EMT Exam Questions - all

Name the components of the APGAR score

- Appearance - Pulse - Grimace - Activity - Respirations

What is the difference in ICS between a group & division?

- Group: focused on a specific goal/task - Division: based on a geographic area

The components required on a DNR form:

- Patient's name - Patient's signature - Patient's DOB - The words "Do Not Resuscitate" - Physician's name/signature - Witness signature - Effective date

List the signs & symptoms of a nerve agent exposure

- Salivation - Lacrimation - Urination - Deification - GI upset - Emesis - Miosis

Signs of a Dissecting Aortic Aneurysm:

- Sudden onset of chest pain, HTN - Non-compliant with medications - BP in one arm is significantly higher than the other

Normal blood loss during child birth (in cc)

500 cc

Something all emergency vehicles must yield to even while on an emergency call

A school bus that is loading or unloading

When providing positive pressure ventilations (PPV) to a non-intubated adult patient with a pulse, what is the correct ventilation rate? A. 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds B. 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds C. 1 breath every 6 to 8 seconds D. 1 breath every 5 to 8 seconds

A. 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds

What is the correct ventilation interval for an adult who is in respiratory arrest but not yet in cardiac arrest A. 1 breath every 5-6 seconds B. 1 breath every 6-8 seconds C. 1 breath every 3-5 seconds D. 1 breath every 6-7 seconds

A. 1 breath every 5-6 seconds

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop & sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms & to the anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, what is the percent of BSA burned? A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45%

A. 18%

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses, weak carotid pulses, & dilated pupils B. A 23-year-old female who is restless, with cool, clammy skin C. A 28-year-old female with flushed skin, & rapid, shallow respirations D. A 32-year-old female with anxiety & a systolic blood pressure of 110 mmHg

A. A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses, weak carotid pulses, & dilated pupils

Which of the following patients has an isolated head injury that would be considered the most serious? A. A 21-year-old male wearing a deformed motorcycle helmet who does not respond to verbal painful stimuli B. A 62-year-old female who fell & hit her head & is becoming increasingly confused & combative C. A 31-year-old male who is non-verbal & extends his arms as a result of painful stimuli D. A 53-year-old female with a large laceration to the head that is bleeding heavily

A. A 21-year-old male wearing a deformed motorcycle helmet who does not respond to verbal painful stimuli

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? A. A 45 year old male who ingested penicillin B. A 50 year old male who was exposed to latex C. A 64 year old female who was stung by a bee D. A 21 year old female who was exposed to peanuts

A. A 45 year old male who ingested penicillin

Which of the following statements regarding consent is MOST correct? A. A patient can consent to transport but can refuse to be treated B. A patient that is intoxicated is generally allowed to refuse care C. A patient older than 18 years of age can always refuse care D. A patient who is elderly must have a family member consent to care

A. A patient can consent to transport but can refuse to be treated

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following except: A. A patient who can be assessed while still in the vehicle B. A patient who blocks access to a critical patient C. A patient who requires immediate treatment in the supine position D. A patient whose condition requires immediate transport

A. A patient who can be assessed while still in the vehicle

You are dispatched to the scene of a 40-year-old woman who is complaining of lower abdominal pain, fever, & chills. You note a foul smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following findings would increase your suspicion that the patient had PID? A. A shuffling gate when walking B. A history of ectopic pregnancy C. Vaginal passage of blood clots D. Bright red blood in the urine

A. A shuffling gate when walking

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): A. Allergen B. Antibody C. Histamine D. Leukotriene

A. Allergen

Idiopathic Seizures are defined as seizures produced by: A. An entirely unknown or undetermined cause B. Severe mental retardation (idiocy) C. Missing a dose of seizure medications D. A prolonged lack of oxygen

A. An entirely unknown or undetermined cause

A patient was building a bomb in his garage when it accidentally detonated. You note intestine & a portion of liver protruding from the right side of the abdomen. After assessing the ABCs, you should: A. Apply a moist sterile dressing covered with an occlusive dressing B. Cover the exposed organs with a large moist sterile dressing C. Apply direct gentle pressure to hold the organs in place D. Gently push the organs back into the abdomen

A. Apply a moist sterile dressing covered with an occlusive dressing

You arrive at a meat packing plant to find a 30-year-old female who was cut in the wrist with a sharp knife. The patient is breathing but appears pale & blood can be seen spurting from the laceration. Your immediate action would be to: A. Apply direct pressure to the laceration B. Obtain a blood pressure C. Apply 15 LPM of oxygen via an oxygen mask D. Assess the pulse distal to the injury

A. Apply direct pressure to the laceration

When testing a patient with a closed mid-shaft femur fracture you should: A. Apply the traction splint BEFORE placing the patient on a backboard B. Apply the traction splint AFTER placing the patient on a backboard C. Not use a traction splint if spinal injury is suspected D. Never use both a traction splint & a backboard at the same time

A. Apply the traction splint BEFORE placing the patient on a backboard

Upon delivery of the infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the neck. You should: A. Attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head B. Provide free-flow oxygen to the infant & transport C. Give 100% oxygen to the mother & rapidly transport D. Immediately clamp & cut the umbilical cord

A. Attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? A. Audible breathing B. Forceful coughing C. Inspiratory stridor D. Unresponsiveness

A. Audible breathing

Which of the following cannot be removed through the use of an alcohol based hand sanitizer? A. C. diff B. MRSA C. ESBL D. VRE

A. C diff

The spread of HIV & hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: A. Careless handling of sharps B. A lack of proper immunizations C. Excessive blood splattering D. Failure to use proper PPE

A. Careless handling of sharps

What is the proper technique for suctioning? A. Circular motion while removing the catheter for a max of 10-15 seconds B. Suction on the way in while holding your breath C. For no more than 20 seconds D. Suction until the airway is cleared of the obstruction

A. Circular motion while removing the catheter for a max of 10-15 seconds

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should: A. Consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior B. Avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas C. Check his or her blood glucose only if they have a history of diabetes D. Carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior

A. Consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior

You are called to a 19-year-old male who is "not feeling right." Upon arriving you find that patient's insulin & a syringe. The patient says he thinks he may have already taken his insulin, but he is not sure. He is also unable to tell the time or what day it is. The glucometer reads "error" after several attempts. In addition to administering oxygen, what else should you do? A. Contact medical control & administer oral glucose B. Assist him with his insulin injection & reassess him C. Request an ALS unit to administer IV Dextrose D. Transport while monitoring en route

A. Contact medical control & administer oral glucose

You are called to the scene of a 19-year-old male who is "not feeling right." Upon arrival you find the patient's insulin & a syringe. The patient says he thinks he may have already taken his insulin, but he is not sure. He is also unable to tell you the time or day. The glucometer reads "error" after several attempts. In addition to administering oxygen, what should you do? A. Contact medical control & administer oral glucose B. Assist him with his insulin injection & reassess him C. Request an ALS unit to administer IV Dextrose D. Transport while monitoring en route

A. Contact medical control & administer oral glucose

Which of the following is a blood thinner, which would increase the chance of a serious head injury or hemorrhage? A. Coumadin B. Plavix C. Aspirin D. Both A & B

A. Coumadin

Which of the following is an indicator of imminent birth? A. Crowning of the baby's head B. Irregular contraction of the baby's head C. Expulsion of the mucus D. Rupture of the amniotic sac

A. Crowning of the baby's head

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, & visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he has a history of drinking heavily & she thinks that he has a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is most likely experiencing: A. Delirium tremens (DT) B. Acute schizophrenia C. Acute hypovolemia D. Alcohol intoxication

A. Delirium tremens (DT)

Which federal agency sets overall standards for EMS? A. Department of Transportation B. Department of Homeland Security C. Department of Health & Human Services D. Department of the Interior

A. Department of Transportation

Burns are classified according to: A. Depth & extent B. Location & pain C. Degree & location D. Extent & location

A. Depth & extent

The D in the DOPE mnemonic for correcting the cause of an advanced airway malfunction is: A. Displacement B. Dysfunction C. Don't move D. Disability

A. Displacement

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male patient presents with a decreased level of consciousness & signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A. Engorged jugular veins B. Widening pulse pressures C. Diminished breath sounds D. A rapid, irregular pulse

A. Engorged jugular veins

Prior to applying a non-rebreather mask (NBR) you should: A. Ensure the reservoir bag is full B. Set the flow rate at 6 lpm C. Ensure the one way valve is closed D. Set the flow rate at 25 lpm

A. Ensure the reservoir bag is full

After ventilating your unconscious patient, you note a large amount of gastric distention. What is a common cause of this problem? A. Excessive tidal volume B. Being overweight C. Having a poor seal between the mask & the face D. Excessive secretions in the mouth

A. Excessive tidal volume

Neurogenic shock occurs when: A. Failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation B. The spinal cord is served & causes massive hemorrhaging C. There is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container D. Massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury

A. Failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation

Syncope is defined as: A. Fainting (a transient loss of consciousness) B. An episode of dizziness, without a loss of consciousness C. The sudden sensation of weakness, without loss of consciousness D. A patient experiencing psychiatric difficulties

A. Fainting (a transient loss of consciousness)

Two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. Falls & motor vehicle accidents B. Low-caliber gunshot wounds & falls C. Gunshot wounds & vehicle ejections D. Motor vehicle accidents & stabbigs

A. Falls & motor vehicle accidents

When splinting a suspected fracture you should immobilize: A. From the joint above to the joint below the injury B. Directly in the area of the injury C. The entire limb D. The site of the injury & the joint above the injury

A. From the joint above to the joint below the injury

All of the following may result from hypoglycemia except: A. Fruity breath odor B. Tachycarida C. Altered mental status D. Seizure

A. Fruity breath odor

The term primipara refers to a woman who: A. Has had only one live birth B. Has had more than one live birth C. Has never been pregnant D. Is pregnant for the first time

A. Has had only one live birth

Signs & Symptoms of pre-eclampsia include: A. Headache & edema B. Marked hyperglycemia C. Dyspnea & bradycardia D. Hypotension & tachycardia

A. Headache & edema

A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is: A. Hematuria B. Hemolysis C. Hemoptysis D. Hematemesis

A. Hematuria

During transport, a pregnant woman should be placed on her left side to avoid A. Hypotension B. Hypertension C. AMI D. CVA

A. Hypotension

During transport, a pregnant woman should be placed on her left side to avoid: A. Hypotension B. Hypertension C. AMI D. CVA

A. Hypotension

Which of the following is the fastest route of medication absorption? A. IV B. IM C. PO D. SL

A. IV

You are dispatched to the scene of a 94-year-old female who is "not breathing." You arrive on the scene & find the patient unresponsive, pulseless, & apneic. The family states the patient has a valid Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order but it is locked in the safe that only the patient has the code to. What is the appropriate treatment? A. Immediately begin CPR B. Withhold CPR as there is a valid DNR C. Transport the patient running a "slow code" D. Contact the coroner & turn the scene over to the police

A. Immediately begin CPR

A patient has suffered an abdominal evisceration. There is no evidence of spinal injury. How would you position the patient on the stretcher for transport? A. In modified shock position (supine with knees flexed toward the chest) B. Lateral recumbent with legs extended C. Semi-Fowler's to promote adequate breathing D. Prone to maintain pressure on the abdomen

A. In modified shock position (supine with knees flexed toward the chest)

Hypoxia is defined as: A. Inadequate oxygenation of the tissues & cells B. Low venous oxygen levels C. An increase in carbon dioxide in the blood D. A decrease in arterial oxygen levels

A. Inadequate oxygenation of the tissues & cells

If an action or procedure that was performed is not recorded on the patient's written report: A. It was not performed in the eyes of the law B. It cannot be used in establishing negligence C. It can be corrected later if there is a problem D. It can be verbally stated during any legal proceedings

A. It was not performed in the eyes of the law

An overdose on acetaminophen, an active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: A. Liver failure B. Gastric ulcers C. Renal failure D. Central Nervous System (CNS) shut down E. No headaches ever again

A. Liver failure

Which of the following suffixes indicates a beta-blocker medication? A. Lol B. Dipine C. Pril D. Sartan E. Statin

A. Lol

An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when: A. Myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen B. The heart muscle progressively weakens C. Coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart D. The entire left ventricle is damaged & cannot pump blood

A. Myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed & he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead, & a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: A. Open his airway & assess his breathing status B. Perform an immediate head to toe assessment C. Assess him for proper pulse, motor, & sensation D. Apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask

A. Open his airway & assess his breathing status

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 911 & stated that he has attempted to kill himself. You arrive on scene with law enforcement & find the patient lying supine on the floor. He is unconscious & cyanotic. An empty bottle of Dilaudid (Hydromorphone) is found on an adjacent table. You should: A. Open the patient's airway & assess his respirations B. Ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes C. Provide care after determining what Dilaudid is D. Wait for the police to collect the evidence prior to patient contact

A. Open the patient's airway & assess his respirations

Heroin is an example of a(n): A. Opiod B. Hypnotic C. Cholinergic D. Sympathemimetic

A. Opiod

Patients with which of the following chronic medical conditions tend to present with atypical AMI symptoms? A. Patients with diabetes B. Patients with asthma C. Patients with coronary artery disease D. Patients with kidney disease

A. Patients with diabetes

Febrile seizures are most commonly found in which patient population A. Pediatrics B. Epileptics C. Geriatrics D. Diabetes

A. Pediatrics

Febrile seizures are most commonly found in which patient population? A. Pediatrics B. Epileptics C. Geriatrics D. Diabetics

A. Pediatrics

A nauseated patient with abdominal pain & a fever states that he has not vomited. The fact that he has not vomited would be documented as a : A. Pertinent negative B. Subjective finding C. Treatment finding D. The information is not relevant and not be documented

A. Pertinent negative

A 22-year-old female was kicked in the abdomen multiple times during an attack by a gang of girls. She is conscious but restless & has a rapid pulse. Your assessment reveals a large area of bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Your MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. Preparing for immediate transport B. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula C. Performing a focused physical exam D. A detailed assessment of the abdomen

A. Preparing for immediate transport

What is the name of an emotionally unjustified erection seen with spinal cord injury patients? A. Priapism B. Spinal phallus C. Genourinary sign D. Foley response

A. Priapism

An unconscious patient found in the prone position must be placed into the supine position in case he or she: A. Requires CPR B. Begins to vomit C. Regains consciousness D. Has an increased tidal volume

A. Requires CPR

A patient who can't remember the events that preceded his/her head injury is experiencing: A. Retrograde amnesia B. Antrograde amnesia C. Perigrade amnesia D. Post-traumatic amnesia

A. Retrograde amnesia

What type of triage must you do for lightening strike victims? A. Reverse B. Standard C. START D. JUMP-START

A. Reverse

You are assessing a 64-year-old who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache & then passed out. He is unresponsive & has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 220/110 mmHg & his pulse rate is 62 bpm. His wife tells you that he has a history of hypertension & diabetes. He MOST likely exerienced a(n): A. Ruptured cerebral artery B. Occluded cerebral artery C. Complete partial seizure D. Acute Hypoglycemia

A. Ruptured cerebral artery

How is Nitroglycerin administered? A. SL B. IVP C. PO D. PR

A. SL

A patient has been involved in a motorcycle accident & you notice paradoxical motion of the right lateral chest. His airway is open & he is breathing inadequately at 26 BPM. You should: A. Secure a rolled towel over the broken ribs B. Position the patient in a semi-Fowler's to assist with breathing C. Place ice packs on the injury D. Administer oxygen via NC

A. Secure a rolled towel over the broken ribs

A generalized seizure is characterized by: A. Severe twitching of all the body's muscles B. A blank stare & brief lapse of consciousness C. Unconsciousness for greater than thirty minutes D. A core body temperature of 103 degrees Fahrenheit

A. Severe twitching of all the body's muscles

Dyspnea is best defined as: A. Shortness of breath, or difficulty breathing B. A complete cessation of respiratory effort C. An abnormal breathing pattern D. A reduction in tidal volume

A. Shortness of breath, or difficulty breathing

Dyspnea is best defined as: A. Shortness of breath, or difficulty breathing B. A complete cessation of respiratory effort C. An abnormal breathing pattern D. A reduction in tidal volume

A. Shortness of breath, or difficulty breathing

A young male was assaulted & is found unconscious. Your assessment reveals bruising around his eyes & blood-tinged fluid draining from his nose. You should be MOST suspicious of a/an: A. Skull fracture B. Cerebral contusion C. Subdural hematoma D. Intracerebral hemorrhage

A. Skull fracture

In order to communicate best with a patient with hearing difficulty you should: A. Speak in a lower toned voice B. Speak in as high a tone of voice as possible C. Speak very loudly & very slowly D. Try to make your own version of sign language

A. Speak in a lower toned voice

Which of the following has a potential to be very dangerous due to a delayed onset of symptoms? A. Subdural hematoma B. Epidural hematoma C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage D. Depressed skull fracture

A. Subdural hematoma

What condition can arise in pregnancy from a patient lying flat on her back? This condition is caused by an enlarged uterus that obstructs the return of blood to the heart. A. Supine hypotensive syndrome B. Supine positioning disorder C. Prebirth position syndrome D. Migraine position syndrome

A. Supine hypotensive syndrome

The modified Trendelenburg position is best described as: A. Supine with the legs elevated 6-12 inches B. On the left side to prevent hypotension C. Sitting upright D. Supine with the knees bent

A. Supine with the legs elevated 6-12 inches

Insulin shock will MOST likely develop if a patient: A. Takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin B. Markedly overeats & missed an insulin dose C. Eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion D. Misses two or more prescribed insulin injections

A. Takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin

The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: A. That the baby's airway may be obstructed B. That the fetus is at least four week premature C. That full newborn resuscitation measures will be needed D. That the newborn has properly developed

A. That the baby's airway may be obstructed

How will you know if the application of the PASG/MAST has been effective? A. The bleeding has stopped B. The affected limb has been immobilized C. Distal pulses are present D. The blood pressure increases

A. The bleeding has stopped

Phosphorus or elemental sodium should be brushed off the skin instead of irrigated with water because: A. These chemicals may react violently upon contact with water B. Water makes these chemicals stick to the skin C. Severe swelling of the exposed skin will occur when mixed with water D. This will limit the chances of you being exposed

A. These chemicals may react violently upon contact with water

A minor under the age of 18 who is pregnant or who has a child has the right to consent or refuse care without parental consent. A. True B. False

A. True

Suicide is more common in older men than any other age group. A. True B. False

A. True

The second stage of birth begins with entry into the birth canal. A. True B. False

A. True

A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, & pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what MOST likely occurred? A. Ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle B. Asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta C. Fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium & led to a cardiac dysrhythmia D. Collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue & caused cardiac arrest

A. Ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle

The two MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are: A. Wheezing & widespread urticaria B. Watery eyes & localized itching C. Expiratory stridor & tachycardia D. Hypertension & swollen hands

A. Wheezing & widespread urticaria

A Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) is a stoke in which the symptoms generally resolve: A. Within 24 hours B. Within 72 hours C. Within one week D. After taking tPA

A. Within 24 hours

What must be done after administering a medication? A. Reassess vital signs & patient condition B. Contact medical control C. Dispose of excess medication D. Give patient a second does

A. reassess vital signs & patient condition

List 7 of the 9 components of the acronym AEIOU-TIPS

A: Alcohol, Acid-base E: Electrolytes, Encephalopathy I: Infection O: Overdose, Oxygenation, Opiates U: Uremia, Underdose T: Trauma, Temperature I: Insulin P: Psychosis, Poisoning S: Stroke, Seizure, Shock, Sepsis

List the 5 components of the APGAR score

A: Appearance P: Pulse G: Grimace A: Activity R: Respirations

You arrive at a hunting camp for a hunter who stumbled over a rock & caught himself with his outstretched arm. He denies hitting his head or neck. He has swelling & ecchymosis to his left wrist. A radial pulse is readily palpated & the skin in the hand is warm to the touch. Which of the following instructions given by the EMT to the other rescuers indicates proper care for the patient? A. "Make sure to wrap the splint as tightly as possible, we need a lot of pressure to prevent swelling" B. "After we splint his wrist, we will need to elevate it during transport to reduce swelling" C. "When you splint the arm. Make sure it is loose so the patient can move it if he is uncomfortable" D. "Since he still has a pulse in the arm, the swelling is from a muscle injury & we can avoid splinting the arm and just use ice packs"

B. "After we splint his wrist, we will need to elevate it during transport to reduce swelling"

What is the proper flow rate for the non-rebreather mask (NRB)? A. 2-6 liters per minute B. 10-15 liters per minute C. 15-25 liters per minute D. 6-12 liters per minute

B. 10-15 liters per minute

What is the maximum score that can be received on the revised trauma score? A. 10 B. 12 C. 15 D. 16

B. 12

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response on the Glasgow Coma Scale? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

B. 3

Which of the following is the correct adult dose for four baby aspirin? A. 325 mg B. 324 mg C. 500 mg D. 750 mg

B. 324 mg

Which of the following patients would you administer oral glucose to? A. A 37 y/o male who is unresponsive & has a BGL of 28 mg/dL B. A 64 y/o female who is alert but confused C. A 19 y/o male who is confused & has a BGL of 600 mg/dL D. A 26 y/o male who is confused & complaining of polydipsia

B. A 64 y/o female who is alert but confused

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. A pulse that is rapid & thready B. A decreased level of consciousness C. An abnormally low blood pressure D. Decreased sensation to the extremities

B. A decreased level of consciousness

The medical term edema is best defined as: A. An accumulation of stagnant blood in the legs, making them swollen B. A localized or general accumulation of excessive fluid within body tissues C. A localized or general accumulation of excessive blood within body tissues D. An accumulation of stagnant blood in the lungs, causing dyspnea

B. A localized or general accumulation of excessive fluid within body tissues

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: A. Urticaria B. A wheal C. Purpura D. Hives

B. A wheal

Which of the following skills or interventions is included in every level of pre-hospital care? A. Epinephrine auto-injector administration B. AED C. Intranasal medication administration D. Use of a mechanical ventilator

B. AED

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A. Worsen the pain B. Alleviate the pain C. Initiate the pain D. Change the pain

B. Alleviate the pain

The actual exchange of oxygen & carbon dioxide occurs in the: A. Bronchioles B. Alveolar sacs C. Apex of the lungs D. Laryngopharynx

B. Alveolar sacs

You are transporting a 20-year-old male with a laceration to the left external jugular vein. You have successfully controlled bleeding from the wound. Suddenly, he experiences an acute onset of labored breathing & cyanosis. You should suspect: A. A pneumothorax B. An acute air embolism C. Disruption of the larynx D. That the bandage is too tight

B. An acute air embolism

Observing that the patient has a barrel chest often indicates that the patient has a history of chronic lung disease. A barrel chest is best described as the observation that the patient has: A. An obesity problem (where the chest & abdomen are large & rounded) B. An enlarged chest diameter (creating the impression that the patient's chest looks like a barrel) C. Excessive chest expansion with inspiration & excessive chest deflation with expiration (creating the impression that the patient "blows up like a barrel" when he inhales D. None of the above

B. An enlarged chest diameter (creating the impression that the patient's chest looks like a barrel)

Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris & acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? A. AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia B. Anginal pain typically subsides quickly or with rest C. Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris D. Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes

B. Anginal pain typically subsides quickly or with rest

Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris & an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? A. AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia B. Anginal pain typically subsides quickly or with rest C. Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris D. Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes

B. Anginal pain typically subsides quickly or with rest

After applying a dressing to an arterial bleed from a patients arm, you notice that the dressing quickly becomes soaked with blood. You should: A. Replace the dressing with dry gauze B. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound C. Splint the arm & keep it below heart level D. Keep placing more & more dressings over the wound

B. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing a myocardial infarction do not immediately seek medical attention is because they: A. Are elderly B. Are in denial C. Cannot afford it D. Were once robbed by EMTs

B. Are in denial

You & your partner are treating a 66-year-old male who experienced a sudden onset of shortness of breath. He is conscious but is unable to follow commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored & inadequate. His blood oxygen saturation is 70%. You should: A. Attempt to insert an oral airway B. Assist his ventilations with a BVM C. Apply a CPAP mask & monitor his breathing D. Apply high flow oxygen via NRB

B. Assist his ventilations with a BVM

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old male who experienced a sudden onset of shortness of breath. He is conscious but is unable to follow commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored & inadequate & his blood oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: A. Attempt to insert an oral airway B. Assist his ventilations with a bag valve mask C. Apply a CPAP mask & monitor his breathing D. Apply high flow oxygen via NRB

B. Assist his ventilations with a bag valve mask

Which of the following is NOT one of the "6 rights" of medication administration? A. Documentation B. Authorization C. Dose D. Route

B. Authorization

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should: A. Ask the police to handcuff the patient for your safety B. Be direct & clearly state your intentions C. Frisk the patient for the presence of weapons D. Spend as little time with the patient as possible

B. Be direct & clearly state your intentions

What is the correct initial action to perform on a chocking person who has become responsive A. Continue abdominal thrusts on the ground B. Begin chest compressions C. Open the mouth & look for the object D. Apply the AED & administer shock if advised E. Perform five back blows followed by five chest thrusts

B. Begin chest compressions

You are dispatched to the scene of a traffic collision involving a pedestrian in a suburban neighborhood. You arrive on the scene to find a 7-year-old female lying in the roadway. The patient has injuries that are incompatible with sustaining life. Medical control is contacted & approves withholding resuscitative efforts. As you inform the family of this decision, they become irate & potentially violent, threatening you & your partner. You should: A. Explain to the family that there is nothing that anyone can do B. Begin resuscitative efforts, knowing they will not be successful C. Explain to the family that their daughter is now in a better place D. Any of the above would be appropriate

B. Begin resuscitative efforts, knowing they will not be successful

The major side effect associated with ingestion of activated charcoal is: A. Headache B. Black stool C. Abdominal pain D. Ringing in the ears

B. Black stool

Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: A. The level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases B. Blood acidity is decreased by rapid breathing C. Blood acidity is increased by rapid breathing D. Dangerous acids accumulate in the blood

B. Blood acidity is decreased by rapid breathing

Which is the best indication for the administration of oral glucose? A. Blood glucose of 120 mg/dL B. Blood glucose of 46 mg/dL C. History of diabetes D. Excessive Hunger & thirst

B. Blood glucose of 46 mg/dL

Which of the following is NOT a component of the APGAR score? A. Activity B. Body size C. Pulse D. Grimace

B. Body size

Which of the following medications is a contraindication for the administration of oral aspirin? A. Beta-blockers B. Brilinta C. Coumadin D. Albuteral

B. Brilinta

All information recorded on a patient care report must be: A. Typed B. Considered confidential C. A matter of public record D. Reflective of your own opinion

B. Considered confidential

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates: A. A significant amount of fluid in the alveoli B. Constriction of the bronchioles C. Enlargement of the bronchioles D. Rapid swelling of the upper airway

B. Constriction of the bronchioles

High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A. Radiation B. Convection C. Conduction D. Evaporation

B. Convection

Hemoptysis is defined as: A. Vomiting up blood B. Coughing up blood C. Abnormal blood clotting D. Blood in the urine

B. Coughing up blood

You have been called for a male patient who has been shot. Assessment reveals an entrance wound to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. You also locate an exit wound to the left upper back. The EMT would immediately: A. Cover the abdominal wound with saline-soaked gauze B. Cover the exit wound with a gloved hand C. Auscultate the patient's breath sounds D. Place a cervical collar on the patient

B. Cover the exit wound with a gloved hand

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia in non-anemic patients? A. Anxiety B. Cyanosis C. Tachycardia D. Restlessness

B. Cyanosis

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Air bag deployment B. Deformed steering wheel C. Caved-in passanger door D. Intrathoracic hemorrhage

B. Deformed steering wheel

In addition to ensuring his own safety, the EMT's responsibility when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. Determine the underlying cause of the problem & offer advice B. Defuse & control the situation & safely transport the patient C. Diagnose the patient's problem & provide definitive treatment D. Transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility

B. Defuse & control the situation & safely transport the patient

The initial stage of grieving with death & dying is most commonly displayed as: A. Anger B. Denial C. Depression D. Acceptance

B. Denial

When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is to: A. Direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs & symptoms B. Determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life C. Definitively rule out serious causes for each of the patient's complaints D. Assess each complaint based on the amount the patient complains about it

B. Determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life

In general, which of the following would the EMT recognize as the correct order of interventions to control external bleeding? Keeping in mind that this order may have to be deviated from if necessary. A. Pressure points, elevation, direct pressure, immobilization B. Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, tourniquet C. Direct pressure, pressure points, elevation, tourniquet D. Pressure points, direct pressure, cold packs

B. Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, tourniquet

A 66-year-old female presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain began suddenly about thirty minutes ago & has been severe from the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being non-compliant with her medications. When you assess her you find that her blood pressure is significantly high in the right arm than the left. What are these signs & symptoms most indicative of? A. Unstable angina B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm C. AMI D. Hypertensive crisis

B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm

When splinting a suspected fracture of the radius & ulna, the EMT should immobilize the: A. Wrist & hand B. Elbow & wrist C. Wrist & shoulder D. Elbow & shoulder

B. Elbow & wrist

Specially trained call-takers who are able to provide 9-1-1 callers with pre-arrival instructions, such as first aid and/or CPR, are known as: A. Call Takers B. Emergency Medical Dispatchers C. EMT-Dispacters D. Emergent Instruction providers

B. Emergency Medical Dispatchers

When responding to an emergency involving an insect or animal bite you should: A. Always wait for the animal control officer B. Ensure the insect or animal is not still in the area & a threat to you C. Carry the proper PPE (a bee suit & a dog bite suit) D. Make the patient come to the ambulance so you can stay safe

B. Ensure the insect or animal is not still in the area & a threat to you

The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food & liquid from entering the trachea during swollowing is called the: A. Uvula B. Epiglottis C. Vallecula D. Pharynx

B. Epiglottis

What is the best indication of proper ventilation of a patient? A. High pulse oximetry B. Equal chest rise & fall C. Ease of bagging D. Improving skin color

B. Equal chest rise & fall

How, in your documentation, would you refer to the presence of the black, leathery necrotic tissue that is left behind after a third-degree burn? A. Scum B. Eschar C. Wheal D. Milia

B. Eschar

A 53-year-old male has had a six pack of beer every day for the last two months. His friends organize an intervention & tell him he needs to stop drinking. A few days after quitting he is likely to: A. Feel relaxed B. Experience delirium tremens C. Have slow respirations D. Feel intoxicated/drunk

B. Experience delirium tremens

A person who is visually impaired cannot bring their service animal because it would contaminate the patient compartment. A. True B. False

B. False

After the AED delivers a shock you should always check for a pulse to if the shock worked. A. True B. False

B. False

An APGAR score of 9, for the initial calculation, indicates fetal distress & can be an indication of poor long term outcomes. A. True B. False

B. False

Aspirin is a blood thinner? A. True B. False

B. False

Hemorrhagic Stroke is the most common type stroke? A. True B. False

B. False

Hemorrhagic stoke is the most common type of stroke? A. True B. False

B. False

In the state of Illinois, as an EMT, you are required to adhere to the wishes as stated in a living will. A. True B. False

B. False

Pulse, motor, & sensory function should be checked every 10 minutes on an otherwise stable patient in restraints. A. True B. False

B. False

The spleen is located in the lower right quadrant A. True B. False

B. False

Type two diabetes (NIDDM) is generally controlled using insulin alone. A. True B. False

B. False

When assessing a patient with an epinephrine auto-injector you do not need to contact medical control because the medication is already prescribed to the patient & meets all of the "Six Rights" A. True B. False

B. False

When assessing the lungs you should compare the top of the left lung to the bottom of the left lung & the top of the right lung to the bottom of the right lung? A. True B. False

B. False

When talking to an 8 year old patient you should address only the caregiver. A. True B. False

B. False

When you are assisting a patient with the administration of their metered dose inhaler (MDI), you do not need to call medical control because the medication has already been prescribed to the patient. A. True B. False

B. False

You are dispatch to the scene of a 24-year-old male who is having a seizure. You arrive on scene & find the patient alert. The patient begins to have another seizure. In order to maintain a patent airway you should place a bite stick into his mouth to prevent him from biting down on his tongue. A. True B. False

B. False

You are dispatched to the scene of a 36-year-old female who is hyperventilating. In accordance with your SMOs you should instruct your partner, named Tom, to give the patient a paper bag to breathe into A. True B. False

B. False

Which federal agency controls all EMS radio communications? A. Department of Communications B. Federal Communications Commission C. Office Emergency Management & Communications (OEMC) D. Department of Homeland Security

B. Federal Communications Commission

A patient in the semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in what position? A. Supine B. Fowler's C. Trendelenberg D. Recovery

B. Fowler's

What are the correct anatomic landmarks used for measuring a Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) A. From the base of the nose to the angle of the jaw B. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe C. From the teeth to the angle of the jaw D. From the tip of the nose to the base of the neck

B. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. Thoroughly assessed, even if no obvious injuries exist B. Given the option, if possible, to be treated by a female EMT C. Encourage her to shower & change her clothes D. Asked to provide a detailed description of her attacker

B. Given the option, if possible, to be treated by a female EMT

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. Thoroughly assessed, even if no obvious injuries exist B. Given the option, if possible, to be treated by a female EMT C. Encourage to shower & change clothes D. Asked to provide a detailed description of her attacker

B. Given the option, if possible, to be treated by a female EMT

The eyeball itself is referred to as the: A. Orbit B. Globe C. Sclera D. Cornea

B. Globe

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) A. Hypertension & tachycardia B. Hypotension & flat jugular veins C. The presence of rales in the lungs D. Trouble breathing while lying down

B. Hypotension & flat jugular veins

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid trauma assessment of the body should be performed in order to: A. Determine the need for spinal immobilization B. Identify less obvious injuries that could pose a life threat C. Look for signs of inadequate perfusion D. Find & treat injuries that do not pose a life threat

B. Identify less obvious injuries that could pose a life threat

If you cannot palpate a carotid pulse in an unresponsive patient you should: A. Attach the AED at once B. Immediately begin CPR starting with compressions C. Attempt to palpate a radial pulse D. Assess the patients airway & breathing

B. Immediately begin CPR starting with compressions

Which of the following types of consent allow for the treatment of a person who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? A. Informed B. Implied C. Assumed D. No comment is needed

B. Implied

You are transporting a patient who was shocked by an electrical current while installing a residential electrical service panel. He has partial thickness burns to the hand & foot. Which of the following signs & symptoms would you be most concerned about? A. Complaint of a headache B. Irregular heartbeat C. Edema to the foot D. Pain at the burn sites

B. Irregular heartbeat

Which of the following is a potential negative consequence of using a backboard? A. It is more difficult to manage the patient's airway B. It contributes to patient discomfort & emotional distress C. It may contribute to increasing intracranial pressure D. All of the above

B. It contributes to patient discomfort & emotional distress

When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important to: A. Use a pillow as a splint B. Leave the toes exposed C. Apply a pneumatic splint D. Observe for tissue swelling

B. Leave the toes exposed

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because the: A. Coronary arteries suddenly spasm & cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow B. Lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed & cannot accommodate increased blood flow C. Tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen D. Ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting & arterial narrowing

B. Lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed & cannot accommodate increased blood flow

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because the: A. Coronary arteries suddenly spasm & cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow B. Lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed & cannot accommodate increased blood flow C. Tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen D. Ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting & arterial narrowing

B. Lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed & cannot accommodate increased blood flow

Care that improves the patient's quality of life before that patient dies is known as: A. Curative B. Palliative C. Terminal D. Hollistic

B. Palliative

Your patient is in a wheelchair because, after an accident three years ago when he subluxed his L1 vertebrae, he can't move his lower extremities. He is classified as a: A. Quadriplegic B. Paraplegic C. Invalid D. There is not enough information provided to make this assessment

B. Paraplegic

Anterior to the knee-joint is a specialized bone called the: A. Tibia B. Patella C. Femur D. Fibula

B. Patella

What must be checked before the administration of any medication? A. Drug manufacturer B. Patient drug allergies C. Amount of drug remaining in the package D. Patients use of erectile dysfunction medications

B. Patient drug allergies

The area of skin between the vaginal opening & the anus is often torn during pregnancy. This area is called: A. Hymen B. Perineum C. Cervix D. "No man's land" (because the EMT is not to touch it)

B. Perineum

An alert & orientated patient with a severe headache is refusing all treatment as well as transport. After having signed a refusal that was also documented & approved with medical control, the patient suddenly has a seizure & becomes unresponsive. You should: A. Honor the patient's wished B. Provide care through implied consent C. Contact medical control D. Ask the family if they would like you to treat the patient

B. Provide care through implied consent

You & your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient. The scene is safe. A. Contact medical control for direction B. Provide immediate patient care C. Wait for law enforcement to preserve evidence D. Determine how the patient was injured

B. Provide immediate patient care

A patient has been pulled from a house fire. Assessment reveals her to have rapid, shallow, stridorous respirations & a weak rapid pulse. Firefighters have doused the body with cold water. You should: A. Administer high flow oxygen & obtain a full set of vitals B. Provide positive pressure ventilations C. Expose the patient to determine the extent of the burns D. Begin removing the patient's clothes to determine the type of burn

B. Provide positive pressure ventilations

A 22-year-old pregnant female patient is complaining of dyspnea, numbness, & tingling in her hands & feet after an argument with her fiance. Her respirations are 40 breaths per minute. You should: A. Have her breathe into a paper bag B. Provide reassurance & give oxygen as needed C. Request an ALS unit to intubate D. Position the patient on her left side & transport at once

B. Provide reassurance & give oxygen as needed

After assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin you should: A. Place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting B. Reassess the blood pressure within five minutes to detect hypotension C. Avoid further doses if the patient complains of a headache D. Perform a secondary assessment before administering a second dose

B. Reassess the blood pressure within five minutes to detect hypotension

Applying ice to & elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: A. Prevent further injury B. Reduce pain & swelling C. Enhance tissue circulation D. Maintain extremity perfusion

B. Reduce pain & swelling

You are dispatched to the scene of an 83-year-old male who was assaulted by a group of teenagers attempting to take his car. The patient is found lying prone in the street with multiple injuries to the head & face. After assuming c-spine & rolling him over, you note gurgling respirations & central cyanosis. Appropriate actions would include: A. Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway to facilitate breathing B. Removing his dentures to clear the airway C. Placing the patient in the recovery position D. Using a French-tipped suction catheter to remove secretions

B. Removing his dentures to clear the airway

Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive patient in cardiac arrest is unsuccessful, your next action should be to: A. Resume CPR B. Reposition the airway using a head tilt chin life C. Attempt ventilations until you are successful D. Intubate the patient

B. Reposition the airway using a head tilt chin life

You suspect a trauma patient to be suffering from a hemothorax to the left lung. Which of the following assessment findings would reinforce your suspicion? A. Jugular vein engorgement & absent breath sounds to the right lung B. Respiratory distress & the signs & symptoms of shock C. Bradycardia & hypertension D. Cyanosis & a blood pressure of 210/110 mmHg

B. Respiratory distress & the signs & symptoms of shock

You are ventilating the patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth & the nose. To prevent this you should: A. Thrust the jaw forward B. Seal the mouth & nose C. Ventilate with less pressure D. Suction the stoma

B. Seal the mouth & nose

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are MOST characteristic of A. Rales B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes

B. Stridor

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are MOST characteristic of: A. Rales B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezes

B. Stridor

What is the substance called that is produced in the lungs & keeps the alveoli open, allowing for air exchange? A. Lung butter B. Surfactant

B. Surfactant

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. The clotting ability of the blood is decreased B. The body sustains prolonged fluid loss C. The patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 110 mmHg D. At least 10% of the patients blood volume is lost

B. The body sustains prolonged fluid loss

Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST necessitate performing a rapid trauma assessment? A. An adult who jumped off a platform landing first on her feet then rocked forward onto the knees B. The driver of a car who survived a crash that killed the passenger C. A patient who dropped an axe on her left foot, amputating three toes D. A woman who sustained an impaled object to her lower extremity with minimal venous bleeding

B. The driver of a car who survived a crash that killed the passenger

In comparison to adults, when calculating BSA on a child, which of the following represents a larger percentage proportionally to the rest of the body? A. Genitals B. The head C. The legs D. The torso

B. The head

when assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid & irregular. In addition to oxygen administration, you should: A. Apply a cardiac monitor & observe her cardiac rhythm B. Transport at once & consider an ALS intercept C. Perform a detailed assessment & document your findings D. Conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age

B. Transport at once & consider an ALS intercept

In order to facilitate a safe & coordinated move, the team leader should: A. Be positioned at the feet so he can see the patient better B. Use preparatory commands to initiate any moves C. Speak softly, but clearly to avoid startling the patient D. Never become involved in the move, only direct the move

B. Use preparatory commands to initiate any moves

What lung sound would be associated with the need for albuterol treatment? A. Crackles B. Wheezes C. Rhonchi D. Rales

B. Wheezes

The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: A. Sternal notch B. Xiphoid process C. Angle of Louis D. Jugular notch

B. Xiphoid process

This should be used to clean items contaminated with feces

Bleach

If a baby is born at 0752, the second APGAR score should be calculated at: A. 0753 B. 0759 C. 0757 D. 0758

C. 0757

If a baby is born at 0752, the second APGAR score should be calculated at: A. 0753 B. 0759 C. 0757 D. 0758

C. 0757

A child is considered an infant until he or she has reached ____ of age A. 4 months B. 6 months C. 12 months D. 18 months

C. 12 months

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult? A. 15-30 B. 8-16 C. 12-20 D. 10-20

C. 12-20

What is the correct dose of nebulized albuterol to administer to an adult patient? A. 3 mg B. 3 mL C. 2.5 mg D. One puff of the MDI E. 6 LPM

C. 2.5 mg

How much blood loss is considered to be normal after birth? A. 150 cc B. 250 cc C. 500 cc D. 1,000 cc

C. 500 cc

How many vertebra comprise the cervical spine? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

C. 7

You are assessing a 39-year-old female's GCS. The patient opens her eyes in response to pain, is speaking in incomprehensible words & responds to pain by flexing her upper extremities. What is the correct GCS? A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9

C. 8

Normal blood glucose levels, as measured by a glucometer, are: A. 160-200 mg/dL B. 60-80 mg/dL C. 80-120 mg/dL D. 60-200 mg/dL

C. 80-120 mg/dL

Signs of LATE heat stroke include: A. Hot, moist skin B. Nausea & vomiting C. A weak, rapid pulse D. Fatigue

C. A weak, rapid pulse

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause altered mental status? A. Acute stroke B. Hypoxemia C. Acute anxiety D. Hypoglycemia

C. Acute anxiety

Adult AED pads can be used on: A. Adults only B. Adults, children, but not infants C. Adults, children, and infants D. Adults & infants only

C. Adults, children, and infants

Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that: A. At least half of one lung has completely collapsed B. Your patient has experienced a pericardial tamponade C. Air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung D. Blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung

C. Air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung

When a section of an artery's wall becomes weakened, the layers of the wall may split, allowing blood to enter between them & causing the section to "balloon" with the blood & become weakened. The condition is called: A. An aortic bypass B. An embolism C. An aneurysm D. A cardiac bypass

C. An aneurysm

An object composed of fat or plaque that breaks loose from the wall of an artery & travels through the circulatory system is called: A. A thrombophlebitis B. An aneurysm C. An embolism D. A thrombus

C. An embolism

A 26-year-old male is bleeding from a stab wound to the neck. You note bubbles in the wound as well as subcutaneous emphysema. What is the correct treatment for this wound? A. A dry sterile dressing B. A wet sterile dressing C. An occlusive dressing D. A tourniquet

C. An occlusive dressing

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to over activity of digestive juices results in: A. Ileus B. Appendicitis C. An ulcer D. Cholecystitis

C. An ulcer

A 76-year-old female experiences sudden pain to her left thigh when she was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis & deformity to the distal aspect of the left femur, just above the knee. Distal pulse, motor, & sensation are intact. The MOST appropriate method of splinting this injury would be: A. Applying a traction splint B. Applying & fully inflating the MAST (PASG) C. Applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg D. Apply ice packs to the area & rapidly transport

C. Applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg

A patient is complaining of back pain & numbness to both legs after being thrown from a bicycle. When should the EMT check for pulse, motor, & sensation? A. During the initial assessment B. Immediately after the application of a c-collar C. As the rapid trauma exam is being performed D. Immediately after taking manual in-line spinal stabilization

C. As the rapid trauma exam is being performed

A 20-year-old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious & alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally & appears to be superficial. You should: A. Transport only if signs of shock begin to develop B. Carefully probe the wound to determine the depth C. Assume that the arrow injured an internal organ D. Clean the wound & apply a wet, sterile dressing

C. Assume that the arrow injured an internal organ

What is the term for irregular breathing that does not have an identifiable pattern? A. Apnea B. Agonal C. Ataxic D. Dyspnea

C. Ataxic

What is the term for irregular respirations that do not have an identifiable pattern? A. Apnea B. Agonal C. Ataxic D. Dyspnea

C. Ataxic

Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits (plaque) is called? A. Angiosclerosis B. Arteriosclerosis C. Atherosclerosis D. Acute ischemia

C. Atherosclerosis

While on standby at a semi-professional baseball game, you are summoned onto the field for a player complaining of severe leg pain after colliding with the catcher of the opposing team. The initial assessment shows no threats to the ABCs. The focused trauma assessment reveals a severely deformed knee that is swollen & ecchymotic. The leg is pale & cool, & the patient is unable to move the leg. Additionally, you can't palpate a pedal pulse. Your priority action at this time would be to: A. Apply cold packs to the knee & transport immediately B. Apply a traction splint & enough traction until a pulse returns C. Attempt to straighten the leg (anatomic position) until a pulse returns, unless significant resistance is met D. Check the patient's radial or carotid pulse

C. Attempt to straighten the leg (anatomic position) until a pulse returns, unless significant resistance is met

What must be assess on every altered mental status patient? A. Last oral intake B. Events leading up C. BGL D. Gag reflux

C. BGL

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. Widespread vasoconstriction & plasma loss due to a serve viral infection C. Bacteremis, leaking blood vessels, & vasodilation D. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, & vasoconstriction

C. Bacteremis, leaking blood vessels, & vasodilation

Contraction of the right ventricle causes: A. Closure of the mitral & aortic valves B. A return of blood from the pulmonary veins C. Blood flow into the pulmonary circulation D. Ejection of blood into the systemic circulation

C. Blood flow into the pulmonary circulation

What must be assessed on every altered mental status patient? A. Last oral intake B. Events leading up C. Blood glucose level D. Gag reflux

C. Blood glucose level

What is the proper order of immobilizing someone on a backboard with three backboard straps: A. Top to bottom: head, chest, waist, legs B. Bottom to top: legs, waist, chest, head C. Chest, waist, legs, head D. None of the above are correct

C. Chest, waist, legs, head

You are working on a BLS ambulance that is providing support to an ALS ambulance working a full arrest. The patient is intubated, has an IV, & is attached to a cardiac monitor. How should CPR be performed? A. 30 compressions, 2 breaths B. 15 compressions, 2 breath as there are more than 2 rescuers C. Constant compressions with a breath every 5-6 seconds D. Constant compressions with a breath every 6-8 seconds

C. Constant compressions with a breath every 5-6 seconds

An evisceration should be treated by: A. Gently guiding the intestine back into the abdomen B. Covering the wound in a dry sterile dressing to reduce bleeding C. Covering the wound with a wet sterile & occlusive dressing D. Washing the exposed area with saline & rapidly transporting

C. Covering the wound with a wet sterile & occlusive dressing

A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering the patient's medical history for this patient you should: A. Wait for family members to arrive at the scene to give you the information B. Wait to do a SAMPLE history until you arrive at the ED C. Determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet, or an (emergency) medical card D. Ask law enforcement officials if they know the patient

C. Determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet, or an (emergency) medical card

A 61-year-old female patient has been involved in a motor vehicle accident. Window glass has caused several small superficial lacerations. Which of the following dressings would be best to treat this injury? A. Moist sterile dressing B. Occlusive dressing C. Dry sterile dressing D. Self-adhering roller gauze

C. Dry sterile dressing

You are responding to a scene of a motor vehicle accident. You arrive on scene & observe one patient in the driver's seat. As you begin to assess the patient, the car begins to leak fuel. Your partner, named Conrad, observes sparks coming from the engine compartment. What type of move is most appropriate for this patient? A. Urgent move B. Standard move C. Emergency move D. Rapid extrication

C. Emergency move

At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing &: A. Profound cyanosis B. Audible stridor C. Expiratory wheezing D. Rales & rhonchi

C. Expiratory wheezing

Ketone production is the result of: A. Acidosis when blood glucose levels are low B. Blood glucose levels lower than 120 mg/dL C. Fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable D. Rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane

C. Fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable

Which of the following signs or symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is especially common in older women? A. Pain B. Sudden death C. Fatigue D. Dyspnea

C. Fatigue

The atlas is the: A. point where the ribs attach to the sternum B. Seventh cervical vertebra C. First cervical vertebra, which articulates the skull D. Attachment between the first & second cervical vertebrae

C. First cervical vertebra, which articulates the skull

A woman who has been pregnant 5 times, has had 2 live births, & three miscarriages, would have her medical history abbreviated as: A. G2P5A3 B. P5G2A3 C. G5P2A3 D. P2G5A3

C. G5P2A3

Which of the following is a contraindication for the administration of nebulized albuterol? A. Expiratory wheezes B. Previous use of a metered does inhaler C. Hypersensitivity D. Anxiety

C. Hypersensitivity

The most significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A. Stress B. Exertion C. Hypertension D. Diabetes Mellitus

C. Hypertension

In what condition does the body begin to regulate breathing based on levels in the blood of oxygen, as opposed to carbon dioxide? This condition is most commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory disease. A. Opposite drive B. Oxygen drive C. Hypoxic drive D. COPD drive

C. Hypoxic drive

In what condition does the body begin to regulate breathing based on levels of oxygen in the blood, as opposed to carbon dioxide? This condition is most commonly seen in patients with chronic respiratory disease. A. Opposite drive B. Oxygen drive C. Hypoxic drive D. COPD drive

C. Hypoxic drive

Advil, Nuprin, & Motrin are brand (trade) names for the generic medication: A. Aspirin B. Nitrostat C. Ibuprofen D. Acetaminophen

C. Ibuprofen

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. When distal circulation & neurological functions are absent B. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20-30 min. C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the entire extremity

C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

A diuretic medication is best defined as one that: A. Decreases urine output as so to retain the body's fluid volume B. Normalizes the body's fluid volume (if the patient is hypovolemic, that agent acts to retain fluid, decreasing urine output. If the patient has too much body fluid, the agent increase urine output) C. Increases urine output, decreasing the body's fluid volume D. Causes vasodilation to reduce blood pressure

C. Increases urine output, decreasing the body's fluid volume

When examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: A. Cover the cord with a dry sterile dressing B. Carefully push the cord back into the vagina C. Insert a gloved hand into the vagina & push the baby's head away from the cord D. Gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery

C. Insert a gloved hand into the vagina & push the baby's head away from the cord

When examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: A. Cover the cord with a dry, sterile dressing B. Carefully push the cord back into the vagina C. Insert a gloved hand into the vagina & push the baby's head away from the cord D. Gently pull the cord to facilitate delivery

C. Insert a gloved hand into the vagina & push the baby's head away from the cord

You are assisting an asthma patient with his metered dose inhaler (MDI). After the patient takes a deep breath & depresses the inhaler, you should: A. Allow him to breathe room air & assess his oxygen saturation B. Advise him to exhale forcefully to expel the medication C. Instruct him to hold his breath as long as he can to allow the medication to absorb D. Place an oxygen mask on the patient & tell him to relax

C. Instruct him to hold his breath as long as he can to allow the medication to absorb

You respond to a single-vehicle collision. Upon arrival to the scene, you observe the car has impacted a utility pole. You observe downed wires lying across the car. You should: A. Enter the area carefully & be aware of surrounding hazards B. Attempt to access the patient while making sure you are safely grounded C. Instruct the patient to remain in the vehicle while waiting for the power to be turned off or removed D. Approach the car carefully & do not touch the area of the car that the power lines are touching

C. Instruct the patient to remain in the vehicle while waiting for the power to be turned off or removed

Which of the following is a contraindication for placing an Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) A. Unresponsive patient B. Facial trauma C. Intact gag reflux D. Child under 5 years of age

C. Intact gag reflux

Which of the following is NOT one of the classic signs seen in Cushing's Triad? A. Increasing hypertension B. Increasing bradycardia C. Irregular pupillary response D. Irregular respirations

C. Irregular pupillary response

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a suspected spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. The patient denies neck pain B. Lateral immobilization has been applied C. It causes problems managing the ABCs D. Sensory & motor functions remain intact

C. It causes problems managing the ABCs

Delirium differs from dementia in that: A. It is associated with long-term memory loss B. It is usually a product of Alzheimer's disease C. It has an acute onset D. They are essentially the same

C. It has an acute onset

What type of respiration is most commonly associated with Diabetic Ketoacidosis A. Apneic B. Ataxic C. Kussmaul D. Cheyne-Stokes

C. Kussmaul

What type of respiration is most commonly associated with Diabetic Ketoacidosis? A. Apneic B. Atacix C. Kussmaul D. Cheyne-Stokes

C. Kussmaul

In which quadrant of the abdomen does the pancreas predominantly lie? A. RLQ B. LLQ C. LUQ D. Under the umbilicus E. In the thoracic cavity

C. LUQ

You are transporting a 19-year-old male who was shot in the chest. On scene, you covered the wound with an appropriate occlusive dressing. Now, you note that the patient is tachypneic & complaining of shortness of breath. Breath sounds on the side of the injury are diminished. You should: A. Tape the dressing on the fourth side B. Cover the wound with another dressing C. Lift one side of the dressing during exhalation D. Remove the occlusive dressing from the wound site

C. Lift one side of the dressing during exhalation

The medical term for amniotic fluid that is greenish or brownish-yellow is: A. Mercronium or mercronium staining B. Bile or bile staining C. Meconium or meconium staining D. Micromium or micromium staining

C. Meconium or meconium staining

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused & disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened & tells you she is very thirsty she is very thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure activity, tells you that she takes phenytoin (dilatin) for her seizures, but has not taken it in several days. In addition to applying high flow oxygen you should: A. Administer one tube of oral glucose & trasnport immediately B. Place her in the recovery position & trasnport her with light & sirens C. Monitor her airway & breathing status & asses her blood glucose levels D. Giver her small cups of water to drink & observe for further seizure activity

C. Monitor her airway & breathing status & asses her blood glucose levels

Which of the following is NOT appropriate to communicate via MERCY radio when communicating with the receiving hospital? A. Vital signs B. Chief complaint C. Name D. Treatments provided

C. Name

When treating a patient complaining of shortness of breath, you fail to provide oxygen. The patient's condition deteriorates leading to a cardiac arrest. This scenario is an example of: A. Assault B. Battery C. Negligence D. Abandonment

C. Negligence

Angina pectoris occurs when: A. A coronary artery is totally occulded by plaque B. Myocaridal oxygen demand exceeds the supply C. One of more coronary arteries suddenly spasm D. Myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand

C. One of more coronary arteries suddenly spasm

Which of the following would contraindicate the use of a traction splint? A. Numbness to the foot B. Decreased pedal pulses C. Open fracture D. Deformity to the other leg

C. Open fracture

Which of the following may be an indication of compartment syndrome? A. A large crush injury B. An amputation C. Pain out of proportion to the injury D. No sensation in the extremity

C. Pain out of proportion to the injury

The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is: A. Fracturing the septum B. Damaging the turbinates C. Penetrating the cranium D. Causing severe bleeding

C. Penetrating the cranium

The pulse oxiemeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate: A. Percent of red blood cells B. Saturation level of venous blood C. Percent saturation of hemoglobin D. Amount of exhaled carbon dioxide

C. Percent saturation of hemoglobin

The MOST common & significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: A. Internal bleeding B. Rebound tenderness C. Peritonitis D. High fever

C. Peritonitis

Aspirin is beneficial to a patient suspected of having a heart attack because it: A. Dissolves the clot B. Causes direct coronary vasodilations C. Prevents the aggregation of platelets D. Reduces the associated chest pain

C. Prevents the aggregation of platelets

Status epilepticus is characterized by: A. An absence seizure B. Profound tachycardia & total muscle flaccidity C. Prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness D. Generalized seizures that last less than five minutes

C. Prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness

An intoxicated 24-year-old female is found lying face down. How would you document her position? A. Dorsal B. Supine C. Prone D. Recumbent

C. Prone

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A. Pumps blood to the lungs to be oxygenated B. Uses less oxygen than the other chambers of the heart C. Pumps blood into the aorta & into the systemic circulation D. Receives blood directly from the systemic circulation

C. Pumps blood into the aorta & into the systemic circulation

You are called to the scene for a "man on fire." The scene is safe & you are wearing BSI. A man is, indeed, on fire. What is the next appropriate step in management? A. Apply a c-collar B. Irrigate the wounds C. Put the fire out D. Request aeromedical transportation

C. Put the fire out

If you are forced to rescue a distressed swimmer or active drowning victim you should attempt to do so in the following order: A. Throw, Reach, Row, Go B. Row, Reach, Throw, Go C. Reach, Throw, Row, Go D. Throw, Row, Reach, Go

C. Reach, Throw, Row, Go

Why would an EMT be concerned about a partial thickness burn circumferentially to the chest? A. Large burn area B. Lung tissue involvement C. Restriction of breathing D. Impact on the heart

C. Restriction of breathing

After applying the AED to a patient who is in cardiac arrest, the AED advises "NO SHOCK." What is the next appropriate step? A. Check for a pulse B. Remove the AED pads C. Resume CPR starting with compressions D. Allow the AED to analyze again E. Shock the AED anyway

C. Resume CPR starting with compressions

You & your partner have responded to the residence of a 42-year-old male who is "acting funny." Upon arrival the patient states he wants to kill himself and "take as many people as he can" with him. You observe the patient is carrying an ax. What should you do? A. Pull out your knife just in case B. Tell him you'll kill him first if he tries anything shady C. Retreat to a safe place & contact law enforcement D. With the help of your partner tackle & restrain the patient

C. Retreat to a safe place & contact law enforcement

Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: A. A blood pressure greater than 220/110 B. High levels of protein in the patient's urine C. Seizures that result from severe hypertension D. Hypertension in the 16th week of pregnancy

C. Seizures that result from severe hypertension

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient, you should: A. Request a paramedic to decompress the chest B. Make note of it & continue your assessment C. Stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing D. Reassess the adequacy of your patient's breathing

C. Stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing

During the delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: A. The mucous of the nose is fragile & is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning B. Babies are primarily mouth breathers & do not breath through their nose C. Suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp & aspirate fluid D. It is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx

C. Suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp & aspirate fluid

The frequency (or interval) of contractions is measured by timing from: A. The beginning of each contraction to its end (from start to finish) B. The end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction (from end to start) C. The beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction (from start to start) D. The end of one contraction to the end of the next contraction

C. The beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction (from start to start)

Which of the following is required to be present on a DNR order for it to be valid? A. Two witness signatures B. The medical necessity of the DNR order C. The effective date D. The doctor's phone number E. All of the above

C. The effective date

Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A. Blister formation protects the burn B. He or she generally is not conscious C. The nerve endings have been destroyed D. Subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted

C. The nerve endings have been destroyed

What must be ensured before the administration of an oral medication? A. The patient is at least 5 years old B. The patient is not vomiting C. The patient has an intact gag reflex D. The patient has not eaten anything within one hour

C. The patient has an intact gag reflex

What is suggested time frame from the onset of symptoms to definitive care for a patient with a CVA, in order for them to receive clot busting mediation? A. One hour B. Six hours C. Three hours D. There is no time limit

C. Three hours

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain. His abdomen is distended & guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient is: A. To transport him in the supine position B. To determine the exact location & cause of his pain C. To be alert for signs & symptoms of shock D. To assess his blood pressure every 15 minutes

C. To be alert for signs & symptoms of shock

What is the first action you should take upon the arrival of an AED? A. Place the pads on the patient B. Stop CPR to allow the AED to analyze C. Turn the AED on D. Do a pulse check to see if you need an AED

C. Turn the AED on

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is: A. Not able to swallow without choking B. Experiencing a right hemisphere stroke C. Unable to produce or understand speech D. Usually conscious but has slurred speech

C. Unable to produce or understand speech

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Cincinnati Stoke Scale? A. Facial droop B. Slurred speech C. Unequal grip strength D. All of the above are correct

C. Unequal grip strength

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Cincinnati stroke scale? A. Facial droop B. Slurred speech C. Unequal grip strength D. All of the above are correct

C. Unequal grip strength

If the "bag of waters" has not already broken by the time the infant's head is being delivered: A. Instruct the mother to get into the knee-chest position & rapidly transport B. Use a sterile scalpel to carefully puncture the sac C. Use your fingers to pinch & puncture the sac, pulling the tissues away from the emerging skull or face D. Have the mother reach down & break the sac

C. Use your fingers to pinch & puncture the sac, pulling the tissues away from the emerging skull or face

The physical act of moving air into & out of the lungs is called: A. Diffusion B. Oxygenation C. Ventilation D. Respiration

C. Ventilation

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking a beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke she was in the bed of the motel room. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient: A. Is a heroin abuser B. Is acutely intoxicated & should sign a refusal form C. Was given Rohypnol (flunitrazepam) D. Is abusing marijuana

C. Was given Rohypnol (flunitrazepam)

Seizures in children most often are the result of A. a life-threatening infection B. a temperature greater than 102 degree F C. an abrupt rise in body temperature D. an inflammatory process in the brain.

C. an abrupt rise in body temperature

What must be done before & after splinting?

Check PMS

Assessment findings on a young female patient who was thrown from a horse & is now confused. Include an open airway, adequate breathing, & a strong radial pulse. Her vital signs are also stable. Which of the following questions would be the most important question to ask her mother who witnessed the fall? A. "Is she allergic to anything" B. "When was the last time that she ate" C. "Has she ever fallen before" D. "Did she lose consciousness"

D. "Did she lose consciousness"

You notice that your trauma patient opens his eyes to when you call his name, groans when you ask him questions, & is able to localize pain. You calculate his Glasgow Coma Score to be: A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

D. 10

What is the minimum required systolic blood pressure in order to administer nitroglycerin to a patient A. 115 mmHg B. 90 mmHg C. 80 mmHg D. 100 mmHg

D. 100 mmHg

What is the minimum required systolic blood pressure in order to administer nitroglycerin to a patient? A. 110 mmHg B. 90 mmHG C. 80 mmHg D. 100 mmHg

D. 100 mmHg

How soon after an incident should a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) be conducted? A. Within two weeks B. One to two weeks C. Three to five days D. 24 to 72 hours

D. 24 to 72 hours

The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ____ breaths/min A. 60 B. 80 C. 50 D. 70

D. 70

What Glasgow Coma Scale would you assign to the following patient? The patient is found on the ground after an unknown trauma. After performing a sternal rub the patient opens his eyes, moans incomprehensibly & withdraws from the pain. A. 4 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8

D. 8

What Glasgow Coma Scale would you assign to the following patient? The patient is found on the ground after an unknown trauma. After performing a sternal rub, the patient opens his eyes, moans incomprehensibly & withdraws from the pain A. 4 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8

D. 8

Common signs & symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A. Pallor, cool skin, & a temporary loss of hearing B. Syncope, a weak pulse, & bleeding form the ears C. Tachycardia, pain behind the ears, & weakness D. A bounding pulse, a severe headache, & dizziness

D. A bounding pulse, a severe headache, & dizziness

Common signs & symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A. Pallor, cool skin, & a temporary loss of hearing B. Syncope, a weak pulse, & bleeding from the ears C. Tachycardia, pain behind the ears, & weakness D. A bounding pulse, a severe headache, & dizziness

D. A bounding pulse, a severe headache, & dizziness

A blood clot attached to the wall of an artery that grows in size as it collects plaque & other debris is called: A. A thrombophlebitis B. An aneurysm C. An embolism D. A thrombus

D. A thrombus

Kyphosis is best described as: A. Weakening of the bones with age B. Reduction in renal function C. The condition resulting from uncontrolled diabetes D. Abnormal curvature of the spine

D. Abnormal curvature of the spine

What is the next step in the CPR sequence after checking for responsiveness? A. Check for a pulse B. Start CPR with compressions C. Put on proper PPE D. Activate the emergency response system

D. Activate the emergency response system

In order to be valid in the state of Illinois a DNR must contain: A. Patient, Doctor, & witness signatures B. Effective date C. The words Do Not Resuscitate D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Situations in which you should avoid taking a blood pressure on the side include: A. A mastectomy B. A dialysis fistula C. A CVA with deficits on one side D. All of the above E. None of the above

D. All of the above

The medical term abortion is best defined as: A. The delivery of products of conception early in pregnancy B. The spontaneous termination of a pregnancy C. The induced termination of a pregnancy D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Why is it hard to maintain an airway in a child? A. Larger tongue B. Larger head in proportion to the body C. Trachea is not as wide D. All of the above

D. All of the above

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A. Preeclampsia B. Placenta Previa C. Gestational diabetes D. An ectopic pregnancy

D. An ectopic pregnancy

Where are the tarsal bones located? A. Foot B. Hand C. Wrist D. Ankle

D. Ankle

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he didn't seem to recognize her & was very rude to her. The patient is conscious & has a patent airway & adequate breathing. You should: A. Advise the patient that his behavior is unacceptable B. Carefully restrain the patient & transport at once C. Conclude that the patient has Alzheimer's disease D. Ask the daughter how her father normally acts

D. Ask the daughter how her father normally acts

You have just applied a pressure dressing to the leg of a woman who suffered a deep laceration to her calf. What would be your next action? A. Determine if the bleeding has stopped B. Obtain a follow-up blood pressure C. Apply ice packs over the dressing D. Assess for a pedal pulse

D. Assess for a pedal pulse

You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart & states that her water broke 2 hours ago. After taking standard precautions you should: A. Transport her immediately B. Massage the fundus C. Place her on her left side D. Assess for crowning E. Ask if she has decided on a name, if not suggest yours

D. Assess for crowning

You are attempting to ventilate your traumatic arrest patient. Your attempt at ventilation doesn't make the chest rise. Your next action should be to: A. Remove the c-collar B. Squeeze the bag with more force C. Insert a king tube D. Attempt to reopen the airway

D. Attempt to reopen the airway

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is: A. Intubating the patient to ensure a patent airway B. Decontaminate the patient's skin C. Move the patient to a safe area D. Avoid contaminating yourself

D. Avoid contaminating yourself

The third stage of labor begins when the: A. Placenta is fully delivered B. Cervix is completely dilated C. Umbilical cord is clamped D. Baby is expelled from the vagina

D. Baby is expelled from the vagina

Emergency care for vaginal bleeding includes: A. Performing a complete but discrete physical exam & obtaining a complete medical & gynecological history B. Administering high flow oxygen & instructing the patient to place gauze over the vagina C. Contact medical control & obtain an order to "pack" the vagina with gauze D. Both A & B

D. Both A & B

The medical term miscarriage is best defined as: A. The delivery of products of conception early in pregnancy B. The spontaneous termination of a pregnancy C. The induced termination of a pregnancy D. Both A & B

D. Both A & B

Which of the following can be done to increase the rigidity of a SAM splint? A. Forming the SAM splint into a T B. Forming the SAM splint into a reverse C C. Keeping the SAM splint in an in-line position D. Both A & B

D. Both A & B

Which of the following illness is classified as chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder? A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis C. Asthma D. Both A & B E. All of the above

D. Both A & B

Anticipated side effects of a prescribed metered-dose inhaler medication administration include: A. Tachycardia B. Tremors, especially in the extremities C. Nervousness or restlessness D. Both A & C E. None of the above

D. Both A & C

Older adults are predisposed to respiratory illness due to: A. The alveoli in the lungs become enlarged & elasticity decreases B. The alveoli in the lungs shrink & elasticity increases C. Airway musculature becomes weakened D. Both A & C E. Both B & C

D. Both A & C

A stillborn baby is best defined as a baby that: A. Is delivered alive but dies within 24 hours of birth B. Dies within the mother's womb several hours before deliver C. Dies within the mother's womb several weeks before delivery D. Both B & C

D. Both B & C

You respond to a local pool for a miscellaneous medical call. Upon your arrival you meet a lifeguard who was filling a mop bucket & splashed ultra-concentrated bleach in her right eye. Appropriate actions for this patient would include: A. Poor large quantities of water over the patient's face to irrigate the eyes B. Ask her if she is wearing contact lenses C. Flush the eye with water, avoiding contact with the uninjured eye D. Both B & C

D. Both B & C

All of the following are medications that might indicate a psychiatric condition EXCEPT: A. Sertaline (Zoloft) B. Lorazepam (Ativan) C. Valproic acid (Depakote) D. Carvediolol (Coreg)

D. Carvediolol (Coreg)

A bullet fired from a gun at close range passes through the patient's liver. However, on autopsy, the coroner discovers that the pancreas, stomach, & gall bladder were also injured, even though there was no direct contact with the bullet. Which of the following is responsible for injury to these additional organs? A. Drag force B. Profile impact C. Blunt injury D. Cavitation

D. Cavitation

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate & depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A. Ataxic respirations B. Agonal respirations C. Eupneic respirations D. Cheyne-stokes respirations

D. Cheyne-stokes respirations

You suspect that a patient involved in a motor vehicle collision is in shock. Which of the following signs & symptoms of shock would be observed last? A. Increased respirations B. Tachycardia C. Pale & diaphoretic skin D. Decreased blood pressure

D. Decreased blood pressure

Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as: A. Delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby B. Premature placental separation from the uterine wall C. Abnormal development of the placenta D. Development of the placenta over the cervical opening

D. Development of the placenta over the cervical opening

Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as: A. Delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby is born B. Premature placental separation from the uterine wall C. Abnormal development of the placenta D. Development of the placenta over the cervical opening

D. Development of the placenta over the cervical opening

A young boy riding an ATV did not see a chain stretched between two poles & hit it with his neck while traveling forward. Subsequently, he was thrown backward from the bike with significant force. He was not wearing a helmet. Which of the following signs would indicate the underlying injury that must be addressed & managed first? A. Laceration to the forehead B. Partially avulsed ear C. Open fracture to the left arm D. Difficulty speaking

D. Difficulty speaking

What type of consent is required for a 39-year-old patient complaining of abdominal pain? A. Formal B. Implied C. Written D. Expressed

D. Expressed

A 17-year-old male has suffered a gunshot wound to the head. When you are assessing him, which of the following findings indicates a non-purposeful response to pain? A. Attempting to move his hand away from you when you pinch it B. Exhibiting no response to any stimuli C. Mumbling garbled & incomprehensible speech when you call his name D. Flexing his arms across his chest when you pinch his neck muscles

D. Flexing his arms across his chest when you pinch his neck muscles

In what position should you place an uninjured patient in respiratory distress? A. Shock position B. Supine position C. Prone position D. Fowler's position

D. Fowler's position

The official transfer of care does not occur until the EMT: A. Gives a radio report to the receiving hospital B. Gives the transfer paperwork to the charge nurse C. Informs dispatch of your arrival at the ER D. Gives an oral report & all necessary information to the ER nurse or doctor assigned to your patient

D. Gives an oral report & all necessary information to the ER nurse or doctor assigned to your patient

Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? A. Multiplex base station B. Land-based repeater station C. Mobile vehicle mounted radio D. Hand-held portable radio

D. Hand-held portable radio

Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. Dyspnea B. Hematuria C. Hemoptysis D. Hematemesis

D. Hematemesis

The goal of the initial assessment is to: A. Determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma B. Identify patients that require transport to a trauma center C. Determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment D. Identify & treat all immediate life threats

D. Identify & treat all immediate life threats

You are transporting a male patient who was stabbed in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. On scene, you note minimal hemorrhage which appears to be controlled with a trauma dressing. Oxygen was applied & transport was initiated. When conducting an ongoing assessment you should be most concerned by: A. Statement that the pain from the injury is increasing B. Observation that blood is oozing from the injury C. Increased redness & edema to the injury site D. Increasing restlessness & heart rate

D. Increasing restlessness & heart rate

The amniotic fluid serves to: A. Transfer oxygen to the fetus B. Remove viruses from the fetus C. Feed the fetus D. Insulate & protect the fetus

D. Insulate & protect the fetus

Which of the following describes stage four wound or ulcer A. Non-blanching redness with damage under the skin B. Blister or ulcer that can affect the dermis & epidermis C. Invasion of the fat layer through to the fascia D. Invasion to the muscle or bone

D. Invasion to the muscle or bone

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle accident will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if she: A. Is wearing only a lap belt B. Remains within the vehicle C. Experiences multiple impacts D. Is ejected or partially ejected

D. Is ejected or partially ejected

Which of the following is FALSE regarding activated charcoal? A. It is only used for a select group of toxins/poisons B. It should only be used in patients who can swallow C. It is rarely used because it can induce vomiting D. It can be used in a patient who swallowed bleach

D. It can be used in a patient who swallowed bleach

When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should use the: A. Tongue-jaw lift B. Head-tilt-neck-lift C. Head-tilt-chin-lift D. Jaw-thrust maneuver

D. Jaw-thrust maneuver

A 29-year-old female has an anterior nosebleed after she was accidentally elbowed in the nose. She is conscious & alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for the patient includes: A. Placing her supine & pinching her nostrils together B. Immobilizing her spine & applying ice to her nose C. Packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings D. Leaning her forward or in a neutral position & pinching her nostrils together

D. Leaning her forward or in a neutral position & pinching her nostrils together

What receives blood from the lungs A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Right atrium D. Left atrium E. The brain

D. Left atrium

All of the following are correct actions when applying an occlusive dressing to a sucking chest wound EXCEPT: A. Apply tape on three sides of the dressing B. Apply tape on four sides of the dressing C. "Burp" the dressing when the patient exhales as necessary D. Make the open side on the top to facilitate removal of air

D. Make the open side on the top to facilitate removal of air

As an EMT, you are required to report all cases of suspected child abuse, elder abuse, & animal bites. This is known as being a: A. Mandated informant B. Mandated caller C. HIPAA Exempted reporter D. Mandated reporter

D. Mandated reporter

Which of the following statements regarding seizures during pregnancy is true? A. Pregnancy does not cause seizures. If a pregnant patient has a seizure, she either already has a seizure disorder or she has recently been the victim of head trauma B. Low blood pressure is associated with seizures caused by pregnancy C. Pregnancy related seizures only cause a serious life threat to the unborn baby D. None of the above

D. None of the above

A patient with an altered mental status is: A. Completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli B. Always confused to prior events as a result of dementia C. Usually only able to be aroused with painful stimulus D. Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

D. Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

Assessing the blood pressure & oxygen saturation of a patient with a behavioral crisis should be performed: A. Within the first few minutes after making patient contact B. At least every five minutes to detect any signs of shock C. Only if you will be transporting the patient to the hospital D. Only if doing so will not worsen the emotional distress of the patient

D. Only if doing so will not worsen the emotional distress of the patient

A rapid trauma assessment (rapid scan) should be performed on: A. Stable patients who are able to tell you what happened B. All patients with traumatic injuries C. Responsive medical patients & patients without a significant MOI D. Patients with a significant MOI & all unresponsive patients

D. Patients with a significant MOI & all unresponsive patients

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest risk to a patient's life? A. An amputated extremity B. Femur fracture C. Non-displaced long bone fractures D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension

A female patient has been involved in a motorcycle accident. Your scene size up reveals her to be unresponsive & lying in the road. It appears that her left leg has been amputated, & you note moderate bleeding. Your initial action should be to: A. Locate the amputated leg B. Cover the leg with a sterile dressing C. Assess the leg for bleeding D. Perform the jaw-thrust maneuver

D. Perform the jaw-thrust maneuver

When a person is exposed to a cold environment: A. Sweat is produced & is warmed when vessels constrict B. Blood vessels dilate & divert blood to the core of the body C. The skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation D. Peripheral vessels constrict & divert blood away from the skin

D. Peripheral vessels constrict & divert blood away from the skin

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnancy is experiencing minor vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, & hypotensive. In addition to administering high flow oxygen, you should: A. Position her spine with her legs elevated 12" B. Carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina C. Assist her ventilations with a BVM D. Place her in the left lateral recumbent position

D. Place her in the left lateral recumbent position

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing minor vaginal bleeding. During the transport you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, & hypotensive. In addition to administering high flow oxygen, you should: A. Position her supine with her legs elevated 12" B. Carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina C. Assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device D. Place her in the left lateral recumbent position

D. Place her in the left lateral recumbent position

You are dispatched to the scene of a 26 year old male who is complaining of shortness of breath. You find the patient in the tripod position, with labored breathing, and note minor cyanosis. What is the first appropriate action you should take? A. Give the patient his prescribed albuterol inhaler B. Place the patient on 15 LPM nasal cannula C. Tell the patient to calm down & work on lowering his respiratory rate D. Place the patient on 15 LPM NRB

D. Place the patient on 15 LPM NRB

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing & chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has two previous heart attacks, & has prescribed nitroglycerin. She is confused but alert with adequate respirations. She has coarse rales bilaterally. Her blood pressure is 98/68 mmHg & her heart rate is 120 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? A. Nitroglycerin for her chest pains B. Positive pressure ventilations C. Oxygen at 21 LPM via NC D. Placing the patient in the upright position E. CPAP

D. Placing the patient in the upright position

9-1-1 was dialed by a frantic mother for her 3-year-old daughter who stuck a small, dried bean into her hear. It is lodged in the ear canal. You should: A. Gently flush the ear with saline B. Have the patient contact their family physician C. Make one attempt to remove the bean D. Provide supportive care & transport

D. Provide supportive care & transport

Which of the following is NOT a component of the trauma score? A. Glasgow Coma Score B. Blood pressure C. Respiratory rate D. Pulse

D. Pulse

The initial assessment includes all of the following except: A. Mental status B. Airway C. Circulation D. Pupils

D. Pupils

You respond to a call for an unknown emergency. When you arrive at the scene, the husband meets you at the door & states that his wife has locked herself in the upstairs bedroom. He further states that she has been depressed & there is a gun located in the nightstand. You should: A. Get in the ambulance & leave the scene immediately B. Ask the husband to attempt to reason with his wife C. Go upstairs with caution, remain outside the closed door, & attempt to talk to the patient D. Remain in a safe place & request law enforcement

D. Remain in a safe place & request law enforcement

After receiving on-line orders from medical control to perform a treatment you should: A. Perform the intervention as ordered B. Confirm the order in your own words C. Ask the physician to confirm the order D. Repeat the order back word for word

D. Repeat the order back word for word

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when you pinch his hand is said to be: A. Alert & oriented B. Alert & orientated times one (A/O x1) C. Responsive to verbal stimuli D. Responsive to painful stimuli

D. Responsive to painful stimuli

The stinger from a honeybee should be: A. Removed using tweezers B. Left in place & covered with a dry sterile dressing C. Irrigated with copious amounts of water D. Scraped away from the skin using a credit card

D. Scraped away from the skin using a credit card

Cardiac muscle has the property of "automaticity" which means that it can: A. Survive for an extended period without oxygen B. Quickly increase its rate to meet the metabolic needs of the body C. Spontaneously increase the strength of its own contraction D. Set its own rate & rhythm without influence from the brain

D. Set its own rate & rhythm without influence from the brain

When an EMT checks a patient's pupils, she shines a penlight in the patient's eyes one at a time. When shining a penlight in a single eye, a healthy patient with a normal response will exhibit: A. Dilation in only the eye in which the light is shone B. Simultaneous dilation of both eyes C. Constriction of only eye in which the light is shone D. Simultaneous constriction of both eyes

D. Simultaneous constriction of both eyes

Which of the following clinical signs is most suggestive of a ruptured cerebral artery? A. Unilateral hemiparesis B. Confusion & weakness C. Nasal discharge of blood D. Sudden, severe headache & hypertension

D. Sudden, severe headache & hypertension

You arrive on scene of a high school football practice & notice that all of the players are wearing full pads & helmets. You are led to your patient & find a 16-year-old male lying supine on the field with his knees flexed. The patient is writhing in pain & informs you that he has 10/10 pain to his abdomen groin area that started suddenly during the practice. He has never felt this pain before. Upon assessment you find no obvious injuries. You strongly suspect: A. Ruptured spleen B. Renal calculi C. Cholecystitis D. Testicular torsion

D. Testicular torsion

Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying & maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. An effectively pumping heart B. An intact system of blood vessels C. Adequate blood in the vasculature D. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

D. The filtering of blood cells in the spleen

You & your partner arrive on scene of a structure fire & begin to treat a 50-year-old male who was just pulled from the burning building. The patient has superficial & partial thickness burns to his face & chest. His nasal hairs are singed & he is coughing up sooty sputum. You should be most concerned with: A. Treating him for hypothermia B. Reducing the risk of infection C. Estimating the extent of his burns D. The potential for airway swelling

D. The potential for airway swelling

Which of the following best indicated the patient's injury should be classified as an abrasion? A. Intact skin with large accumulation of dark blood underneath B. Intact skin with ecchymosis noted, patient states minor pain C. Irregular break in the skin, bleeding moderate but controlled D. The skin is scraped & red, blood oozing from the site

D. The skin is scraped & red, blood oozing from the site

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? A. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries B. The size of the bullet is not pertinent information to obtain C. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amounts of trauma D. The speed of the bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury

D. The speed of the bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury

A transient iscemia attack (TIA) occurs when: A. A small cerebral artery ruptures & causes minimal damage B. The patient acts silly & stupid for awhile & then gets worse C. Medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot D. Then normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery

D. Then normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery

When a patient's respirations are shallow: A. Chest rise will be easily noticeable B. Oxygenation occurs more efficiently C. Carbon dioxide elimination is increased D. Tidal volume is markedly reduced

D. Tidal volume is markedly reduced

The medical term for the "wind pipe" is the: A. Cricoid cartilage B. Larynx C. Valecula D. Trachea E. Epiglottis

D. Trachea

In order to be considered normal, what must the capillary refill be under? A. One second B. Three seconds C. Four seconds D. Two seconds

D. Two seconds

Which of the following is NOT a component of Beck's Triad? A. Jugular vein distention B. Muffled heart tones C. Narrowing pulse pressures D. Widening pulse pressures

D. Widening pulse pressures

PID & tubal ligations increase the risk of what in pregnant women?

Ectopic pregnancy

The most common type of fracture in a child is:

Greenstick fracture

List the components of Cushing's triad & what it indicates

Head injury exhibiting: - Widening pulse pressure - Bradycardia - Respirations

The body begins to regulate breathing based on levels of oxygen in the blood as opposed to carbon dioxide

Hypoxic Drive

Advil, Nuprin, & Motrin - these are the generic names

Ibuprofen

Occurs when blood acidity is decreased by rapid breathing

Respiratory Alkalosis

Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of:

Respiratory arrest

The type of triage conducted on a person struck by lightning

Reverse Triage

Where the electrical impulse of the heart begins

SA Node

High pitched upper airway sound

Stridor

What drugs would cause problems with a person's ability to clot & therefore, reduce their ability to compensate for an injury?

Warfain, Pradaxia, Xarelto

A raised swollen, well-defined welt on the skin that is the result of an insect bite

Wheal

When arriving on the scene of multiple victim scene (after BSI/scene safety) you should first

begin triage

A comitube should not be used when a person has ingested

caustic substance

The initial treatment for a sucking chest wound

covering the wound with a gloved hand

A pregnant woman should be transported in the left lateral recumbent position to avoid

hypotension that's caused by compression of the inferior vena cava

The correct ventilation interval for an intubated patient that you are working on at full arrest

one breath every 6 seconds with constant compressions

If a pregnant women is choking you should:

perform chest thrusts until the object is removed or the woman loses consciousness