. abdominal pain associated with menstruation

D. abdominal pain associated with menstruation

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: Select one: A. moist oral mucosa. B. excessive tearing. C. bulging fontanelles. D. absent urine output.

D. absent urine output.

While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: Select one: A. recognize that he needs a needle decompression. B. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. C. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest. D. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.

D. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.

A 73 year old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of CAD, HTN, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his BP is 144 /94 mmHg and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. You should: A. begin transport and request to administer epi if his systolic BP falls below 100 mm Hg B. ask him if he has epi and request approval from med control administer it to the patient C. avoid the use of the epi because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become severe D. administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient and monitor him for signs of deterioration

D. administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient and monitor him for signs of deterioration ch 20 emergency med care of immunologic emergencies pg 760

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. B. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts. C. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. D. administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

D. administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. B. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. C. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. D. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

D. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. remove your hands from the chest B. administer a breath C. check for a pulse D. allow full chest recoil

D. allow full chest recoil

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: A. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. B. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. C. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. D. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

D. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one: A. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. B. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. C. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. D. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

D. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. B. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. C. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.

D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs B. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable C. require prompt extrication from an automobile D. are in sitting position and are clinically stable

D. are in sitting position and are clinically stable

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: Select one: A. part of the body that sustained secondary injury. B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. C. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.

A 58 year old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg his pulse is 104 BPM and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) and he tells you that he does. You should: A. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. B. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure C. recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant HTN D. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it

D. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it ch 14 patient assessment pg 565

You are called to the scene of a 56-year-old female patient who was the driver of a car that struck a telephone pole. The patient is sitting in her vehicle with her seat belt on and the air bag has deployed. A bystander approaches as you arrive and informs you that he is an off-duty firefighter and was first on the scene. The bystander wishes to provide you with a patient care report. You should: Select one: A. ask the bystander for any formal identification and listen to the report once it is verified. B. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient. C. ask the bystander to wait and you will take their report after you have finished your assessment. D. ask your partner to perform the primary survey while you listen to the report.

D. ask your partner to perform the primary survey while you listen to the report.

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: Select one: A. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. B. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest. C. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries. D. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.

D. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. apply a nonrebreathing mask. D. assist the patient's ventilations.

D. assist the patient's ventilations.

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should: A. make note of it and continue your assessment B. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask C. request a paramedic to decompress the chest D. assist ventilations with BVM

D. assist ventilations with BVM

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon). B. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate. C. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan).

D. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan).

When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress: Select one: A. between 1 inch and 2 inches. B. at least 1 inch. C. more than 2.5 inches. D. at least 2 inches.

D. at least 2 inches.

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves: Select one: A. bag-valve mask ventilation. B. blind finger sweeps. C. abdominal thrusts. D. back slaps.

D. back slaps.

Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. Select one: A. include your opinion of the nature of the incident B. describe the status of the suspect(s) C. be subjective and summarize the crime D. be objective and factual

D. be objective and factual

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. C. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. D. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

D. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56 year old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask B. attach the AED immediately C. obtain baseline vital signs D. begin ventilatory assistance

D. begin ventilatory assistance ch 16 pathophysiology pg 641

General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include: Select one: A. firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider. B. placing the patient between yourself and an exit. C. allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes. D. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.

D. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: Select one: A. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. B. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water. C. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. D. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.

D. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.

You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: Select one: A. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions. B. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives. C. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1. D. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child.

D. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child.

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: A. skull fracture. B. hypoxic seizure C. acute hypotension D. cerebral edema

D. cerebral edema

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: A. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin. B. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. C. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. D. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

D. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________. Select one: A. a hernia B. appendicitis C. kidney stones D. cholecystitis

D. cholecystitis

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. incident management B. simple access C. vehicle stabilization D. complex access

D. complex access

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. B. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. C. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: Select one: A. acute schizophrenia. B. acute hypovolemia. C. alcohol intoxication. D. delirium tremens.

D. delirium tremens.

A 40 year old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? A. avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD B. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate C. continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital D. deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR

D. deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR ch 16 heart surgeries and cardiac assistive devices pg 654

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: Select one: A. advanced age. B. a chronic illness. C. drug abuse. D. depression.

D. depression.

Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. improve over time C. come back automatically when needed D. deteriorate over time

D. deteriorate over time

In addition to ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's responsibility when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: Select one: A. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility. B. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment. C. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice. D. diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient.

D. diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient.

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. administer back blows. C. place the patient supine. D. encourage the patient to cough.

D. encourage the patient to cough.

An __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. metaphyseal B. greenstick D. diaphyseal D. epiphyseal

D. epiphyseal Chapter 31 musculoskeletal injuries, page 1093

The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________. Select one: A. platelets and plasma B. hemoglobin A and S C. transport and clotting D. erythrocytes and leukocytes

D. erythrocytes and leukocytes

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: Select one: A. biologic weapons. B. nuclear weapons. C. chemical weapons. D. explosive weapons.

D. explosive weapons.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. B. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. C. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. D. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.

D. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. Select one: A. egg B. abdomen C. cervix D. fallopian tubes

D. fallopian tubes

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. B. place her legs together and position her on her left side. C. elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket. D. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.

D. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion.

Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: A. respiratory distress. B. signs of shock. C. pulmonary edema. D. flulike symptoms.

D. flulike symptoms.

A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should first: A. apply direct pressure to the wound B. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment C. place the patient on high-flow oxygen D. follow appropriate standard precautions

D. follow appropriate standard precautions

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: A. vertebral foramina B. eustachian tube C. spinous process D. foramen magnum

D. foramen magnum.

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: A. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. B. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. C. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. diving. B. falls. C. compression. D. hangings.

D. hangings.

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: Select one: A. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. B. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck B. Patient tenses up at the time of impact C. air bag correctly deploys upon impact D. headrest is appropriately positioned.

D. headrest is appropriately positioned.

The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: Select one: A. hypertension. B. altered mental status. C. arthritis. D. heart disease.

D. heart disease.

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: Select one: A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. B. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. C. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.

D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.

The amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: A. remove viruses from the fetus. B. transfer oxygen to the fetus. C. assist in fetal development. D. insulate and protect the fetus.

D. insulate and protect the fetus.

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. glucagon. B. oxygen. C. dextrose. D. insulin.

D. insulin.

After spiking a bag of IV fluid for the paramedic, the EMT notices that the drip chamber is too full. The EMT should: Select one: A. squeeze the IV bag to force fluid into the tubing. B. let the IV flow rapidly for 20 to 30 seconds. C. replace the administration set with a new one. D. invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber.

D. invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: A. severe insulin shock. B. hypoxia and overhydration. C. acidosis and dehydration. D. irreversible renal failure.

D. irreversible renal failure.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. B. can be reversed with prompt treatment. C. causes dehydration from excessive urination. D. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

D. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: A. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. B. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves. C. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen. D. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.

D. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.

tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: Select one: A. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. B. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. C. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. D. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

D. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: A. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. B. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. C. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. Select one: A. perineum; anus B. vagina; cervix C. fallopian tubes; uterus D. labia majora; labia minora

D. labia majora; labia minora

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: Select one: A. frontal collisions. B. rear-end collisions. C. rollover collisions. D. lateral collisions.

D. lateral collisions.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. B. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. C. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. D. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

D. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. kidney failure. B. CNS depression. C. gastric ulcers. D. liver failure.

D. liver failure.

The upper jawbones are called the: Select one: A. zygoma. B. mandible. C. mastoid. D. maxillae.

D. maxillae.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. can be controlled in the field. B. often presents with acute pain. C. is typically not as severe. D. may be relatively painless.

D. may be relatively painless.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. B. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. C. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.

D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a concussion? A. weakness B. visual changes C. dizziness D. muscle tremors

D. muscle tremors

Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

D. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: Select one: A. open abdominal trauma. B. blunt trauma to the head. C. lower extremity fractures. D. neck and facial injuries.

D. neck and facial injuries.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on the lower abdomen. B. anywhere on the arms. C. on either side of the chest. D. on the thighs or ankles.

D. on the thighs or ankles. Chapter 16, page 651, Cardiac Monitoring

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. ecstasy. B. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). C. crack cocaine. D. oxycodone (Percocet).

D. oxycodone (Percocet).

While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: Select one: A. deliver 5 rescue breaths. B. categorize him as immediate. C. categorize him as deceased. D. palpate for a carotid pulse.

D. palpate for a carotid pulse.

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnessess who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: A. log roll him as a unti into a supine position B. assess the rate and quality of his breathing C. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver D. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse

D. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse ch 10 opening the airway pg 405

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. the abdomen will become instantly distended. B. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. C. it commonly protrudes through the injury site. D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours.

D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours.

Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: Select one: A. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. B. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. C. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord. D. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

D. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: Select one: A. an air embolism. B. alcohol intoxication. C. cold-water immersion. D. possible spinal injury.

D. possible spinal injury.

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: A. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. B. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma. C. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. D. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

D. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. determine if he has cardiac problems. B. apply an AED and assess his BP. C. apply bulky dressings to the sternum. D. prepare for immediate transport.

D. prepare for immediate transport.

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: A. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s) B. split up and request a search grid C. begin searching for the patient D. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

D. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. spontaneous pneumothorax. B. intrauterine bleeding. C. acute pulmonary edema. D. pulmonary embolism.

D. pulmonary embolism.

You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. oral glucose gel and transport. B. ventilatory assistance and transport. C. high-flow oxygen and transport. D. recovery position and transport.

D. recovery position and transport.

Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. C. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. D. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

D. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

Infarction

Death of a body tissue, usually caused by interruption of its blood supply.

An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: Select one: A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. advise the child that he will need rabies shots. C. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. D. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.

D. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the: Select one: A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body. B. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver. C. distance between the two AED pads on the chest. D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

Functions of the liver include: Select one: A. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. B. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar. C. absorption of nutrients and toxins. D. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.

D. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.

Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: Select one: A. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. B. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube. C. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur. D. secretions can build up in and around the tube.

D. secretions can build up in and around the tube.

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: Select one: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. inspect the helmet for cracks. C. leave her bicycle helmet on. D. stabilize her entire spine.

D. stabilize her entire spine.

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: Select one: A. end of one to the start of the next. B. end of one to the end of the next. C. start of one to the end of the next. D. start of one to the start of the next.

D. start of one to the start of the next.

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. radpidly assess only the survivors who ahve experienced obvious trauma. B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain C. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: A. respiratory B. cardiac C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic

D. sympathetic

Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. Select one: A. agonal respirations B. Kussmaul respirations C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations D. tachypnea

D. tachypnea

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: Select one: A. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. C. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. D. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.

D. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: Select one: A. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. B. an expected finding in full-term infants. C. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. D. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

D. that the baby's airway may be obstructed.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. C. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. C. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

You respond to a house fire with the local fire department. They bring a 48-year-old woman out of the house. She is unconscious but her airway is open. Her breathing is shallow at 30 breaths/min. Her pulse is 110 beats/min, strong and regular. Her blood pressure is 108/72 mm Hg. She has been burned over 40% of her body. The burned area appears to be dry and leathery. It looks charred and has pieces of fabric embedded in the flesh. You know that this type of burn is considered a: A. second-degree burn B. first-degree burn. C. partial-thickness burn. D. third-degree burn.

D. third-degree burn.

Venous stasis in an older patient creates problems such as superficial phlebitis and ________. Ascites Aneurysm Deep venous thrombosis Hemoptysis

DVT Correct. Venous stasis in an older patient creates problems such as superficial phlebitis and deep venous thrombosis, which can lead to pulmonary embolism.

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. B. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin. C. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. D. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.

D. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. B. positioning the patient on his or her side. C. administering high-flow oxygen. D. transporting the patient without delay.

D. transporting the patient without delay.

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: A. in sets of 5 followed by reassessment B. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process C. until he/she experiences cardiac arrest D. until he/she loses consciousness

D. until he/she loses consciousness ch 13 foreign body airway obstruction in adults pg 543

If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________. Select one: A. not approach the vomitus. B. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary. C. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department. D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. B. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. C. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. D. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.

D. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ.

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________. Select one: A. hypotension B. GI trauma C. altered LOC D. vomiting

D. vomiting

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: Select one: A. closely assess the patient's airway. B. consider the mechanism of injury. C. manually stabilize the patient's head. D. wear gloves and facial protection.

D. wear gloves and facial protection.

Helmets must be removed in all of the following cases, EXCEPT: A. when cardiac arrest is involved B. when the helmet allows for excessive movement C. when a shield cannot be removed for access to the airway D. when there are no impending airway or breathing problems

D. when there are no impending airway or breathing problems

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: A.patient's mental status. B.rate of the patient's pulse. C.presence of a medical identification tag. D.rate and depth of breathing.

D.rate and depth of breathing. Ch 19 endocrine emergencies pg 730

Which of the following mnemonics is helpful when you are dealing with a tracheostomy tube obstruction? DOPE DUMBELS PEARRL PASTE

DOPE DOPE (Displaced, dislodged, or damaged tube; Obstructed tube [secretions, blood, mucus, vomitus]; Pneumothorax; Equipment failure [kinked tubing, ventilator malfunction, empty oxygen supply]) can help you remember the possible causes of an airway obstruction and correct the problem.

sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

Death of an infant or young child that remains unexplained after a complete autopsy.

In arteriosclerosis, overproduction of abnormal collagen and decreased quantities of elastin lead to what? Decreased coronary artery perfusion Increased coronary artery perfusion Narrowing pulse pressure Hypotension

Decreased coronary artery perfusion Overproduction of abnormal collagen and decreased quantities of elastin lead to decreased coronary artery perfusion.

Kussmaul respirations

Deep, rapid breathing; usually the result of an accumulation of certain acids when insulin is not available in the body.

As an EMT, what is your main goal in a psychiatric emergency? Identifying the underlying cause of the behavioral emergency Defusing/controlling the situation and providing transport Referring the patient to appropriate mental health resources Showing empathy

Defusing/controlling the situation and providing transport Your main goal in this type of emergency is to diffuse/control the situation and provide transport to an appropriate care facility.

Which of the following behavioral crises is most likely to lead to suicide? Depression Excited delirium Psychosis PTSD

Depression The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is depression.

You are assessing a patient who presents with slurred speech, hypoventilation, and hypotension. Which of the following might the patient have taken? Pilocarpine Albuterol Diazepam Diphenhydramine

Diazepam is a sedative-hypnotic and signs and symptoms include slurred speech, sedation or coma, hypoventilation, and hypoventilation.

anemic

Describes a condition in which the patient has too few red blood cells, resulting in a decreased ability to transport oxygen throughout the body via the bloodstream.

persistency

Describes how long a chemical agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates.

command post

Designated field command center where incident commander and support personnel are located.

Diabetes is a metabolic disorder in which the body's ability to metabolize what is impaired? Protein Fats Glucose Electrolytes

Diabetes is a metabolic disorder in which the body's ability to metabolize glucose is impaired.

In ________, there are fewer insulin receptors, so insulin resistance develops. Diabetes mellitus type 1 Diabetes mellitus type 2 HHNS Ketoacidosis

Diabetes mellitus type 2 Diabetes mellitus type 1 is an autoimmune disorder in which the individual's immune system produces antibodies to the pancreatic beta cells, and therefore the pancreas cannot produce insulin.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the returning combat veteran? Guilt, shame, paranoia, and hostility are rare in combat veterans. Physical restraints are an important tool to calm the veteran with PTSD. Suicide is rare in this population. Diesel fumes can trigger PTSD in combat veterans.

Diesel fumes have been found to trigger PTSD in these patients.

Ecchymosis

Discoloration associated with a closed wound; signifies bleeding.

Rearrange the injuries from least to most severe based on the musculoskeletal injury grading system. Dislocated fingers Bilateral femur fracture Displaced pelvic fracture Pelvic fracture with hemodynamic instability Nondisplaced long bone fracture

Dislocated fingers Nondisplaced long bone fracture Displaced pelvic fracture Bilateral femur fracture Pelvic fracture with hemodynamic instability

Ventricular Fibrillation

Disorganized, ineffective quivering of the ventricles, resulting in no blood flow and a state of cardiac arrest.

Which sign/symptom would give you a high index of suspicion that a patient may have compartment syndrome? Referred pain Limb deformity Disproportionate pain Hypersensation

Disproportionate pain Disproportionate pain on passive stretch of muscles within the compartment is a sign of compartment syndrome.

Dislocation

Disruption of a joint in which ligaments are damaged and the bone ends are no longer in contact

You are assessing a patient who reports pain that is tearing and describes it as going from the abdomen posteriorly. What should you suspect? Dissecting abdominal aneurysm Kidney damage Ruptured appendix Gallbladder inflammation

Dissecting abdominal aneurysm Patients with a dissecting abdominal aneurysm report tearing going from the abdomen posteriorly.

Which of the following is the means by which an agent is spread? Contamination Dissemination Incubation Volatility

Dissemination Dissemination is the means by which an agent is spread.

Generic (Trade Name): furosemide (Lasix)

Diuretic; treats hypertension, heart failure

hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)

Diuretic; treats hypertension, heart failure

You are off duty and you come across an unresponsive child lying on the ground at a playground. She does not have a pulse and no one witnessed the collapse. What should you do? Call 9-1-1 immediately, then return to the child and begin CPR. Do 5 cycles of chest compressions, and then call 9-1-1. Call for ALS backup immediately. Take the child to the nearest hospital in your vehicle.

Do 5 cycles of chest compressions, and then call 9-1-1. You should do 5 cycles of chest compressions (about 2 minutes), then call 9-1-1. Because cardiopulmonary arrest in children is most often the result of respiratory failure, it is critical that you restore oxygenation.

coup-contrecoup injury

Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury occurs at the point of impact; contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, as the brain rebounds.

Which intervention(s) would have the MOST positive impact on the cardiac arrest patient's outcome? Cardiac medications Advanced airway management Early CPR and defibrillation IV fluid administration

Early CPR and defibrillation Early high-quality CPR and defibrillation are most likely to have a positive impact.

G agents

Early nerve agents that were developed by German scientists in the period after World War I and into World War II. There are three such agents: sarin, soman, and tabun.

If PID is not treated, what can occur? Ectopic pregnancy Arthritis Low-birth-weight babies Uterine collapse

Ectopic pregnancy If PID is not treated, it can lead to ectopic pregnancy.

trauma emergencies

Emergencies that are the result of physical forces applied to a patient's body.

medical emergencies

Emergencies that require EMS attention because of illnesses or conditions not caused by an outside force.

ionizing radiation

Energy that is emitted in the form of rays, or particles.

Buboes

Enlarged lymph nodes (up to the size of a tennis ball) that were characteristic in people infected with the bubonic plague.

When driving an ambulance, what is the safest path when cornering? Enter high, apex low, and exit high Enter high and exit low Enter low, apex high, and exit high Enter low and exit low

Enter high and exit low The safest way to corner is to enter high and exit low.

complex access

Entry that requires special tools and training and includes the use of force.

You are assisting with an endotracheal intubation. After the tube is placed, you notice increased resistance as you ventilate with a BVM. What does this indicate? Apneic oxygenation Esophageal intubation Vascular collapse The ET tube is not secured at the proper depth marking.

Esophageal intubation When increasing resistance is felt, it could indicate a critical airway or breathing problem that must be addressed, such as the advanced airway device has been mistakenly placed into the esophagus rather than into the trachea, referred to as esophageal intubation.

When you are performing CPR on an adult or child, approximately how often should you reassess the patient for return of respirations and/or circulation? Every minute Every 2 minutes Every 3 minutes Every 5 minutes

Every 2 minutes You should reassess after five cycles of chest compressions, or approximately every 2 minutes.

You are assessing a patient who has been in a high-impact T-bone collision. She is bleeding from the abdomen and you can see part of her large intestine outside her body. What is this injury called? Avulsion Ecchymosis Evisceration Impalement

Evisceration is the displacement of organs outside the body.

polyphagia

Excessive eating; in diabetes, the inability to use glucose properly can cause a sense of hunger.

polydipsia

Excessive thirst that persists for long periods, despite reasonable fluid intake; often the result of excessive urination.

Miosis

Excessively constricted pupil; often bilateral after exposure to nerve agents.

Ventilation

Exchange of air between the lungs and the environment, spontaneously by the patient or with assistance from another person, such as an EMT.

points of distribution (PODs)

Existing facilities that are established in a time of need for the mass distribution of antibiotics, antidotes, vaccinations, and other medications and supplies.

Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty works by bypassing the coronary artery. TrueFalse

F Correct. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty aims to dilate, rather than bypass, the coronary artery.

The factors involved in the defibrillation include voltage, current, and amperage. TrueFalse

F Correct. The factors involved in the defibrillation include voltage, current, and impedance.

Fractures of the proximal femur usually involve the hip joint. TF

F Correct. Fractures of the proximal femur are usually called hip fractures, but they rarely involve the hip joint.

If you are unable to restore the distal pulse on scene, you should splint the limb in a straight position and provide prompt transport to the hospital. TF

F Correct. If you are unable to restore the distal pulse, splint the limb in the position that is most comfortable for the patient and provide prompt transport to the hospital.

Ingested poisoning is usually accidental in adults. T/F

F Correct. Ingested poisoning is usually accidental in children and deliberate in adults.

When dealing with an absorbed poison, you should flush the skin of the affected area with an alcohol rinse for 15 to 20 minutes. T/F

F Correct. When dealing with an absorbed poison, you should flush the skin of the affected area with clean water (not alcohol) for 15 to 20 minutes.

A patient with dry and warm skin indicates hypoglycemia. TrueFalse

False Correct. A patient with dry and warm skin indicates hyperglycemia.

Symptoms of air embolism may not occur for several hours.TrueFalse

False Correct. Air embolism occurs immediately on returning to the surface, but symptoms of decompression sickness may not occur for several hours.

PID is the most common vaginal infection in women age 15 to 44. T/F

False Correct. Bacterial vaginosis is the most common vaginal infection in women age 15 to 44.

In an air embolism, the air pressure in the lungs remains constant while the external pressure on the chest increases. TrueFalse

False Correct. In an air embolism, the air pressure in the lungs remains at a high level while the external pressure on the chest decreases.

Symptoms of gonorrhea are generally more severe in women than in men. T/F

False Correct. Symptoms of gonorrhea are generally more severe in men than in women.

Use activated charcoal for pediatric patients who have ingested an acid, an alkali, or a petroleum product.TrueFalse

False Correct. The use of activated charcoal is NOT indicated for pediatric patients who have ingested an acid, an alkali, or a petroleum product.

A Type I ambulance is a standard van, forward-control integral cab-body ambulance.TrueFalse

False Correct. A Type I ambulance is a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a new chassis as needed. A Type II ambulance is a standard van, forward-control integral cab-body ambulance.

A geriatric patient with cholecystitis generally presents with left lower quadrant pain and fever.TrueFalse

False Correct. A geriatric patient with diverticulitis generally presents with left lower quadrant pain and fever. Patients with inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis) will have fever and right upper quadrant pain that may radiate to the shoulder.

An ileostomy is a surgical procedure that creates an opening between the urethra and the surface of the body.TrueFalse

False Correct. An ileostomy is a surgical procedure that creates an opening between the small intestine and the surface of the body.

You will need to treat any patients trapped in a trench collapse prior to extrication to avoid the patient becoming hypoxic. TrueFalse

False Correct. At no time should medical or rescue personnel enter a trench deeper than 4 feet (1 m) without proper shoring in place.

Delirium is the slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function. TrueFalse

False Correct. Dementia is the slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function. Delirium is a sudden change in mental status, consciousness, or cognitive processes, and is marked by the inability to focus, think logically, and maintain attention.

You should remove the patient's dentures when assessing the airway.TrueFalse

False Correct. Dentures should not be removed unless they obstruct the airway or interfere with ventilation when rescue breathing is needed.

Function of the small and large bowel changes significantly as a consequence of aging.TrueFalse

False Correct. Function of the small and large bowel changes little as a consequence of aging, although the incidence of certain diseases involving the bowel (such as diverticulosis) increases as a person grows older.

If the length of a tracheostomy tube cannot be determined, insert the suction device 3-4 inches deep.TrueFalse

False Correct. If the length of a tracheostomy tube cannot be determined, insert the suction device no more than 1 to 2 inches (3 to 6 cm) deep.

Labor is usually longer in a multigravida and shorter in a primigravida. TrueFalse

False Correct. Labor is usually longer in a primigravida, a woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy, and shorter in a multigravida, a woman who has experienced previous pregnancies.

The EMT's assessment of the patient and the scene will dictate how medical care, packaging, and transport will proceed.TrueFalse

False Correct. The assessment of the patient and the scene by the incident commander, not by EMTs, will dictate how medical care, packaging, and transport will proceed.

The most common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is sweating.TrueFalse

False Correct. The most common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is vomiting and diarrhea.

The respiratory rate in an older patient is faster than that of a younger adult.TrueFalse

False Correct. The respiratory rate should be in the same range as in a younger adult, but chest rise will be compromised by increased chest wall stiffness.

You should place items needed to care for life-threatening conditions at the side of the stretcher. TrueFalse

False Correct. You should place items needed to care for life-threatening conditions within easy reach, at the head of the primary stretcher. Place items for cardiac care, control of external bleeding, and monitoring blood pressure at the side of the stretcher.

A hematoma is an open injury that occurs whenever a large blood vessel is damaged and bleeds rapidly. TrueFalse

False Correct. A hematoma does occur whenever a large blood vessel is damaged and bleeds rapidly, but it is a closed injury.

Cardiac arrest occurs in children and adults for the same reasons. T/F

False: Correct. Cardiac arrest in children is usually the result of respiratory failure, whereas a sudden cardiac rhythm disturbance is the primary cause of cardiac arrest in adults.

Which of the following is the best source of information when you are dealing with an autistic patient? The patient him/herself Family members/caregivers The attending doctor Medical control

Family members or caregivers provide care for the patient on an ongoing basis and are aware of the patient's medical history, baseline mental status, and medications the patient is taking.

meconium

Fetal stool. When appearing as a dark green material in the amniotic fluid, it can indicate distress or disease in the newborn; it can be aspirated into the fetus's lungs during delivery.

The two important underlying principles of the NIMS are standardization and what? Resource allocation Flexibility Chain of command Maintenance

Flexibility The two important underlying principles of the NIMS are standardization and flexibility.

air ambulances

Fixed-wing and rotary-wing (known as helicopters) aircrafts that have been modified for medical care; used to evacuate and transport patients with life-threatening injuries to treatment facilities.

If you are signaled by the medivac crew to approach a medivac helicopter that has landed on uneven ground, from which direction should you approach the aircraft? From the front From the rear From the downhill side of the aircraft From the uphill side of the aircraft

From the downhill side of the aircraft You should approach the aircraft from the downhill side of the aircraft.

access

Gaining entry to an enclosed area and reaching a patient.

What is released when the concentration of glucose drops in the blood? Insulin Epinephrine Glucagon Dopamine

Glucagon stimulates liver and skeletal muscles to release glycogen, and converts glycogen back to glucose for use as cellular fuel.

Viruses

Germs that require a living host to multiply and survive.

endocrine glands

Glands that secrete or release chemicals that are used inside the body.

Carboys

Glass, plastic, or steel containers, ranging in volume from 5 to 15 gallons. (19 to 57 L)

Young children are more likely to experience ________ than adults. Cardiopulmonary arrest Femur fractures Greenstick fractures Sprains

Greenstick fractures Correct. Greenstick (incomplete) fractures are more common in pediatric patients.

What is it called when a patient tenses his abdominal muscles during your assessment? Rebound tenderness Tetany Splinting Guarding

Guarding is involuntary muscle contractions (spasm) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect the inflamed abdomen.

which of the following are signs of Cushing Triad? loss of sensation HTN irregular respirations bradycardia

HTN irregular respirations bradycardia

You would use the Revised Trauma Score scoring system for a patient if there is potential for what type of trauma? Abdominal Head Chest Extremity

Head The RTS is most commonly used for patients with head trauma because it is weighted to compensate for major head injury without multisystem injury or major physiologic changes.

You arrive at the scene and find the patient sitting under a tree in his garden; he is conscious, but confused. His wife tells you that he has been working outside all day. She further states that he refused to take a break and drink some water. Your assessment finds a flushed appearance; weak and rapid radial pulses; and hot, moist skin. Based on this, you suspect that your patient is suffering from __________ . Heat cramps Heat exhaustion Heat stroke Heat asphyxia

Heat stroke Correct. There are several clinical findings that indicate your patient is experiencing the most serious heat illness, heat stroke. Unlike other, less-severe forms of heat illness, patients with heat stroke have an altered LOC and flushed, hot skin. Your patient has both of these.

What is the medical term for blood in the vomit? Melena Hematemesis Cholecystitis Uremia

Hematemesis

You are treating a 50-year-old woman who has just finished a 10k run. She is complaining of crushing pain in the chest radiating down her left arm and nausea, which came on suddenly. She is sweating profusely. What condition should you suspect? Acute myocardial infarction Angina pectoris Congestive heart failure Cardiogenic shock

Her symptoms and the fact that she has just exerted herself suggest angina.

You are assessing a 28-year-old patient and you notice he has pinpoint pupils. You suspect a drug overdose. What drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon? Cocaine Methamphetamine Heroin Alcohol

Heroin is an opioid, and a sign of an opioid overdose is pinpoint pupils.

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) Eye Opening:

Highest score: 4 4) spontaneous 3) in response to speech 2) in response to pain 1) none

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) Best Verbal Response:

Highest score: 5 5) oriented conversation 4) confused conversation 3) inappropriate words 2) incomprehensible sounds 1) none

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) Best Motor Response:

Highest score: 6 6) obeys commands 5) localizes pain 4) withdraws to pain 3) abnormal flexion 2) abnormal extension 1) none

Select the correct answer to the question below.Petechiae are the result of what? Hollow organ injury Solid organ injury Neurologic injury Psychologic injury

Hollow organ injury Petechiae are the most visible sign of hollow organ injuries.

behavior

How a person functions or acts in response to his or her environment.

Volatility

How long a chemical agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of PTSD? Bradycardia Cyanosis Hypervigilance Lack of emotion

Hypervigilance Hypervigilance is a symptom of PTSD.

What is hyphema? Nosebleed Bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye When air is sucked into the heart Pain or difficulty swallowing

Hyphema is bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye, obscuring part or all of the iris.

Which of the following is a metabolic cause for a seizure? Brain tumor Head trauma Hypoglycemia High fever

Hypoglycemia is a metabolic cause of seizures.

Which of the following mimics a stroke and also causes a seizure? Meningitis Postictal state Hypoglycemia Migraine headache

Hypoglycemia mimics stroke and can cause seizures due to low blood glucose levels.

Hypothermia is diagnosed when the core body temperature falls below what temperature? 98°F (36.7°C) 95°F (35°C) 92°F (33.3°C) 90°F (32.2°C)

Hypothermia occurs when the core temperature falls below 95°F (35°C).

The condition in which low blood volume results in inadequate perfusion is called what? Cardiogenic shock Compensated shock Hypovolemic shock Neurogenic shock

Hypovolemic shock Hypovolemic shock is shock caused by fluid or blood loss that leads to inadequate perfusion.

You are treating a child with a bee sting. The stinger is still embedded in the child's skin. What should you do? Remove the stinger with tweezers. Leave the stinger in place. Scrape the skin with the edge of a stiff object. Squeeze the area around the stinger.

If a stinger is embedded in a patient's skin, scrape the skin with the edge of a stiff object, such as a credit card, in order to try to remove the stinger.

Which of the following signs would indicate that an injury to the kidney has occurred? Hemoptysis Hematuria Hematoma Hematemesis

If the kidney is injured, a common finding is hematuria, or blood in the urine.

If a newborn's heart rate is 75 bpm, what should you do? Keep the newborn warm and assess him/her continuously. Begin assisted ventilation with a BVM and room air. Begin assisted ventilation with a BVM and 100% oxygen. Begin chest compressions.

If the newborn's heart rate falls between 60 and 100 bpm, you should begin assisted ventilation with a BVM and room air.

You are treating a 63-year-old patient whose vital signs are as follows: pulse, 140 beats/min and irregular; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/min; and blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg. He is complaining of chest pain. Given this information, why would nitroglycerin be contraindicated? He may have already exceeded the dosage limit. His blood pressure is too low. He may be allergic to it. He may have taken Viagra in the last 24 hours.

If the systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg, you should not give nitroglycerin.

You suspect that the patient you are treating was bitten by a rattlesnake. What should you do first? Apply ice to the wound. Catch the snake so you can take it to the ED. Place the patient is a supine position. Apply suction to the wound to suck out the venom.

If you suspect a patient has been bitten by a pit viper such as a rattlesnake, place the person in a supine position to keep the venom from spreading.

________ is the paralysis of the muscular contractions that normally propel material through the intestine. Acute abdomen Emesis Ileus Peritonitis

Ileus Correct. Ileus is the paralysis of the muscular contractions that normally propel material through the intestine.

A(n) ________ is designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, resulting in negative intrathoracic pressure. Active compression-decompression CPR Impedance threshold device (ITD) Mechanical piston device Load-distributing band (LDB)

Impedance threshold device (ITD) Correct. An ITD is designed to limit the air entering the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, resulting in negative intrathoracic pressure.

esophageal intubation

Improper placement of an advanced airway device into the esophagus rather than into the trachea

perineum

In a woman, the area between the vagina and the anus

Which of the following blood vessels can be lacerated by a fractured rib? Aorta Brachial artery Iliac veins Jugular vein

In blunt trauma, a blow to the chest may fracture the ribs, the sternum, or whole areas of the chest wall; bruise the lungs and the heart; and even damage the aorta. Almost one-third of people who are killed immediately in car crashes die as a result of traumatic rupture of the aorta.

In a normal adult, greater than 30% to 40% of blood volume loss significantly increases the risk of shock. What is the threshold of blood volume loss in children? 25% 30% 45% 50%

In children, any loss of blood volume greater than 25% significantly increases the risk of shock.

Which of the following is true regarding delirium? It has a slow onset of progressive disorientation. Memory remains intact. It is a result of an irreversible metabolic disorder. It is rare in older hospitalized patients.

In delirium, memory generally remains intact.

You are treating an 8-year-old who fell while riding his bike on a gravel road. The wound on his arm is seeping blood, is about 7 inches long, and there is a lot of dirt and gravel in it. How should you treat this injury? Flush the area with sterile saline. Manually brush/pick the foreign material out. Apply occlusive dressing. Apply sterile dressing.

In general, you should not remove material from an open wound, no matter how dirty the wound is. By applying a sterile dressing, you are reducing the risk of further contamination. This keeps foreign material, such as hair, clothing, and dirt, out of the wound and decreases the risk of infection.

How far away should you park your ambulance from the site of a cave-in or trench collapse? 20 feet 100 feet 500 feet 1000 feet

In general, you should park 500 feet away from a cave-in or trench collapse to be safe from a potential secondary collapse.

rescue supervisor

In incident command, the person appointed to determine the type of equipment and resources needed for a situation involving extrication or special rescue; also called the extrication officer.

extrication supervisor

In incident command, the person appointed to determine the type of equipment and resources needed for a situation involving extrication or special rescue; also called the rescue officer.

triage supervisor

In incident command, the person in charge of the incident command triage sector who directs the sorting of patients into triage categories in a mass-casualty incident.

transportation supervisor

In incident command, the person in charge of the transportation sector in a mass-casualty incident who assigns patients from the treatment area to awaiting ambulances in the transportation area.

Rehabilitation supervisor

In incident command, the person who establishes an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation.

Public Information Officer (PIO)

In incident command, the person who keeps the public informed and relates any information to the media

staging supervisor

In incident command, the person who locates an area to stage equipment and personnel and tracks unit arrival and deployment from the staging area.

Safety Officer

In incident command, the person who monitors the scene for conditions or operations that may present a hazard to responders and patients; he or she may stop an operation when responder safety is an issue.

liaison officer

In incident command, the person who relays information, concerns, and requests among responding agencies.

morgue supervisor

In incident command, the person who works with area medical examiners, coroners, and law enforcement agencies to coordinate the disposition of dead victims.

finance

In incident command, the position in an incident responsible for accounting of all expenditures.

operations

In incident command, the position that carries out the orders of the commander to help resolve the incident.

Planning

In incident command, the position that ultimately produces a plan to resolve any incident.

span of control

In incident command, the subordinate positions under the commander's direction to which the workload is distributed; the ideal supervisor/worker ratio is 1 supervisor for 3-7 workers.

Which of the following is the final stage of wound healing? Cessation of blood loss Collagen production Formation of new capillaries Inflammation

In the last stage of wound healing, collagen provides stability to damaged tissue and joins wound borders, closing the open tissue.

anterograde (posttraumatic) amnesia

Inability to remember events after an injury.

Cushing triad (aka herniation syndrome) include:

Increased blood pressure (hypertension) Decreased heart rate (bradycardia) Irregular respirations such as Cheyenne-Stokes respiration and Biot respiration herniation syndrome = The intracranial pressure is so great that it forces the brain stem and the midbrain through the foramen magnum. - caused by signifiant brain injuries

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) levels

Indicates the amount and type of protective equipment that an individual needs to avoid injury during contact with a hazardous material.

toxicity levels

Indicates the risk that a hazardous material poses to the health of an individual who comes into contact with it.

bronchiolitis

Inflammation of the bronchioles that usually occurs in children younger than 2 years and is often caused by the respiratory syncytial virus.

What is the most common route of poisoning? Absorption Ingestion Inhalation Injection

Ingestion According to the AAPCC, approximately 80% of all poisoning is by ingestion.

Which is the most deadly route of entry for anthrax? Absorption Ingestion Inhalation Injection

Inhalation The inhalational form, or pulmonary anthrax, is the deadliest and often presents as a severe cold. Pulmonary anthrax is associated with a 90% death rate if untreated.

primary blast injury

Injuries caused by an explosive pressure wave on the hollow organs of the body. Due solely to the direct effects of the pressure wave on the body The injury from the primary blast is seen almost exclusively in the hollow organs of the body— the lungs, intestines, and inner ears. An injury to the lungs causes the greatest morbidity and mortality.

closed injuries

Injuries in which damage occurs beneath the skin or mucous membrane but the surface remains intact.

axial loading injuries

Injuries in which load is applied along the vertical or longitudinal axis of the spine, which results in load being transmitted along the entire length of the vertebral column; for example, falling from a height and landing on the feet in an upright position.

burns

Injuries in which soft-tissue damage occurs as a result from thermal heat, frictional heat, toxic chemicals, electricity, or nuclear radiation.

open injuries

Injuries in which there is a break in the surface of the skin or the mucous membrane, exposing deeper tissue to potential contamination.

penetrating trauma

Injury caused by objects, such as knives and bullets, that pierce the surface of the body and damage internal tissues and organs.

closed head injury

Injury in which the brain has been injured but the skin has not been broken and there is no obvious bleeding.

pulmonary contusion

Injury or bruising of lung tissue that results in hemorrhage.

open head injury

Injury to the head often caused by a penetrating object in which there may be bleeding and exposed brain tissue.

labia minora

Inner fleshy "lips" devoid of pubic hair that protect the vagina.

endotracheal intubation

Insertion of an endotracheal tube directly through the larynx between the vocal cords and into the trachea to maintain and protect an airway

What is the function of insulin in the body? It prevents glucose from oversaturating cells. It enables glucose in the blood to enter cells. It regulates oxygen flow to the cells. It regulates chemical production in the endocrine glands.

Insulin enables glucose in the blood to enter cells.

developmental disability

Insufficient development of the brain, resulting in some level of dysfunction or impairment.

What is the best group dynamic for an EMS situation? Co-dependent Dependent Independent Interdependent

Interdependent EMTs and other health care providers who work interdependently are functioning as a true team. While each provider may still be assigned to a particular area or task, everyone in an interdependent group works together with shared responsibilities, accountability, and a common goal (the best possible patient outcome), as opposed to focusing on the goals of their own individual areas.

Guarding

Involuntary muscle contractions (spasms) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect an inflamed abdomen; a sign of peritonitis.

vasoocclusive crisis

Ischemia and pain caused by sickle-shaped red blood cells that obstruct blood flow to a portion of the body.

What happens when blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage, resulting in tissue damage? Ischemic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke Seizure Status epilepticus

Ischemic stroke occurs when blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage inside a blood vessel.

Why is epinephrine used for anaphylaxis? It stops the allergic reaction from progressing. It reverses bronchoconstriction and vasodilation. It slows tachycardia. It decreases blood flow.

It reverses bronchoconstriction and vasodilation. Epinephrine reverses bronchoconstriction and vasodilation.

What is the best position in which to place a patient when you want to assess for jugular vein distention? Supine Modified Fowler Prone Sitting at a 45-degree angle

Jugular vein distention is best assessed with the patient sitting at a 45-degree angle.

cushion of safety

Keeping a safe distance between your vehicle and any other vehicles around you.

Situational Awareness

Knowledge and understanding of your surroundings and situation and the risk they potentially pose to your safety or the safety of the EMS team.

When does the onset of labor begin? When the amniotic sac ruptures When the fetus enters the birth canal When uterine contractions begin When the woman has the urge to push

Labor begins with the onset of contractions and ends when the cervix is fully dilated.

In which of the following environmental emergencies are you most likely to encounter laryngospasm? After being bitten by a coral snake Drowning Hyperthermia A tick bite

Laryngospasm is usually encountered in drowning accidents when water irritates the larynx and vocal cords.

When treating a patient with spina bifida, which of the following is most likely to produce anaphylaxis? Aspirin Iodine Latex Sulfa drugs

Latex A patient with spina bifida can have an extreme allergy to latex products. Latex-free products should be kept on the ambulance to avoid a severe anaphylactic reaction.

turbinates

Layers of bone within the nasal cavity.

Which toxicity level includes materials that are extremely hazardous to health? Level 1 Level 2 Level 3 Level 4

Level 4 Level 4 includes materials that are so hazardous that minimal contact will cause death. For level-4 substances, you need specialized gear that is designed for protection against that particular hazard.

Accounting for approximately 80% of all skull fractures, which of the following often present with no physical signs? Basilar skull fractures Depressed skull fractures Linear skull fractures Open skull fractures

Linear skull fractures (nondisplaced skull fractures) account for approximately 80% of all skull fractures. Radiographs are required to diagnose a linear skull fracture because there are often no physical signs, such as deformity.

You are examining a patient whose signs include lip smacking, jerking of the left arm, and agitation. Based on these signs, what type of seizure is this patient experiencing? Generalized Simple partial Complex partial Status epilepticus

Lip smacking, jerking of the left arm, and agitation are signs of a complex partial seizure.

Where is abdominal injury most likely to occur in young children? Appendix Fractured ribs Gallbladder Liver

Liver In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are very large in proportion to the size of the abdominal cavity and are more easily injured. The soft, flexible ribs of infants and young children do not protect these two organs very well and may allow injury to underlying organs, even without fracturing the ribs.

You should have an index of suspicion that a patient with pain referred to the right shoulder has an injury to which organ? Bladder Intestine Kidney Liver

Liver Injury to the liver (or spleen) may present with referred pain to the shoulders. Unlike radiating pain, which is characterized by pain that "moves" from one area of the body to another, referred pain is characterized by pain in two separate locations.

Bruising over the right upper quadrant could indicate injury to which of the following? Liver Colon Kidney Appendix

Liver The liver is found in the right upper quadrant, along with the gallbladder, duodenum of the intestines, and a small portion of the pancreas.

Angioedema

Localized areas of swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips, but it can also involve other body areas as well.

traction

Longitudinal force applied to a structure.

You are assessing a patient who is bleeding from the ear, which gives you a high index of suspicion that he has a skull fracture. How should you address this? Apply direct pressure. Pack a pressure dressing in the ear canal. Loosely cover the site. Do not do anything. Trying to stop the blood flow will force the blood back into the head.

Loosely cover the site. If you suspect a skull fracture, you should loosely cover the bleeding site with a sterile gauze pad to collect the blood and help keep contaminants away from the site, and then apply light compression by wrapping the dressing loosely around the head.

incontinence

Loss of bowel and/or bladder control; may be the result of a generalized seizure.

breath-holding syncope

Loss of consciousness caused by a decreased breathing stimulus.

Abrasion

Loss or damage of the superficial layer of skin as a result of a body part rubbing or scraping across a rough or hard surface.

supine hypotensive syndrome

Low blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the weight of the pregnant uterus when the mother is supine.

________ affect(s) the entire brain, often causing anxiety, restlessness, and confusion. Poor blood supply to one side of the brain Low oxygen levels in the bloodstream Very low blood glucose levels Aneurysms

Low oxygen levels in the bloodstream

What is the primary difference between a disaster and an MCI? EMTs can declare a disaster but not an MCI. MCIs are usually short term and disasters are long term. The number of casualties is higher with an MCI. Casualty collection areas are only erected in MCIs.

MCIs are usually short term and disasters are long term.

Rearrange the steps of the decision scheme for field triage of injured patients into the correct order. Transport Assess MOI and evidence of high-energy impact Measure vital signs and LOC Assess anatomy of injury

Measure vital signs and LOC Assess anatomy of injury Assess MOI and evidence of high-energy impact Transport

medivac

Medical evacuation of a patient by helicopter.

The six-pointed Star of Life emblem identifies vehicles that meet which of the following criteria? Are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT) Meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances Are operated federally certified ambulance operators Are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation

Meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances The Star of Life indicates vehicles that meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.

Which of the following is a sign of peptic ulcer disease? Vomiting Diarrhea Cystitis Melena

Melena is a sign of PUD.

In the context of an environment that is 90°F with 85% humidity, what does moist, pale, cool skin indicate? The body can no longer regulate core temperature. The patient is hypothermic. There has been excessive fluid and salt loss. Core body temperature and ambient temperature are equal.

Moist, pale, cool skin in a hot environment indicates there has been excessive fluid and salt loss.

Most often, low blood flow to heart tissue is caused by what? Atherosclerosis Thromboembolism Acute myocardial infarction Ventricular fibrillation

Most often, low blood flow to heart tissue is caused by atherosclerosis, where calcium and cholesterol build up and form a plaque inside the walls of blood vessels.

In addition to providing medical care to a rape victim, which of the following is the most critical thing you should do? Ask very specific questions to help identify the assailant. Do a full assessment of the victim's mental status to determine whether an assault has actually occurred. Move the patient to a private location. Refer the patient to a rape crisis center.

Move the patient to a private location. As the patient's advocate, you need to provide medical assistance and emotional support and ensure the patient's privacy.

false motion

Movement that occurs in a bone at a point where there is no joint, indicating a fracture; also called free movement.

Which of the following tasks should be done during triage? Moving patients to the treatment area Establishing a morgue (if necessary) Establishing a loading zone Assign crews to treat patients

Moving patients to the treatment area Establishing a morgue (if necessary) Correct. Moving patients to the treatment area and setting up a morgue area (if needed) occur during triage. Establishing a loading zone = Transportation phase Assign crews to treat patients = Treatment phase

What is mustard gas considered to be? G-agent Metabolic agent Mutagen Neurotoxin

Mutagen Mustard gas is a mutagen because it changes the structures of cells.

In which group of agents is miosis a sign of exposure? Metabolic agents Nerve agents Respiratory agents Vesicants

Nerve agents Miosis (bilateral pinpoint pupils) is a sign of nerve agent exposure.

What should you give a patient displaying respiratory depression and hypotension? Activated charcoal Naloxone Phenobarbital Codeine

Naloxone Naloxone is an antidote that reverses the effects of opiate or opioid overdose, which is characterized by respiratory depression and hypotension.

dirty bomb

Name given to an explosive radiologic dispersal device.

hydrocodone (Vicodin)

Narcotic analgesic; pain reliever

cervix

Narrowest portion of the uterus that opens into the vagina.

anisocoria

Naturally occurring uneven pupil size.

Which area of the body are you palpating if you feel subcutaneous emphysema? Chest Neck Abdomen Spine

Neck You are palpating the neck if you feel subcutaneous emphysema.

What is the name of the condition when the patient forgets about the injured side after a stroke? Hemiparesis Neglect Aphasia Ataxia

Neglect is a symptom when a patient with right hemisphere strokes may forget about injuries on the left side of the body.

basic life support (BLS)

Noninvasive emergency lifesaving care that is used to treat medical conditions, including airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

impaled objects

Objects that penetrate the skin but remain in place.

cross-contamination

Occurs when a person is contaminated by an agent as a result of coming into contact with another contaminated person.

Hydroplaning

Occurs when the tires of a vehicle are lifted off the road surface as a result of water "piling up" underneath them, making the vehicle feel as though it is floating.

What is often the first sign of heat stroke? Change in behavior Muscle cramps Low pulse rate and blood pressure Profuse sweating

Often, the first sign of heat stroke is a change in behavior.

V agent (VX)

One of the G agents; it is a clear, oily agent that has no odor and looks like baby oil; more than 100 times more lethal than sarin and is extremely persistent.

In which instance would you consider removing an impaled object? When the object is impaled in the eye and threatens vision When the object is impaled in the ear and creates basilar trauma When the object is impaled in the cheek and compromises the airway When the object is impaled in the neck into or near the carotid artery

One of the rare times you should consider removing an impaled object is when the object is impaled in the cheek and compromises the airway.

Ventricle

One of two (right and left) lower chambers of the heart. The left ventricle receives blood from the left atrium (upper chamber) and delivers blood to the aorta. The right ventricle receives blood from the right atrium and pumps it into the pulmonary artery.

Atrium

One of two (right and left) upper chambers of the heart. The right atrium receives blood from the vena cava and delivers it to the right ventricle. The left atrium receives blood from pulmonary veins and delivers it to the left ventricle.

What are the two most common injuries caused by penetrating chest trauma? Flail chest and simple pneumothorax Commotio cordis and hemopneumothorax Pulmonary and myocardial contusion Open pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade

Open pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade are the two common injuries caused by penetrating chest trauma.

Which of the following is an example of simple access? Opening a rear door Removing the windshield Breaking a side window Prying open a door

Opening the rear door is an example of simple access.

Which of the following is not part of the general staff defined in the ICS? Organization Planning Logistics Finance

Organization Correct. There is no organization general staff dictated by the ICS. Rather, it includes command, finance, logistics, operations, and planning. Includes: Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Admin

myocardial contusion

bruising of the heart muscle

labia majora

Outer fleshy "lips" covered with pubic hair that protect the vagina.

Which of the following organs or structures controls the process of ovulation and menstruation? Fallopian tubes Ovaries Vagina Cervix

Ovaries The ovaries are the primary female reproductive organs and control the process of ovulation and menstruation.

Which mnemonic is used in CRM? PACE (Probe, Alert, Challenge, Emergency) PIE (Plan, Interventions, Evaluation) PRONE (Problem, Report, Object, Negotiate, Evaluate) PUSH (Placate, Urge, Suggest, Help)

PACE (Probe, Alert, Challenge, Emergency) CRM recommends the use of the PACE mnemonic (Probe, Alert, Challenge, Emergency)

You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is reporting achy abdominal pain, burning on urination, and a slight fever. As you assist her to the ambulance, you notice that she has a shuffling gait. What condition does this indicate? Bacterial vaginosis Chlamydia Ectopic pregnancy PID

PID PID signs/symptoms include achy abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, fever and chills, and pain or burning on urination. Patients often present with a distinctive gait that appears as a shuffle when they walk.

You are assessing an 80-year-old patient who explains that he was awakened by a sudden feeling of suffocation and respiratory distress. What are his symptoms a characteristic of? Orthopnea Exertional dyspnea Intermittent sleep apnea Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

PND Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a condition that is characterized by a sudden attack of respiratory distress that wakes the person at night when the patient is in a reclining position. The respiratory distress is caused by fluid accumulation in the lungs.

A patient with which of the following conditions is likely to have a flashback? Depression Excited delirium PTSD Schizophrenia

PTSD Flashbacks are likely in a patient with PTSD.

Examination of the injured limb should include the 6 Ps of musculoskeletal assessment:

Pain Paralysis Paresthesia (numbness or tingling) Pulselessness Pallor Pressure

referred pain

Pain felt in an area of the body other than the area where the cause of pain is located.

heat cramps

Painful muscle spasms usually associated with vigorous activity in a hot environment.

Which of the following are considered solid organs? Liver and intestines Kidneys and bladder Spleen and stomach Pancreas and spleen

Pancreas and spleen

You are assessing a patient reporting severe pain in his upper left and right abdominal quadrants radiating to the back. The patient reports that the pain got worse right after he ate lunch an hour ago. He also has nausea and vomiting, abdominal distention, and tenderness. Based on these signs and symptoms, which of the following conditions do you suspect? Appendicitis Diverticulitis Esophagitis Pancreatitis

Pancreatitis

Which of the following are you likely to see in flail chest? Belly breathing Myocardial contusion Paradoxical motion Ventricular fibrillation

Paradoxical motion is a sign of flail chest. The detached portion of the chest wall moves opposite of normal: It moves in instead of out during inhalation and out instead of in during exhalation.

ileus

Paralysis of the bowel, arising from any one of several causes; stops contractions that move material through the intestine.

What should you do if you find a patient entrapped in a vehicle who is in need of CPR? Apply manual stabilization until the patient can be extricated. Perform rapid extrication techniques. Perform CPR during the extrication process. Apply a bag-valve mask (BVM).

Perform rapid extrication techniques. You and the team should perform rapid extrication techniques because trying to apply chest compressions or airway management is ineffective when a patient is in a sitting position.

You are assessing a female patient who tells you she feels blood coming from her vaginal area. She gives you permission to look and you observe moderate bleeding from the vagina. What should you do to manage the bleeding? Apply direct pressure using trauma dressings. Pack the vagina with trauma dressings. Ask the patient to insert a tampon. Place a sanitary pad over the vaginal opening.

Place a sanitary pad over the vaginal opening. You should place a sanitary pad over the vaginal opening.

place pregnant patient on her ______ side so that:

Place patient on her left side so that the uterus will not lie on the vena cava. In the third trimester, the uterus is large and may obstruct the vena cava, leading to a decrease in the amount of blood returning to the heart if the patient is placed in a supine position (supine hypotensive syndrome).

When performing CPR on an infant, which of the following is correct? Place two fingers in the middle of the sternum, just below the nipple line. Place the heel of one hand on the lower half of the sternum and the other hand over the first hand. Place the heel of one or two hands in the center of the chest, in between the nipples, avoiding the xiphoid process. Use your index finger on the lower left half of the sternum.

Place two fingers in the middle of the sternum, just below the nipple line. Perform infant chest compressions using two fingers in the middle of the sternum, just below the nipple line.

When assessing a patient's abdomen, what is the best position to place the patient in? Fowler Prone Supine Trendelenburg

Placing the patient in a supine position with legs drawn up and knees flexed relaxes the abdominal muscles and makes the abdomen easier to assess.

Which of the following are the key to the formation of blood clots? Plasma Platelets Red blood cells White blood cells

Platelets Platelets are key to the formation of blood clots.

Which type of drum is used for the storage of corrosives such as acids, bases, or oxidizers? Steel Polyethylene Cardboard Nickel

Polyethylene Polyethylene drums are used for corrosives such as acids, bases, oxidizers, and other materials that cannot be stored in steel containers.

cylinders

Portable, compressed gas containers used to hold liquids and gases. such as nitrogen, argon, helium, and oxygen. They have a range of sizes and internal pressures.

Why should a patient not be transported in a prone position with his/her hands tied behind the back? It is easier for the patient to bite you from this position. Positional asphyxia could occur. The restraints can cause circulatory problems in the wrists and ankles. It is embarrassing for the patient and therefore contraindicated.

Positional asphyxia could occur. A patient with his/her hands restrained behind his/her back is in danger of positional asphyxia if put in a prone position.

What is the first step in performing an endotracheal intubation? Evaluate the airway. Preoxygenate with a BVM. Position the patient. Determine if trauma is present.

Preoxygenate with a BVM. The first step in performing endotracheal intubation is to preoxygenate with a BVM.

What is an EMT's responsibility regarding evidence in the case of a sexual assault? Analyze Collect Catalogue Preserve

Preserve An EMT's responsibility is to preserve evidence without sacrificing patient care.

Botulinum

Produced by bacteria, this is the most potent neurotoxin known. When introduced into the body, this neurotoxin affects the nervous system's ability to function and causes botulism.

In the case of a sexual assault, what is your most important treatment option? Low-flow oxygen Psychologic support Transport to the hospital Supine positioning

Psychologic support A victim of rape or sexual assault has suffered major trauma. You may be the victim's first contact after the encounter, and how the situation is managed from first contact throughout treatment and transport may have lasting effects for the patient and you. It is very important to always be professional, sensitive, and kind.

Which of the following is a member of the command staff? Logistics officer Planning officer Operations chief Public information officer

Public information officer The three important command staff positions are safety officer, public information officer (PIO), and liaison officer.

You are on scene at a suspected terror attack in which a RDD has detonated. A 67-year-old patient reports tightness in his chest. The patient is coughing up blood and is in respiratory distress. During the physical assessment, you notice subcutaneous emphysema. What is the condition most likely to be? Exacerbation of asthma Myocardial infarction Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary blast injury

Pulmonary blast injury Pulmonary blast injuries are characterized by tightness or pain in the chest, coughing up blood, tachypnea or other signs of respiratory distress, and subcutaneous emphysema.

pulmonary blast injuries

Pulmonary trauma resulting from short-range exposure to the detonation of explosives.

central pulses

Pulses that are closest to the core (central) part of the body where the vital organs are located; include the carotid, femoral, and apical pulses.

Although more typically seen in children, ________ can also cause serious illness in older people, especially those with lung disease or weakened immune systems. Clostridium difficile Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)

RSV Correct. Although more typically seen in children, RSV can also cause serious illness in older people, especially those with lung disease or weakened immune systems.

Hyperventilation

Rapid or deep breathing that lowers the blood carbon dioxide level below normal; may lead to increased intrathoracic pressure, decreased venous return, and hypotension when associated with BVM use.

In which type of vehicle crash are you most likely to find a patient with whiplash injuries? Frontal Rear-end Rollover Rotational

Rear-end impacts often cause whiplash injuries, particularly when the head and/or neck is not restrained by a headrest.

What should the EMT do immediately after physically restraining a violent patient? Inform medical control of the situation. Advise the patient why restraint was needed. Reassess the patient's airway and breathing. Document the time the restraints were applied.

Reassess the patient's airway and breathing. Once a patient has been restrained, you should reassess the airway and breathing, and document the information in your patient care report.

Rebound tenderness is a result of what? Peritoneal irritation Esophageal varices GERD Ileus

Rebound tenderness is a result of peritoneal irritation.

During triage, how should you tag a child who is breathing fewer than 15 breaths/min? Green Yellow Red Black

Red You should tag a child breathing fewer than 15 breaths/min or more than 45 breaths/min as an immediate (red) priority.

Which of the following is an indication of a spleen injury? Referred right shoulder pain Referred left shoulder pain Radiating pain from left upper quadrant down through the flank Hematuria

Referred left shoulder pain Referred left shoulder pain is a potential indication of a splenic injury because the spleen is in the upper left quadrant.

neglect

Refusal or failure on the part of the parent or caregiver to provide life necessities.

Extrication

Removal of a patient from entrapment or a dangerous situation or position, such as removal from a wrecked vehicle, industrial incident, or collapsed building.

Which of the following is an example of closed loop communication? Asking "yes" or "no" questions Repeating a message back to the speaker Speaking concisely Telling a team member when he/she is doing something wrong

Repeating a message back to the speaker Closed loop communication involves repeating the message back to the speaker to help confirm that you heard and understood the message and will act on it.

drag

Resistance that slows a projectile, such as air.

self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

Respirator with independent air supply used by fire fighters to enter toxic and otherwise dangerous atmospheres.

positional asphyxia

Restriction of chest wall movements and/or airway obstruction; can rapidly lead to sudden death.

The AED gives a "no shock" message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. What should you do? Resume chest compressions. Check for a carotid pulse. Reanalyze the cardiac rhythm. Deliver two rescue breaths.

Resume chest compressions. In the case of "no shock," you should immediately resume CPR for approximately 2 minutes.

reduce

Return a dislocated joint or fractured bone to its normal position; to set.

You are treating a patient who fell hard on her right side when she fell off a bike. Exposure of the patient's chest reveals a large bruise on the lateral aspect of the right side of the chest. When you palpate the area, the patient yells out in extreme pain and states that she cannot take a deep breath. What condition should you suspect? Cardiac tamponade Rib fractures Spontaneous pneumothorax Open pneumothorax

Rib fractures Rib fractures are common in this type of injury. The pain is the result of broken ends of the fracture rubbing against each other with each inspiration and expiration.

In cholecystitis, where is the patient likely to feel referred pain? Left lower quadrant Around the navel Right shoulder Right upper quadrant

Right shoulder Acute cholecystitis may cause pain in the right shoulder because the autonomic nerves serving the gallbladder lie near the spinal cord at the same anatomic level as the spinal sensory nerves that supply the skin of the shoulder.

Star of Life

The six-pointed star emblem that identifies vehicles that meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.

Which of the following types of food poisoning results from an organism? Botulism Datura Salmonella Staphylococcus

Salmonella The Salmonella bacterium produces an infection in an individual who ingests the contaminated foods.

When ________ is on clothing, it has the effect of off-gassing, which renders the victim and the victim's clothing contaminated. Sarin (GB) Soman (GD) Tabun (GA) V agent (VX)

Sarin (GB) Correct. Sarin is primarily a vapor hazard. When sarin is on clothing, it has the effect of off-gassing, which renders the victim and the victim's clothing contaminated.

With which age group should you talk to the child, not just the parent, while taking the medical history? Toddler Preschooler School-age Adolescent

School-age School-age children (6-12 years) begin to act more like adults. Including them in the history-taking conversation helps build trust.

Which type of blast injury is most likely to produce penetrating trauma? Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary

Secondary Secondary injury is characterized by penetrating or nonpenetrating injury that results from being struck by flying debris that has been set in motion by the explosion. Objects are propelled by the force of the blast and strike the victim.

What type of blast injury occurs when objects are propelled by the force of the blast wave and strike the victim, causing injury? Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary

Secondary blast injuries occur when objects are propelled by the force of the blast wave and strike the victim. These objects can travel great distances and be propelled at tremendous speeds, up to nearly 3,000 mph for conventional military explosives.

You are assessing a female patient as the extrication team gets ready to roll up the dashboard to remove her. The patient has multiple fractures in her left arm. What should you do? Apply an air splint before she is removed. Secure the injured arm against her body. Leave the arm alone until the patient has been extricated. Apply a rigid splint before she is removed.

Secure the injured arm against her body. It is impractical and difficult to properly apply extremity splints within the vehicle. An upper-extremity injury can generally be rapidly supported and stabilized while the patient is being removed by securing an injured arm to the body.

dementia

The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function; this condition is generally chronic and irreversible.

If a pediatric patient begins seizing again during your care, which of the following would be your treatment priority? Stopping the seizure Securing and clearing the airway Providing rapid transport Maintaining the patient's body temperature

Securing and protecting the airway are your priorities.

What is a primary characteristic of eclampsia? Severe, persistent headache Hypotension Seizures Bleeding

Seizures are a characteristic of eclampsia.

febrile seizures

Seizures that result from sudden high fevers; most often seen in children.

At what step in the ACS-COT/CDC updated field triage decision scheme would you assess mechanism of injury and evidence of high-energy impact? Step 1 Step 2 Step 3 Step 4

Step 3 in the ACS-COT/CDC updated field triage decision scheme is assessing mechanism of injury and evidence of high-energy impact.

Nerve damage to the inner ear results in what? Conductive hearing loss Sensorineural deafness Tinnitus Otitis media

Sensorineural deafness Nerve damage to the inner ear results in sensorineural deafness.

retinal detachment

Separation of the retina from its attachments at the back of the eye.

What is the major cause of death following injury to a hollow organ in the abdomen? Evisceration Internal hemorrhage Rigidity Sepsis

Sepsis The major cause of death when hollow abdominal organs are involved is sepsis, which typically occurs later in the hospital.

In the musculoskeletal injury grading system, under which category would you place a laceration of a major nerve or blood vessel? Moderate Serious Severe Critical

Serious

eclampsia

Severe hypertension in a pregnant woman, resulting in seizures (convulsions).

symptomatic hypoglycemia

Severe hypoglycemia resulting in changes in mental status.

uremia

Severe kidney failure resulting in the buildup of waste products within the blood. Eventually brain functions will be impaired.

rape

Sexual intercourse forcibly inflicted on another person, against that person's will.

Which of the following are essential elements of a team? Shared goal Shared values Self-assigned roles and responsibilities Coordinated leadership

Shared goal Coordinated leadership Correct. Teams clearly need a shared goal and coordinated leadership.

Which of the following symptoms would you see in a patient with a dissecting aneurysm? Gradual onset of pain with additional symptoms Peripheral pulses equal Sharp or tearing pain Pain does not abate once it has started

Sharp or tearing pain Pain does not abate once it has started

intermodal tanks

Shipping and storage vessels that can be either pressurized or nonpressurized.

Shivering stops and muscle activity ceases once the body's core temperature reaches what? 95°F (35°C) 90°F (32.2°C) 85°F (29.4°C) 80°F (26.7°C)

Shivering stops at 90°F (32.2°C). This is a sign of severe hypothermia.

Which condition is likely when signs of hypotension; tachycardia; and cool, clammy skin are found? Internal bleeding Shock CNS depression Intracranial bleeding

Shock Shock presents with signs of hypotension; tachycardia; and cool, clammy skin.

dyspnea

Shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

placards

Signage required to be placed on all four sides of highway transport vehicles, railroad tank cars, and other forms of hazardous materials transportation; the sign identifies the hazardous contents of the vehicle, using a standardization system with 10¾-inch diamond-shaped indicators.

When assessing a patient with a behavioral issue, you need to ask questions about three contributors: proper CNS functioning, whether the patient took hallucinogenic or other drugs or alcohol, and what else? Coping mechanisms Family history of psychotic disorders Personal history of physical trauma Significant life changes

Significant life changes The third category is what significant life changes have occurred in the patient's recent past.

crush syndrome

Significant metabolic derangement that develops when crushed extremities or body parts remain trapped for prolonged periods. This can lead to renal failure and death.

bradypnea

Slow respiratory rate; ominous sign in a child that indicates impending respiratory arrest.

Removal of all microbial contamination is accomplished through ________. Cleaning Disinfection High-level disinfection Sterilization

Sterilization Correct. Sterilization uses a process such as heat to remove all microbial contamination.

Cardiorespiratory response when core body temperature falls into the range of 89ºF to 92ºF (31.7ºC to 33.3ºC) involves __________ . Slowing respirations and a slow pulse. Constricted blood vessels and rapid breathing. Weak pulse, dysrhythmias, very slow respirations. Cardiac arrest.

Slowing respirations and a slow pulse. Correct. When core body temperature falls into the range of 89ºF to 92ºF (31.7ºC to 33.3ºC), respirations and pulses slow.

Special Atomic Demolition Munitions (SADM)

Small suitcase-sized nuclear weapons that were designed to destroy individual targets, such as important buildings, bridges, tunnels, and large ships.

Which of the following requires a host to survive? Anthrax Botulinum Plague Smallpox

Smallpox Smallpox is a virus and viruses cannot survive without a host.

What is the best position for a patient who needs endotracheal intubation? Prone Semi-Fowler Sniffing Supine

Sniffing The ideal position for endotracheal intubation is achieved when the patient's ear canal is on the same horizontal plane as his or her sternal notch, known as the sniffing position.

What criteria must be met for a patient to have status epilepticus? A seizure lasting more than 30 minutes A seizure that was preceded by an aura The presence of incontinence during the seizure Multiple seizures with normal consciousness between each event

Status epilepticus is characterized by seizures that recur every few minutes or last longer than 30 minutes.

deceleration

The slowing of an object.

kidney stones

Solid crystalline masses formed in the kidney, resulting from an excess of insoluble salts or uric acid crystallizing in the urine; may become trapped anywhere along the urinary tract.

solid organs

Solid masses of tissue where much of the chemical work of the body takes place (eg, the liver, spleen, pancreas, and kidneys).

Which of the following techniques should you use when you are communicating with a patient who has autism? Exaggerate your lip movements. Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions. Speak loudly into the patient's ear. You and your partner should talk to the patient together.

Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions. You should speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions.

saline locks (buff caps)

Special types of intraveous devices filled with a small amount of normal saline to keep blood from clotting at the end of the catheter, allowing an IV site to be maintained without running fluids through the vein; also called heparin caps and heparin locks.

first-responder vehicles

Specialized vehicles used to transport EMS equipment and personnel to the scenes of medical emergencies.

When you are assessing for a stroke, which of the following neurologic tests should be included in the assessment as a minimum? Speech Facial movement Arm movement Balance

Speech Facial movement Arm movement

Which of the following are goals of in-line traction? Stabilize the fragments to prevent movement Align the limb for splinting Stop bleeding Avoid neurovascular compromise

Stabilize the fragments to prevent movement Align the limb for splinting Avoid neurovascular compromise

Tragus

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge that lies immediately anterior to the ear canal.

rigor mortis

Stiffening of the body muscles; a definitive sign of death.

What is your first responsibility when treating a burn patient? Identifying life-threatening injuries Administering high-flow oxygen Stopping the burning Preventing loss of body heat

Stopping the burning is your first responsibility when treating a burn patient.

Arterioles

The smallest branches of arteries leading to the vast network of capillaries.

strain

Stretching or tearing of a muscle; also called a muscle pull.

hollow organs

Structures through which materials pass, such as the stomach, small intestines, large intestines, ureters, and bladder.

ingestion

Swallowing; taking a substance by mouth.

compartment syndrome

Swelling in a confined space that produces dangerous pressure; may cut off blood flow or damage sensitive tissue.

Dependent Edema

Swelling in the part of the body closest to the ground, caused by collection of fluid in the tissues; a possible sign of congestive heart failure.

Which of the following is a CNS stimulant? Alcohol Opiates Sedative-hypnotics Sympathomimetics

Sympathomimetics are CNS stimulants. Cocaine is an example of a sympathomimetic.

Cardiac arrest is indicated in the field by the absence of a carotid pulse. TrueFalse

T Correct. Cardiac arrest is indicated in the field by the absence of a carotid pulse.

The link in the chain of survival that is the most common determinant for survival is the third link—rapid defibrillation. TrueFalse

T Correct. The link in the chain of survival that is the most common determinant for survival is the third link—rapid defibrillation.

A fracture of the femoral shaft is best stabilized with a traction splint, such as a Sager splint. TF

T Correct. A fracture of the femoral shaft is best stabilized with a traction splint, such as a Sager splint.

Lateral and medial dislocations to the knee are less common than posterior dislocations and are less likely to injure the popliteal artery. TF

T Correct. Lateral and medial dislocations to the knee are less common than posterior dislocations and are less likely to injure the popliteal artery.

Most poisons do not have an antidote. T/F

T Correct. Most poisons do not have an antidote.

Opioids, sedatives, and barbiturates slow breathing, so ventilatory complications are a concern. T/F

T Correct. You should be prepared to provide aggressive ventilatory support and CPR, if necessary, to a patient who has ingested an opioid, a sedative, or a barbiturate, each of which can cause depression of the central nervous system (CNS) and slow breathing.

The goal of the inflammation phase of wound healing is the removal of foreign material, damaged cellular parts, and invading microorganisms from the wound site. TrueFalse

T Correct. The goal of the inflammation phase of wound healing is the removal of foreign material, damaged cellular parts, and invading microorganisms from the wound site.

When possible, ALS providers should administer IV fluid within 3 minutes after the crushing object is lifted off the body. TrueFalse

T Correct. When possible, ALS providers should administer IV fluid before the crushing object is lifted off the body.

You should never remove an avulsion skin flap, regardless of its size. TrueFalse

T Correct. You should never remove an avulsion skin flap, regardless of its size. Removing the flap could lead to contamination.

Stroke Volume

THe volume of blood ejected with each ventricular contraction

International Terrorism

Terrorism that is carried out by people in a country other than their own; also known as cross-border terrorism.

Domestic Terrorism

Terrorism that is carried out by people in their own country.

You are assessing a 76-year-old man complaining of severe tearing pain radiating into his lower back. He is hypotensive and tachycardic. Which of the following should you suspect? AAA Cystitis Diverticulitis Gallstones

Tearing pain radiating into the lower back, hypotension, and tachycardia are signs of an AAA.

jaw-thrust maneuver

Technique to open the airway by placing the fingers behind the angle of the jaw and bringing the jaw forward; used for patients who may have a cervical spine injury.

Which of the following is a drawback of an air splint? Temperature changes affect air pressure in the splint. It does not provide uniform contact, so bone movement is possible. It restricts distal blood flow. It is complicated to use and requires multiple EMTs.

Temperature changes affect air pressure in the splint. A drawback of an air splint is that temperature or altitude changes affect the air pressure in the splint.

organic brain syndrome

Temporary or permanent dysfunction of the brain, caused by a disturbance in the physical or physiologic functioning of brain tissue.

point tenderness

Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger.

state-sponsored terrorism

Terrorism that is funded and/or supported by nations that hold close ties with terrorist groups.

secondary (indirect) injury

The "after effects" of the primary injury; includes abnormal processes such as cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, cerebral ischemia and hypoxia, and infection; onset is often delayed following the primary brain injury.

What would the Apgar score be for a newborn whose body is pink but whose hands and feet are cyanotic, has a pulse rate of 98 bpm, cries but does not recoil from stimulus, resists attempts to straighten hips and knees, and has slow respirations? 4 6 8 10

The Apgar score would be 6: 1 for appearance, 1 for pulse, 1 for irritability, 2 for activity, and 1 for respiration.

For which of the following would you use a DuoDote Auto-Injector? Sarin gas attack Morphine overdose Carbon monoxide poisoning Acetaminophen overdose

The DuoDote Auto-Injector is used to counteract cholinergic agents like sarin gas. Sarin gas attack

Which of the following is a requirement when labeling pesticide bags? Permissible exposure limits Routes of entry The EPA establishment number Contact information for the responsible party

The EPA establishment number Pesticide bags require the EPA establishment number, which shows where the product was manufactured.

You are assessing a patient who sustained a blunt force chest injury during a motorcycle accident. There are no obvious signs of external bleeding, but the patient is hypovolemic and there are decreased breath sounds on the left side. Which of the following should you suspect? Hemothorax Hemopneumothorax Pneumothorax Traumatic asphyxia

The MOI and signs point to a hemothorax (bleeding in the pleural space).

What does the PAT assess? Airway, breathing, circulation Appearance, work of breathing, circulation Alert, responsive, unresponsive Tone, interactiveness, consolabiliy, look, speech/cry

The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) assesses appearance, work of breathing, and circulation.

What should you use the Wong-Baker FACES scale to determine? Motor response LOC Work of breathing Pain level

The Wong-Baker FACES scale uses pictures of facial expressions to help assess the level of pain in a child.

Automaticity

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract without stimulation from the nervous system.

Hemopneumothorax

The accumulation of blood and air in the pleural space of the chest.

envenomation

The act of injecting venom.

Which of the following is or are found in the middle ear? Pinna Tympanic membrane Eustachian tube Anvil, hammer, and stirrup

The anvil, hammer, and stirrup are found in the middle ear. These bones move in response to sound waves hitting the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

crowning

The appearance of the fetus's head at the vaginal opening during labor.

hot zone

The area immediately surrounding a hazardous materials spill/incident site that is directly dangerous to life and health. All personnel working in the hot zone must wear complete, appropriate protective clothing and equipment. Entry requires approval by the incident commander or other designated officer.

transportation area

The area in a mass-casualty incident where ambulances and crews are organized to transport patients from the treatment area to receiving hospitals.

warm zone

The area located between the hot zone and the cold zone at a hazardous materials incident. The decontamination corridor is located in this (the warm) zone.

zone of injury

The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint.

perineum

The area of skin between the vagina and the anus

lymph nodes

The area of the lymphatic system where infection-fighting cells are housed.

Rehabilitation area

The area that provides protection and treatment to fire fighters and other personnel working at an emergency. Here, workers are medically monitored and receive any needed care as they enter and leave the scene.

geriatrics

The assessment and treatment of disease in someone who is 65 years or older.

Posterior

The back surface of the body; the side away from you in the standard anatomic position.

activities of daily living

The basic activities a person usually accomplishes during a normal day, such as eating, dressing, and bathing.

Which interview technique should you use when addressing a geriatric patient? Speak loudly and slowly. Listen carefully to the answers the patient provides. Refer to the patient by his first name. Have both you and your partner ask questions.

The best thing you can do is listen carefully to the answers the patient provides.

What is the best way to ensure the effectiveness of a team? Carefully select team members who can collaborate well with others. Make sure each team member is knowledgeable about how to do critical procedures. Ensure that the team leader can deliver direct and timely feedback to team members. Train and practice together.

The best way to ensure a team's effectiveness is to have them train and practice together.

tourniquet

The bleeding control method used when a wound continues to bleed despite the use of direct pressure and elevation; useful if a patient is bleeding severely from a partial or complete amputation.

Coronary Arteries

The blood vessels that carry blood and nutrients to the heart muscles.

veins

The blood vessels that carry blood from the tissues to the heart.

immune system

The body system that includes all of the structures and processes designed to mount a defense against foreign substances and disease-causing agents.

allergic reaction

The body's exaggerated immune response to an internal or surface agent.

immune response

The body's response to substance perceived by the body as foreign.

You are responding to a fight at a restaurant and find a man, conscious and alert. His face is mottled with blisters and abrasions, and he has blood on his shirt. He tells you he was trying to stop the fight when he was hit in the face with scalding hot coffee and fell backwards over a chair. According to the rule of nines, what percentage of the patient's skin surface is burned? 4.5% 9% 12% 18%

The burns are on his face, which, according to the rule of nines, constitutes 9% of an adult's body area.

pupil

The circular opening in the middle of the iris that admits light to the back of the eye.

What is the common dose of epinephrine contained in an adult EpiPen? 0.15 mg 0.3 mg 1 mg 3 mg

The dose in an adult EpiPen is 0.3 mg of a 1:1,000 concentration.

retroperitoneal space

The space between the abdominal cavity and the posterior abdominal wall, containing the kidneys, certain large vessels, and parts of the gastrointestinal tract.

cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

The combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions used to establish adequate ventilation and circulation in a patient who is not breathing and has no pulse.

Asystole

The complete absence of a ll heart electrical activity.

continuum of care

The concept of consistent patient care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge; working together with a unified goal, results in improved individual and team performance, better patient and provider safety, and improved patient outcome

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unresponsive with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should:Select one: A. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. B. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. C. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. D. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.

The correct answer is: close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.

weaponization

The creation of a weapon from a biologic agent generally found in nature and that causes disease; the agent is cultivated, synthesized, and/or mutated to maximize the target population's exposure to the germ.

conjunctiva

The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye.

Decontamination area

The designated area in a hazardous materials incident where all patients and rescuers must be decontaminated before going to another area.

Which of the following is true regarding a dirty bomb? The destructive capability is limited to the explosives that are attached to it. The most significant cause of injury is a result of the radioactive material dispersed. It is a highly effective WMD. It is difficult to make because the procurement of radioactive material is tightly regulated.

The destructive capability is limited to the explosives that are attached to it. The destructive capability is limited to the explosives that are attached to it. If the explosive is sufficient to kill 10 people without radioactive material, it will also kill 10 people with the radioactive material added.

fetus

The developing, unborn infant inside the uterus, from 10 weeks after fertilization until birth.

Evisceration

The displacement of organs outside of the body.

evisceration

The displacement of organs outside of the body.

fundus

The dome-shaped top of the uterus.

external auditory canal

The ear canal; leads to the tympanic membrane.

tympanic membrane

The eardrum, which lies between the external and middle ear.

tympanic membrane

The eardrum; a thin, semitransparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles.

termination of command

The end of the incident command structure when an incident draws to a close.

nares

The external openings of the nostrils. A single nostril opening is called a naris.

pinna

The external, visible part of the ear.

fascia

The fiberlike connective tissue that covers arteries, veins, tendons, and ligaments.

Pericardium

The fibrous sac that surrounds the heart.

chlorine (Cl)

The first chemical agent ever used in warfare. It has a distinct odor of bleach and creates a green haze when released as a gas. Initially it produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation.

LD50

The standard measure of the dose amount of an agent or substance that will kill 50% of a population who are exposed to this level.

Perfusion

The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.

amniotic sac

The fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops.

mechanism of injury (MOI)

The forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury.

deep venous thrombosis

The formation of a blood clot within the larger veins of an extremity, typically following a period of prolonged immobilization.

coagulation

The formation of clots to plug openings in injured blood vessels and stop blood flow.

Anterior

The front surface of the body; the side facing you in the standard anatomic position.

lacrimal glands

The glands that produce fluids to keep the eye moist; also called tear glands.

Myocardium

The heart muscle.

You are assessing a 10-year-old boy who fell out of a tree. Evaluation of the MOI would concentrate on which of the following? Calculating the speed at which the child hit the ground The height from which the child fell The surface onto which the child fell The part of the body that struck the ground first

The height from which the child fell The surface onto which the child fell The part of the body that struck the ground first Correct. These are all factors in determining MOI in a fall.

Which of the following statements is true? Low-velocity injuries produce extensive temporary wound channels. There are four levels of velocity. The higher the velocity of a projectile, the larger the cavity it produces. The velocity of an object is not a critical determination in your assessment.

The higher the velocity of a projectile, the larger the cavity it produces.

retrograde amnesia

The inability to remember events leading up to a head injury.

aphasia

The inability to understand and/or produce speech.

Why is it important to follow the requests of the incident commander? The incident commander best understands incident needs. It is federal law to follow the ICS structure for patient care. The incident commander leads the fire department, not EMS. The incident commander represents a higher level of care.

The incident commander best understands incident needs.

Incident Commander

The individual who has overall command of the incident in the field.

Dermis

The inner layer of the skin, containing hair follicles, sweat glands, nerve endings, and blood vessels.

Lumen

The inside diameter of an artery or other hollow structure.

temporomandibular joint

The joint formed where the mandible and cranium meet, just in front of the ear.

Disinfection

The killing of pathogenic agents by direct application of chemicals.

High-level disinfection

The killing of pathogenic agents by using potent means of disinfection.

mucous membranes

The linings of body cavities and passages that are in direct contact with the outside environment.

treatment area

The location in a mass-casualty incident where patients are brought after being triaged and assigned a priority, where they are reassessed, treated, and monitored until transport to the hospital.

command post

The location of the incident commander at the scene of an emergency and where command, coordination, control, and communication are centralized.

cervix

The lower third, or neck, of the uterus.

You are dispatched to a 60-year-old man reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient has angina and is taking nitroglycerin, furosemide, and atorvastatin. You hear crackles when listening to his breath sounds. The patient's difficulty breathing and crackles are due to blood backing up in which part of the body? The heart The lungs The vessels The arteries

The lungs Crackles is a sign of blood backing up into the lungs.

aorta

The main artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body.

Aorta

The main artery, which receives blood from the left ventricle and delivers it to all the other arteries that carry blood to the tissues of the body.

sciatic nerve

The major nerve to the lower extremities; controls much of muscle function in the leg and sensation in most of the leg and foot.

route of exposure

The manner by which a toxic substance enters the body.

dissemination

The means by which a terrorist will spread a disease, for example, by poisoning the water supply or aerosolizing the agent into the air or ventilation system of a building.

work

The measure of force over distance.

peritoneum

The membrane lining the abdominal cavity (parietal peritoneum) and covering the abdominal organs (visceral peritoneum).

substance abuse

The misuse of any substance to produce a desired effect.

syndromic surveillance

The monitoring, usually by local or state health departments, of patients presenting to emergency departments and alternative care facilities, the recording of EMS call volume, and the use of over-the-counter medications.

What is the most effective way to assist a person with CHF to breathe effectively and prevent an invasive airway management technique? CPAP Nasal cannula BVM with 100% oxygen Nonrebreathing mask

The most effective way to assist a person with CHF to breathe effectively and prevent an invasive airway management technique is CPAP.

What is the most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture? - Deformity - Guarding - Point tenderness - Crepitus

The most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is point tenderness.

paradoxical motion

The motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion—in during inhalation, out during exhalation—is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing.

lightening

The movement of the fetus down into the pelvis late in pregnancy.

iris

The muscle and surrounding tissue behind the cornea that dilate and constrict the pupil, regulating the amount of light that enters the eye; pigment in this tissue gives the eye its color.

sternocleidomastoid muscles

The muscles on either side of the neck that allow movement of the head.

Uterus

The muscular organ where the fetus grows, also called the womb; responsible for contractions during labor.

vasoconstriction

The narrowing of a blood vessel, such as with hypoperfusion or cold extremities.

tolerance

The need for increasing amounts of a drug to obtain the same effect.

bills of lading

The shipping papers used for transport of chemicals over roads and highways. Also referred to as freight bills.

Aortic Valve

The one-way valve that lies between the left ventricle and the aorta and keeps blood from flowing back into the left ventricle after the left ventricle ejects its blood into the aorta; one of four heart valves.

What is menarche? The cycle in which the ovum is released The end of menstrual activity, which usually occurs in a woman's 50s The onset of menstruation, which usually occurs between ages 11 and 16 years The area of tissue between the vagina and the anus

The onset of menstruation, which usually occurs between ages 11 and 16 years Menarche is the onset of menstruation, which usually occurs between ages 11 and 16 years.

epidermis

The outer layer of skin that acts as a watertight protective covering.

Vagina

The outermost cavity of a woman's reproductive system; the lower part of the birth canal.

Incident Commander

The overall leader of the incident command system to whom commanders or leaders of incident command system divisions report.

You are dispatched to a private residence where the patient is unresponsive, not breathing, and has a weak pulse. You secure her airway with an oral airway and ventilate her with a BVM at a rate of one breath every 5 seconds. An ALS transport ambulance arrives. The paramedic and her AEMT partner enter the house and approach you and the patient. Now that the ambulance has arrived, who will be the team leader? You, because you were the first provider on scene The AEMT, because the paramedic will be too busy intubating the patient The paramedic, because she is the highest-level provider on scene The hospital physician, because he provides medical control

The paramedic, because she is the highest-level provider on scene The paramedic will be the team leader because she is the provider with the highest level of certification on the scene.

Sympathetic Nervous System

The part of the autonomic nervous system that controls active functions such as responding to fear (also known as the "fight-or-flight" system).

Parasympathetic Nervous System

The part of the autonomic nervous system that controls vegetative functions such as digestion of food and relaxation.

Inferior

The part of the body or any body part nearer to the feet.

Superior

The part of the body or any body part nearer to the head.

Autonomic Nervous System

The part of the nervous system that controls the involuntary activities of the body such as the heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion of food.

glenoid fossa

The part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to form the glenohumeral joint.

polyuria

The passage of an unusually large volume of urine in a given period; in diabetes, this can result from the wasting of glucose in the urine.

trajectory

The path a projectile takes once it is propelled.

You are assessing a patient who was in a front-end car crash. His GCS is 12, systolic blood pressure is 81 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. What is this patient's Revised Trauma Score? 7 10 12 15

The patient's RTS is 10: GCS of 12 = 3, SBP of 81 mm Hg = 3, and RR of 22 breaths/min = 4.

Which of the following are true about the pediatric airway? The pediatric airway is smaller in diameter and shorter in length. The tongue is proportionally the same but more posterior. Children have a funnel-shaped upper airway. Smaller lungs mean that the oxygen reserves are smaller.

The pediatric airway is smaller in diameter and shorter in length. Children have a funnel-shaped upper airway. Smaller lungs mean that the oxygen reserves are smaller.

postictal state

The period following a seizure that lasts 5 to 30 minutes; characterized by labored respirations and some degree of altered mental status.

incubation

The period of time from a person being exposed to a disease to the time when symptoms begin.

behavioral crisis

The point at which a person's reactions to events interfere with activities of daily living; this becomes a psychiatric emergency when it causes a major life interruption, such as attempted suicide.

presentation

The position in which an infant is born; defined by the part of the body that appears first.

abdominal-thrust maneuver

The preferred method to dislodge a severe airway obstruction in adults and children; also called the Heimlich maneuver.

air embolism

The presence of air in the veins, which can lead to cardiac arrest if it enters the heart.

contamination

The presence of infective organisms or foreign bodies such as dirt, gravel, or metal.

Ovaries

The primary female reproductive organs that produce an ovum, or egg, that, if fertilized, will develop into a fetus.

aging

The process by which the temporary bond between the organophosphate and acetylcholinesterase undergoes hydrolysis, resulting in a permanent covalent bond.

Ovulation

The process in which an ovum is released from a follicle.

Demobilization

The process of directing responders to return to their facilities when work at a disaster or mass-casualty incident has finished, at least for those particular responders.

drowning

The process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid.

Oxygenation

The process of loading oxygen molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream

Preoxygenation

The process of providing oxygen, often in combination with ventilation, prior to intubation in order to raise the oxygen levels of body tissues; a critical step in advanced airway management. This extends the time during which an advanced airway can be placed in an apneic patient, because the more oxygen that is available in the alveoli, the longer the patient can maintain adequate gas exchange in the lungs during the procedure.

cleaning

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface.

Decontamination

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and responders.

Triage

The process of sorting patients based on the severity of injury and medical need to establish treatment and transportation priorities.

mastoid process

The prominent bony mass at the base of the skull about 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.

four-person log roll

The recommended procedure for moving a patient with a suspected spinal injury from the ground to a long backboard or other spinal immobilization device

flank

The region below the rib cage and above the hip.

off-gassing

The release of an agent after exposure, for example from a person's clothes that have been exposed to the agent.

Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC)

The return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.

return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)

The return of a pulse and effective blood flow to the body in a patient who previously was in cardiac arrest.

The severity of a thermal injury directly correlates with temperature, concentration, and what other factor? Source of thermal energy Duration of exposure Chemical reaction Current

The severity of a thermal injury directly correlates with temperature, concentration, and duration.

freight bills

The shipping papers used for transport of chemicals along roads and highways. Also referred to as bills of lading.

umbilical cord

The structure that connects the pregnant woman to the fetus via the placenta contains 2 arteries and 1 vein.

Immunology

The study of the body's immune system

Toxicology

The study of toxic or poisonous substances.

team leader

The team member who provides role assignments, coordination, oversight, centralized decision making, and support for the team to accomplish their goals and achieve desired results.

core temperature

The temperature of the central part of the body (eg, the heart, lungs, and vital organs).

Fractures of the distal radius, which are especially common in older patients with osteoporosis, are known as ----> Colles fractures.

The term silver fork deformity is used to describe the distinctive appearance of the patient's arm. In children, this fracture may occur through the growth plate and can have long-term consequences.

contact hazard

The term used to describe danger posed by a chemical whose primary route of entry into the body is through the skin; posed by a hazardous agent that gives off very little or no vapors; also called a skin hazard.

vapor hazard

The term used to describe danger posed by an agent that enters the body through the respiratory tract.

The time between an initial period of unconsciousness and a subsequent loss of consciousness is referred to as what? Coherent stage Danger zone Lucid interval Recognition period

The time between periods of unconsciousness is known as the lucid interval.

Placenta

The tissue attached to the uterine wall that nourishes the fetus through the umbilical cord.

chest compression fraction

The total percentage of time during a resuscitation attempt in which active chest compressions are being performed.

Sclera

The tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structures.

radiation

The transfer of heat to colder objects in the environment by radiant energy; for example, heat gain from a fire.

lens

The transparent part of the eye through which images are focused on the retina.

Cornea

The transparent tissue layer in front of the pupil and iris of the eye.

fallopian tubes

The tubes that connect each ovary with the uterus and are the primary location for fertilization of the ovum.

neutron radiation

The type of energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source; neutron particles are among the most powerful forms of radiation. Neutrons easily penetrate through lead and require several feet of concrete to stop them.

How many collisions are there in a typical vehicle impact? 1 2 3 4

There are three collisions in a typical impact: the collision of the car against another object, the collision of the passenger against the interior of the car, and the collisions of the internal organs against the solid structures of the body.

Why is it important to transport a sexual assault victim to the hospital even if she does not have any obvious injuries? The police need confirmation that a sexual assault actually occurred. There may be injuries that were not detected in the field, such as internal bleeding, that have a delayed onset of symptoms. It is not safe to allow the victim to return home until the police have had a chance to collect evidence. Full documentation needs to be completed before the case can go to court.

There may be injuries that were not detected in the field, such as internal bleeding, that have a delayed onset of symptoms. It is important to transport a sexual assault victim because she may have injuries that were not detected in the field, such as internal bleeding, that have a delayed onset of symptoms.

You are treating a patient who was climbing a 10,000-foot mountain when he began to experience a severe, constant, throbbing headache; ataxia; and extreme fatigue. He is nauseated and, as you assess him, he loses consciousness. Which of the following should you suspect? HACE HAPE Mountain sickness Rocky Mountain spotted fever

These are signs and symptoms of HACE (high-altitude cerebral edema).

You are treating a 36-year-old patient displaying the following signs and symptoms: rapid, shallow respirations; pale, cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; weakness on the left side of the body; and confusion and irritability. What should you suspect? Symptomatic hyperglycemia Symptomatic hypoglycemia Vasoocclusive crisis DKA

These signs and symptoms indicate symptomatic hypoglycemia

You are working on a geriatric patient who reports severe abdominal pain radiating through her back and flank. She also reports discomfort in her right leg and your assessment reveals a diminished pulse in the extremity. What should you suspect? Abdominal aortic aneurysm Peptic ulcer disease Pulmonary embolism Venous stasis

These signs are indicative of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).

You are responding to a 9-1-1 call where the mother reported finding her 3-month-old daughter cyanotic and unresponsive in her crib. When you stimulate the child, she responds. This is an example of what condition? Apparent life-threatening event SIDS Shaken baby syndrome Febrile seizure

This is an example of an apparent life-threatening event (ALTE), also called near-miss SIDS.

You are performing a Glasgow Coma Scale on a patient who opens her eyes in response to pain, is confused in her responses to questions, and has abnormal flexion. What is this patient's GCS score and corresponding state of dysfunction? 3 - severe dysfunction 6 - severe dysfunction 9 - moderate dysfunction 12 - mild dysfunction

This patient has a GCS score of 9: Response to pain = 2; confused conversation = 4; abnormal flexion = 3

You are assessing a patient who opens her eyes when you speak to her, who can respond to you but seems confused as to time and place, and localizes pain. What is her Glasgow Coma Scale score? 7 10 12 15

This patient would have a GCS score of 12: 3 for eye opening, 4 for confused conversation, and 5 for localizing pain.

meninges

Three distinct layers of tissue that surround and protect the brain and the spinal cord within the skull and the spinal canal.

The condition in which blood clots as a result of an abnormality of the system of coagulation is called what? Hemophilia Sickle cell disease Thrombosis Thrombophilia

Thrombophilia is a tendency toward developing blood clots as a result of an abnormality of coagulation.

Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet? Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness. Place the medication under the tongue and have the patient swallow it. Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb. Wait 15 minutes and reassess the patient's blood pressure prior to administering another dose.

To appropriately assist the patient with nitroglycerin, place the tablet under the patient's tongue and have the patient keep his or her mouth closed with the tablet under the tongue until it is dissolved and absorbed.

Entrapment

To be caught (trapped) within a vehicle, room, or container with no way out or to have a limb or other body part trapped.

What is the purpose of wrapping a sexual assault victim in a burn sheet? To maintain body temperature as a result of shock To preserve potential evidence To protect the patient's privacy To keep the patient calm (swaddling)

To preserve potential evidence Wrapping a sexual assault victim in a burn sheet helps preserve potential evidence (ie, hair, fluid, or fiber from the alleged offender).

decontaminate

To remove or neutralize radiation, chemical, or other hazardous material from clothing, equipment, vehicles, and personnel.

Defibrillate

To shock a fibrillating (chaotically beating) heart with specialized electric current in an attempt to restore a normal, rhythmic beat.

Mnemonic TICLS includes: Used When:

Tone Interactiveness Consolability Look or gaze Speech or cry - To tell if the pediatric patient is sick or not sick

Angina Pectoris

Transient (short-lived) chest discomfort caused by partial or temporary blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle; also called angina.

multisystem trauma

Trauma that affects more than one body system.

What should you do when a female patient has vaginal bleeding of unknown cause? Pack the vagina with sterile gauze to stop blood loss. Treat for shock. Determine the cause of the bleeding. Tell the patient to see her gynecologist as soon as possible.

Treat for shock. Bleeding can lead to shock, so you should be prepared to treat for hypoperfusion by applying oxygen and keeping the patient supine and warm while you transport her.

Generic (Trade Name): alprazolam (Xanax)

Treats anxiety disorders

A patient in symptomatic hypoglycemia is more critical and more likely to suffer from permanent problems than the condition of a patient with hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. TrueFalse

True Correct. A patient in symptomatic hypoglycemia is far more critical and far more likely to suffer from permanent problems than the condition of a patient with hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis.

It is difficult to find a pulse in a drowning victim.TrueFalse Correct. It is difficult to find a pulse in a drowning victim because of constriction of the peripheral blood vessels and low cardiac output, resulting in cyanosis. T/F

True Correct. It is difficult to find a pulse in a drowning victim because of constriction of the peripheral blood vessels and low cardiac output, resulting in cyanosis.

The most common presenting sign of PID is generalized lower abdominal pain. T/F

True Correct. The most common presenting sign of PID is generalized lower abdominal pain.

The only contraindications to oral glucose are an inability to swallow and unconsciousness. TrueFalse

True Correct. The only contraindications to oral glucose are an inability to swallow and unconsciousness, because aspiration can occur.

In a gynecologic emergency, you should leave any foreign bodies in place after stabilizing them with bandages. T/F

True Correct. You should leave any foreign bodies in place after stabilizing them with bandages.

A patient who is hyperglycemic may have Kussmaul respirations and sweet, fruity breath. TrueFalse

True Correct. A patient who is hyperglycemic may have Kussmaul respirations and sweet, fruity breath.

A team of experienced EMTs should be able to perform rapid extrication in 1 minute or less.TrueFalse

True Correct. A team of experienced EMTs should be able to perform rapid extrication in 1 minute or less.

A very common early sign of a significant abdominal injury is tachycardia. TrueFalse

True Correct. A very common early sign of a significant abdominal injury is tachycardia because the heart is increasing its pumping action to compensate for blood loss.

Autonomic nerve neuropathy affects involuntary functions such as blood pressure and heart rate, constipation, and bladder and sexual dysfunction.TrueFalse

True Correct. Autonomic nerve neuropathy affects involuntary functions such as blood pressure and heart rate, constipation, and bladder and sexual dysfunction.

Even when the technical rescue group includes a paramedic or physician, generally only essential care is provided until the group members can bring the patient to the staging area.TrueFalse

True Correct. Even when the technical rescue group includes a paramedic or physician, generally only essential care is provided until the group members can bring the patient to the staging area.

Fever and altered LOC are common symptoms of meningitis in patients of all ages.TrueFalse

True Correct. Fever and altered LOC are common symptoms of meningitis in patients of all ages.

Forcing an older patient who is short of breath into a supine position may result in respiratory distress or failure. TrueFalse

True Correct. Forcing an older patient who is short of breath into a supine position may result in respiratory distress or failure.

Free air in the peritoneal cavity is abnormal and indicates that a hollow organ or loop of bowel has perforated. TrueFalse

True Correct. Free air in the peritoneal cavity is abnormal and indicates that a hollow organ or loop of bowel has perforated.

Lightening occurs when the head of the fetus descends into the woman's pelvis as the fetus positions for delivery. TrueFalse

True Correct. Lightening occurs when the head of the fetus descends into the woman's pelvis as the fetus positions for delivery.

Meconium in the amniotic fluid may result in respiratory distress or an airway obstruction in the newborn. TrueFalse

True Correct. Meconium in the amniotic fluid may result in respiratory distress or an airway obstruction in the newborn.

Nearly half of fatal falls in geriatric patients result in traumatic brain injury. TrueFalse

True Correct. Nearly half of fatal falls in geriatric patients result in traumatic brain injury.

Patients who have a gastric tube in place may still be at increased risk of aspiration.TrueFalse

True Correct. Patients who have a gastric tube in place may still be at increased risk of aspiration.

You should allow patients with peritonitis to lie still with their legs drawn up. TrueFalse

True Correct. Patients with peritonitis generally prefer to lie very still with their legs drawn up to guard from pain in the abdomen. Allow a patient with a patent airway to remain in a position of comfort.

Portable suctioning units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of 300 mm Hg when the tube is clamped.TrueFalse

True Correct. Portable suctioning units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of 300 mm Hg when the tube is clamped.

The diving reflex may cause immediate bradycardia.TrueFalse

True Correct. The diving reflex, the slowing of the heart rate caused by submersion in cold water, may cause immediate bradycardia.

The most common cause of AED malfunction is a dead battery. TrueFalse

True Correct. The most common cause of AED malfunction is a dead battery.

The postictal state begins once a seizure has stopped; the patient's muscles relax, becoming almost flaccid, and the breathing becomes labored.TrueFalse

True Correct. The postictal state begins once a seizure has stopped; the patient's muscles relax, becoming almost flaccid, and the breathing becomes labored.

The risk of perineal tearing during labor can be reduced by applying gentle pressure across the perineum with a sterile gauze pad. TrueFalse

True Correct. The risk of perineal tearing during labor can be reduced by applying gentle pressure across the perineum with a sterile gauze pad.

A patient who has sustained a blunt abdominal injury should be log rolled to a supine position onto a backboard. TrueFalse

True Correct. A patient who has sustained a blunt abdominal injury should be log rolled to a supine position onto a backboard.

Patients with spina bifida may also have hydrocephalus, requiring a shunt.TrueFalse

True Correct. Patients with spina bifida are prone to hydrocephalus, requiring a shunt.

In adults, chest compressions should be between 2 and 2.4 inches (5 and 6 cm) in depth and given at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute. T/F

True: Correct. Compressions should be between 2 and 2.4 inches (5 and 6 cm) in depth and given at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute.

If you witness a patient's cardiac arrest and an AED is available, deploy the AED immediately and then begin CPR. T/F

True: Correct. If you witness a patient's cardiac arrest and an AED is available, deploy the AED immediately and then begin CPR. If you did not witness the cardiac arrest, start with CPR followed by the AED.

What does the TEAM approach stand for? Trust Every Available Member Take Evasive Action Monitoring Treat, Evaluate, Administer, Monitor Test Extension and Abduction Motion

Trust Every Available Member TEAM stands for Trust Every Available Member. This leads to collaboration regarding your patient's treatment and a better standard of care and patient outcome.

Which of the following is classified as an autoimmune disorder? Type 1 diabetes Type 2 diabetes Sickle cell disease Acidosis

Type 1 diabetes Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder in which the individual's immune system produces antibodies to the pancreatic beta cells.

Which of the following is the most common metabolic disease of childhood? Diabetes mellitus type 1 Diabetes mellitus type 2 Ketoacidosis Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

Type 1 diabetes is the most common metabolic disease of childhood.

Which of the following does NOT produce upper intestinal bleeding? Esophageal varices Ulcerative colitis Esophagitis Mallory-Weiss tear

Ulcerative colitis (UC) is a form of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that causes inflammation and ulcers in the colon.

What does the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) dictate? All EMTs must have a basic level of training in order to administer aid to a patient in the field. All patients are allowed the right to treatment and/or transport. All health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. All health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and treatment, regardless of the patient's mental or physical limitations.

Under EMTALA, all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay.

Unequal pupils most likely indicate what type of injury? Brain Skull Chest Spine

Unequal pupils indicate an injury of the brain (or the eye).

Which of the following organs can rapidly sustain permanent damage when the body's glucose level is too low? Brain Heart Kidney Liver

Untreated hypoglycemia (low glucose) can result in loss of consciousness and can quickly cause significant brain damage or death.

When responding to a scene where smoke or possible hazardous materials are present, how should you park? Uphill and upwind Uphill and downwind Downhill and downwind Downhill and upwind

Uphill and upwind It is best to park uphill and upwind of the scene if smoke or hazardous materials are present.

Where should you park the ambulance when responding to a vehicle crash involving a hazardous material spill? Uphill and upwind from the hazard Uphill and downwind from the hazard Downhill and upwind from the hazard Downhill and downwind from the hazard

Uphill and upwind from the hazard In general, you should park uphill and upwind from a hazard.

During which phase of extrication should you don proper protective gear (PPE)? En route Upon arrival During hazard control Patient removal

Upon arrival

Select the correct answer to the question below. You are responding to a call where an 8-year-old has been stung by a wasp. His skin is pale with patches of raised red spots on his hands, arms, and face. These spots are most likely what? Angioedema Acne Urticaria A fungal infection

Urticaria (hives) are small areas of generalized itching/burning that appear as multiple raised areas on the skin in response to an allergen.

venules

Very small, thin-walled blood vessels.

abruptio placenta

premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus

When restraining a patient, which of the following are true? Use the minimum force that is necessary to control a patient. Physically uncooperative patients should be restrained with the 6-point restraint system. Phenylcyclohexylpiperidine is used by ALS as a medical restraint. EMS protocols should avoid the use of hard restraints.

Use the minimum force that is necessary to control a patient. EMS protocols should avoid the use of hard restraints. Correct. Both of these statements are true.

basilar skull fracture

Usually occur following diffuse impact to the head (such as falls, motor vehicle crashes); generally result from extension of a linear fracture to the base of the skull and can be difficult to diagnose with a radiograph.

As you are delivering the head during birth, you observe the umbilical cord is wrapped once around the neck. What should you do? Ask the patient not to push, and prepare for immediate transport. Clamp and cut the cord, and remove the cord from around the neck. Pull on the cord to speed the delivery. Try to slip the cord gently over the head.

Usually, you can slip the cord gently over the delivered head (or over the shoulder, if necessary).

Which of the following might make it difficult for you to establish an IV access in a patient with a drug abuse problem? Tachycardia Nausea and/or vomiting Venous scarring Hypotension

Venous scarring (or track marks) makes it difficult to establish IV access.

What is ventilation? The process of delivering oxygen to the cells The process of removing carbon dioxide and waste products from the body The body's ability to move air in and out of the chest and lung tissue The exchange of gases across the alveoli of the lungs

Ventilation is the body's ability to move air in and out of the chest and lung tissue.

Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may cause which of the following dysrhythmias? Ventricular fibrillation Sinus bradycardia Asystole Sinus tachycardia

Ventricular fibrillation Rough handling of a patient with moderate to severe hypothermia may cause the heart to go into ventricular fibrillation.

Which dysrhythmia is the most common cause of sudden death in a cardiovascular emergency? Bradycardia Tachycardia Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation is the dysrhythmia that commonly causes sudden death.

direct laryngoscopy

Visualization of the airway with a laryngoscope.

video laryngoscopy

Visualization of the vocal cords, and thereby placement of the endotracheal tube that is facilitated by use of a video camera and monitor.

In which control zone would you find the decontamination area? Hot zone Warm zone Outer perimeter Cold zone

Warm zone The decontamination area is set up in the warm zone.

When assessing a patient's breathing, you hear wheezing in all lung fields. What are you hearing? A high-pitched whistling sound caused by bronchoconstriction A coarse, low-pitched breath sound heard in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways A high-pitched noise heard primarily on inspiration Crackling, moist breath sounds

Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound caused by bronchoconstriction.

freelancing

When individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions about the next appropriate action.

When securing a patient to a backboard, what area of the body should you secure last? Head Upper torso Pelvis Upper legs

When securing a patient to a long backboard, you secure the patient's head last.

You are attending to a patient with a nondisplaced elbow fracture. She has a strong pulse and good capillary refill. How should you address this type of injury? Splint from the shoulder joint to the wrist joint to stabilize the entire arm. Apply a Sager traction splint to stabilize the joint. Apply a sling and swathe to reduce pain. Apply ice to reduce swelling.

When splinting a fracture in and around a joint, be sure to stabilize the bones above and below the injured joint.

In which situations should you splint the limb in the position of deformity? When the deformity is the result of a dislocation and is severe When you encounter resistance or extreme pain when applying traction When distal pulses are absent When the fracture is an open fracture

When the deformity is the result of a dislocation and is severe When you encounter resistance or extreme pain when applying traction

Cardiac Arrest

When the heart fails to generate effective and detectable blood flow; pulses are not palpable in cardiac arrest, even if muscular and electrical activity continues in the heart.

Which of the following groups are most likely to commit suicide? Teenage girls (any ethnicity) African American women older than 65 years College-educated males aged 45-65 years White males older than 85 years

White males older than the age of 85 years are at the highest risk for suicide.

Dilation

Widening of a tubular structure such as a coronary artery.

pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)

a condition of late pregnancy that is characterized by headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called preeclampsia or toxemia of pregnancy

Advance directives

Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called a living will or health care directive.

If you are on an emergency call with your warning lights and siren turned on, you may be allowed to do which of the following? Proceed through a red traffic light or stop sign without stopping Drive faster than the posted speed limit. Drive against the flow of traffic on an interstate in the left lane Pass a stopped school bus with the stop sign out.

You may be allowed to drive faster than the speed limit, but you will still be liable if an accident occurs.

You are transporting a patient with angina and he loses consciousness on the way to the hospital. When you check, you cannot feel a pulse. What should you do? Tell your partner to drive faster as you begin CPR on the patient. Immediately apply the AED and wait for it to analyze the rhythm before taking any other action. Have your partner pull over the ambulance and come back to help you with CPR and the AED. Begin CPR and after 2 minutes stop to apply the AED while your partner continues driving to the hospital.

You should have your partner pull over the ambulance and come back to help you with CPR and the AED.

In an instance of multiple casualties, how should patient care be initiated? In the order you reach each patient In the order of age beginning with the youngest Based on the mechanism of injury Only after all patients have been triaged

You should locate and rapidly triage each patient to determine who needs urgent care before you proceed with any treatment and patient packaging.

In which condition is it recommended you use positive-pressure ventilation? Pneumothorax Flail chest Traumatic asphyxia Tension pneumothorax

You should provide positive-pressure ventilation to a patient with a flail chest

You are treating a patient who might have a skull fracture. What should you do if a dressing you have applied to a head wound becomes soaked? Replace the dressing with a fresh one. Remove the dressing and apply an occlusive dressing. Place a clean dressing over the bloody one. Apply direct pressure and add a compression dressing.

You should simply apply a clean dressing over the soaked dressing so that you do not risk contaminating the wound.

When transporting a pregnant patient in her third trimester, how should you position her? Supine On her left side On her right side Fowler position

You should transport the patient on her left side as this can prevent supine hypotensive syndrome.

You are at the home of an elderly man who has a tracheostomy tube and is on mechanical ventilation. His ventilator has malfunctioned. Once you disconnect the ventilator, what should you do? Deliver 100% oxygen through a nonrebreathing mask. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen. Deliver oxygen using a face mask over the stoma. Transport the patient to a critical care facility immediately.

You should use a face mask over the stoma.

On auscultation of a patient's lungs, you hear crackles. These lung sounds are caused by air passing through what? Constricted airways Thick secretions in the airways Fluid in the alveoli Inflamed airways

You will hear crackles when there is fluid in the lungs and alveoli.

When assessing distal circulation in a patient's lower extremities, which pulse should you palpate? Femoral Dorsalis pedis Popliteal Iliac

You would palpate the popliteal artery in lower extremity wounds.

As an EMT, what is your main role at the scene of an accident involving extrication of the patient? To provide safe entrance and access to the patients To extricate the patients To assess and provide immediate medical care To provide traffic control and direction

Your job as an EMT is to assess and provide medical care.

fracture

a break in the continuity of a bone

horomone

a chemical substance produced by a gland that regulates the activity of organs and tissues

hemothorax

a collection of blood in the pleural cavity

bends

a common name for decompression sickness.

obestiy

a complex condition in which a person has an excessive amount of body fat

hypothermia

a condition in which the body core temperature fall below 95 F (35 C) after exposure to a cold environment.

shock

a condition in which the circulatory system fails to provide sufficient circulation to maintain normal cellular functions; also called hypoperfusion

epiglottisitis

a disease in which the epiglottis becomes inflamed and enlarged and may cause an upper airway obstruction

narcotic

a drug that produces sleep or altered mental consciousness

dibetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

a form of hyperglycemia in uncontrolled diabetes in which certain acids accumulate when insulin is not available.

Down Syndrome

a genetic chromosomal defect that can occur during fetal development and that results in intellectual imparment as well as certain physical characteristics, such as a round head with a flat occiput and slanted, wide-set eyes.

hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syncrome (HNNS)

a life-threatening condition resulting from high blood glucose that typically occurs in older adults and which causes altered mental status, dehydration, and organ damage

Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Auto-Injector (ATNAA)

a nerve agent antidote kit containing atropine and pralidoxime chloride; delivered as a single dose through one needle.

lymphatic system

a passive circulatory system in the body that transports a plasmalike liquid called lymph, a thin fluid that bathes the tissues of the body

allergen

a substance that causes an allergic reaction

clean technique

a technique in which the amount of pathogens or unclean materials picked up or transferred during a procedure is minimized through the use of routine hand washing and non-sterile protective gloves

reverse triage

a triage process used in treating multiple victims of a lightning strike, in which efforts are focused on those who are in respiratory and cardiac arrest. Reverse triage is different from conventional triage where such patients would be classified as decreased.

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: a. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. b. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. c. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. d. performing five back blows and live abdominal thrusts.

a. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. Ch 13 foreign body airway obstruction in adults pg 542

peritoneal cavity

abdominal cavity

hemorrhage

bleeding

hematuria

blood in the urine

hypoglycemia

an abnormally low blood glucose level

Atherosclerosis

an accumulation of fat and cholesterol in the arteries

An open neck injury may result in _____ if enough air is sucked into a blood vessel. A. tracheal deviation B. subcutaneous emphysema C. an air embolism D. hypovolemic shock

an air embolism

command

an incident command the position that oversees the incident, establishes the objectives and priorities, and develops a response plan.

work of breathing

an indicator of oxygenation and ventilation; reflects the child's attempt to compensate for hypoxia

penumonia

an inflammation of the lung from a bacterial, viral, or fungal cause

nuchal cord

an umbilical cord that is wrapped around the fetus's neck

dysbarism injuries

any signs and symptoms caused by the difference between the surrounding atmospheric pressure and the total gas pressure in various tissues, fluids, and cavities of the body.

blind spot

areas of the road that are blocked from your view by your vehicle or mirrors.

superficial (1st degree) burns

burns that affect only the epidermis, characterized by skin that is red but not blistered or actually burned through

Ataxic (Biot) respirations

characterized by irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea - can be a sign of increased ICP

preschool-age

children between ages 3 to 6 years

school-age

children between ages 6 to 12 years

Types of Seizures: Epileptic Common cause(s):

congenital origin

hemoptysis

coughing up blood

Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances? Select one: a. Food and medications b. Insect or animal bites and stings c. Plant material d. All of these answers are correct.

d. All of these answers are correct.

frostbite

damage to tissues as the result of exposure to cold; frozen body parts

gestational diabetes

diabetes that develops during pregnancy in women who did have diabetes before pregnancy

metoprolol (Lopressor)

diuretic; treats hypertension, heart failure

occlusive dressing

dressings made of petroleum (Vaseline) gauze, aluminum foil, or plastic that prevent air and liquids from entering or exiting a wound

infancy

first year of life

Ascites

fluid in the abdomen

decorticate vs decerebrate posturing what do these indicate?

google

Conductive hearing loss causes

hearing loss caused by a faulty transmission of sound waves

calcaneus

heel bone

Types of Seizures: Metabolic Common cause(s):

hypoxia abnormal blood chemical values hypoglycemia poisioning drug overdose sudden withdrawal from alcohol or medications

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12′,landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: A. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam. B. allow him to refuse transport if his Vital signs remain stable C. performa a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine. D. obtain a Glasgow coma score value and give him oxygen

immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.

treatment supervisor

in incident command, the person usually a physician, who is in charge of and directs EMS providers at the treatment area in a mass-casualty incident.

Logisitcs

in incident command, the position that helps procure and stockpile equipment and supplies during an incident

group

in the context of EMS, a collection of individual health care providers working independently to help the patient

team

in the context of ems, a group of health care providers who are assigned specific roles and are working interdependently in a coordinated manner under a designated leader

Tachypnea

increased respiratory rate

rabid

infected with rabies

Diverticulitis

inflammation in small pockets at weak areas in the muscle walls

cystitis

inflammation of the bladder

conjunctivitis

inflammation of the conjunctiva

Cholecystitis

inflammation of the gallbladder

pancreatitis

inflammation of the pancreas

peritonitis

inflammation of the peritoneum

tracheitis

inflammation of the trachea

appendicitis

inflammation or infection of the appendix

Bacteria

microorganisms that reproduce by binary fission. These single-cell creatures reproduce rapidly. Some can form spores (encysted variants) when environmental conditions are harsh

epistaxis

nosebleed

glucose

one of the basic sugars; it is the primary fuel in conjunction with oxygen for cellular metabolism

For which injury would you use an occlusive dressing directly on the wound? Avulsion Evisceration Impaled object Open neck injury

open neck injury Correct. If the veins of the neck are open to the environment, they may suck in air, leading to an air embolism. To control bleeding and prevent the possibility of air embolism, cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

tracheostomy tube

plastic tube placed within the tracheostomy site (stoma)

tachypnea

rapid respirations

endocrine system

regulates metabolism and maintains homeostasis

Cheyne-Stokes respirations

respirations that are fast and then become slow, with intervening periods of apnea - can be a sign of increased ICP

dysarthria

slurred speech

Urticaria (hives)

small areas of generalized itching and/or burning that appear as multiple raised areas on the skin; hives

decubitus ulcer

sores caused by the pressure of skin against a surface for long periods; can range from a pink discoloration of the skin to a deep wound that may invade into bone or organs; also known as bedsores

Which of the following has the greatest impact on producing injury? Mass Speed Distance Gravity

speed The energy that is available to cause injury doubles when an object's weight doubles, but it quadruples when speed doubles.

coma

state of profound unconsciousness from which person cannot be roused

salmeterol (Advair)

steroid maintenance inhaler; prevents asthma attacks, COPD

Types of Seizures: Febrile Common cause(s):

sudden high fever

cerebral edema

swelling of the brain

turgor

the ability of the skin to resist deformation; tested by gently pinching skin on the forehead or back of the hand.

Evaporation

the conversion of water or another fluid from a liquid to a gas

hemoptysis

the coughing up of blood

intervertebral discs

the cushion that lies between two vertebrae

embryo

the early stage of development after the fertilization of the egg (first 10 weeks)

kinetic energy

the energy of a moving object Kinetic energy reflects the relationship between the mass (weight) of the object and the velocity (speed) at which it is traveling, expressed as: Kinetic energy = 1⁄2 mass × velocity2 or KE = 1⁄2 m × v2

globe

the eyeball

Tibia

the larger of the 2 lower leg bones responsible for supporting the major weight-bearing surface of the knee and the ankle; the shinbone

retina

the light-sensitive area of the eye where images are projected; a layer of cells at the back of the eye that changes the light image into electric impulses, which are carried by the optic nerve to the brain

endometrium

the lining of the inside of the uterus

Respiration

the loss of body heat as warm air in the lungs is exhaled into the atmosphere and cooler air is inhaled.

convection

the loss of body heat caused by air movement (e.g., a breeze blowing across the body)

Conduction

the loss of heat by direct contact (eg. when a body part comes into contact with a colder object)

size-up

the ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics to manage an emergency

Fibula

the outer and smaller bone of the two bones of the lower leg

joint

the place where 2 bones come into contact

intracranial pressure (ICP)

the pressure within the cranial vault

potential energy

the product of mass, gravity, and height, which is converted into kinetic energy and results in injury, such as from a fall

hernia

the protrusion of an organ or tissue through an abdnormal body opening

diving reflex

the slowing of the heart rate caused by submersion in cold water

cappilaries

the small blood vessels that connect arterioles and venules; various substances pass through capillary walls, into and out of the interstitial fluid, and then on to the cells

miscarriage

the spontaneous passage of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; also called spontaneous abortion.

hematology

the study and prevention of blood-related disorders

ambient temperature

the temperature of the surrounding enviornment

polypharmacy

the use of multiple medications on a regular basis

Birth canal

the vagina and cervix

blanch

to turn white

Generic (Trade Name): adalimumab (Humira)

treats arthritis

Generic (Trade Name): aripiprazole (Abilify)

treats depression

Generic (Trade Name): duloxetine (Cymbalta)

treats depression and anxiety disorders

Generic (Trade Name): metformin (Glucophage)

treats diabetes

metformin (Glucophage)

treats diabetes

Generic (Trade Name): esomeprazole (Nexium)

treats gastric reflux, heartburn

omeprazole (Prilosec)

treats gastric reflux, heartburn

Generic (Trade Name): amlodipine (Norvasc)

treats high blood pressure or cardiac conditions

Generic (Trade Name): atorvastatin (Lipitor)

treats high cholesterol

rosuvastatin (Crestor)

treats high cholesterol

simvastatin (Zocor)

treats high cholesterol

levothyroxine (Synthroid)

treats hypothyroidism

Generic (Trade Name): amoxicillin (Moxatag)

treats infection caused by bacteria

Generic (Trade Name): azithromycin (Zithromax)

treats infection caused by bacteria

shunts

tubes that drain ecxess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the brain to another part of the body outside of the brain, such as the abdomen; lowers pressure in the brain

Types of Seizures: Structural Common cause(s):

tumor (benign or cancerous) infection (brain abscess) scar tissue from injury head trauma stroke

A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes: A. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg. B. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min C. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% D. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask

ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg. ch. 28 - pt assessment, page 995

emesis

vomiting

hematemesis

vomiting blood

Hemiparesis

weakness on one side of the body

What is the best position in which to transport an obese patient? Supine Prone With the head elevated With the feet elevated

with the head elevated Large patients will often have difficulty breathing in a supine position. When safe and appropriate to do so, elevate the head of the stretcher when transporting patients with obesity.