FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS NUTRITION

Nurses are in an ideal position to a. screen clients for risk of malnutrition. b. order therapeutic diets. c. conduct nutrition assessments. d. calculate a client's calorie and protein needs.

a. screen clients for risk of malnutrition.

Recommended Dietary Allowances represent a. the average amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the needs of almost all healthy people. b. the minimum amount of a nutrient necessary to avoid deficiency disease. c. the optimal amount of a nutrient to prevent chronic disease. d. the highest amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people.

a. the average amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the needs of almost all healthy people.

Which of the following are characteristics of an "ideal" healthy eating pattern for someone consuming 2000 cal/day. Select all that apply. a. ≥4.5 cups of fruits and vegetables/day b. ≥3 servings of whole grains/day c. ≥2 servings of fish/week d. <1500 mg sodium/day

a. ≥4.5 cups of fruits and vegetables/day b. ≥3 servings of whole grains/day c. ≥2 servings of fish/week d. <1500 mg sodium/day

What is the priority when instituting nutrition therapy for a client diagnosed with AN? a. Teach the client about nutrient and calorie requirements. b. Restore weight. c. Motivate the client by offering rewards linked to weight gain. d. Halt purging behaviors.

b. Restore weight.

The nurse knows that the client understands their instructions about grain equivalents when the client verbalizes that one grain equivalent is equal to a. one slice of bread. b. two cups of ready-to-eat cereal. c. one cup of cooked pasta. d. one cup of cooked rice.

a. one slice of bread.

Which of the following conditions are likely to require PN? Select all that apply. a. paralytic ileus b. severe short bowel syndrome c. dysphagia d. coma

a. paralytic ileus b. severe short bowel syndrome

Which of the following conditions indicate that IVLEs should be used with caution or avoided? Select all that apply. a. recent myocardial infarction b. hyperglycemia c. severe hyperlipidemia d. allergy to eggs

a. recent myocardial infarction c. severe hyperlipidemia d. allergy to eggs

A client is on a low-calorie diet that recommends they test their urine for ketones to tell how well they are adhering to the guidelines of the diet. What does the presence of ketones signify about their intake? a. It is too low in carbohydrates. b. It is too high in fat. c. It is too high in carbohydrates. d. It is too high in protein.

a. It is too low in carbohydrates.

Which statement regarding the characteristics of lifestyle medicine is not true? a. Medications are not used in conjunction with lifestyle medicine. b. Patients are expected to be active participants in their care. c. Patients are required to make major lifestyle changes. d. Treatment is always long-term.

a. Medications are not used in conjunction with lifestyle medicine.

A client who is in a positive nitrogen balance is most likely to be a. Pregnant. b. Starving. c. A healthy adult. d. Losing weight.

a. Pregnant.

A woman at 5 weeks of gestation is complaining of nausea throughout the day. What should the nurse recommend? a. Small, frequent meals of easily digested carbohydrates b. Small, frequent meals that are high in protein c. A liquid diet until the nausea subsides d. Increasing fluids with all meals and snacks

a. Small, frequent meals of easily digested carbohydrates

Which of the following is the best source of polyunsaturated fats? a. Soybean oil b. Corn oil c. Vegetable oil d. Olive oil

a. Soybean oil

Which of the following food items is not nutrient dense? a. Sweetened applesauce b. Whole wheat bread c. Plain shredded wheat d. Plain low-fat yogurt with fruit

a. Sweetened applesauce

Which foods are youth ages 5 to 18 most likely to eat in inadequate amounts? Select all that apply. a. Whole grains b. Vegetables c. Fruits d. Meat

a. Whole grains b. Vegetables c. Fruits

Muslims are prohibited from consuming a. alcohol. b. eggs. c. beef. d. shellfish.

a. alcohol.

Calorie requirements during adolescence a. are higher than during adulthood because of growth and developmental changes. b. peak early (e.g., ages 12 and 13) and then fall until adulthood is reached. c. are lower than during childhood. d. do not change from middle childhood.

a. are higher than during adulthood because of growth and developmental changes.

When developing a teaching plan for a client who is lactose intolerant, which of the following foods would the nurse suggest as sources of calcium the client could tolerate? a. cheddar cheese, bok choy, broccoli b. spinach, beet greens, nonfat milk c. poultry, meat, eggs d. whole grains, nuts, cocoa

a. cheddar cheese, bok choy, broccoli

What are the nutritional characteristics of a traditional soul food diet? Select all that apply. a. high in fat b. high in sodium c. high in potassium d. high in cholesterol

a. high in fat b. high in sodium d. high in cholesterol

What are the characteristics of a traditional Mexican diet? Select all that apply. a. low in fat b. high in fiber c. rich in complex carbohydrates d. rich in vegetable protein

a. low in fat b. high in fiber c. rich in complex carbohydrates d. rich in vegetable protein

Which pathogen is not killed by hand sanitizers? a. norovirus b.Salmonella c.E. coli d.Listeria

a. norovirus

The nurse knows that the client understands their instructions about estimating portion sizes when the client verbalizes that one cup of dry cereal looks like a. one baseball. b. one computer mouse. c. one ping-pong ball. d. one tennis ball.

a. one baseball.

Which of the following foods provides iron in a form that would be absorbed best? a. red meat b. iron-fortified cereal c. legumes d. enriched bread

a. red meat

The nurse knows her instructions about nutrient claims on the label have been effective when the client says, a. "'Excellent source' is not defined, so it cannot be trusted." b. "'Excellent source' means a serving of the food must provide at least 20% of the DV for that nutrient." c. "'Excellent source' means a serving of the food must provide a day-s worth of that nutrient." d. "'Excellent source' means a serving of the food provides 10% more of a desirable nutrient than does a comparable product."

b. "'Excellent source' means a serving of the food must provide at least 20% of the DV for that nutrient."

The client asks if the cholesterol in shrimp is the "good" or "bad" type. What is the nurse's best response? a. "All cholesterol is bad cholesterol." b. "Bad and good refer to how cholesterol is packaged for transport through the blood. The cholesterol in food is unpackaged and neither bad nor good." c. "Good cholesterol is found in plants, and bad cholesterol is found in animal sources." d. "Shrimp has good cholesterol because it is low in saturated fat; foods high in cholesterol and saturated fat are a source of bad cholesterol."

b. "Bad and good refer to how cholesterol is packaged for transport through the blood. The cholesterol in food is unpackaged and neither bad nor good."

A healthy, young adult client asks how much water he should drink daily. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "The old adage is true: Drink eight 8-oz glasses of water daily." b. "Drink to satisfy thirst and you will consume adequate fluid." c. "You can't overconsume water, so drink as much as you can spread out over the course of the day." d. "It is actually not necessary to drink water at all. It is equally healthy to meet your fluid requirement with sugar-free soft drinks."

b. "Drink to satisfy thirst and you will consume adequate fluid."

Which of the following statements indicates that the pregnant woman understands the recommendations about caffeine intake during pregnancy? a. "I have to give up drinking coffee and cola." b. "I will limit my intake of coffee to about 2-3 cups a day and avoid other sources of caffeine." c. "As long as I don't drink coffee, I can eat other sources of caffeine because they don't contain enough to cause any problems." d. "Caffeine is harmless during pregnancy, so I am allowed to consume as much as I want."

b. "I will limit my intake of coffee to about 2-3 cups a day and avoid other sources of caffeine."

The typical American dietary pattern is a. low in refined grains. b. low in whole grains. c. high in fruit. d. high in dairy products.

b. low in whole grains.

A BMI of 26 is classified as a. normal b. overweight c. class 1 obesity d. class 2 obesity

b. overweight

A nurse knows that their instructions about portion control have been effective when the client verbalizes that they will a. prepare a doggie bag after they feel they are full enough while eating out. b. use a smaller dinner plate. c. be careful not to overfill their cereal bowl when they serve themselves from the large, family-sized box. d. remind themselves not to overeat.

b. use a smaller dinner plate.

At her first prenatal visit, an overweight woman asks how much weight she should gain during the course of her pregnancy. What is the nurse's best response? a. "You should not gain any weight during your pregnancy. You have adequate calorie reserves to meet all the energy demands of pregnancy without gaining additional weight." b. "You should try to gain less than 15 pounds." c. "Aim for a 15- to 25-pound weight gain." d. "The recommended weight gain for your weight is 25 to 35 pounds."

c. "Aim for a 15- to 25-pound weight gain."

The client asks the nurse whether GMOs are safe. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Not enough is known about GMOs to know if they have a negative impact on health." b. "GMOs probably cause reproductive health issues and may cause gene mutations. It is best to avoid them." c. "As a group, GMOs do not pose health risks." d. "It is best to try to avoid them if you can."

c. "As a group, GMOs do not pose health risks."

What is the best response to a client's question about if organic food is worth the extra cost? a. "Is there anything more important to spend money on than your health?" b. "There is no difference in pesticide levels and nutritional value of organically grown foods compared to conventional foods." c. "Buying organic foods is an individual decision; some may have more nutritional value than their conventional counterparts, and they do have lower pesticide levels." d. "It is worth it to buy organic produce but not organic meats."

c. "Buying organic foods is an individual decision; some may have more nutritional value than their conventional counterparts, and they do have lower pesticide levels."

A client complains that she is not eating any more than she did when she was 30 years old and yet she keeps gaining weight. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "As people get older, they lose muscle mass, which lowers their calorie requirements, and physical activity often decreases too. You can increase the number of calories you burn by building muscle with resistance exercises and increasing your activity." b. "You may not think you are eating more calories but you probably are because the only way to gain weight is to eat more calories than you burn." c. "Weight gain is an inevitable consequence of getting older that is related to changes in your body composition. Do not worry about it because older people are healthier when they are heavier." d. "Weight gain among older adults is inevitable and untreatable. Concentrate on eating a healthy eating pattern and do not focus on weight."

a. "As people get older, they lose muscle mass, which lowers their calorie requirements, and physical activity often decreases too. You can increase the number of calories you burn by building muscle with resistance exercises and increasing your activity."

Which statement indicates the client with cirrhosis needs further instruction about what to eat? a. "As with alcohol, certain foods, such as white sugar and white bread, must be avoided because they damage the liver." b. "I should eat 3 meals/day and 3 snacks, especially a bedtime snack." c. "I may need to limit sodium due to fluid retention." d. "I need to be sure I eat enough protein."

a. "As with alcohol, certain foods, such as white sugar and white bread, must be avoided because they damage the liver."

The client asks if coffee is bad for their peptic ulcer. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Coffee does not cause ulcers and drinking it probably does not interfere with ulcer healing. You may try eliminating it from your diet to see what impact it has on your symptoms and then decide whether or not to avoid it." b. "Both caffeinated and decaffeinated coffee can cause ulcers and interfere with ulcer healing. You should eliminate both from your diet." c. "You need to eliminate caffeinated coffee from your diet, but it is safe to drink decaffeinated coffee." d. "You can drink all the coffee you want; it does not affect ulcers."

a. "Coffee does not cause ulcers and drinking it probably does not interfere with ulcer healing. You may try eliminating it from your diet to see what impact it has on your symptoms and then decide whether or not to avoid it."

Which of the following statements indicates that the client needs further instruction about GERD? a. "I know a bland diet will help prevent the heartburn I get after eating." b. "Lying down after eating can make GERD symptoms worse." c. "Carbonated beverages can trigger GERD symptoms." d. "Losing excess weight can help prevent symptoms of GERD."

a. "I know a bland diet will help prevent the heartburn I get after eating."

A client on hemodialysis asks if they can use popsicles to help relieve their thirst. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "That's a great idea as long as you deduct the equivalent amount of fluid from your total daily fluid allowance." b. "Popsicles are empty calories. You are better off drinking just plain water." c. Popsicles are great at relieving thirst, and because they are solid, they do not count as fluid, so you can eat them as desired." d. "Hot things are better at relieving thirst than cold things. Try small amounts of hot tea or coffee to relieve your thirst."

a. "That's a great idea as long as you deduct the equivalent amount of fluid from your total daily fluid allowance."

The client asks if meal replacements, such as Jenny Craig products, are a good idea to help with weight loss. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "They are a great way to control portions and can help you adhere to your hypocaloric meal plan when used as suggested." b. "They are gimmicks that fail to teach you how to control your own intake. They are not recommended." c. "Most people gain weight while using them. You should stay away from them." d. "They are not nutritionally balanced so you actually have to overeat in order to meet your nutritional requirements if you use them."

a. "They are a great way to control portions and can help you adhere to your hypocaloric meal plan when used as suggested."

How many carbohydrate choices are provided in a serving of food that supplies 19 g of carbohydrate? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

a. 1

Which of the following statements regarding nutrition screening is false? a. A nutrition screen is completed only when a client is suspected of having a nutritional problem. b. A nutrition screen must be completed within 24 hours after admission to a hospital or other health care facility. c. The purpose of nutrition screening is to detect the risk of malnutrition. d. Health care facilities are free to choose their own screening criteria and to determine how quickly a client must be rescreened.

a. A nutrition screen is completed only when a client is suspected of having a nutritional problem.

The client asks what foods they can eat for protein because meat tastes "rotten." Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. Cheese omelet, cold chicken sandwich, and shrimp salad b. Vegetable soup, pulled-pork sandwich, and chili c. Pasta salad, beef taco salad, peanut butter, and jelly sandwich d. Hot dogs, hamburgers, and vegetable pizza

a. Cheese omelet, cold chicken sandwich, and shrimp salad

When developing a teaching plan for a client on a low-sodium diet, which of the following foods would the nurse advise the client to limit? a. Cold cuts b. Canned fruit c. Eggs d. Milk

a. Cold cuts

Which of the following meals would be most appropriate for a client who has nausea? a. Cottage cheese and fresh fruit plate b. Fried chicken and coleslaw c. Hamburger and french fries d. Spaghetti with marinara sauce and salad

a. Cottage cheese and fresh fruit plate

What characteristics of a Mediterranean-Style Eating Pattern may be beneficial to clients with CKD? Select all that apply. a. It is low in red and processed meats, which limits saturated fat, sodium, and phosphate intake. b. It includes a moderate intake of wine, which has anti inflammatory and antioxidant properties. c. It is low in fat, which helps protect against CVD. d. Its protein content is similar to a controlled protein diet recommended for people with CKD.

a. It is low in red and processed meats, which limits saturated fat, sodium, and phosphate intake. b. It includes a moderate intake of wine, which has anti inflammatory and antioxidant properties. d. Its protein content is similar to a controlled protein diet recommended for people with CKD.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Medications may be the primary cause of diarrhea in tube-fed clients. b. Diarrhea is most commonly caused by infusing EN at too high a rate. c. Diarrhea indicates the tube feeding should be held. d. Diluting the formula and gradually increasing the concentration helps avoid diarrhea.

a. Medications may be the primary cause of diarrhea in tube-fed clients.

How do the protein recommendations for adults with CKD without diabetes differ from those who have diabetes? a. Protein is more restricted for people who do not have diabetes. b. Protein is more restricted for people who have diabetes. c. The protein recommendations do not differ for people with diabetes or without diabetes. d. There are no specific protein recommendations for people with diabetes because carbohydrates and fat are the priority concerns.

a. Protein is more restricted for people who do not have diabetes.

When should nutrition therapy become part of the care plan for a client with HIV? a. Soon after diagnosis b. When the client begins to lose weight c. After the first acute episode of illness d. When weight loss is >5% of initial weight

a. Soon after diagnosis

Which types of food provide carbohydrates? (Select all that apply.) a. Vegetables b. Fruit c. Milk d. Animal proteins

a. Vegetables b. Fruit c. Milk

When oral or EN is not possible or adequate, when should PN be initiated in clients who are moderately to severely malnourished? a. as soon as feasible b. within 2 to 3 days c. within 3 to 5 days d. within 7 days

a. as soon as feasible

The nurse knows the instructions on how to reduce the risk of dumping syndrome after RYGB surgery are effective when the client verbalized they will a. avoid high-sugar foods and fluids with meals and for 30 minutes afterward. b. eat less fat. c. limit complex carbohydrates. d. eat larger, less frequent meals.

a. avoid high-sugar foods and fluids with meals and for 30 minutes afterward.

A client with fat malabsorption is at risk for which of the following? a. calcium oxalate kidney stones b. constipation c. fatty liver disease d. type 2 diabetes

a. calcium oxalate kidney stones

Which of the following may be the best tolerated source of calcium for a client who is lactose intolerant? a. calcium-fortified orange juice b. pudding c. cottage cheese d. refined breads and cereals

a. calcium-fortified orange juice

The nurse knows that instructions for a Mediterranean-style eating pattern have been effective when the client expresses a need to eat more a. fish and nuts b. lean red and deli meats c. dairy products d. sweets that are fat free instead of full fat

a. fish and nuts

What behavioral factors are associated with successful long-term weight maintenance after weight loss? Select all that apply. a. high levels of daily physical activity b. weighing oneself at least weekly c. consuming a low-calorie, low-fat diet d. eating only two meals/day

a. high levels of daily physical activity b. weighing oneself at least weekly c. consuming a low-calorie, low-fat diet

Why are older adults at increased risk of vitamin D deficiency? Select all that apply. a. inadequate intake b. impaired activation by the liver and kidneys c. decreased ability to synthesize vitamin D on the skin d. decreased GI absorption

a. inadequate intake b. impaired activation by the liver and kidneys c. decreased ability to synthesize vitamin D on the skin

What is a source of leucine that may help stimulate protein synthesis? a. milk b. nuts c. legumes d. grains

a. milk

The client asks if it is okay to follow a low-carbohydrate, ketogenic-type diet in the short term to get started on weight-loss efforts. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "No, low-carbohydrate diets are not healthy and would only sabotage your weight-loss efforts." b. "A ketogenic-type diet can help you lose weight as can many other types of diets. The important factor that determines whether you lose weight is the number of calories you eat, not the proportion of carbohydrates, protein, and fat you eat." c. "A low-carbohydrate diet is better than any other type of diet and is a good choice for you to use." d. "A low-fat diet is easier. Try that instead."

b. "A ketogenic-type diet can help you lose weight as can many other types of diets. The important factor that determines whether you lose weight is the number of calories you eat, not the proportion of carbohydrates, protein, and fat you eat."

Which statement indicates the client understands the instruction about a DASH-style diet? a. "The most important thing about a DASH diet is to eat less cholesterol. No egg yolks for me." b. "I need to eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products." c. "As long as I don't add salt to my food while cooking or at the table, I will be able to achieve a low-sodium diet." d. "I need to use olive oil liberally in food preparation and eat nuts every day."

b. "I need to eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products."

Which statement indicates the client following a low FODMAP understands instruction about the diet? a. "A low-FODMAP diet is the same thing as a gluten-free diet." b. "I understand that I can eventually try adding sources of FODMAPs into my diet to test for tolerance." c. "The low-FODMAP diet effectively controls symptoms of IBS in all people who adhere to the diet." d. "FODMAPs are only found in certain fruits and vegetables so as long as I am careful in choosing those, I can eat items from all other food groups without concern."

b. "I understand that I can eventually try adding sources of FODMAPs into my diet to test for tolerance."

A client asks if it is okay to drink nutrition supplements in place of eating solid food because it seems to be the only thing they tolerate. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Oral nutrition supplements are okay to use as a supplement in your diet, but they do not provide enough nutrition to use them in place of a meal." b. "Oral nutrition supplements are rich in nutrients and can be used in place of meals if they are what you are able to tolerate best." c. "It is fine to rely on oral nutrition supplements but vary the brand to ensure you are getting adequate nutrition." d. "Oral nutrition supplements generally are too high in calories and protein to use in place of meals."

b. "Oral nutrition supplements are rich in nutrients and can be used in place of meals if they are what you are able to tolerate best."

Which statement indicates the client does not understand the nutrition recommendations for hypertension? a. "Weight loss will help lower my blood pressure." b. "Sodium restriction is not necessary as long as I eat enough potassium in fruits and vegetables." c. "Alcohol intake should be limited to 1 drink/day for women and 2 drinks/day for men." d. "The DASH diet is probably better for high blood pressure than the Mediterranean-style eating pattern."

b. "Sodium restriction is not necessary as long as I eat enough potassium in fruits and vegetables."

A client with dumping syndrome asks why it is so important to avoid sugars and sweets. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Sugars and sweets provide empty calories, so they should be limited in everyone's diet." b. "Sugars draw water into the intestines and cause cramping and diarrhea." c. "Sugar should be avoided because it promotes inflammation and delays healing." d. "Avoiding sugars and sweets helps ensure that they will not displace the intake of protein, which you need for healing."

b. "Sugars draw water into the intestines and cause cramping and diarrhea."

Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the physical signs and symptoms of malnutrition? a. Physical signs of malnutrition appear before changes in weight or laboratory values occur. b. Physical signs of malnutrition are suggestive, not definitive, for malnutrition. c. Physical signs have a clear threshold that identifies what is considered abnormal. d. All races and sexes exhibit the same intensity of physical changes in response to malnutrition.

b. Physical signs of malnutrition are suggestive, not definitive, for malnutrition.

Your client has a question about the ONS they receive twice a day. What is the best response? a. "Ask your doctor when they make their rounds." b. "What is your question? If I can't answer it, then I will get the dietitian to talk with you." c. "You need to drink it to get better. You can discontinue it after discharge but you need it now." d. "If I see the dietitian around, then I will tell them to stop by to see you."

b. "What is your question? If I can't answer it, then I will get the dietitian to talk with you."

Which of the following calorie level ranges is considered appropriate for weight-loss diets for most women? a. 1800 to 2000 cal/day b. 1200 to 1500 cal/day c. 1000 to 1200 cal/day d. 800 to 1000 cal/day

b. 1200 to 1500 cal/day

Which of the following strategies may help promote an adequate oral intake in hospitalized clients? Select all that apply. a. Tell the client that you wouldn't want to eat the food either, but it is important for their recovery. b. Encourage the client to select their own menu. c. Offer standby alternatives when the client cannot find anything on the menu they want to eat. d. Advance the diet as quickly as possible, as appropriate.

b. Encourage the client to select their own menu. c. Offer standby alternatives when the client cannot find anything on the menu they want to eat. d. Advance the diet as quickly as possible, as appropriate.

What is the underlying difference between standard and hydrolyzed formulas? a. Standard formulas cannot meet the needs of clients who have high protein needs. b. Standard formulas contain intact nutrients. Hydrolyzed formulas contain nutrients in more readily absorbable form. c. Standard formulas can be infused in the stomach or intestine. Hydrolyzed formulas can be infused only into the stomach. d. Standard formulas are nutritionally complete. All hydrolyzed formulas intentionally lack one or more nutrients.

b. Standard formulas contain intact nutrients. Hydrolyzed formulas contain nutrients in more readily absorbable form.

Which of the following is a lean source of protein? a. Eggs b. Turkey breast without skin c. 80% lean ground beef d. Prime beef rib roast

b. Turkey breast without skin

Which tube-feeding delivery method is most likely to cause symptoms of GI intolerance? a. intermittent feedings b. bolus feedings c. cyclic feedings d. continuous drip feedings

b. bolus feedings

Which of the following would be most effective in modifying a regular diet to a high-fiber diet? a. romaine in place of ice berg lettuce b. bran cereal in place of cornflakes c. rice in place of mashed potatoes d. black beans in place of garbanzo beans

b. bran cereal in place of cornflakes

Which mineral is likely to be consumed in inadequate amounts by older adults? a. iron b. calcium c. iodine d. sodium

b. calcium

The nurse knows their instructions have been effective when the client with dumping syndrome verbalizes they should a. avoid lying down after eating. b. drink liquids between, not with, meals. c. consume foods sweetened with sugar alcohols (e.g., sorbitol or xylitol) instead of sugar. d. avoid protein.

b. drink liquids between, not with, meals.

The nurse knows their instructions have been effective when the client with celiac disease verbalizes that an appropriate breakfast is a. eggs and toast b. grits with berries c. bran flakes cereal with milk d. buttermilk pancakes with syrup

b. grits with berries

The MedDiet differs from other healthy eating plans in that it a. prohibits dairy intake. b. is higher in fat content, primarily from olive oil, nuts, and fatty fish. c. does not include fruit. d. does not limit sweets.

b. is higher in fat content, primarily from olive oil, nuts, and fatty fish.

Which of the following foods is not appropriate for a client on a level 4 pureed diet? a. vanilla yogurt b. regular scrambled eggs c. smooth hummus d. chocolate pudding

b. regular scrambled eggs

Which of the following metabolic abnormalities is associated with refeeding syndrome? a. hyperphosphatemia b. thiamin deficiency c. hyperkalemia d. hypermagnesemia

b. thiamin deficiency

The nurse knows her instructions about label reading have been effective when the client verbalizes that to determine the amount of carbohydrate in a serving you must a. use only the grams of added sugars b. use only the grams of total carbohydrate c. add the grams of total carbohydrate and grams of added sugars together d. add the grams of total carbohydrate, grams of added sugars, and grams of dietary fiber together

b. use only the grams of total carbohydrate

Which of the following criteria would most likely be on a nutrition screen in the hospital? a. prealbumin b. weight loss c. serum potassium value d. cultural food preferences

b. weight loss

When developing a teaching plan for a client who has chronic diarrhea, which of the following items would the nurse suggest the client avoid? a. tomato juice b. whole wheat pasta c. saltine crackers d. soy milk

b. whole wheat pasta

When should nutrition support be initiated in a hemodynamically stable, fluid resuscitated, critically ill client? a. within 24 hours b. within 24 to 48 hours c. within 3 to 7 days d. within the first week

b. within 24 to 48 hours

A 32-year-old client has learned that their BMI has increased to 28 since their last annual physical. They are determined to lose weight and asks if they can use weight-loss medication instead of going on a diet because they have had trouble following diets. Which is the best response? a. "You are not a candidate for weight-loss medications because they can only be prescribed for people with complications related to weight, such as diabetes." b. "You are an ideal candidate for weight-loss medications. Tell the doctor you are interested in them when they arrive." c. "For people with a BMI of 28 and no weight-related complications, weight-loss medications are considered only if you are unsuccessful at losing weight with lifestyle therapy. See how successful you can be with lifestyle therapy." d. "Weight-loss medications are associated with serious risks so they are reserved for people with BMI > 35."

c. "For people with a BMI of 28 and no weight-related complications, weight-loss medications are considered only if you are unsuccessful at losing weight with lifestyle therapy. See how successful you can be with lifestyle therapy."

Which statement indicates the client understands the instructions about nutrition therapy for nephrotic syndrome? a. "I know I need to eat a high-protein diet to replace the protein lost in urine." b. "I need to limit my intake of fruit and vegetables that are high in potassium." c. "I should limit my sodium intake by not using salt in cooking or at the table and avoiding foods high in sodium such as processed foods, fast foods, and convenience foods." d. "I should lose weight to decrease the workload on my kidneys."

c. "I should limit my sodium intake by not using salt in cooking or at the table and avoiding foods high in sodium such as processed foods, fast foods, and convenience foods."

Which statement indicates the client understands nutrition recommendations regarding carbohydrate intake? a. "People with diabetes should not eat sugars and foods that contain sugars." b. "It is important to consume the proper balance of starch, sugar, and fiber at each meal." c. "It is important to consume the correct amount of carbohydrate at each meal and snack." d. "People with diabetes should avoid starchy foods."

c. "It is important to consume the correct amount of carbohydrate at each meal and snack."

What is the priority for preventing diabetes in people who are at high risk? a. Eat a low-carbohydrate diet. b. Consume a consistent amount of carbohydrate at every meal. c. Achieve moderate weight loss through increased activity and lowered calorie intake. d. Eat a low-sugar diet.

c. Achieve moderate weight loss through increased activity and lowered calorie intake.

The client asks if he can use butter on a heart-healthy diet. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "No, butter does not fit into a heart-healthy diet." b. "Butter is not limited in a heart-healthy diet because most people only use small amounts." c. "You can fit in small amounts of butter if you are willing to reduce saturated fat elsewhere, such as eating red meat less often. d. "Butter is considered a dairy product and you can have up to 3 servings/day. "

c. "You can fit in small amounts of butter if you are willing to reduce saturated fat elsewhere, such as eating red meat less often.

The client asks if they will need to follow a diet after they recover from a kidney transplant. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "You will always have to limit protein and phosphorus intake to help preserve the health of the new kidney." b. "After recovery, all restrictions are lifted and you can eat anything you want." c. "You may need to modify some aspects of your diet because of side effects from the medications you will be taking, and you should continue to eat a heart-healthy diet to decrease the risks of diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, and obesity." d. "All the restrictions you followed before dialysis will resume after you recover from the transplant."

c. "You may need to modify some aspects of your diet because of side effects from the medications you will be taking, and you should continue to eat a heart-healthy diet to decrease the risks of diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, and obesity."

The client understands that lifestyle therapy is the cornerstone of primary and secondary prevention of MetS. What does the client need to know about nutrition therapy for MetS? a. Because the primary goal is to lose weight, it doesn't matter what kind of hypocaloric diet is chosen. b. The DASH diet has been shown to be most effective at improving MetS risk factors. c. A Mediterranean-style eating pattern has been shown to be most effective at improving MetS risk factors. d. Low-fat diets are the best for MetS because it is beneficial to eat less of all types of fat in the diet.

c. A Mediterranean-style eating pattern has been shown to be most effective at improving MetS risk factors.

Which of the following statements is true regarding albumin? a. Albumin is a reliable and sensitive indicator of protein status and can help diagnose malnutrition. b. Albumin levels rise in response to inflammation. c. Albumin and other visceral proteins are good indicators of disease severity and outcome but not malnutrition. d. An increase in albumin level means nutrition therapy is effectively treating malnutrition.

c. Albumin and other visceral proteins are good indicators of disease severity and outcome but not malnutrition.

When developing a teaching plan for a client who must restrict potassium, which fruits and vegetables would the nurse recommend for their low potassium content? a. Avocado, tomatoes, and potatoes b. Kiwifruit, prune juice, and acorn squash c. Apple, blueberries, and green beans d. Mango, spinach, and raisins

c. Apple, blueberries, and green beans

Why may underfeeding critically ill clients be beneficial? a. It provides less work for the GI tract to do. b. All methods of measuring a person's energy expenditure overestimate calorie requirements, so a lower calorie load is prudent. c. It may modulate the inflammatory response. d. It provides less strain on the respiratory system.

c. It may modulate the inflammatory response.

Which tube is appropriate for a short-term enteral feeding? a. gastrostomy b. PEG c. NG d. jejunostomy

c. NG

What is the priority when instituting nutrition therapy to a client diagnosed with BN? a. Teach the client about nutrient and calorie requirements. b. Halt weight loss. c. Reduce bingeing and purging. d. Provide sufficient calories for weight gain.

c. Reduce bingeing and purging.

Which of the following strategies would the nurse suggest to help the client increase the protein density of their diet? a. Top-baked potatoes with sour cream. b. Mix cream cheese with butter and spread on hot bread. c. Substitute milk for water in recipes. d. Add whipped cream to coffee.

c. Substitute milk for water in recipes.

Which type of enteral formula would be most appropriate for a client experiencing malabsorption related to inflammatory bowel disease? a. a standard intact formula b. a fiber-enriched intact formula c. a hydrolyzed formula for malabsorption d. a client with malabsorption cannot receive EN

c. a hydrolyzed formula for malabsorption

Which of the following snacks would be best for a client who wants to eat but is experiencing nausea? a. cheese b. peanuts c. banana d. a milkshake

c. banana

The nurse knows their instructions about vitamin B12 are effective when a 65-year-old client verbalizes they will a. consume more meat. b. consume more fruits and vegetables. c. eat vitamin B12-fortified cereal. d. drink more milk.

c. eat vitamin B12-fortified cereal.

What is the primary intervention in the initial postburn period? a. PN b. supplements of trace elements c. fluid and electrolytes d. a low-carbohydrate diet to decrease CO2 production

c. fluid and electrolytes

The nurse knows their instructions about preventing future kidney stones have been effective when the client verbalizes he should a. avoid milk, cheese, and other sources of calcium. b. limit fruit and vegetables. c. lose weight to maintain healthy body weight. d. eat a high-protein diet.

c. lose weight to maintain healthy body weight.

Which of the following strategies will increase calorie density? a. using butter instead of margarine on toast b. adding brown sugar to cereal instead of white sugar c. using gravy over meat d. substituting whole wheat bread for white bread

c. using gravy over meat

Which of the following strategies will increase protein density? a. using whipped cream to replace milk in coffee b. spreading cream cheese on hot bread c. using plain yogurt to replace sour cream d. using mayonnaise to replace salad dressing

c. using plain yogurt to replace sour cream

The nurse knows their instructions about healthy eating to reduce the risk of cancer have been understood when the client states, a. "If I follow those healthy eating guidelines, I will not get cancer." b. "To reduce the risk of cancer, I have to eat a vegetarian diet." c. "There is not enough known about diet and cancer to make informed choices about what to eat to reduce the risk of cancer." d. "A mostly plant-based diet may reduce the risk of cancer."

d. "A mostly plant-based diet may reduce the risk of cancer."

The client with type 1 diabetes asks if they can have a glass of wine with dinner on the weekends. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "It is better to have wine between meals than with meals so that it doesn't interfere with your normal food intake." b. "People with diabetes cannot have alcohol because it raises blood glucose levels very quickly." c. "A mixed drink would be better than wine because the mixer will help slow the absorption of the alcohol." d. "An occasional glass of wine with dinner will not cause problems. Be sure to limit yourself to one serving."

d. "An occasional glass of wine with dinner will not cause problems. Be sure to limit yourself to one serving."

A healthy client with a family history of CKD asks how they can decrease their risk of developing kidney disease. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "If you have a positive family history, there is no way for you to lower your risk of CKD." b. "We don't know how to lower the risk of CKD so the best thing you can do is to have your kidney function monitored regularly." c. "Limit your intake of plants because they are high in potassium and phosphorus, 2 nutrients that make your kidneys work harder." d. "Eat a heart-healthy eating pattern; CVD and CKD share the same lifestyle risks.

d. "Eat a heart-healthy eating pattern; CVD and CKD share the same lifestyle risks.

The nurse knows their instructions on how to reduce the risk of foodborne illness have been understood when the client states, a. "It is okay to thaw food at room temperature as long as I cook it immediately after it is defrosted." b. "Leftovers are not safe to eat." c. "Fruits and vegetables do not need to be washed if I peel them or eat them after they are cooked." d. "Hot dogs, deli meats, and luncheon meats should be reheated before being eaten."

d. "Hot dogs, deli meats, and luncheon meats should be reheated before being eaten."

A 68-year-old man who has steadily gained excess weight over the years complains that it is too late for him to make any changes in diet or exercise regimen that would effectively improve his health, particularly the arthritis in his knees. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "Unfortunately, you're right. You cannot benefit from a change in diet and exercise now." b. "It is too hard for older people to change their habits. You should just continue what you've been doing and know that it's a quality of life issue to enjoy your food." c. "It may not help to change your intake and exercise, but it certainly wouldn't hurt. Why don't you give it a try and see what happens?" d. "It is not too late to make changes, and losing weight through diet and exercising are the best lifestyle interventions for osteoarthritis."

d. "It is not too late to make changes, and losing weight through diet and exercising are the best lifestyle interventions for osteoarthritis."

A client asks how to alter a diet to lower high cholesterol levels. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Alcohol lowers serum cholesterol, but limit consumption to a moderate intake." b. "Eliminate egg yolks and butter." c. "Eat less processed foods." d. "The issue of reducing cholesterol intake to lower serum cholesterol is murky. Eat a DASH diet or Mediterranean-style eating pattern to lower your risk of ASCVD."

d. "The issue of reducing cholesterol intake to lower serum cholesterol is murky. Eat a DASH diet or Mediterranean-style eating pattern to lower your risk of ASCVD."

Which statement indicates the client with HIV understands instruction about healthy eating? a. "Eating fat increases my chances of getting fat around my middle, so I am trying to choose all nonfat or low-fat food." b. "Because I have HIV, it is too late for healthy eating to be beneficial." c. "Protein is the most important nutrient, so I am eating extra red meat at every meal." d. "Unsaturated fats in olive oil, canola oil, nuts, and avocado are healthiest. I am eating those in place of solid fats."

d. "Unsaturated fats in olive oil, canola oil, nuts, and avocado are healthiest. I am eating those in place of solid fats."

Why is EN preferred over PN for a client with burns with a functional GI tract? a. EN can provide higher amounts of calories and protein. b. EN is less likely to interfere with oral intake. c. EN is less expensive. d. EN has a lower risk of infectious complications.

d. EN has a lower risk of infectious complications.

Which is a nutrient of concern particularly for adolescent girls? a. Vitamin A b. Protein c. Zinc d. Folic acid

d. Folic acid

What is the characteristic of level 2 mildly thick liquid? a. It is thicker than water but can flow through a standard straw. b. It drips slowly in dollops through the prongs of a fork. c. It holds its shape on a spoon. d. It is "sippable" from a cup but takes effort to drink through a standard straw.

d. It is "sippable" from a cup but takes effort to drink through a standard straw.

A pureed diet is the most appropriate diet in which of the following situations? a. It is appropriate as an initial oral diet after surgery to establish tolerance. b. It is appropriate as a transition between a full liquid diet and a regular diet. c. It is appropriate for clients who need a low-fiber diet. d. It is appropriate for clients who have had their jaw wired.

d. It is appropriate for clients who have had their jaw wired.

When developing a teaching plan for a client who is taking insulin, which of the following foods would the nurse suggest the client carry with him to treat mild hypoglycemia? a. Crackers b. Peanuts c. Chocolate drops d. Life Savers

d. Life Savers

Which of the following strategies would help a client achieve a low-fat diet? a. Substitute margarine for butter. b. Eat nonfat frozen yogurt in place of nonfat frozen ice cream. c. Substitute whole wheat bread for white bread. d. Prepare chicken by roasting instead of frying.

d. Prepare chicken by roasting instead of frying.

What causes refeeding syndrome in clients who are fed after being in a catabolic state? a. a dramatic increase in fluid intake b. a dramatic increase protein intake c. a dramatic increase in fat intake d. a dramatic increase in carbohydrate intake

d. a dramatic increase in carbohydrate intake

The best dessert for a client with gastroparesis is a. chocolate cake b. strawberry shortcake c. blueberry pie d. angel food cake

d. angel food cake

The MIND diet differs from the MedDiet in that it a. prohibits the intake of alcohol. b. prohibits the intake of red meat. c. does not make a recommendation regarding fish intake. d. lists green leafy vegetables as a separate recommendation from other vegetables.

d. lists green leafy vegetables as a separate recommendation from other vegetables.

The best approach for monitoring carbohydrate intake is to use a. the food list system b. carbohydrate counting c. the plate method d. the approach that best helps the individual control blood glucose levels

d. the approach that best helps the individual control blood glucose levels

What are the characteristics of a traditional Chinese diet? Select all that apply. a. rich in dairy products b. low in fat c. high in sodium d. vegetables used extensively

b. low in fat c. high in sodium d. vegetables used extensively

A woman who was at her healthy weight when she got pregnant is distraught by her 4-pound weight gain between 20 and 24 weeks of gestation. Her weight gain up to 20 weeks was on target. What is the nurse's best response? a. "A 4-pound-per-month weight gain at this point in your pregnancy is normal." b. "Although it is considerably less than the recommended amount, it is not a cause for concern. Just be sure to follow your meal plan next month so you get enough calories and nutrients." c. "I recommend you write down everything you eat for a few days so we can identify where the problem lies." d. "A 4-pound weight gain in 1 month at this point in your pregnancy may be a sign that you are at risk of preeclampsia. You should cut back on the 'extras' in your eating pattern to limit your weight gain for next month."

a. "A 4-pound-per-month weight gain at this point in your pregnancy is normal."

A mother asks why toddlers shouldn't drink all the milk they want. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Consuming more than the recommended amount of milk can displace the intake of iron-rich foods from the diet and increase the toddler's risk of iron deficiency anemia." b. "Consuming more than the recommended amount of milk increases the risk of milk allergy." c. "Too much milk can lead to overhydration." d. "Consuming more than the recommended amount of milk will provide too much calcium."

a. "Consuming more than the recommended amount of milk can displace the intake of iron-rich foods from the diet and increase the toddler's risk of iron deficiency anemia."

A client asks how they can avoid buying foods that are GE. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Foods labeled as organic cannot be genetically engineered." b. "There is no way to avoid genetically engineered foods." c. "Buy foods that have the Radura symbol on them. This symbol means they cannot be genetically engineered." d. "Buy foods labeled as natural because they cannot be genetically engineered."

a. "Foods labeled as organic cannot be genetically engineered."

A client asks how they can avoid meat and poultry that are given antibiotics. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Meat and poultry labeled as organic cannot be given antibiotics." b. "There is no way to avoid meat and poultry that have been given antibiotics." c. "Buy meat and poultry labeled as natural or all natural." d. "Buy meat and poultry labeled as American Humane Association."

a. "Meat and poultry labeled as organic cannot be given antibiotics."

A client asks why lowering saturated fat intake is necessary for lowering serum cholesterol levels. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Replacing saturated fats with unsaturated fats helps lower LDL (the 'bad' cholesterol) and the risk of cardiovascular disease." b. "Sources of saturated fat also provide monounsaturated fat, and both should be limited to control blood cholesterol levels." c. "Saturated fat is high in calories, and excess calories from any source increase the risk of high blood cholesterol levels." d. "Saturated fats make blood more likely to clot, increasing the risk of heart attack."

a. "Replacing saturated fats with unsaturated fats helps lower LDL (the 'bad' cholesterol) and the risk of cardiovascular disease."

A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed niacin. The client asks if they can simply include more niacin-rich foods in their diet in order to forgo niacin in pill form. What is the nurse's best response? a. "The dose of niacin needed to treat hyperlipidemia is far more than can be consumed through eating a niacin-rich diet." b. "You can't get the therapeutic form of niacin through food." c. "Niacin from food is not as well absorbed as niacin from pills." d. "If you are able to consistently choose niacin-fortified foods in your diet, then your doctor may allow you to forgo the pills and rely on dietary sources of niacin."

a. "The dose of niacin needed to treat hyperlipidemia is far more than can be consumed through eating a niacin-rich diet."

A client asks how they can minimize their risk of foodborne illness. Which of the following should the nurse include in their response as the best way to reduce the risk? Select all that apply. a. "Wash your hands before and after handling food." b. "Rely on organically grown foods as much as possible." c. "Cook foods thoroughly." d. "Avoid cross contamination by using separate surfaces for meats and foods that will be eaten raw."

a. "Wash your hands before and after handling food." c. "Cook foods thoroughly." d. "Avoid cross contamination by using separate surfaces for meats and foods that will be eaten raw."

Which of the following is not part of the four DGA? a. Attain and maintain a healthy body weight throughout life. b. Focus on meeting food group needs with nutrient-dense foods and beverages and stay within calorie limits. c. Customize and enjoy nutrient-dense foods and beverage choices. d. Follow a healthy dietary pattern at every life stage.

a. Attain and maintain a healthy body weight throughout life.

Which of the following substitutions results in a less calorically dense choice? a. Canadian bacon in place of bacon b. refried beans instead of cooked or canned pinto beans c. natural cheese instead of low-fat cheese d. baked potato with cheese sauce instead of baked potato with salsa

a. Canadian bacon in place of bacon

Which might a client who has eaten too many dietetic candies sweetened with sorbitol experience? a. Diarrhea b. Heartburn c. Vomiting d. Low blood glucose

a. Diarrhea

Which of the following recommendations would be most effective for someone wanting to eat more fiber? a. Eat legumes more regularly. b. Eat raw vegetables in place of cooked vegetables. c. Use potatoes in place of white rice. d. Eat fruit for dessert in place of ice cream.

a. Eat legumes more regularly.

To move toward healthier eating patterns, Americans should a. Eat more seafood b. Eat more total protein c. Eat more mixed protein dishes, such as sandwiches, in place of eating protein as a separate food d. Replace seafood with poultry

a. Eat more seafood

What nutrient is not likely to be consumed in adequate amounts during pregnancy so a supplement may be needed? a. Iron b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin C

a. Iron

The nurse knows her instructions about introducing solids into the infant's diet have been effective when the mother states, a. "Babies should be introduced to solid foods at 1 to 3 months of age." b. "New foods should be given for at least 3 days so that allergic responses can be easily identified." c. "Infants are more likely to accept infant cereal for the first time if it is mixed with breast milk or formula and given from a bottle." d. "The appropriate initial serving size for solids is 1 to 2 tbsp."

b. "New foods should be given for at least 3 days so that allergic responses can be easily identified."

The client asks if taking supplements of beta carotene will help reduce risk of cancer. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Supplements of beta carotene may help reduce the risk of heart disease but not of cancer." b. "Supplements of beta carotene have not been shown to lower the risk of cancer and may even promote cancer in certain people." c. "Although evidence is preliminary, taking beta-carotene supplements is safe and may prove to be effective against cancer in the future." d. "Natural supplements of beta carotene are generally harmless; synthetic supplements of beta carotene may increase cancer risk and should be avoided."

b. "Supplements of beta carotene have not been shown to lower the risk of cancer and may even promote cancer in certain people."

A woman trying to become pregnant was told by her physician to take a daily supplement containing 400 mg of folic acid. She asks why a supplement is better than eating natural sources of folate through food. Which statement is the nurse's best response? a. "There are few natural sources of folate in food." b. "Synthetic folic acid in supplements and fortified foods is better absorbed, more available, and a more reliable source than the folate found naturally in food." c. "Folate in food is equally as good as folic acid in supplements. It is just easier to take it in pill form and then you don't have to worry about how much you're getting in food." d. "If you are sure that you eat at least five servings of fruits and vegetables every day, you don't really need to take a supplement of folic acid."

b. "Synthetic folic acid in supplements and fortified foods is better absorbed, more available, and a more reliable source than the folate found naturally in food."

Which statement indicates that the client needs further instruction about reading nutrition labels? a. "The %DV is based on a 2000-calorie eating pattern." b. "The %DV represents the percentage of calories from carbohydrate, protein, and fat in that food." c. "The dual-column labels show information per serving and per package." d. "The serving size listed on the label is based on how much people actually consume, not on what they should be eating."

b. "The %DV represents the percentage of calories from carbohydrate, protein, and fat in that food."

Which statement indicates the client understands vegetarian diets? a. "Vegetarian diets are not adequate during pregnancy and lactation." b. "Vegetarians may need to take a vitamin B12 supplement and other nutrients, depending on their actual food selection." c. "Vegetarian diets are always healthier than nonvegetarian diets." d. "Vegetarians usually do not consume enough protein."

b. "Vegetarians may need to take a vitamin B12 supplement and other nutrients, depending on their actual food selection."

How much weight will a person lose in a week if they eat 500 fewer cal/day than they need and increase their exercise expenditure by 500 cal/day? a. 1 pound per week. b. 2 pounds per week. c. 3 pounds per week. d. There isn't enough information provided to estimate weekly weight loss.

b. 2 pounds per week.

What is the RDA for protein for a healthy adult who weighs 165 pounds? a. 40 g b. 60 g b. 75 g d. 132 g

b. 60 g

Which of the following would be the best snack for a 2-year-old? a. Popcorn b. Banana slices c. Fresh cherries d. Raw celery

b. Banana slices

When developing a teaching plan for a client who is on warfarin (Coumadin), which of the following foods would the nurse suggest that the client consume consistently because of their vitamin K content? a. Vegetable oils, fruit, and seafood b. Brussels sprouts, cauliflower, and spinach c. Fortified cereals, whole grains, and nuts d. Dried peas and beans, wheat germ, and seeds

b. Brussels sprouts, cauliflower, and spinach

Detrimental health outcomes are linked to excessive intakes of all of the following except a. Saturated fat. b. Carbohydrates. c. Added sugars. d. Sodium.

b. Carbohydrates.

Which of the following recommendations would be most effective at increasing potassium intake? a. Choose enriched grains in place of whole grains. b. Consume more fruits, vegetables, and dairy. c. Eat more red meat in place of poultry. d. Because there are few good dietary sources of potassium, it is best obtained by taking potassium supplements.

b. Consume more fruits, vegetables, and dairy.

Which approach would be best when developing a teaching plan for an overweight woman from Mexico? a. Tell the client she will look better if she loses some of the extra weight she is carrying around. b. Encourage more nutritious food choices. c. Advise the client that healthy eating will help her shed inches. d. Provide a low-calorie diet and encourage her to eat low-calorie American foods, such as artificially sweetened soda and low-fat ice cream.

b. Encourage more nutritious food choices.

Which of the following religions does not encourage a vegetarian diet? a. Buddhism b. Judaism c. Seventh-Day Adventist d. Hinduism

b. Judaism

The nurse knows that instructions have been effective when the client verbalizes that an ingredient that provides synthetic trans fats is a. Fully hydrogenated oil b. Partially hydrogenated oil c. Palm oil d. Palm kernel oil

b. Partially hydrogenated oil

What is the primary function of fat? a. Facilitate protein metabolism b. Provide energy c. Promote the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins d. Facilitate carbohydrate metabolism

b. Provide energy

Waist circumference is an indicator of a. percentage of body fat. b. central obesity. c. the ratio of body fat to muscle mass. d. BMI.

b. central obesity.

Compared to a Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern, a Mediterranean-Style Eating Pattern is generally a. higher in vegetables and whole grains. b. higher in seafood and lower in dairy. c. higher in oils and dairy. d. lower in protein foods and fruits.

b. higher in seafood and lower in dairy.

A client asks if it is better to consume folic acid from fortified foods or from a vitamin pill. What is the nurse's best response? a. "It is better to consume folic acid through fortified foods because it will be better absorbed than through pill form." b. "It is better to consume folic acid through vitamin pills because it will be better absorbed than through fortified foods." c. "Fortified foods and vitamin pills have the same form of folic acid, so it does not matter which source you use because they are both well absorbed." d. "It is best to consume naturally rich sources of folate because that form is better absorbed than the folic acid in either fortified foods or vitamin pills."

c. "Fortified foods and vitamin pills have the same form of folic acid, so it does not matter which source you use because they are both well absorbed."

The client asks if a tea that claims to improve memory really works. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "If the tea claims to improve memory, then it has been tested and proven effective at improving memory." b. "The tea probably works but you need to try it to know." c. "Function claims like 'improve memory' can be used on labels without supporting proof that they are accurate." d. "That type of claim is illegal and should not appear on any food label."

c. "Function claims like 'improve memory' can be used on labels without supporting proof that they are accurate."

The nurse knows their explanation of glycemic index was effective when the client says? a. "Choosing foods that have a low GI is an effective way to eat healthier." b. "Low-GI foods promote weight loss because they do not stimulate the release of insulin." c. "GI could help me choose the best foods to eat before, during, and after training." d."GI is a term used to describe the amount of refined sugar in a food."

c. "GI could help me choose the best foods to eat before, during, and after training."

What should you tell the client about taking mineral supplements? a. "Most Americans are deficient in minerals, so it is wise to take a multimineral supplement." b. "Like water-soluble vitamins, if you consume more minerals than your body needs, you will excrete them in the urine, so do not worry about taking in too much." c. "If you do not have a mineral deficiency, supplements are not necessary and can lead to a potentially excessive intake that can cause adverse health effects." d. "Mineral deficiencies do not exist in the United States, so you do not need to waste your money on them."

c. "If you do not have a mineral deficiency, supplements are not necessary and can lead to a potentially excessive intake that can cause adverse health effects."

A client asks how they can speed up their metabolism. Which of the following is the best response? a. "You can't. Metabolic rate is genetically determined." b. "Ask your doctor to check your thyroid hormone levels. Taking thyroid hormone will stimulate metabolism." c. "Include strength training in your exercise program because adding muscle tissue will increase metabolic rate." d. "Eat fewer calories because that will stimulate metabolic rate."

c. "Include strength training in your exercise program because adding muscle tissue will increase metabolic rate."

A client asks why eating less sodium is important for healthy people. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "Low-sodium diets tend to be low in fat and therefore may reduce the risk of heart disease." b. "Low-sodium diets are only effective at preventing high blood pressure, not lowering existing high blood pressure, so the time to implement a low-sodium diet is when you are healthy." c. "Lowering sodium intake lowers blood pressure in healthy people and may also decrease the risk of atherosclerotic heart disease." d. "Low-sodium diets are inherently low in calories and help people lose weight, which can help prevent a variety of chronic diseases."

c. "Lowering sodium intake lowers blood pressure in healthy people and may also decrease the risk of atherosclerotic heart disease."

Which of the following statements is true? a. "Women who breastfeed almost always achieve their prepregnancy weight at 6 weeks postpartum." b. "Weight loss during lactation is not recommended because it lowers the quantity and quality of breast milk produced." c. "Most breastfeeding women do not have to increase their intake by the full amount of calories it 'costs' to produce milk because they can mobilize fat stored during pregnancy for some of the extra energy required." d. "Women do not need to increase their calorie intake at all for the first 6 months of breastfeeding because they can use calories stored in fat to produce milk."

c. "Most breastfeeding women do not have to increase their intake by the full amount of calories it 'costs' to produce milk because they can mobilize fat stored during pregnancy for some of the extra energy required."

A client states that there is no way they can eat all the vegetables recommended in their MyPlate plan. What is the nurse's best response? a. "If you can't eat all the vegetables, then make up for the difference by eating more fruit." b. "Be sure to take a daily multivitamin to provide the nutrients that may be missing from your diet." c. "Set a goal of eating larger quantities of the vegetable servings that you currently eat, and gradually increase the servings and variety as you become more skillful in adding vegetables to your diet." d. "No one can. The recommendations are only a guide. Just eat what you can."

c. "Set a goal of eating larger quantities of the vegetable servings that you currently eat, and gradually increase the servings and variety as you become more skillful in adding vegetables to your diet."

The client asks if her 10-year-old daughter needs a weight loss diet. Which of the following would be the nurse's best response? a. "Rather than a diet at this age, you should just forbid her to eat sweets and empty calories." b. "Because prevention of overweight is more effective than treatment, you should start to limit her calorie intake by only serving low-fat and artificially sweetened foods." c. "Ten-year-old girls are about to enter the growth spurt of puberty, and it is natural for her to gain weight before she grows taller. Diets are not recommended for children, although healthy eating and moderation are always appropriate." d. "She needs extra calories for the upcoming growth spurt, so you should be encouraging her to eat more than she normally does."

c. "Ten-year-old girls are about to enter the growth spurt of puberty, and it is natural for her to gain weight before she grows taller. Diets are not recommended for children, although healthy eating and moderation are always appropriate."

The client asks what makes the DASH diet different from a Healthy U.S.-Style Eating Pattern. What is the best response? a. "They are basically the same except that the DASH diet is lower in calories." b. "The DASH diet is low in dairy products and grains." c. "The DASH diet recommends significantly less oils." d. "The DASH diet is lower in protein foods."

c. "The DASH diet recommends significantly less oils."

What should the nurse tell a client who likes fish but refuses to eat it because of fear of mercury poisoning? a. "You are justified to be concerned. To be safe, use fish oil supplements instead." b. "You can eat as much fish as you want because most fish are not contaminated with even small amounts of mercury." c. "The benefits of eating 8 oz/week of a variety of fish outweigh any potential risks from mercury." d. "As a compromise, eat 4 oz of fish per week instead of 8 oz."

c. "The benefits of eating 8 oz/week of a variety of fish outweigh any potential risks from mercury."

Using a simple formula based on calories per kilogram of body weight, how many calories per day would a healthy-weight adult who weighs 70 kg need? a. 2350 to 2800 calories b. 2100 to 2350 calories c. 1750 to 2100 calories d. 1400 to 1750 calories

c. 1750 to 2100 calories

What percentage of ingredients must be organic for a product to bear the USDA organic seal and state that it is organic? a. 70% b. 80% c. 95% d. 100%

c. 95%

Which population is at risk for combined deficiencies of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin? a. Pregnant women b. Vegetarians c. Alcoholics d. Athletes

c. Alcoholics

Which statement is accurate regarding characteristics of a healthy eating pattern? a. The only healthy eating pattern is a vegetarian one. b. Healthy eating patterns eliminate foods that are high in saturated fat, added sugar, and sodium (fried foods, desserts, snack chips, etc.). c. Healthy eating patterns may reduce the risk of several chronic diseases: cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers. d. Most young and middle-aged adults consume a healthy eating pattern.

c. Healthy eating patterns may reduce the risk of several chronic diseases: cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and certain cancers.

Which statement about supplements is accurate? a. All supplements must be tested for safety and effectiveness before they can be marketed. b. Supplement dosages are standardized. c. Proper handling of supplement ingredients is required by law. d. Warnings about potential side effects or interactions must be stated on the packaging.

c. Proper handling of supplement ingredients is required by law.

Which of the following is the top source of saturated fat intake among Americans? a. Desserts and sweet snacks b. Pizza c. Sandwiches d. Chips, crackers, and savory snacks

c. Sandwiches

The nurse knows their instructions about choosing whole grains in place of refined grains are understood by the client when they verbalize that they will substitute a. Rice Krispies for puffed rice b. Bulgur for barley c. Shredded wheat cereal for puffed wheat cereal d. Quick oats for old-fashioned oats

c. Shredded wheat cereal for puffed wheat cerea

The client wants to eat fewer calories and lose weight by substituting regularly sweetened foods with those that are sweetened with sugar alternatives. Which would be the most effective at lowering calorie intake? a. Sugar-free cookies for regular cookies b. Sugar-free for regular chocolate candy c. Sugar-free soft drinks for regular soft drinks d. Sugar-free ice cream for regular ice cream

c. Sugar-free soft drinks for regular soft drinks

A client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. What vitamin are they not absorbing? a. Folic acid b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin B12 d. Niacin

c. Vitamin B12

Which vitamin is given in large doses to facilitate wound and bone healing? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin C d. Niacin

c. Vitamin C

For most Americans, the largest percentage of their total calories expended daily is from a. Physical activity. b. thermal effect of food. c. basal energy expenditure. d. sitting.

c. basal energy expenditure.

The DGA recommend that Americans do all of the following except a. limit saturated fat intake to less than 10% of total calories starting at age 2. b. limit sodium to less than 2300 mg/day for people 14 and older. c. limit total fat intake to less than 30% of calories beginning at age 2. d. limit added sugars to less than 10% of total calories beginning at age 2.

c. limit total fat intake to less than 30% of calories beginning at age 2.

What is the component in allergens that is responsible for triggering an allergic attack in susceptible people? a. sugar b. starch c. protein d. fat

c. protein

What is a descriptive word that indicates a low-fat cooking technique? a.au gratin b. breaded c. roasted d. battered

c. roasted

The nurse knows her instructions about label reading have been effective when the client verbalizes that fat-free on the label means a. the product is free of any ingredients that contain any fat. b. the product does not contain any fat or saturated fat. c. there is <0.5 g of fat in a serving. d. there is <1 g of fat in a serving.

c. there is <0.5 g of fat in a serving.

"Moderate" alcohol consumption is a. three to 4 drinks per week for women and 6 to 8 drinks per week for men. b. up to 1 drink per day for both men and women. c. up to 1 drink per day for women and up to 2 drinks per day for men. d. up to 2 drinks per day for women and up to 3 drinks per day for men.

c. up to 1 drink per day for women and up to 2 drinks per day for men.

A client asks why sugar should be limited in the diet. What is the best response? a. "A high-sugar intake causes dental caries if you don't brush your teeth shortly after eating." b. "Sugar provides more calories per gram than starch, protein, or fat." c. "There is a direct correlation between sugar intake and increased hunger." d. "Foods high in sugar generally provide few nutrients other than calories and may make it hard to consume a diet that has enough of all the essential nutrients."

d. "Foods high in sugar generally provide few nutrients other than calories and may make it hard to consume a diet that has enough of all the essential nutrients."

The nurse knows her instructions about gluten-free labeling are understood when the client verbalizes one of the following statements: a. "Only foods that have been specially made gluten-free, not foods that are naturally gluten-free, can be labeled gluten-free." b. "Gluten-free means there are no detectable amounts of gluten in the product." c. "Products labeled gluten-free are limited to foods that are naturally gluten-free." d. "Gluten-free products provide <20 ppm of gluten per serving."

d. "Gluten-free products provide <20 ppm of gluten per serving."

Which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions given about using a vitamin supplement? a. "USP on the label guarantees safety and effectiveness." b. "Natural vitamins are always better for you than synthetic vitamins." c. "Vitamins are best absorbed on an empty stomach." d. "Taking a multivitamin cannot fully make up for poor food choices."

d. "Taking a multivitamin cannot fully make up for poor food choices."

Which statement indicates the mother understands the nurse's instructions about breastfeeding? a. "Breastfeeding should only last 5 minutes on each breast." b. "Sometimes, babies cry just because they are thirsty, so a bottle of water should be offered before breastfeeding begins to see if the infant is just thirsty." c. "The longer the baby sucks, the less milk I will have for the next feeding." d. "The first breast offered should be alternated with each feeding."

d. "The first breast offered should be alternated with each feeding."

A client says he never adds salt to any foods that his wife serves, so he believes he is consuming a low-sodium diet. Which of the following is the nurse's best response? a. "If you don't add salt to any of your foods, you are probably eating a low-sodium diet. Continue with that strategy." b. "Even though you aren't adding salt to food at the table, your wife is probably salting food as she cooks. She should stop doing that." c. "Lots of foods are naturally high in sodium, such as milk and meat; in addition to not using a salt shaker, you must also limit foods that are naturally high in sodium." d. "The major sources of sodium are processed and convenience foods. Limiting their intake makes the biggest impact on overall sodium intake."

d. "The major sources of sodium are processed and convenience foods. Limiting their intake makes the biggest impact on overall sodium intake."

Which statement indicates the client understands how to choose low-fat foods from MyPlate? a. "All items within a food group have approximately the same amount of fat so my fat intake isn't affected by the specific foods I choose from any group." b. "You don't have to consciously select low-fat items because the calories for other uses will account for higher-fat choices." c. "All fats are bad fats. It is best to eliminate as much fat from your diet as possible." d. "Within each food group, the foods lowest in fat should be chosen most often."

d. "Within each food group, the foods lowest in fat should be chosen most often."

The client asks what foods are rich in protein and are less expensive than meat. Which foods would the nurse recommend they eat more of? a. Breads and cereals b. Fish and shellfish c. Fruit and vegetables d. Beans, peas, and lentils

d. Beans, peas, and lentils

Which of the following statements about CBD is accurate? a. The FDA defines CBD as a dietary supplement. b. CBD is the most active ingredient in marijuana. c. CBD may be addictive over time. d. CBD is the active ingredient in a drug approved by the FDA.

d. CBD is the active ingredient in a drug approved by the FDA.

The nurse knows that instructions have been effective when the client verbalizes that a source of complete, high-quality protein is found in a. Peanut butter b. Black-eyed peas c. Corn d. Cottage cheese

d. Cottage cheese

Compared to refined grains, whole grains have more a. Folic acid b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C d. Phytonutrients

d. Phytonutrients

When developing a teaching plan for a client who needs to limit saturated fat, which of the following foods would the nurse suggest the client limit? a. Seafood and poultry b. Nuts and seeds c. Olive oil and canola oil d. Prime cuts of red meat and whole milk

d. Prime cuts of red meat and whole milk

A client wants to eat more conventional functional foods. Which of the following would the nurse recommend? a. omega-3 fatty acid-enriched milk and orange juice b. yogurt and cheese c. rice and enriched pasta d. berries and green leafy vegetables

d. berries and green leafy vegetables

The nurse knows her instructions on healthy eating during pregnancy have been effective when the woman verbalizes she should a. avoid seafood because of its mercury content. b. limit alcohol to 2 drinks/day. c. increase her intake of milk to 4 cups/day. d. eliminate hot dogs and deli meats unless heated to steaming hot immediately before eating.

d. eliminate hot dogs and deli meats unless heated to steaming hot immediately before eating.

Which of the following foods is not pareve? a. fruit b. vegetables c. kosher eggs d. milk

d. milk