First State and Local Government test

Lakukan tugas rumah & ujian kamu dengan baik sekarang menggunakan Quizwiz!

In his landmark dissent in New State Ice Co. v. Liebmann (1932), Louis Brandeis, an associate justice of the U.S. Supreme Court, coined the phrase Select one: a. "The Polar Express." b. "Laboratories of democracy." c. "Ice is nice." d. "Polar democracy."

"Laboratories of Democracy"

In 2006, voters in Florida approved a legislative referendum requiring all subsequent ballot measures to receive at least _____ of the popular vote in order to be approved. Select one: a. 50 percent b. 60 percent c. 65 percent d. 75 percent

60 percent

What percentage of all elected officials in the United States are elected at the local level? Select one: a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 95 percent

95 percent

Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic steps in the initiative process that most states share? Select one: a. The proposal is drafted by proponents. b. A state official issues an official title and summary of the measure. c. Proponents circulate petitions for voters to sign. d. A citizen commission verifies whether a valid number of signatures are collected.

A citizen commission verifies whether a valid number of signatures are collected.

What was the "Big Swap" proposition? Select one: a. A Republican election tactic that would attempt to create incentives for large amounts of Democrats to switch parties b. An unprecedented exchange of power between the executive and legislative branches of government c. A proposal that the federal government would turn over to the states the responsibilities to provide for education, social services, transportation, and cash public assistance programs in exchange for taking over the provision of health services for the poor d. An idea proposed by one of the founding fathers to change the Articles of Confederation to the current Constitution

A proposal that the federal government would turn over to the states the responsibilities to provide for education, social services, transportation, and cash public assistance programs in exchange for taking over the provision of health services for the poor

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution? Select one: a. It specifically limits the powers of national government vis-à-vis the states. b. It is also known as the reserve clause. c. The founders intended for substantive issues not mentioned in the Constitution (like education, public health, and the environment) to be left to the states. d. Because of the Tenth Amendment, states are not constituent parts that retain their autonomy from the central government.

Because of the Tenth Amendment, states are not constituent parts that retain their autonomy from the central government.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding direct democracy? Select one: a. Direct democracy has its roots in the Populist and Progressive eras. b. One of the main goals of Progressive reformers was to give the public greater influence over the behavior of elected officials. c. By the early 1900s, campaign contributions were regulated, bribery was outlawed, and new laws regulating political corruption showed the success of direct democracy. d. Progressive reformers assumed that their efforts would cause politics to become more representative and responsible.

By the early 1900s, campaign contributions were regulated, bribery was outlawed, and new laws regulating political corruption showed the success of direct democracy.

Which state joins Louisiana and Washington as having a nonpartisan top-two blanket primary? Select one: a. New York b. California c. Texas d. Nebraska

California

Which statement is FALSE? Select one: a. Centralization often occurs in time of war and national crises. b. Centralization often occurs when there are calls to redistribute the nation's wealth to increase greater equity in society. c. Centralization often occurs when there is a public clamor for public policies that fit specific, localized needs. d. Centralization often occurs when there are efforts to create more efficiencies of scale in the implementation of public policy.

Centralization often occurs when there is a public clamor for public policies that fit specific, localized needs.

Which primary system is one in which voters can only vote for candidates of the party with which they are registered? Select one: a. Closed primary b. Secretive primary c. Open primary d. Semi-closed primary

Closed primary

In its 2005 decision, Granholm v. Heald, the United States Supreme Court drew on which constitutional provision to prohibit states from engaging in discriminatory practices when regulating the sale of wine produced in another state? Select one: a. Commerce Clause b. Due Process Clause c. Reserve Clause d. Repeal of Prohibition

Commerce Clause

Which of the following institutions generally leads to higher voter turnout? Select one: a. Shorter polling hours b. Mandatory absentee ballots c. Free "I Voted" stickers at the polls d. Election day voter registration

Election day voter registration

In the ruling of Bush v. Gore, the Supreme Court found that the ___________ guarantees individuals that their ballots cannot be devalued later by arbitrary and disparate treatment. Select one: a. First Amendment b. Ninth Amendment c. Fourteenth Amendment d. Nineteenth Amendment

Fourteenth Amendment

Which party model emphasizes that political parties are primarily concerned with electing governmental officeholders? Select one: a. Functional party model b. Ideological party model c. Max-voter party model d. Epstein party model

Functional party model

The grant-in-aid program whereby the federal government provides financial aid to subnational units but does not prescribe how those units are to allocate the funding is known as Select one: a. unfunded mandates. b. categorical grants. c. block grants. d. General Revenue Sharing (GRS).

General Revenue Sharing (GRS).

Which is NOT an example of a tax limitation measure? Select one: a. California's Proposition 13 (1978) b. Oregon's Measure 5 (1990) c. Indiana's Question 3 (2004) d. Colorado's TABOR amendment (1992)

Indiana's Question 3

Which of the following was NOT an attempt by reformers to wrest control from state and local party bosses? Select one: a. Adoption of the Australian ballot b. Nonpartisan local elections c. Indirect caucuses for party nominations d. Commission and manager-commission forms of municipal government

Indirect caucuses for party nominations

What is the mechanism of the direct initiative? Select one: a. It allows petitioners to collect signatures to force the legislature to consider a measure proposed by citizens. b. It allows petitioners to collect signatures to hold a public vote to remove an elected official from office prior to when the official's term expires. c. It allows petitioners to have a public vote on a bill that the legislature has already approved. d. It allows petitioners to collect signatures to qualify a measure for a spot on the ballot.

It allows petitioners to collect signatures to qualify a measure for a spot on the ballot.

In 2011, what did the Humane Society do to place pressure on Congress to modify regulations on raising chickens? Select one: a. It circulated ballot initiatives in two states, only to withdraw them after brokering a deal with the United Egg Producers. b. It had petition gatherers dress up in chicken suits to collect ballot initiative signatures. c. It hired Col. Sanders to lobby for a new law. d. It used ballot measures to change the law in a dozen states.I

It circulated ballot initiatives in two states, only to withdraw them after brokering a deal with the United Egg Producers.

Which branch of the federal government is also known as the "umpire of federalism?" Select one: a. Legislative b. Judicial c. Executive d. United Nations

Judicial

Governor Bobby Jindal publicly announced that he would reject portions of Congress's 2009 stimulus package earmarked for his state of _____. Select one: a. Oklahoma b. Louisiana c. Indiana d. South Carolina

Louisiana

​Which United States Supreme Court ruling, reinforced by its decision Gibbons v. Ogden, greatly empowered the federal government's hold over questions dealing with interstate commerce? Select one: a. Marbury v. Madison b. McCulloch v. Maryland c. Baker v. Carr d. Gitlow v. New York

McCulloch v. Maryland

Which two states lead the nation in the percentage of adults over 18 who voted in the 2012 presidential election? Select one: a. Maine and California b. Minnesota and Texas c. Texas and Hawaii d. Minnesota and Wisconsin

Minnesota and Wisconsin

According to a recent study, which state has the most barriers to political participation? Select one: a. Kansas b. Vermont c. Mississippi d. Florida

Mississippi

Which act required states to accept mail-in registrations for federal elections and required public agencies to provide registration forms? Select one: a. Voting Rights Act b. Voter Mail and Forms Act c. Voter Enfranchisement d. National Voter Registration Act

National Voter Registration Act

Which of the following is NOT true regarding "clean money"? Select one: a. One major idea behind clean money laws is to make sure candidates are not beholden to their donors. b. Nearly all states began enacting clean money policies at the start of 2000. c. Legislative candidates have been found to spend less time raising money in states with public financing of campaigns. d. Jesse Ventura was elected Governor of Minnesota with the help of public campaign funds.

Nearly all states began enacting clean money policies at the start of 2000.

According to one study, which of the following states has the easiest qualification rules for ballot initiatives? Select one: a. Idaho b. Nevada c. Oregon d. Wyoming

Oregon

Which state has used the initiative process more than any other? Select one: a. Colorado b. California c. Washington d. Oregon

Oregon

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the effects of direct democracy on citizens? Select one: a. The presence of highly visible initiatives and frequent voting on ballot measures may make people feel more as if they "have a say" in politics. b. People in initiative states are more likely to think that public officials do not care about what citizens think. c. There is some evidence that frequent use of initiatives causes voters to feel more competent when participating in politics. d. People in initiative states are more likely to engage in political discussion, have greater political knowledge, and contribute to interest groups.

People in initiative states are more likely to think that public officials do not care about what citizens think.

Which third party was one of the most influential in the adoption of direct democracy in the 1890s? Select one: a. Populist Party b. Green Party c. Libertarian Party d. Greenbackers Party

Populist party

Which tactic have citizens in Oregon and Washington used to slow down the approval of the planned transport of millions of tons of coal per year across their states to a deep water shipping terminal? Select one: a. Acts of civil disobedience to disrupt the implementation of the plan b. Providing testimony during local hearings on the plan c. Hiring lobbyists to convince federal and state lawmakers to alter the plan d. Directly lobbying members of Congress to alter the plan

Providing testimony during local hearings on the plan

Which federal program following 9/11 had civil libertarians up in arms? Select one: a. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act b. REAL ID c. No Child Left Behind d. Iraq War Authorization Act

REAL ID

The President that pronounced "government is not the solution to our problem; government is the problem" is Select one: a. Richard Nixon. b. Ronald Reagan. c. Abraham Lincoln. d. George H. W. Bush.

Reagan

Which model holds that political parties should be ideologically consistent? Select one: a. Ideological party model b. Responsible party model c. Rational party model d. Functional party model

Responsible party model

Which of the following does NOT qualify as a legitimate form of political participation? Select one: a. Voting b. Lobbying c. Protesting d. Rioting

Rioting

Which 2013 United States Supreme Court ruling struck down Section 4 of the of the 1965 Voting Rights Act? Select one: a. Marbury v. Madison b. Shelby County v. Holder c. Roe v. Wade d. Reynolds v. Simms

Shelby County v. Holder

State legislatures have adopted which rule to ban egregious attempts at building coalitions of supporters by rolling many attractive features into a ballot measure? Select one: a. Single-subject rule b. Log-Rolling rule c. Anti-packing rule d. Pre-election qualifying rule

Single-subject rule

During which period did Democrats use the authority of the federal government to expand civil rights? Select one: a. The Era of Good Feelings b. The Civil War c. The New Deal d. The Great Society

The Great Society

Which of the following clauses stipulates that residents of one state cannot be discriminated against by another state when it comes to fundamental matters, such as pursuing one's professional occupation, access to the courts, or equality in taxation? Select one: a. The Full Faith and Credit Clause b. The Privileges and Immunities Clause c. The National Supremacy Clause d. The Necessary and Proper Clause

The Privileges and Immunities Clause

Which of the following is NOT true regarding paid signature gathering in the United States? Select one: a. Petition management firms often offer proponents a guarantee of qualification, but at a price that runs close to $2 million. b. Paid signature gatherers have been known to earn a typical rate of $1 or $2 per valid signature. c. The U.S. Supreme Court upheld state laws in 1988 that banned the practice of paid signature gathering. d. Paid signature gathering, as an institution, allows wealthy groups and individuals to play a prominent, if not dominant, role in affecting what gets put to a public vote.

The U.S. Supreme Court upheld state laws in 1988 that banned the practice of paid signature gathering.

Who is more likely to view TV and radio as the most influential media source in ballot measure campaigns? Select one: a. Consultants b. Voters c. Politicians d. The news media

The news media

Which of the following is NOT true regarding members of the Continental Congress? Select one: a. They were elected by their constituents. b. They served one-year terms. c. They were chosen by their state legislatures. d. They acted as delegates of their state legislatures.

They were elected by their constituents

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Commerce Clause? Select one: a. It gives Congress the "power to regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes." b. Traditionally, the United States Supreme Court has ruled against Congress's use of the clause to pass laws dealing with indirect issues related to interstate commerce. c. Congress has interpreted the clause broadly, greatly expanding its legislative power to intervene in a wide number of facets of the national economy. d. Today, with increased interconnectivity of human activity, most economic activities extend beyond a state's borders and thus may fall prey to congressional regulations.

Traditionally, the United States Supreme Court has ruled against Congress's use of the clause to pass laws dealing with indirect issues related to interstate commerce.

As part of the Republican devolution effort known as the Contract with America, which of the following acts was passed? Select one: a. General Revenue Sharing Repulsion Act b. Violence Against Women Act c. Gun Free School Zones Act d. Unfunded Mandate Reform Act

Unfunded Mandate reform act

What is a requirement created by the Federal government that is not backed with any federal money? Select one: a. Unfunded mandate b. Blanket statute c. Block grant d. Preemptive funding

Unfunded mandate

Which system of governance features all governmental power being vested in the national government? Select one: a. Federal b. Confederal c. Central d. Unitary

Unitary

Which form of political participation is probably more representative of the general citizenry? Select one: a. Making a campaign contribution b. Voting c. Joining an interest group d. Writing a letter to a member of Congress

Voting

Which of the following was NOT one of the high points of federal governmental power in the twentieth century? Select one: a. The New Deal b. World War II c. The Great Society d. Watergate W

Watergate

Which president referred to the practice of citizen lawmaking as the "gun behind the door?" Select one: a. Abraham Lincoln b. Franklin D. Roosevelt c. Teddy Roosevelt d. Woodrow Wilson

Woodrow Wilson

Which federal agency employed more than 8 million workers in construction and other jobs during the Great Depression? Select one: a. Works Progress Administration b. Agricultural Enhancement Administration c. Civil Works Administration d. Construction Employment Administration

Works Progress Administration

Which state has the highest level of difficulty for ballot initiative qualification, and thus, has had very few initiatives qualify for the ballot? Select one: a. Colorado b. Missouri c. Ohio d. Wyoming

Wyoming

Many state campaign finance regulations in place today Select one: a. prohibit potential donors from making small contributions. b. are extremely lax with respect to their enforcement. c. are not at all successful in preventing illegal contributions. d. are new, with over 30 states adopting them over the past two decades.

are new, with over 30 states adopting them over the past two decades.

Today, roughly 75 percent of all local elections Select one: a. are highly contested between Democrats and Republicans. b. result in "no-contest" elections due to gerrymandered districts. c. yield higher turnout when held in "off-years." d. are nonpartisan.

are non partisan

In the 1960s, Congress further expanded the scope of the federal government by using Select one: a. categorical grants. b. earmark grants. c. block grants. d. project grants.

block grants

Regarding direct democracy, most people feel that Select one: a. they can trust the campaigns put forth by measure proponents. b. the system avoids special interest domination. c. campaign expenditures are too high. d. there are not enough citizen initiatives being used.

campaign expenditures are too high.

Medicare Select one: a. created a national health insurance program for the elderly. b. eliminated the need for private insurance companies. c. is a joint state-funded health care for poor people. d. was part of a series of programs that decreased the relative power of the federal government.

created a national health insurance program for the elderly.

With regard to the effect of direct democracy on public policy, all of the following are true EXCEPT Select one: a. direct democracy makes policies more representative of what people want and always leads to better public policy. b. when voters are allowed to make direct choices on policies they sometimes make decisions that their elected representatives would not. c. the biggest policy effects of direct democracy may be in the realm of governance policy. d. the mere presence of the initiative process can affect public policy by changing how legislators behave.

direct democracy makes policies more representative of what people want and always leads to better public policy.

Political observers, pundits, journalists, scholars, and politicians Select one: a. agree that direct democracy in the American states is a disaster. b. agree that direct democracy laws in the American states must be reviewed, rewritten, and revised. c. disagree over the merits of allowing citizens to have more direct control over their government. d. disagree over the number of states that permit direct democracy.

disagree over the merits of allowing citizens to have more direct control over their government.

The number of representatives for a specific geographic area is referred to as Select one: a. district capability. b. district magnitude. c. district scale. d. district level.

district magnitude

The sense that political involvement can actually make a difference is known as Select one: a. efficacy. b. ideology. c. collective action. d. the participation gap.

efficacy

Direct democracy may grant all of the following powers to citizens EXCEPT Select one: a. raise or cut taxes. b. electing candidates to office. c. vetoing laws. d. removing an elected official from office.

electing candidates to office

In states and communities the most visible, but certainly not the only, way citizens interact with their government is by Select one: a. lobbying public officials. b. electing their representatives. c. making campaign contributions. d. being active in a political party.

electing their representatives.

The Bill of Rights Select one: a. immediately prevented state governments from depriving their residents of rights. b. was ratified by nearly every state by December 1789. c. ensures the protection of individuals from the national government. d. was derived from the political beliefs of George Washington.

ensures the protection of individuals from the national government.

Congress's passage of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 Select one: a. gave the federal government even more s​ay over a range of issue areas. b. was widely accepted by Republicans as a necessary response to ward off a recession. c. gave states more power to provide social services for the poor. d. received widespread bipartisan support.

gave the federal government even more s​ay over a range of issue areas.

Which of the following does NOT appear to be a barrier to participation? Select one: a. Gender b. Districting c. Race d. Registration

gender

By 1945, the size of the federal bureaucracy had Select one: a. decreased dramatically. b. increased dramatically. c. followed traditional decrease patterns. d. followed traditional increase patterns.

increased dramatically

Especially in low-information local elections, party labels can help Select one: a. inform voters about relatively unknown candidates seeking office. b. mislead otherwise informed voters. c. help inform voters, but rarely do so. d. enable loyal party workers to mobilize their supporters to the polls.

inform voters about relatively unknown candidates seeking office.

As an alternative method to at-large elections, the cumulative voting system Select one: a.is a semi-proportional system, allowing voters to give their votes to more than one candidate. b. utilizes the first-past-the-post rules. c. has been shown to decrease voter turnout by about 5 percent. d. offers minority candidates less opportunities to win.

is a semi-proportional system, allowing voters to give their votes to more than one candidate.

All of the following about a confederal system of government are true EXCEPT Select one: a. in terms of a spectrum of the balance of power between national and subnational levels of government, a confederal system is located at the opposite pole from a unitary system. b. it is a system of governance whereby the subnational governments are subject to the control of the autonomous national government. c. the constituent subnational governments enter into a covenant with one another and derive the bulk of their power from their own constitutions. d. today, no purely confederal system of government exists.

it is a system of governance whereby the subnational governments are subject to the control of the autonomous national government.

What personal barrier is most often cited as being a serious impediment to participating in local politics? Select one: a. Lack of information b. Registration and voting times c. Work conditions d. Not caring

lack of information

A public vote to approve a measure placed on the ballot by a state legislature or local government is a Select one: a. popular referendum. b. legislative referendum. c. legislative initiative. d. popular initiative.

legislative referendum.

Legislative districts where district lines are drawn so that people from a specific minority group comprise a majority of voters in the district are called Select one: a. minority districts. b. majority districts. c. majority-minority districts. d. racial-representational districts.

majority-minority districts

Which two states lead the nation in the percentage of adults over 18 who voted in the 2012 presidential election? Select one: a. Maine and California b. Minnesota and Texas c. Texas and Hawaii d. Minnesota and Wisconsin

minnesota and Wisconsin

Initiated laws passed by voters Select one: a. take precedence over any other laws passed by the legislature. b. cannot be challenged in court, but must be "reviewed, rewritten, and repassed" if any contradictions arise. c. must be consistent with the state and the U.S. constitutions, like any other law. d. must go through a waiting period before they are formally enacted.

must be consistent with the state and the U.S. constitutions, like any other law.

The average citizen is far more likely to vote in a Select one: a. national election. b. local election. c. city election. d. state election.

national election

Until the 1920s, several states permitted _____ the right to vote in nonfederal elections. Select one: a. noncitizens b. children under the age of 18 c. the mentally insane d. nonresident aliens

non citizens

To qualify a measure for the statewide ballot in large states like California, proponents Select one: a. need only to pay a qualifying fee, rather than collect individual signatures by petition. b. present their measure to a panel of judges, who decide whether or not to allow it. c. simply need to file a request and wait a required period of one year for a review. d. often resort to hiring firms that are paid to collect signatures.

often resort to hiring firms that are paid to collect signatures.

The _____ tends to be even greater in state and local elections than in national elections. Select one: a. role of campaign money b. number of TV ads c. participation gap d. gender gap

participation gap

Which factor more than any other drives voter choice in local partisan contests? Select one: a. Health of the local economy b. Party affiliation c. Local tax policies d. Interest group endorsements

party affiliation

The strength of an individual's attachment to a party is measured by one's Select one: a. party affiliation. b. political ideology. c. party identification. d. political affection.

party identification

The "tripartite" structure of parties includes all of the following EXCEPT Select one: a. party-in-the-electorate. b. party-in-activism. c. party-in-government. d. party organization.

party-in-activism.

A(n) _____ is a public veto of legislation. Select one: a. direct initiative b. indirect initiative c. popular referendum d. legislative referendum

popular referendum

According to a recent study, state economic and social policies Select one: a. reflect the opinions of wealthy and middle-class people more than the opinions of the less affluent. b. that reduce spending on education are the result of political apathy among students. c. reflect the fact that Republicans tend to tax and spend more than Democrats. d. lead to greater participation bias among older and younger citizens.

reflect the opinions of wealthy and middle-class people more than the opinions of the less affluent.

A federalist system refers to Select one: a. power centralized in an executive branch. b. shared power between executive, legislative, and judicial branches. c. power centralized in subnational governments. d. shared power between national and subnational governments.

shared power between national and subnational governments.

State and local governments Select one: a. have been given less and less jurisdiction over policy issues by the U.S. Supreme Court. b. spend about 17 cents of every dollar generated by the American economy. c. hold less than 5 percent of all elected positions in America. d. administer a minority of civil and criminal cases each year.

spend about 17 cents of every dollar generated by the American economy.

In contrast to the views of the founding fathers, political scientists like E.E. Schattschneider often describe political parties as Select one: a. nothing more than large factions driven by selfish motives destructive of the common good. b. superior political organizations serving to enhance democracy. c. weak and insignificant, having no impact on the political system. d. inferior to interest groups in democratic governance.

superior political organizations serving to enhance democracy

In May of 1787, Congress called for a Constitutional Convention because Select one: a. it wanted to scrap the Articles of Confederation. b. tensions between rival sovereigns were wearing thin. c. it was appalled by the ineffectualness of the sovereign, subnational governments under the Articles of Confederation. d. it wanted to be granted the power to enter into war with France.

tensions between rival sovereigns were wearing thin.

Collective action theory predicts Select one: a. that groups seeking economic benefits from governments are more likely to remain organized and well funded than groups seeking public benefits. b. that the efforts of a group are more political than the individual actions of many. c. that political parties will serve as the main driving force in politics because of their joint efforts. d. that people working together can legitimately override an opposing political party.

that groups seeking economic benefits from governments are more likely to remain organized and well funded than groups seeking public benefits.

The large sums of money spent on ballot measure campaigns gave rise to concerns about the perspective that says paid political consultants are actors who create the demand for their services by advocating their own proposals for ballot measures. This perspective is known as Select one: a. the initiative industrial complex. b. the guns for hire mechanism. c. Californication. d. special interest domination.

the initiative industrial complex.

Former California governor, Arnold Schwarzenegger, was elected in 2003 as a result of Select one: a. the impeachment of former governor Gray Davis. b. a change to California's constitution in 2002. c. a plea from Hollywood for fairer representation. d. the recall process.

the recall process

One direct effect of having one-sided elections is Select one: a. more campaign activity. b. higher turnout. c. unnoticed elections. d. a loss of congressional seats.

unnoticed elections

When economic interest groups spend in favor of their own initiatives, they Select one: a. are mostly successful in getting their measures passed. b. usually lose. c. have a greater advantage over broad-based citizen groups. d. tend to win, even if voters show clear opposition for their measures.

usually lose

The proportion of citizens who may vote and who are not disenfranchised by a state's prohibition due to a felony conviction is called Select one: a. voting-age population. b. voting-eligible population. c. voting-enabled population. d. voting-entitled population.

voting-eligible population

Controversial issues placed for a public vote via the initiative or referendum process by one political party or group, with the goal of dividing candidates and supporters of a rival party or group are known as Select one: a. wedge issues. b. split-ticket items. c. partisan grudges. d. policy divisions.

wedge issues


Set pelajaran terkait

Transcription and Translation quiz

View Set

Chapter 4 - Learning About Careers

View Set

basic vehicle technologies 2:safety

View Set

Chapter 14 - Prioritization, Delegation, and Assignment

View Set

Chapter 1 - Chapter 10 Statistics

View Set

ISM Module two and three (study this one)

View Set

Napoleon Video Questions Parts 3 and 4

View Set