Flight School Review UH-60M

If a course reversal is published on an IAP, when would it not be authorized?

"No PT" appears on the plate. Radar vectoring is provide to the final approach course A holding pattern is published in lieu of a procedure turn A timed approach is executed from a holding fix Otherwise directed by ATC

In regards to Multiship Operations, when the flight is formed, trail will call ____________.

"SADDLE, # of aircraft in flight and FENCE OUT"

After the LDI is activated and the BACKUP pump turns on and the #1 T/R SERVO and the #2 T/R SERVO ON advisory light illuminates, if the Leak continues, what happens next?

#1 PUMP light comes on, deactivating LDI, the B/U PUMP is now pressurizing the #1 system. Therefore, the #1 T/R SERVO light and the #2 T/R SERVO ON advisory light goes off.

What is the central component to the AFCS system (where the AFCS systems gain their information/signals to operate?

#1 and #2 Flight Control Computers (FCCs)

What controls electronic coupling (what is it a function of)?

#2 FCC

What system monitors Trim?

#2 FCC

Fuel boost pumps shall be off except as required by emergency procedures and the following limitations. Fuel boost pumps shall be on when operating with JP-4 or equivalent (as specified in Operator's Manual):

(1) At 5000 feet pressure altitude and above. (2) When operating in crossfeed with JP-4 at any altitude. Due to fuel volatility, when converting from JP-4 to JP-5/JP-8, three helicopter refueling operations must be completed before performing operations with fuel boost pumps off.

SAS inoperative airspeed limits:

(1) One SAS inoperative - 170 KIAS. (2) Two SAS inoperative - 150 KIAS. (3) Two SAS inoperative in IMC - 140 KIAS.

Hydraulic system inoperative limits:

(1) One hydraulic system inoperative - 170 KIAS. (2) Two hydraulic systems inoperative - 150 KIAS. (3) Two hydraulic systems inoperative in IMC - 140 KIAS.

Describe Type 1.

(Most Dangerous) - aviator does not perceive any indication of spatial disorientation. He does not think anything is wrong - and may fail to correct the disorientation resulting in a fatal aircraft mishap.

Common Standards for Hover

(a) Heading ±10 degrees (±20 degrees for AFCS off) (b) Altitude, ±3 feet (±5 feet for OGE). * (c) Do not allow drift to exceed 3 feet (10 feet for OGE hover). * (d) Maintain ground track within 3 feet. (e) Maintain a constant rate of movement appropriate for existing conditions. Note. These standards (*) require that the other crewmembers announce drift and altitude changes before exceeding the standard.

What basic autopilot functions does FPS provide below 50kts? Above 50kts?

*<50 KTS* Pitch - ATT Hold Roll - ATT Hold Yaw - HDG Hold *>50 KTS* Pitch - A/S / ATT Hold Roll - ATT Hold Yaw - HDG Hold or Turn Coordination

What activity requires 48 hours of restriction?

*A*nesthesia - general, spinal, epidural.

Which activities require 12 hours of restriction?

*ASIA* *A*nesthesia - local *S*imulator sickness - 12 hours after full recovery *I*mmunizations - if no adverse reactions *A*lcohol - and no residual effects.

DUAL-ENGINE FAILURE

*AUTOROTATE*

What activity requires 72 hours of restriction?

*B*lood donation greater than 200cc. Cannot be regular blood donors. (More than 2 times per year)

What are some ways to manage stress?

*CAV-L* *C*hange your thinking (positive self talk) *A*void Stressors *V*enting Stess (talk, physical exercise) *L*earn to Relax (deep breathing, meditation, hobbies)

Can visibility minimums be reduced?

*Category A* visibility minimums may be reduced by 1/2, but not less than 1/4 mile or metric equivalent. Not authorized if noted on the approach chart, or for Copter approaches.

What are the 4 types of mixing the MMU provides, what do they compensate for, and what input does it provide?

*Collective to Pitch* - Compensates for the rotor downwash on the stabilator. Provides forward input to the rotor as collective is increased and aft as it is decreased. *Collective to Roll* - Compensates for translating tendency. Provides left input to rotor as collective is increased, right as it is decreased. *Collective to Yaw* - Compensates for torque effect. Increases TR pitch as collective is increased, and decreases TR pitch as collective is decreased. *Yaw to Pitch* - Compensates for the vertical thrust component of the canted TR. Provides aft input to rotor as TR pitch is increased, and forward as TR pitch is decreased.

What are the physiological (self imposed) stressors?

*DEATH* *D*rugs *E*xhaustion - lack of rest or physical condition. *A*lcohol - 1 ounce of pure alcohol = 2000' PA *T*obacco - Adds 5,000' to physiological altitude, and decreases night vision by up to 20%. *H*ypoglycemia and poor nutrition.

Lockout - Steps

*ENG POWER CONT lever - Pull down and advance full forward while maintaining downward pressure, then adjust to set NR as required.*

The Emergency Response Method (using the mnemonic FADEC-F) is defined as:

*F*-Fly the aircraft. Attain a safe rotor speed, attitude, altitude, speed , and heading (RAASH) *A*-Alert the crew to the problem *D*-Diagnose the emergency *E*-Execute EP steps IAW FRCs (underlined, immediate action steps from memory) *C*-Communicate the plan of action to the crew and supporting agency (ATC, wingman, etc.) *F*-Fly the aircraft

During prolonged ground operation of the backup pump using MIL-H-83282 or MIL-H-5606 with the rotor system static, the backup pump is limited to the following temperature/time/cooldown limits because of hydraulic fluid overheating:

*FAT °C | Operation | Cooldown* -54°-32° | Unlimited | - - 33°-38° | 24min | 72min 39°-52° | 16min | 48 min

What are the functions of the DEC?

*FT (TINT) HHOT* *F*ault indication through the TQ indicator. *T*rims HMU output through the torque motor based on: ___________ *T*GT limiting at 879±9 Dual Engine or 903±10 when other engine is below 50% Q (DEC, sooner with EDECU). *I*sochronous NP Governing to maintain NP a the reference set by the pilot. *N*P reference from the cockpit via the Eng Speed Trim Switch (INCR/DECR) from 96-100%. *T*orque matching/Load sharing increases power on the low engine up to 3% above the reference. ____________ *H*ot Start Preventer tells ODV to shutoff fuel when TGT 900°C,NG<60%, NP<50%. *H*istory Counter Signal *O*verspeed Protection at 120±1%. *T*ransient Droop Compensation. 4-1 improvement to reduce transient droop.

What are the functions of the GCU?

*FUC VOU* *F*eader Fault - when there is a short circuit, the generator is disabled. *U*nder Frequency Protection - during ground operations only, it is disabled by the WOW switch. It disables gens below 93%-95%. *C*urrent Limiting - If there is excessive current demand to the generator, it will be disabled. *V*oltage Regulation - regulates to 115/200 VAC. *O*ver Voltage - if output voltage rises above 125 VAC, the generator will be disabled. *U*nder Voltage - if the output voltage drops below 100+/-5 VAC, the generator is disabled.

What are the functions of the ODV?

*HOPS*(Hot 12 120 Spit) *H*ot start prevention (shuts of fuel when activated by hot start preventer) *O*verspeed Protection (limits fuel flow when signal is sent from DEC) *P*urges main fuel manifold and nozzles at shutdown to prevent coking. *S*equencing of main fuel for engine starting and operation.

Describe a leak in the #2 system

- A leak is detected and the RSVR 2 LOW caution will appear. - LDI isolates the Pilot Assist Area (BOOST SERVO OFF, SAS OFF, FPS FAIL, and TRIM FAIL cautions will appear). - If the leak continues, the HYD PUMP 2 FAIL caution will appear, and the backup hydraulic pump will come on. - The transfer valve in the #2 transfer module will move over, the #2 hydraulic pump will be isolated, and the backup pump will pressurize the #2 system. - Hydraulic logic will restore the pilot assist area. - If the leak stops there, the pilot must do a power on reset to get back FPS and TRIM. - If the leak continues, the BACK-UP RSVR LOW caution will appear and the pilot must isolate the #2 PRIM SERVO. - If the pilot does not isolate the servo, all of the hydraulic fluid will be lost through the backup pump, and the backup and #2 systems will be inoperative.

What are the stages of hypoxic hypoxia and what altitude and oxygen saturation is associated with each stage?

*ICDC* *I*ndifferent (0-10,000')(90-98% O2 Saturation) - Decrease in night vision at 4,000'. *C*ompensatory (10,000-15,000')(80-89% O2 Saturation) - The body starts to compensate for the effects of oxygen deficiency (increase in respiration, heart rate, etc). Symptoms include: drowsiness, poor judgement, impaired coordination, and impaired efficiency. *D*isturbance (15,000-20,000)(70-79% O2 Saturation) - The body can no longer compensate for the O2 deficiency. Symptoms include: fatigue, sleepiness, dizziness, headache, breathlessness, euphoria, loss of senses, slow mental process, change in personality, or cyanosis (blue skin). *C*ritical (>20,000')(60-69% O2 Saturation) - Within 3-5 minutes judgement and coordination deteriorate. Symptoms include: mental confusion, dizziness, incapacitation, unconsciousness, and death.

FLIGHT CONTROL/ROTOR SYSTEM VIBRATIONS OR MALFUNCTIONS IN FLIGHT

*LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE*

FUEL 1 BYPASS + FUEL 2 BYPASS Cautions appear

*LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE*

FUEL PRESS 1 LOW + FUEL PRESS 2 LOW Cautions appear

*LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE*

MAIN TRANSMISSION FAILURE

*LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE*

HYD PUMP 1 FAIL AND HYD PUMP 2 FAIL

*LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE* (Restrict control movements to moderate rate)

The steering commands derived from the navigation and flight instruments allow FPS to perform what tasks with a coupled Flight Director?

*MAAM MA* *M*aintain a desired heading *A*cquire a selected course *A*cquire and track localizer and glide slope for ILS approach *M*aintain fixed altitude and/or airspeed *M*ake a programmed accel/decel and climb/descent to a predetermined airspeed or altitude. *A*cquire and track an FMS route.

When is an alternate required if you are filing IFR to a destination airfield?

*MWR* M - Navaids are un*m*onitored W - *Predominant* *w*eather is forecast to be less than 400-1 (ceiling and vis) above the weather planning minimums for the approach to be flown. R - *R*adar is required. NOTE - Alternate is not required if descent from en route minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing can be made in VFR conditions.

During IFR planning, what criteria must the alternate airfield meet?

*MWRGAS* M - Navigation aids must be *m*onitored Wx - *Worst* weather is forecast to be greater than or equal to 400-1 above the weather planning minimums for the approach to be flown. OR descent from enroute minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach and landing can be made in VFR conditions. R - *R*adar can't be required for the approach. G- GPS is required for the approach A - It can't be *A* N/A in FLIP S - *S*urface based class B, C, D, or E must exist and be in effect.

What are the 3 windings in the Alternator?

*NIP* *N*g signal to the cockpit (green) *I*gnition power to the exciters during start (black) *P*ower for DEC (yellow)

What are thy body's responses to stress?

*PEB-C* *P*hysical - heart rate, blood pressure, breathing. *E*motional - anxiety, irritability, depression *B*ehavioral - work performance, conflict, violence, suicide *C*ognitive - concentration, judgement, attention, impaired memory

What are the types of stressors?

*PEP-C* *P*sychosocial - life events, work, illness, family issues. *E*nvironmental - Altitude, speed, temperature, cockpit design, IMC *P*hysiological - self imposed stressors (DEATH...see next question) *C*ognitive - our perception of the problem.

Describe the fuel flow through the engine?

*PFHLO - Path Finders Have Little Ovaries* From the low pressure fuel *p*ump, to the fuel *f*ilter, *H*MU, *l*iquid to liquid cooler, *O*DV, and finally to the fuel nozzles.

Which activities require 24 hours of restriction?

*PHDS* *P*lasma donation *H*ypobaric chamber runs above 25,000'. *D*ecompression experience if cabin altitude will exceed 10,000'. *S*cuba Diving/Hyperbaric Chambers:

What are the functions of the HMU?

*PM CAN VDTO* *P*umps fuel at a high pressure (400-832 psi, 300 psi idle) for better atomization. *M*eters fuel via the LDS, PAS, and DEC (Torque Motor) inputs. *C*ollective pitch compensation through the LDS. When collective is moved, Ng is reset for immediate Np response. *A*ccel/decel fuel flow limiting to prevent compressor stalls, engine damage and flameout. *N*g limiting (will occur before TGT limiting in extreme cold weather) and Ng shutdown (at 110% Ng). *V*ariable Geometry Positioning of the inlet guide vanes for optimum performance. *D*EC Lockout via the PAS to bypass torque motor inputs from the DEC. *T*orque Motor input to trim Ng output. *O*pens the vapor vent for fuel priming.

What are the physical factors associated with dynamic rollover? Human factors?

*Physical * 1) Main Rotor Thrust 2) CG 3) Tail Rotor Thrust 4) Crosswind Component 5) Ground Surface 6) Sloped Landing Area 7) In some aircraft the presence of a low fuel condition that causes the CG to move upward. *Human IIIFL* 1) Inattention 2) Inexperience 3) Inappropriate Control Input 4) Failure to Take Timely Corrective Action 5) Loss of Visual Reference

What are the 5 functions of the Stabilator?

*SCALP* *S*teamlines w/ rotor downwash at low airspeeds (below 30 knots) to minimize nose up attitude. *C*ollective Coupling to minimize pitch attitude excursions due to collective inputs. *A*ngle of Incidence decreases above 30 knots to improve static stability. *L*ateral Sideslip to Pitch coupling to reduce susceptibility to gusts. Stabilator goes up for nose right, and down for nose left. *P*itch Rate Feedback to improve dynamic stability. Dampens pitch excursions due to turbulence or "G" forces.

A "Fence Out" check consists of the following items:

*WAILMR* *W*eapons armed safe as required *A*SE set as desired *I*FF/Transponder modes 1,2,3,4 on as briefed. *L*ighting as briefed *M*PD/MFD/EDM configured (as appropriate) *R*ecorder on (if installed)

What additional reports are required to be made to ATC or FSS without specific ATC Request?

*WHAM SLUT V* *W*eather conditions which have not been forecast or hazardous conditions that have been forecast. *H*olding (time/altitude when reaching fix, and when departing a fix....not required for instrument training with military terminal facility with radar service) *A*ltitude change *M*issed approach (include request) *S*afety of flight information *L*oss of nav/comm ability *U*nable to climb/descent 500 FPM *T*AS change of 5% or 10 knots from FP (whichever is greater) *V*FR on top altitude change

The altitude hold mode will cause the helicopter to maintain altitude within?

+/- 50 feet

The standard for LZ arrival in the SOP is ________ from the GTC intended landing point, ________ from the air movement table touchdown time, ________ from the planned landing heading.

+/- 50 meters, +/- 30 seconds, +/- 15 degrees

At what temperature does a torque ratio for an engine's ATF equal its ETF?

+35 C and above

LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL If during cruise flight a right yaw becomes uncontrollable:

- *AUTOROTATE* - Maintain airspeed at or above 80 KIAS* - *ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF (during deceleration when intended point of landing is assured)*

SINGLE-ENGINE FAILURE

- *Achieve safe single engine airspeed (if possible)* - *External cargo/stores - Jettison (if required)*

FIRES: APU/ELECTRICAL/ENGINE If ENG EMER OFF Handle/APU fire T-handle illuminates in flight:

- *Airspeed adjust to 80 KIAS or less* - *ENG POWER CONT lever - OFF* - *ENG EMER OFF handle/APU fire T-handle - Pull* (as appropriate) - *FIRE EXTGH switch - MAIN/RESERVE as required* *LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE*

FIRES: APU/ELECTRICAL/ENGINE If an electrical fire is present:

- *BATT and GENERATORS switches - OFF* *LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE*

LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL If at low airspeed or hover a right yaw becomes uncontrollable:

- *Collective - Reduce* - *ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF (5 to 10 feet above touchdown)*

LIGHTNING STRIKE

- *ENG POWER CONT levers - Adjust* (as required to control NP and NR) *LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE*

FLIGHT CONTROL/ROTOR SYSTEM VIBRATIONS OR MALFUNCTIONS ON THE GROUND

- *ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF* - *ENG FUEL SYS selectors - OFF* - *FUEL BOOST PUMP switches - OFF*

LOSS OF TAIL ROTOR CONTROL If an uncontrolled left yaw develops during low airspeed or hover:

- *ENG POWER CONT levers - Retard* - *Collective - Increase* (NR will decrease) - *ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF (5 to 10 feet above touchdown)* - *Collective - Adjust for landing*

As a FAC 1, RL 1, UH-60 NVG PC, what are your semiannual flying hour requirements and what other requirements do you have?

- 9 hours(min 6 in A/C) - maintain currency, annual NVG evaluation. ATP

Describe a leak in the #1 system.

- A leak is detected and the RSVR 1 LOW Caution appears - LDI isolates the #1 TAIL RTR SERVO, turns on the backup pump, and pressurizes the #2 TAIL RTR SERVO. - If the leak continues, the HYD PUMP 1 FAIL caution will appear, the transfer valve in the #1 transfer module will move over, the #1 hydraulic pump will be isolated and the backup pump will pressurize the #1 system. - Hydraulic logic will automatically restore the #1 TAIL RTR SERVO. - If the leak continues, the BACK-UP RSVR LOW caution will appear and the pilot must isolate the #1 PRIM SERVO. - If the pilot does not isolate the servo, all of the hydraulic fluid will be lost through the backup pump, and the backup and #1 systems will be inoperative.

As a single ship, taking off from a LZ behind enemy lines, before reaching 50 KTS, you get the stabilator auto mode failure audio, master caution, and stabilator caution light. What are your actions?

- Cyclic slew up switch as necessary - Auto control reset -If automatic control is not available, manual slew to 0 degrees above 40 kts and full down below 40 kts. - Land as soon as practicable. - If manual control is not available, fly the placard airspeeds. - Land as soon as practicable.

Explain the four types of Hypoxia:

- Hypoxic: lack of oxygen in the air due to partial pressure difference(high altitudes) - Hypemic: lack of oxygen carrying capacity of the blood (due to smoking-carbon monoxide has a 200-300 times greater affinity than oxygen to attach itself to the hemoglobin) - Histotoxic: lack of oxygen carrying capacity of the tissues(alcohol, drugs, both over the counter, prescibed or illegal) - Stagnant: pooling of the blood due to medical factors or G forces(heart condition, arteriosclerosis)

ENGINE CONTROL MALFUNCTION - (DEC/EDECU) LOW SIDE FAILURE

- If an engine control unit fails to the low side and the other engine is unable to provide sufficient torque, % RPM R will decrease If % RPM R continues to decrease and single engine flight is not possible: - *ENG POWER CONT lever (low Q/TGT engine) - LOCKOUT* (Maintain Q approximately 10% below the other engine)

As a FAC 1, RL 1, UH-60 NVG PI,(non-designated position) what are your semiannual flying hour requirements and what other requirements would you have?

- None. - Maintain currency, annual NVG evaluation. ATP

What are the countermeasures and mitigation techniques for SD?

- Understand risk factors and plan for preconditions before flight. - Employ good crew coordination - Assess mission environment - Don't attempt visual flight below WX mins or areas of deteriorating weather. - Maintain instrument proficiency and initiate prompt IIMC procedures if needed. - Trust your instruments and make them read right. - If SD is suspected or recognized, reference instruments with a good cross check and attempt to ignore conflicting sensory inputs. - Announce SD and transfer the controls.

When do the ENG ANTI-ICE ON advisories appear?

- When the ENG ANTI-ICE is on - During low power settings until Ng reaches 88-92%. - In the event of an electrical failure the start bleed valve will open and the advisories will appear.

For what other reasons will an aircraft need to be reweighed?

1) Overhaul or major airframe repair 2) Modifications of 1% or more of AC's basic weight are applied. 3) Any modification or component replacement (including painting) for which weight and CG can't be accurately computed. 4) Weight and CG data records are suspected to be in error.

Task 1000 - Participate in a Crew Mission Briefing.

1) PC will actively participate in and acknowledge an understanding of DA Form 5484. 2) PC will conduct or supervise an aircrew mission briefing using the crew briefing FRC. 3) Crewmembers will acknowledge a complete understanding of the briefing.

Task 1054 - Select Landing Zone/Pickup Zone/Holding Area

1) Perform map, photo or visual recon. 2) Determine that the LZ/PZ/HA is suitable for operations, and provide accurate detailed info to supported unit. 3) Confirm suitability on initial approach.

Task 1162 - Perform Emergency Egress

1) Perform or describe using emergency exits on the A/C per the -10. 2) Perform or describe the emergency egress of a pilot, NCM, or passengers from seats. 3) Perform or describe the emergency engine shutdown of the A/C per the -10. 4) Assist in marshaling passengers to designated assembly area. 5) Perform or describe duties as briefed in crew mission briefing.

Task 1024 - Perform Before-Starting-Engine through Before-Leaving-Helicopter checks

1) Perform procedures and checks per the -10/CL and HIT check procedures. 2) Enter appropriate information on the -12, -13, -13-1, and HIT log. 3) View exceedance data as required.

Task 1038 - Perform Hovering Flight

1) Perform smooth controlled ascent to hover. 2) Perform smooth controlled descent with minimum drift at touchdown. 3) For coupled hover, engage the appropriate hover modes. Note: Air taxi is the preferred method for ground movement (< 100' AGL).

Task 1178 - Perform Precision Approach

1) Perform the approach 2) ILS - intercept and maintain localizer course ± 2.5° of centerline and glide slope ± 0.5° of glide slope center. 3) PAR - make immediate altitude and heading changes issued by ATC and maintain heading ± 5°; for final approach, maintain glide slope as directed by ATC. 4) Comply with DA or DH for the approach. 5) Perform the correct Missed Approach Procedure as published or per ATC instructions upon reaching the MAP if landing cannot be completed per AR 95-1. 6) When coupled flight is selected, program FD/DCP for the appropriate approach and monitor for correct aircraft response.

The normal transfer fuel flow rate per tank should be between ___ to ___ pounds per minute in the "MANUAL MODE".

20-38 lbs. per minute

NP1 / NP2 AVOID OPERATIONS IN ___ - ___% AND ___ - ___% RANGE EXCEPT DURING START AND SHUTDOWN

20-40% 60-90%

The altitude hold mode synchronizes on the engagement altitude for vertical rates up to?

200 fpm, for vertical rates up to- 1,000 to 10,000, AGL Airspeeds from 70 to 150 KIAS

What is the minimum altitude for unaided night flights?

200' AHO (except during landing and takeoff).

How far out should you contact Class C airport?

20NM

What is the cant of the tail rotor? How much total lifting force does is supply in a hover?

20° Cant which provides 2.5% of the total lifting force in a hover.

UH60M Max Gross Weight

22,000 lbs

External lift missions above ___ pounds can only be flown with cargo hook loads above ___ pounds and up to ____ pounds.

22,000 lbs 8,000 lbs 9,000 lbs

Weights above ___ lbs. are limited to ferry missions.

22,000 lbs.

UH-60M external lift mission - max weight

23,500 lbs

what are the two tank capacities of the extended range fuel systems?

230 gallons/ 450 gallons

The 1ST and 2ND STAGE servo switches will not shut off unless there is at least ____ psi in the remaining system?

2350

What amount of time is considered a reset day, and how often should individuals be scheduled for one?

24 consecutive hours in which no duty related tasks are performed. Every 14 days.

How long could the Backup Pump run in the summer when the temperature is 35 degrees C?

24 minutes

ESSS/ERFS helicopter on ferry mission (Airworthiness release required) max weight

24,500 lbs

What is the emergency guard frequency for the UHF?

243.00

What is the fastest and slowest speed that the rescue hoist can reel in?

250 fpm(fast), 125 fpm(slow)

How many feet are in the rescue hoist?

250 ft.

When does the APU ACCUM LOW advisory appear?

2600 PSI

Windshield anti-ice check shall not be done when FAT is over _____

27°C

The APU accumulator pressure should be at ___ psi before attempting an APU start?

2800 psi

How many dome lights are provided for cabin lighting?

3

How many first aid kits are installed in the UH-60?

3

How many bleed ports are on the engine and what do they do?

3 One provides air to the anti-ice start bleed valve and the other two provide air to the pneumatic system and engine inlet anti-ice.

How many first aid kits are in the helicopter? Fire extinguishers? Crash axes?

3 First Aid Kits 2 Fire Extinguishers 1 Crash Axe

What is the muscle for AVCS?

3 Force Generators (FGs)

At how many G's will the inertial reels on the pilot and copilot seats lock?

3 Gs

What is the muscle for Trim?

3 Trim Actuators (Roll, Yaw, Collective) and 1 Trim Servo (Pitch)

How much forward tilt is in the main transmission?

3 degrees

What do 3 digits indicate on a MTR? 4 digits?

3 numbers indicate that the MTR includes at least one segment above 1500' AGL. 4 numbers indicate MTRs with no segment above 1500' AGL.

A minimum or ___ hours semi-annually of Hood, Weather, or SFTS "W" time is required for each aviator, of which ____ will be flown in the aircraft.

3, 1.5

The eight net restraint rings in the cargo compartment are rated at ____ pound capacity in any direction.

3,500

In regards to Mission Planning, the RP should be ______ from the LZ and within ________ from the LZ heading.

3-8km, 15 degrees

In regards to Mission Planning, the SP should be _______ from the departure point and aligned within a _______ arc from the course.

3-8km, 30 degree

The piston movement on the Hyd Pump Module can be over up to how much in the blue(red on some pumps)"Overfill" zone and be acceptable?

3/8 inch (If beyond, bleed off fluid on the twist cap on module)

If APU OIL HOT caution appears a ___ minute cooling period is required, before checking oil level.

30

The M130 chaff dispenser is capable of dispensing ____flares?

30

The M130 flare dispenser is capable of dispensing ___ flares?

30

The main transmission chip detector is connected to a time delay relay, which will energize when a chip has been present for ___ seconds?

30

Engine Oil Temp (T)

30 Minute Limit: 135-150°C Continuous: -20-135°C

How long can the gearboxes run without oil?

30 Minutes

Bank angles shall be limited to ___ when a PRI SERVO FAIL caution appears.

30 degrees

How far is the instrument panel tilted back?

30 degrees

The pilot and copilot airspeed indicators can be off by as much as ___ knots during high power climbs at low airspeeds (less than 50 KIAS).

30 knot difference between the two

How long can you fly at 12,000ft w/o oxygen?

30 min

How long can your helicopter fly over fog?

30 min

How long will the intermediate gearbox run at cruise flight with a complete loss of fluid?

30 min

How long can the main transmission run at cruise flight with a loss of all oil?

30 minutes

How long could we remain in the nose up attitude?

30 minutes

The main gearbox may be operated up to ___ minutes at a time with pressure fluctuations when the helicopter is known to be at a nose-up attitude (i.e., slope landings or hover with extreme aft CG).

30 minutes

If the APU OIL TEMP HI caution light illuminates, the APU should be shut down immediately. How long should you wait before checking the oil level in the APU?

30 minutes (If ok, then the APU may be restarted)

At slope angle of 10° an indicated oil pressure of ___ to ___ psi is normal; and at 15° slope angle, a pressure in the range of ___ to ___ is normal due to pitching of the helicopter.

30, 35 10, 15

How many flashes per minute are provided with the switch in UPPER or LOWER?

30-40

In regards to Multiship Operations, when executing a lead change lead should make a heading change _______ and departs the formation. He manuevers the aircraft to a minimum of _____ rotor disks to the announced (clear) side. After turning parallel to the flight, lead should slow _____.

30-90 degrees, 8, 10 KIAS

For planning purposes, each combat troop will be considered ____ lbs to account for additionally carried equipment.

300

Maximum weight is further limited by cargo floor maximum capacity of ___ pounds per square foot. Refer to Chapter 6.

300

The system is designed to restrict fuel flow to how many gallons per min. during pressure refueling?

300

Anytime the visibility and/or ceiling approach minimum briefed weather conditions, the PC or AMC will immediately initiate plans to adjust the mission under the following conditions: The flight descend > ____ during the day or _____ at night from the planned altitude in order to maintain cloud clearance, and/or slows > ______ during the day, or > _____ during Night/NVG fromt he planned airspeed due to visibility.

300', 150', 20 KIAS, 10 KIAS

How much pressure do the hydraulic systems supply?

3000 PSI

At what psi do the hydraulic pumps operate?

3000 psi

Maneuvering limitations with a sling load are limited to a maximum of ___ angle of bank in forward flight. Side flight is limited by bank angle and is decreased as airspeed increases. Rearward flight with sling load is limited to ___ knots.

30° 35

Maneuvering limitations with a rescue hoist load are limited to a maximum of ___ angle of bank in forward flight. Side flight is limited by bank angle and is decreased as airspeed increases. Rearward flight with hoist load is limited to ___ knots. Rate of descent is limited to ______.

30° 35 1,000 FPM

How many possible codes are there for MODE 1?

32

What is the useable capacity of the main tanks by Closed Circuit?

356

What is the useable capacity of the main tanks by Pressure?

359

What is the useable capacity of the main tanks by gravity refueling?

360

What is the capacity of the fuel tanks? What type of refueling will allow for the most fuel to be added to the tanks?

360 Gallons (180/tank) Gravity refuel will allow the most fuel to be added.

The impending bypass indicator has a thermal lockout, which prevents the button from popping out below ___ degrees?

38 C

Minimum weather (ceiling and visibility) that must be reported to legally enter a core surface area of controlled airspace?

3SM 1000' ceiling

Class D VFR and Cloud Clearance

3SM 1000ft CIG Standard Cloud Clearance

Class B VFR and Cloud Clearances

3SM Clear of clouds

Class C VFR and Cloud Clearance

3SM Standard Cloud Clearance

Class E VFR and cloud clearance below 10,000ft

3SM Standard Cloud Clearance

What is the tilt in the main transmission?

3° forward tilt

How many postitons are on each PCL?

4 (OFF, IDLE, FLY, and LOCKOUT)

The engine is divided up into how many modules?

4 (cold, hot, power turbine and accessory sections)

What are the dimensions of Federal (Victor) Airways, and what airspace is it classified as?

4 NM either side of center line. Extends from 1200' AGL to 18,000' MSL. It is Class E airspace.

The four cabin ceiling tiedown fittings have a limited load capability of ____ pounds

4,000 lbs

Sideward/rearward flight limits. Hovering in winds greater than __ knots (__ knots with ESSS) from the sides or rear is prohibited. Sideward/Rearward flight into the wind, when combined with windspeed, shall not exceed __ knots (__ knots with ESSS).

45, 35, 45, 35

(Transmission) oil pressure should remain steady and should be in the ____ - ____ range to ensure that when fluctuations occur, they remain in the acceptable range...

45-60 psi

Minimum rotor brake pressure for engine start is ___ psi. Maximum rotor brake pressure for engine start is ___ psi.

450 psi 690 psi

What is the wattage for the searchlight?

450 watts (You shall not use the IR filter with the 450 watt lamp)

As a FAC 1, RL 1, UH-60 aviator, what are your semianual flying hour requirements?

48 hours

From how many directions must cargo be restrained according to the "restraint criteria" in chapter 6?

4: Forward- 12 Gs, Rear- 3 Gs, Lateral- 8 Gs, Vertical- 3 Gs

How many MAIN XMSN ASSY chip detectors are there for the UH-60?

5 (CHIP INPUT MDL-LH, CHIP INPUT MDL-RH, CHIP ACCESS MDL-LH, CHIP ACCESS MDL-RH, or CHIP MAIN MDL SUMP)

How many IR sensors are located on the helicopter for fire detection?

5 - 2 in each engine compartment and 1 in the APU compartment.

Engine Oil Pressure (P)

5 Minute Limit: 100-120 psi Normal: 26-100 psi Idle: 22-26 psi

What is the normal remain within distance for a Copter approach?

5 NM

Class E VFR and Cloud Clearance above 10,000ft

5 SM 1000 below 1000 above 1 SM horizontal

Crew members should ensure that their ALSE gear is turned in to the ALSE shop NLT ______ prior to its expiration.

5 days

In regards to Multiship Operations, lead will provide a minimum of _____ warning prior to departure.

5 seconds

During takeoffs, in the speed range of 40 to 80 KIAS, ___ to ___ KIAS airspeed fluctuations may be observed in the pilot and copilots airspeed indicators.

5 to 10

Maneuvers entered from a low power setting may result in transient droop of ___ NR or greater.

5%

How much is max torque decreased with the heater on?

5% (7.5% with Auxiliary Cabin Heater)

How much control authority does SAS have? What if one SAS fails?

5% each for a total of 10%. If one SAS fails, the other will double it's gain, but only to it's max of 5% control authority.

The 17 tiedown fittings installed on the cargo floor can restrain a ____ pound load in any direction

5,000 lbs

In regards to Mission Planning, ACPs should be placed _______ apart.

5-20km

Above what airspeed will the use of rain repellent on the windshield improve visibility?

50 KIAS

What is the minimum distance can you smoke near an aircraft?

50 ft

What is the radio range and broadcast reception on the ADF?

50 miles or line of sight

Minimum height for overflight of wires is _______.

50'

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the IAS (airspeed hold) mode?

50-150 KIAS

What are the SVFR minimums required to recover at Lowe at night?

500 1/2 Day, 500 1, multi-ship 700/1

What are the Lowe SVFR Wx minimums?

500 1/2 Day, 500/1 night

The starter speed switch terminates the start cycle between _____percentages of Ng speed?

52-65

Do not exceed a touchdown sink rate of ___ feet-per- minute on level terrain and ___ feet-per-minute on slopes with gross weights of up to 16,825 pounds; above 16,825 pounds gross weight do not exceed ___ feet-per-minute on level terrain and ___ feet-per-minute on slopes.

540 , 360 300 , 180

During pressure refueling, damage can result to the fuel system if the refueling pressure hose exceeds how much during pressure refueling?

55 psi

The ENG OUT warning lights and tone will go on at what % Ng SPEED and below?

55% Ng

What are the distances to the Class C circles?

5NM inner 10NM outer

How many lights are installed on the instrument panel?

6

___ nose downslope. Landing in downslope conditions with tail winds greater than ___ knots shall not be conducted. A low-frequency oscillation may occur when landing nose-down on a slope with the cyclic near the aft stop.

6 degree 15 knots

If the flight you are going on is over ___ hours, the engine oil level must be at the full sight glass.

6 hours

Do not deflect main rotor tips more than ___ inches below normal droop position.

6 inches

Within how many seconds will the alarm audio and MA lamps start flashing on the APR-39 when warmed up for the initial one minute after turning on?

6 seconds

How far away from active airborne antennas are you to be away from to prevent damage to the reciever crystals when the APR- 39 is operating?

6 yards

A shift in individual duty day cycle by ____ or more hours ________ requires a ______ reset unless approved by the BN/SQDN CDR.

6, earlier, 24

Maximum forward touchdown speed is limited to ___ knots ground speed on level terrain.

60

The pneumatic starter is capable of making the number of consecutive start cycles listed below, when exposed to the environmental conditions specified, with an interval of at least ___ seconds between the completion of one cycle and the beginning of the next cycle

60

The tail rotor pedals contain switches that, when pressed, disengage the heading hold feature of the FPS below what airspeed?

60 KIAS

In regards to Multiship Operations, during takeoff, (unless otherwise briefed) lead will takeoff and smoothly accelerate to ______, climbing < _______ fpm, and use ______ turns.

60 KIAS, 500, 1/2 standard rate

In regards to Mission Planning, avoid planning route segments that require heading changes of more than ______.

60 degrees

How far away from ground radar antennas are you to be away from to prevent damage to the reciever crystals when the APR-39 is operating?

60 yards from the ground

When do RSVR LOW cautions appear?

60% fluid remaining

How many flashes per minute are provided with the anti-collision in BOTH?

60-80

The maximum weight that may be suspended from the rescue hoist is ___ pounds.

600

The heaviest weight that may be suspended from the rescue hoist is?

600 lbs.

What is the wattage for the landing light?

600 watts

What is the overall length of the UH-60?

64 feet 11 inches.

Above what Ng speed do you pull down the PCL to disengage the starter switch?

65% Ng

What is the oil tank capacity of the UH-60?

7 US quarts

What is the armor protection on the pilot and copilot seats?

7.62mm

A red indicator button on the Hyd Pump Modules will pop out when pressure goes up by ____ above normal?

70 +/- 10 psi

What is the floor of class E airspace within a Magenta Vignette?

700ft AGL

How long must you wait to fly after giving blood(200cc)?

72 hours

If the flare detector does not detect burning of the first flare fired, another flare is automatically fired within what length of time?

75 milliseconds(If burning is still not detected, a third and final flare is fired. If all 3 do not fire, automatic ejection of flares will stop until the system is activated again

When the "Go Around" (GA) button is pressed on the cyclic, it will result in a _____ rate of climb at zero bank angle. Five seconds after the GA switch is pressed the pitch bar commands, which when followed, will result in a ____ KIAS for the climb-out?

750 fpm rate of climb, 70 KIAS

What are the 3 emergency transponder codes?

7500 - Hijacked (Seven-Fife, man with knife) 7600 - Lost Communications (Seven-Six, can't hear nix) 7700 - Emergency (Seven-Seven, going to heaven)

Maximum rotor speed for emergency rotor brake applications is ____ NR.

76%

What are the standard flying hour limitations for a 1 day period for Day, Mixed (D,N,NG,H,W), and NVD (pure)?

8, 7, 6

Above ___ KIAS avoid abrupt, _____ to prevent excess tail rotor system loading.

80 full pedal inputs

At what airspeed shall the aircraft be slowed to before power can be restored in the event of a Stabilator Auto Mode Failure?

80 KIAS

If you are required to open the cabin doors in flight, the aircraft must be below _____ and crew members opening the cabin door must be secured to the aircraft...

80 KIAS

What is the force required to break the yaw actuator if it becomes jammed?

80 lbs.

All RCM will have a minimum requirement of ______ hours of NVD semiannually.

9

What is the semiannual flying-hour requirement for NVGs for RL1 RCMs? Can any of those hours be flown in the simulator?

9 hours of NVG flight. 3 hours can be in the H-60FS.

The FUEL PRESS caution light will illuminate when fuel pressure drops below?

9 psi

The maximum weight that may be suspended from the cargo hook is ____ pounds. The external load limit of the airframe will not be exceeded when using cargo hook.

9,000 lbs

What is the maximum airspeed during a Copter approach?

90 KIAS

How many days are allowed to progress from one RL to the next?

90 days, excluding days lost due to - TDY or deployment where unable to fly -Med or non-med suspension - Grounding of A/C by HQ - Leave approved by CDR. - A/C non availability due to movement to deployment/redeployment and aircract preset/reset (less than 50% available) - Documented flight cancellations due to weather and/or maintenance that have had a significant impact on flight operations.

How long does the backup pump run for after the accumulator low-pressure switch is actuated?

90 seconds

At what Ng speed must the operating engine be to make a crossbleed start?

90% Ng speed

The hook capacity is limited to ___ pounds?

9000 lbs.

The LOW ROTOR RPM warning light will flash at a rate of three to five flashes per second if rotor rpm drops below?

96% RPM R

The low steady tone is provided when % RPM R / Ng drops below?

96% RPM R and 55% Ng

What hydraulic pump temperature requires an entry on the 2408-13-1?

>132°C

What height are the ground-based wires or towers hazard classifications for Alpha, Bravo, and Charlie hazards?

A - >100' B - 50'-100' C - <50'

Task 1176 - Perform Nonprecision Approach

1) Perform the approach IAW published procedures 2) Intercept and maintain NDB, VOR courses within 5 degrees of centerline. 3) Intercept and maintain localizer courses within 2.5 degrees of centerline. 4) During ASR approaches, make immediate heading and altitude changes issued by ATC and maintain heading ± 5°. 5) Intercept and maintain lateral course and vertical glide path courses within prescribed RNP requirements for the airspace, approach segment or procedures flown (2.0 NM enroute, 1.0 NM terminal, 0.3 NM on approach) utilizing RNAV flight cues. 6) Descend to altitude descent minimums using approved (LPV) or advisory (LNAV/VNAV) glide path information as required. 7) Perform the Missed Approach Procedure as published or per ATC instructions upon reaching the MAP if landing cannot be completed per AR 95-1.

What 3 conditions must be present for dynamic rollover to occur?

1) Pivot Point 2) Rolling Motion 3) Exceeding the critical angle.

What 5 lights cause the backup pump to come on?

1) RSVR 1 LOW 2) HYD PUMP 1 FAIL 3) T/R SERVO 1 FAIL 4) HYD PUMP 2 FAIL 5) APU ACCUM LOW

How do you reduce or stop retreating blade stall?

1) Reduce Collective 2) Reduce Airspeed 3) Reduce the Severity of the Maneuver 4) Reduce Altitude (Descend if possible) 5) Increase Rotor RPM to normal limits

How do you recover from compressibility effects?

1) Reduce blade pitch (lower collective) 2) Reduce Rotor RPM 3) Reduce the severity of the maneuver 4) Reduce airspeed

What are the 3 types of dynamic rollover?

1) Rollover on level ground 2) Rolling downslope 3) Rolling upslope

What are the minimum parking requirements?

1) Rotor brake or gust lock engaged 2) Wheel brakes set 3) Tailwheel locked 4) Wheels chocked

What are the 5 subsystems of AFCS?

1) SAS (1 and/or 2) 2) Trim 3) FPS 4) Coupled Flight Director 5) Stabilator

What does a GEN BRG caution indicate? When does it have to be written up?

A GEN BRG caution indicates a worn or failed bearing. It needs to be written up if the GEN BRG caution appears for more than 1 minute.

What is a changeover point?

A changeover point indicates the point on an airway where you should change over to the next navigational frequency.

What is an RL3 crewmember?

A crewmember that is either not qualified in the aircraft, or is training to proficiency in base tasks.

What is an RL2 Crewmember?

A crewmember that is fully qualified and proficient in all base tasks.

What is an RL1 Crewmember?

A crewmember that is fully qualified and proficient in base and ATP required mission and additional tasks.

Task 1064 - Perform a Roll-On Landing

1) Select suitable landing area 2) Maintain constant approach angle clear of obstacles to desired point of touchdown. 3) Maintain ground track alignment with landing direction, as appropriate. 4) Perform smooth, controlled touchdown and termination appropriate for conditions, below 60 knots GS, and aligned with landing direction ± 5 degrees prior to touchdown. 5) Ensure speed at touchdown is not slower than that appropriate for the conditions. Notes: P* will announce intent to perform roll-on, when beginning the approach, intended point of landing, and any deviation from the approach. P will verify that brakes are released.

Task 1058 - Perform a Visual Meteorological Conditions Approach

1) Select suitable landing area (analyze suitability, barriers, wind, approach path, touchdown point, and takeoff direction) 2) Ensure sufficient power exists for type of approach/landing desired 3) Maintain constant angle to desired point of termination (hover) or touchdown (surface). 4) Maintain rate of closure appropriate for the conditions 5) Maintain ground track alignment with landing direction, as appropriate 6) Align A/C with landing direction below 50' AGL, or as appropriate for transition from terrain flight. 7) Perform smooth and controlled termination to hover or touchdown to surface. 8) Monitor wind conditions using cockpit indicators. 9) Determine wind direction and velocity at landing point.

The inner ear contains the vestibular system which contains the motion & gravity detecting sense organs. Each vestibular contains two distinct structures, what are they?

1) Semicircular Canals 2) Otolith Organs

What happens when the APU Fire T-Handle is pulled?

1) Shuts off fuel to the APU 2) Sends a stop signal to the ESU (turning off the ignition to the APU) 3) The directional valve is armed for the APU compartment.

What are conditions conducive to settling with power?

1) Steep approach at a high rate of descent 2) Downwind approach 3) Formation flight approach (where SWP could be caused by turbulence of preceding aircraft) 4) Hovering above the max hover ceiling 5) Not maintaining a constant altitude control during an OGE hover 6) During masking/unmasking

What is the treatment for middle ear discomfort?

1) Stop the descent and perform the Valsalva maneuver. Never do the valsalva during ascent. 2) If it's not cleared, climb to an altitude until cleared, reduce the rate of descent and equalize the ears and sinuses frequently during descent 3) Contact a flight surgeon if the problem persists.

What functions are locked out when going to (DEC) lockout?

1) TGT Limiting 2) Isochronous Np Governing 3) Np Reference from the cockpit 4) Torque Matching/Load Sharing

Task 1500 - Participate in a Crew-Level After Action Review

1) The PC will conduct a detailed crew level AAR, using the example or a unit approved AAR checklist. 2) All crewmembers will actively participate in the review.

What does the #1 hydraulic system supply pressure to?

1) The first stage of all primary servos 2) The first stage of the tail rotor servo

What does the #2 hydraulic system supply pressure to?

1) The second stage primary servos 2) The pilot assist servos.

Task 1174 - Perform Holding Procedures

1) Tune and ID appropriate NAVAIDs 2) Determine, Brief, and Enter the holding pattern 3) Comply with timing or DME distance specified and track holding pattern legs. 4) Send the appropriate report to ATC per DOD FLIP.

Task 1166 - Perform Instrument Maneuvers

1) Tune and ID appropriate NAVAIDs, and GPS waypoints into nav system. 2) Determine, intercept, and maintain the desired radio nav course and headings ±5 degrees. 3) Identify position on an IFR route using navigation stations or DME. 4) Maintain DME arc ± 1 NM.

Task 1011 - Determine Dynamic Aircraft Performance In-Flight

1) Verify planned performance values as required by environmental and A/C configuration differences. 2) Update A/C performance when either of the following conditions apply with *intent to land or takeoff*: When operating within 3000 lbs of MAX ALLOWABLE GWT OGE. Increase of 1000' PA and/or 5 degrees C from PPC. 2) Update A/C performance for the following: MTA; Max allowable GWT OGE; TQ required to hover at Max GWT OGE and IGE; A/C Operating Weight. 3) When not utilizing automated software, determine values within: TQ values ± 2%; Weight values ± 500 lbs.

Task 1012 - Verify Aircraft Weight and Balance

1) Verify that CG and GWT remain within A/C limits for duration of flight per -10. 2) ID all mission or flight limits imposed by weight or CG. 3) Ensure DD form(s) 365-4 has been completed IAW AR 95-1.

What is the aircraft currency requirement?

A flight in the last 60 days as PI or PC in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series to be flown.

What 3 things must be present for settling with power to occur?

1) Vertical or near vertical descent of at least 300 FPM. Actual critical rate depends on gross weight, rotor RPM, DA, and other pertinent factors. 2) Slow forward airspeed (less than ETL) 3) Rotor system using between 20% to 100% of the available engine power with insufficient power to arrest the descent. Low rotor RPM can aggravate the situation.

What are the 3 systems that affect equilibrium maintenance and SD?

1) Visual - most important, 80% of our orientation 2) Vestibular - inner ear organs (semicircular and otolith) 3) Somatosensory - sensors in the joints, muscles etc

Prior to flying terrain flight (<500' AGL) outside military reservations, what must occur?

A flight recon for hazard and crews will adhere to the procedures in the Local Flying Rules.

If a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes the command has 2 options:

1) restart the rest period. 2) start the individuals duty day (ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for amount of rest received prior to interruption)

Visual illusions (FFFCRASHCARS)

1. False horizon 2. Fascination (fixation) 3.Flicker Vertigo 4. Confusion with ground lights 5. Relative motion 6. Altered planes of reference 7. Structural 8. Height-depth 9. Crater 10. Autokinesis 11. Reversible perspective 12. Size-distance

Physical Factors of Dynamic Rollover

1. Main rotor thrust 2. Tail rotor thrust 3. CG 4. crosswind component 5. ground surface 6. slope 7. low fuel

Prevention of Spatial Disorientation 1. 2. 3.

1. Never fly without visual reference points 2. Trust the instruments (don't fly IMC and VMC at the same time) 3. Avoid fatigue, smoking, hypoglycemia, hypoxia, and anxiety

Treatment of Spatial Disorientation 1. 2. 3.

1. Refer to the instruments and develop a good cross-check 2. Delay intuitive actions long enough to check visual references and instruments 3. Transfer the controls to the other pilot

The scales on the Course Deviation Pointer located on the HSI represent right or left of course each dot from center for the ILS/VOR and FM?

1.25 degrees ILS/ 5 degrees for VOR and FM

HYD PUMP 1 FAIL WITHOUT BACK-UP PUMP ON ADVISORY

-*BACK-UP HYD PUMP switch - ON*

T/R SERVO 1 FAIL WITH NO BACK-UP PUMP ON ADVISORY OR T/R SERVO 2 ON ADVISORY DOES NOT APPEAR

-*TAIL SERVO switch - BACK-UP*

NVG Pre-flight Pub

-10

In regards to IIMC planning, for operations in restricted terrain that will not allow aircraft to separate with heading changes, the standard airspeed adjustment will be base: ________________

-10 KIAS for subsequent chalks.

At what temperature does a torque ratio for an engine become a 1.0?

-15 C and below

BFT Normal operating temperature range:

-26°C to 71°C

What are the different types of fatigue?

-Acute -Chronic -Motivational Exhaustion/Burnout

What will happen if the #1 pump fails?

-HYD PUMP 1 FIAL Caution will appear and T/R SERVO 1 FAIL caution will appear. - Hydraulic Logic will turn on the backup pump. - Pressure from the backup pump will reposition the transfer valve in the No.1 transfer module, pressurizing the No.1 system, and it will operate the second stage tail rotor servo. - The pilot should move the TAIL SERVO switch to Backup and then Normal for continued system redundancy in the tail rotor.

What will happen if the #2 pump fails?

-HYD PUMP 2 FAIL Caution will appear - TRIM FAIL, FPS FAIL, BOOST SERVO OFF, and SAS OFF caution's will briefly appear. - Hydraulic Logic will turn on the backup pump. - Pressure from the backup pump will reposition the transfer valve in the No.2 transfer module, pressurizing the No.2 system (including the Pilot Assist Area). - The BOOST SERVO OFF and SAS OFF cautions will disappear. - The pilot should do a power on reset to get full control of the pilot assist area.

what are the stages of Hypoxia?

-Indifferent: lose nothing more than night vision and color blindness, body is indifferent(0-10,000 feet) -Compensatory: body starts to compensate for lack of oxygen-drowsiness, poor judgement occurs(10,000- 15,000 feet) -Disturbance- body can no longer compensate for the oxygen definciency, impared flight controls, impaired speech, impaired vision.(15,000-20,000 feet) -Critical- within 3-5 minutes, judgement an coordination usually deteriorate. Subsequently, mental confusion, dizziness, incapacitation, and unconsciouness occurs. (20,000-25,000 feet)

The ETF is allowed to range from ___ to ___.

.85 to 1.0

The ATF is allowed to range from ___ to ___.

.90 to 1.0

What would the Tq on the affected engine be reading if you have high speed shaft failure?

0

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the RALT (radar altitude hold) mode?

0-1500 ft AGL

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the VS (vertical speed hold) mode?

0-2000 fpm AND above 50 KIAS

There is a variable dimming feature for the searchlight, which provides how many watts?

0-250 watts

What are the speeds associated with electronic coupling?

0-40 knots - Maximum Mixing. 40-100 knots - Mixing decreases. >100 knots - No Mixing.

The stabilator shall be set at __ at speeds above __ KIAS.

0° 40

RCMs are required to fly a minimum of ______ hour(s) unaided flight per semi-annual period.

1

What distance is considered to be OGE?

1 Rotor Diameter

Class G SVFR and Cloud Clearance - Night

1 SM Clear of clouds

How long is a weather forecast valid?

1 hour 30 minutes from the time the forecast is received

WHat is the fuel settling time for jet(JP) fuel?

1 hour per foot depth(About 4 hours for the UH-60)

How long can you fly at 10,000ft w/o oxygen?

1 hr

When is the weather forecast void time?

1 hr 30 min from receipt of forecast pending the aircraft has not departed

Avoid flight routes that are within ___ of towers or wires that have a height that is within _____ of the en route altitude for that segment of flight.

1 km, 100'

Make an entry on the 2408-13 if the GEN BRG caution light remains on for more than?

1 minute

Do not continuously look at the infrared countermeasure transmitter during operation, or for a period of over ___ minutes from a distance less than ___ feet.

1 minute / 3 feet

The aircraft logbook forms that are required on the aircraft are as follows:

1) 2408 - Equipment Log Assembly 2) 2408-4-1 - Weapon record data 3) 2408-12 - Army Aviator's Flight Record 4) 2408-13 - Aircraft status info record 5) 2408-13-1 - Aircraft inspection and maintenance record 6) 2408-13-2 - Related Maintenance Actions Record 7) 2408-13-3 - Aircraft technical inspection worksheet 8) 2408-14-1 - Uncorrected fault record 9) 2408-18 - Equipment Inspection List 10) 2408-31 - Aircraft ID Card 11) Form 1896 - Jet Fuel Identaplate

Task 1040 - Perform Visual Meteorological Conditions Takeoff

1) A/C in trim above 50' AGL or as appropriate for mission profile.

Task 1182 - Perform Unusual Attitude Recovery

1) Analyze aircraft attitude. 2) Without delay use correct recovery procedures: a. Attitude - level the wings on the attitude indicator. b. Heading - maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles. c. Torque - adjust as necessary d. Trim - as necessary e. Airspeed - adjust as necessary.

Task 1426 - React to Aviator's Night Vision Imaging System Failure

1) Announce ANVIS failure by crew station. 2) Transfer the flight the controls if applicable. 3) Troubleshoot ANVIS failure

What are the procedures for IIMC according the ATM?

1) Announce IMC, maintain A/C control, immediately make transition to instrument flight, and initiate a climb. 2) Initiate the correct IIMC recovery procedures: a. Attitude - level the wings on the attitude indicator. b. Heading - maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles or as briefed for multiship operations. c. Torque - adjust as necessary d. Trim - as necessary e. Airspeed - adjust as necessary. 3. Contact ATC as required. Comply with ATC instructions, local regs and SOP.

What is Hypoxia?

A lack of oxygen in the body.

Land as Soon as Possible (Definition)

A landing at the nearest suitable landing area (e.g. open field) without delay. The primary consideration is to ensure the survival of occupants.

What is mounted on the accessory modules?

A main generator and a hydraulic pump

Task 1184 - Respond to Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions

1) Announce IMC, maintain A/C control, immediately make transition to instrument flight, and initiate a climb. 2) Initiate the correct IIMC recovery procedures: a. Attitude - level the wings on the attitude indicator. b. Heading - maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles or as briefed for multiship operations. c. Torque - adjust as necessary d. Trim - as necessary e. Airspeed - adjust as necessary. 3. Contact ATC as required. Comply with ATC instructions, local regs and SOP. Notes: PC will announce minimum altitude to climb. P* will announce when initiating IIMC procedures, and if disoriented and unable to recover.

What treatments or procedures performed by a non-flight surgeon or APA need to be reported to them?

1) Any medical or dental procedure requiring use of medication after the treatment. 2) Any medical or dental procedure requiring use of any type of anesthesia or sedation. 3) Treatment by mental health professionals, including but not limited to psychological, social, psychiatric, alcohol, or substance abuse counseling. 4) Any chiropractic or osteopathic manipulative treatment. 5) Any treatment given by a homeopath, naturopath, herbalist, or practitioner of other types of alternative medicine. 6) Any emergency room or urgent care visits.

If you have lost commo during a GCA approach, what are the procedures?

1) Attempt to contact on another frequency 2) Squawk 7600 3) If you cannot proceed VMC, execute an IAP of your choosing 4) Maintain higher of last assigned altitude OR MSA until established on a segment of the approach.

When must a fuel sample be completed?

1) Before the first flight of the day 2) After adequate settling time after cold refueling 3) If the fuel source is suspected to be contaminated

Task 1026 - Maintain Airspace Surveillance

1) Brief airspace surveillance procedures prior to flight to include scan sectors. 2) Announce any unplanned drift or altitude changes, clear the A/C, and immediately inform other crewmembers of air traffic or obstacles that pose a threat to the A/C 3) Announce when focused inside using a time limit appropriate for conditions and announce when back outside. 4) Maintain airspace surveillance in assigned scan sectors.

Task 1170 - Perform Instrument Takeoff

1) Comply with appropriate departure procedures (DPs). 2) Maintain power as required to climb at or above minimum climb rate on the DP. 3) Maintain accelerative climb attitude until climb airspeed is attained. 4) Maintain the aircraft in trim after ETL. Notes: P* will announce when initiating the maneuver and intent to abort or alter T/O. P* will transition to the instruments prior to entering actual or simulated IMC.

Task 1010 - Prepare a Performance Planning Card

1) Compute all items on PPC with most current software. 2) Input appropriate info into the software. 3) Compute values using accurate conditions for time of T/O within the following parameters: FAT ± 5 degrees C; PA ± 1000'; GW ±500 lbs; ETF ± 0.05. 4) When manual calculations are required compute within: TQ values ± 2%; Weight values ± 500 lbs; Fuel flow ± 100 lbs/hr; Airspeeds ± 5 knots. 5) Correlate planning info to determine A/C and mission capabilities.

Task 1425 - Employ Aviator Night Vision Imaging System

1) Conduct operator's checks IAW -10 for the ANVIS 2) Properly mount the ANVIS on the flight helmet. 3) Adjust the ANVIS to obtain the optimal sight adjustment point (OSAP)

Task 1427 - Operate Heads-Up Display

1) Conduct operator's checks for the HUD IAW -10 2) Mount HUD to the ANVIS 3) Power up the HUD IAW -10. 4) Program the HUD for mission requirements. 5) Shutdown the HUD IAW -10.

Task 1013 - Operate Mission Planning Software

1) Configure and operate the software. 2) Evaluate and enter all pertinent weather data, as appropriate. Select and enter appropriate: 3) Primary and alt routes. 4) Tactical/terrain flight mission planning control features. 5) Communication data 6) Load mission data to data transfer device, if applicable. 7) Generate mission products as required IAW the unit SOP

What is in an aircraft weight and balance file?

1) DD Form 365 - record of weight and balance personnel 2) 365-1 (Chart A) - basic weight checklist record 3) 365-2 (Chart B) - Aircraft weighing record 4) 365-3 (Chart C) - Basic weight and balance record 5) Chart E - Loading Data and special weighing instructions 6) 365-4

Task 1068 - Perform a Go-Around

1) Determine when go-around is required. 2) Immediately apply appropriate power to initiate go-around. 3) Immediately adjust pitch attitude to clear obstacles and achieve appropriate climb airspeed for conditions. Notes: P* will announce intent to do a go-around.

Class G SVFR and Cloud Clearance - Day

1/2 SM Clear of Clouds

What are the weather requirements for SFVR?

1/2 SM and clear of clouds unless a higher minima is specified at the airfield.

If the oil level must be checked when hot (immediately to 1/2 hour after shutdown), oil level will read how low?

1/2 inch

Special VFR (SVFR) minima for Army helicopters?

1/2SM visibility and C/C, unless airfield requires a higher minimum

At how many Gs will both fire extinguishing containers automatically fire?

10 Gs or more

When does the crash activated fire extinguishing system activate? Where does the fire extinguishing agent go?

10 Gs or more. Both engine compartments.

As a FAC 1, RL 1, UH-60 aviator, what are your annual APART requirements?

10 exam, standardization flight eval, instrument flight eval

If the #1 / #2 GEN BRG caution light illuminates, it indicates there is a worn or failed bearing. The caution light will remain on until power is removed. The auxilary bearing will allow how many additional hours of operation after the light illuminates?

10 hours

Rest periods are defined as _________ after release from duty until the start of the next duty day.

10 hours

How many minutes after shutdown are you to wait before checking the engine oil level?

10 minutes

The FUEL BOOST PUMP CONTROL switches shall remain on during external range fuel transfer and remain on for ___ minutes after PRESS switches are moved to OFF.

10 minutes

In regards to Multiship Operations, during the commo check if the subsequent chalk does not respond within _______, the next chalk continues the commo check.

10 seconds

Skin exposure to countermeasure radiation for longer than ___ seconds at a distance less than ___inches should be avoided.

10 seconds / 4 inches

Below what % TRQ will full inlet anti-ice capability not be provided due to engine bleed limitations?

10%

The VOR/NAV mode on the CIS selector will illuminate when the helicopter is within?

10-20 degrees of the selected course

The maximum airspeed for autorotation shall be limited to ___ KIAS with Volcano installed.

100

Searchlight. If use is required, the searchlight must be extended prior to reaching a maximum forward airspeed of ___ KIAS. With searchlight extended, airspeed is limited to ___ KIAS .

100 KIAS 180 KIAS

When coupled with trim, how much control authority does FPS have?

100%

Treatment of hypoxia

100% oxygen or descent to 10,000'

How much control authority does the outer loop of the FCCs have and at what rate?

100%, at a rate of 10% per second.

What are the takeoff minimums if the aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff has less than 50 hours of actual weather time (for helicopters)?

100' ceiling, 1/4 mi visibility or RVR of 1200'

The pitch trim servo requires how much pressure? How does the pressure change from one amount to another?

1000 PSI. It is reduced via a pressure reducer.

What are the outbound and inbound altitudes of the West corridor?

1000 feet out- 1200 feet in.

The alimeter's operating range is from?

1000 feet to 50,000 feet

When do you have to recompute a PPC?

1000 ft. PA, 500 lbs., 5 degrees C

During operation of the External Extended Fuel Transfer in Auto mode, if either main fuel quantity is below ___ lbs., selecting the automatic mode may initiate a transfer sequence.

1000 lbs.

For IIMC plans, the Base Altitude is the lowest altitude that provides obstacle clearance. If able, add ________ (________ mountainous) to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the AO.

1000', 2000'

What are the VFR minimums required to depart Lowe at night?

1000/3

If the wind is 10 kts, how many degrees nose-up slope can we land?

11 degrees

The main landing gear will absorb how many G's?

11.25.

The system is designed to restrict fuel flow to how many gallons per min. during closed circuit refueling?

110

Gas Generator Speed (NG)

12 Second Transient: 105-106% Continuous: 0-105%

Turbine Gas Temperature (TGT)

12 Second Transient: 903-949°C 2.5 Minute Transient: 879-903°C Start Abort Limit: 851°C 10 Minute Limit: 846-879°C 30 Minute Limit: 793-846°C Normal: 0-793°C

Commanders should not plan duty days that exceed a maximum of ____________.

12 hours total.

How long must you wait to fly after drinking alcohol?

12 hours with no residual effect.

NP1 / NP2

12 sec Trans: 105-107% Transient: 101-105% Continuous: 95-101% Transient: 91-95%

The cargo release solenoid will be damaged if the cargo release button is pressed for more than?

12 seconds

Stabilator Failure Note: Vne becomes variable to indicate the airspeed limit applicable for the current stabilator position, except in no case shall the autorotation limit exceed ___ KIAS.

120

BAM windows shall not be transitioned open or closed above _____.

120 KIAS

What is the floor of class E airspace everywhere else?

1200 ft AGL

What is the emergency guard frequency for the VHF?

121.5

Maximum capacity for each storage compartment is ___ pounds.

125

If installed, how long does the flight data recorder record information for?

13 hrs

What is the force required to break the roll trim actuator if it becomes jammed?

13 lbs.

Maximum airspeed for autorotation at a gross weight of 16,825 pounds or more is ___ KIAS.

130

Maximum airspeed for one engine inoperative is ___ KIAS.

130

Landing light. If use is required, the landing light must be extended prior to reaching a maximum forward airspeed of ___ KIAS. With landing light extended, airspeed is limited to ___ KIAS.

130 KIAS 180 KIAS

The MAIN XMSN OIL TEMP caution light illuminates when the temperature reaches?

130 degrees C

When does the impending bypass button pop up on the Pilot Assist Module?

1375 PSI

The MAIN XMSN OIL PRESS caution light illuminates when pressures drop to?

14 +/- 2 psi

How many days to you have to turn in your hand carried records after reporting for duty?

14 days.

Company commanders can extend duty days up to ____ hour(s) and flight hours by ____ hour(s).

14, 1

At what oil temperature will the caution capsule marked INT XMSN OIL TEMP or TAIL XMSN OIL TEMP light illuminate?

140 C

The fuzz burn-off feature will be deactivated when the oil temperature reaches?

140 C [However, magnetic detection will remain to turn on the CHIP caution light(s).]

Cabin door(s) may be fully open up to ___ KIAS.

145

What is the total number of personnel that the Blackhawk will carry?

15

Slope landing limitations are ___ noseup, right wheel up or left wheel upslope. The slope limitations shall be further reduced by __ for every __knots of wind.

15 degree 2 degrees 5 knots

During circuit refueling, damage can result to the fuel system if the refueling pressure hose exceeds how much during closed circuit refueling?

15 psi

Maximum airspeed for autorotation at a gross weight of 16,825 pounds or less is ___ KIAS.

150

How many feet does the radar altimeter go up to in AGL?

1500 feet AGL

What is the vertical preload on the pilots seat?

150lbs

Maximum airspeed with skis installed is ___ KIAS.

155

At ambient temperatures of ___ and below, ___ consecutive start cycles may be made, followed by a __ minute rest period, followed by ___ additional consecutive start cycles. A ___ minute rest period is then required before any additional starts.

15°C 2 3 2 30

At ambient temperatures above ___ up to ____, ___ consecutive start cycles may be made. A ___ minute rest period is then required before any additional start cycles.

15°C 52°C 2 30

Battalion commanders may extend duty day up to ____ hour(s), and flight hours by ____ hour(s)

16, 2

The main rotor blades are twisted how many degrees from the head to the tip?

16.3 degrees

Gunner or BAM window(s) may be fully open up to ___ KIAS.

170

Task 1006 - Plan an Instrument Flight Rules Flight.

1) Determine whether A/C and crew are capable of completing the mission. 2) Determine whether flight can be performed under IFR per AR 95-1, FARs, host-nation/local regs, and SOPs. 3) Determine departure, en route and destination procedures. 4) Select route(s) and altitudes that avoid hazardous weather conditions; do not exceed A/C or equip limitations, and use IFR cruising altitudes per DOD FLIP. 5) If off airway, determine course ± 5 degrees. 6) Select approach compatible with weather, approach facilities, and A/C equipment; determine if alternate airfield is required. 7) Determine distance ± 1 NM, TAS ±5 knots, GS ± 5 knots, and ETE ± 1 minute for each leg. 8) Determine fuel required per 95-1 and FM 3-04.240 ±100 lbs. 9) Complete and file flight plan per 95-1 and DOD FLIP. 10) Perform mission risk assessment per unit SOP.

What are your limitations when the #1 PUMP light comes on, deactivating LDI and the B/U PUMP is now pressurizing the #1 system and the SERVO lights have now gone off?

170 KTS

With the issue of a leak...If the B/U RES LOW light illuminates and the pilot has isolated the #1 Primary servos, What are your limitations now?

170 KTS, 30 degree bank angle.

The #1 / #2 FUEL LOW caution lights will illuminate when the fuel level decreases to?

172 lbs. in each tank

Class A Airspace

18,000 - 60,000 ft

How many fire extinguishers are on the UH-60?

2

What are the 5 transmission modules?

2 - Input Modules The Main Module 2 - Accessory Modules

How many filters are located on each pump? When do the impending bypass buttons pop up for each filter?

2 - a pressure and a return filter. The red buttons will pop when pressure goes up 70 +/- 10 psi above normal.

What does each FG contain to produce force?

2 Mechanical Units (MUs)

What are the requirements to enter Class C Airspace?

2 Way Radio Communications Transponder

What are the requirements to enter Class D airspace?

2 Way-Radio Communication Positive ID Don't Need a Transponder (military always has a transponder)

How long after shutdown should you wait before checking the dipstick oil?

2 hours

How long does it take to night adapt after using NVG's?

2-3 minutes

Class D Airspace Requirements

2-way Radio communications prior to entry 2-way Radio

Class C Airspace Requirements

2-way radio communications prior to entry 2-way radio transponder with altitude reporting capability

Task 1004 - Plan a Visual Flight Rules Flight

1) Determine whether A/C and crew are capable of completing the mission. 2) Determine whether flight can be performed under VFR per AR 95-1, FARs, host-nation/local regs, and SOPs. 3) Determine departure, en route and destination procedures. 4) Select route(s) and altitudes that avoid hazardous weather conditions; do not exceed A/C or equip limitations, and use VFR cruising altitudes per DOD FLIP. 5) For cross-country determine, distance ± 1 NM, TAS ±5 knots, GS ± 5 knots, ETE ± 1 minute for each leg, MH ± 5 degrees. 6) Determine fuel required per 95-1 ±100 lbs. 7) Complete and file flight plan per 95-1 and DOD FLIP. 8) Perform mission risk assessment per unit SOP.

Task 1028 - Perform Hover Power Check

1) Determine whether A/C weight exceeds Max GW. 2) Verify aircraft operating weight. 3) Determine if sufficient power is available to perform the mission. Notes: Perform at 10' hover in the direction of T/O preferably into the wind. A 3-5 knot crosswind or tailwind may increase TQ required by up to 4%.

How can middle ear discomfort be prevented?

1) Don't fly with a cold, sore throat, sinusitis, etc. 2) Descend at a slow/normal rate. 3) Clear your sinuses early and often by swallowing, yawning, and tensing muscles in the throat.

When is the prime/boost pump actuated (3 conditions cause it to activate)?

1) During engine starts when the starter is engaged 2) When the FUEL PUMP switch is moved to the FUEL PRIME position. 3) When the APU is started and operating

What does the backup hydraulic system supply pressure to?

1) Emergency pressure to the #1 and #2 hydraulic systems 2) The second stage of the tail rotor servo 3) The APU accumulator

Task 1194 - Perform Refueling Operations

1) Ensure safety procedures are complied with per FM 10-67-1, -10, and FM 3-04.113. 2) If installed, ensure that all doors and windows are closed on the refueling side (for hot refuel) 3) Ensure aircraft is refueled per FM 10-67-1, -10, FM 3-04.113, and SOP. 4) Enter appropriate info on 2408-12.

What are the required ALSE items required to fly per AR 95-1?

1) First Aid Kit 2) Extraction Device 3) Approved Survival Knife 4) Fire Starter 5) Signaling Device 6) Survival Radio

How can we treat hypoxia?

1) Give 100% oxygen 2) Descend below 10,000'

What are conditions conducive to compressibility?

1) High Airspeed 2) High Rotor RPM 3) High Gross Weight 4) High DA 5) High G-Maneuvers 6) Low Temperature (the speed of sound decreases as temp decreases) 7) Turbulent Air

What are conditions conducive to retreating blade stall?

1) High Blade Loading (High Gross Weight) 2) High DA 3) High G-maneuvers 4) Low Rotor RPM 5) Turbulent Air

What are the 2 main factors that cause retreating blade stall?

1) High forward airspeeds (decreased relative velocity on the retreating side) 2) Increased no-lift areas on the retreating side (reduced surface area creating lift).

What are the 4 types of hypoxia?

1) Hypoxic 2) Hypemic 3) Stagnant 4) Histotoxic

Task 1082 - Perform Autoroation

1) ID the malfunction, determine appropriate EP, and perform or describe immediate action procedures outlined in the -10. 2) Select a suitable landing area. 3) Adjust airspeed as appropriate to ensure landing area. 4) Perform decel and termination as directed by IP or as appropriate for the type of emergency per the -10. Notes: Steady State Factors: RPM R within limits; Airspeed not below 80 KIAS; Torque, trim and A/C in position to land at desired TD point. A right turn will cause a rapid rise in RPM R. A left turn will cause a slight to moderate rise in RPM R, and when right cyclic is applied during rollout an even greater increase will be evident. Limit TQ below 10% for practice autos.

Why does it require more power to hover OGE than IGE (2 main reasons)?

1) Increased induced flow velocity OGE meaning a lower AOA. 2) Bigger rotor tip vortices decrease the surface area of the blade that is producing lift.

What are the different segments of an instrument approach?

1) Initial Approach Segment 2) Intermediate Approach Segment 3) Final Approach Segment 4) Missed Approach Segment

Task 1014 - Operate Aviation Life Support Equipment

1) Inspect/perform operational checks on ALSE 2) Use personal and mission ALSE 3) Brief passengers in using ALSE

What are the required personal items to fly per AR 95-1?

1) Leather Boots approved for aviation. 2) Flight Helmet 3) Flight Suit (A2CUs) 4) Flight Gloves 5) Under layer of cotton, nomex, wool, or any blend thereof 6) ID Tags

How can we prevent hypoxia?

1) Limit time at altitude 2) Use supplemental oxygen 3) Pressurize the cabin

Task 1260 - Operate Digital Map

1) Load digital map data via the DTS. 2) Operate bezel keys on the MFD to select desired map (TAC/ND) configuration and orientation. 3) Operate the multifunction slew controller (MFSC) or the collective cursor slew controller to gain desired information and manipulate desired mission data on the digital map display.

Task 1155 - Negotiate Wire Obstacles

1) Locate and estimate height of wires. 2) Determine the best method to negotiate the wire obstacle 3) Safely negotiate the wire obstacle minimizing time unmasked.

Task 1044 - Navigate By Pilotage and Dead Reckoning

1) Maintain orientation with 1/2 mile or 800 meters. 2) Arrive at CPs/destination at ETA ± 1 minute.

Task 1034 - Perform Ground Taxi

1) Maintain speed appropriate for conditions 2) Maintain desired ground track ± 3'.

Task 1169 - Perform Flight Director Operations

1) Operate the flight director IAW the aircraft operator's manual 2) Program the FMS for the desired flight plan. 3) Select the desired display on the MFD. 4) Select the appropriate modes on the FD/DCP. 5) Follow cyclic roll, cyclic pitch and collective position indicator cues as appropriate.

Task 1254 - Operate Multifunction Display

1) Operate the installed MFD as IAW the aircraft current operator's manual. 2) Select the appropriate display to obtain the desired information for the current mission profile.

Task 1046 - Perform Electronically Aided Navigation

1) Operate the installed electrically operated nav system per the TM and AWR. 2) Determine the position of the A/C along the route of flight within 300 meters. 3) Configure the FD/DCP and MFD for desired processed data.

What forms are required to be in the aircraft?

1) Operator's Checklist 2) Operator's Manual (TM -10) including changes and related SOF or TB's 3) Current DD 365-4 4)Aircraft logbook forms (2408 series).

What is a mileage breakdown point, and how is it identified?

A mileage breakdown point is a point on a route where the leg segment mileage ends, and a new leg segment mileage begins, often at a route turning point. It is indicated by an "x" on the route.

What spatial disorientation (SD)?

A pilot's erroneous perception of position, altitude, or motion in relation to the gravitational vertical or the Earth's surface.

What is hypemic hypoxia? What can it be caused by?

A reduction in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood. There is less hemoglobin to combine with oxygen. Caused by carbon monoxide, anemia, blood loss.

After not flying an H60 for how many days, must a crewmember undergo refresher training? What RL will they be designated?

After 180 days. RL3

Airspeed, Barometric Altitude, and Barometric Rate are provided to the FCCs through which system?

Air Data Computers

ADIZ

Air Defense Identification Zone

__________________ is the most important consideration during any emergency.

Aircraft control

When should you inform a flight surgeon?

Aircrew members will immediately inform their flight surgeon or APA (aeromedical physician assistant) when they have participated in activities or received treatment for which flying restrictions may be appropriate. This includes exposure to any exogenous factors listed in this regulation as well as any treatment or procedure performed by a non-flight surgeon or APA.

What is relative wind?

Airflow relative to an airfoil. It is parallel and opposite the direction of movement of the airfoil.

What is table 5-1 in AR95-1 for?

Airspace and Cloud Clearance Requirements

Magenta Feathered Line

Alert or MOA area

What does AR 40-8 say about use of dietary supplements, herbal and dietary aids, and performance enhancers?

All supplements, herbal and dietary aids and preparations, and performance enhancers are prohibited unless cleared by the flight surgeon or APA in consultation with applicable APLs.

Calculate TAS for NSTD with CAS:

Allign the PA with the Temp on the window opposite the large arrow (hourly index). The CAS is then the inner ring. Find CAS and TAS is on the outer ring.

What is spatial disorientation?

An individual's inability to determine his or her position, attitude, and motion relative to the Earth's surface

TFMP

Analyze the Mission Map/Photo Recon Primary/Alt Routes Select Modes of Flight/Movement Techniques Determine-Distance, Ground Speed, ETE Fuel-Required Weather Briefing Crew Briefing

True Heading -

Angle measure from true north to the nose of the aircraft.

Magnetic Heading -

Angle measured clockwise from magnetic north to the nose of the aircraft.

True Course -

Angle measured clockwise from true north to proposed flight path

What are the requirements for performing a cross-bleed start?

Anti-ice advisory on the source engine must be off, Ng above 90%, and RPMR at 100%.

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the GA (go around) mode, and what will it provide?

Any airspeed or hover Gives: 70 KIAS, 750 FPM climb.

What is a stressor?

Any event which requires you to adjust or adapt in some way.

When can an IFR flight plan be canceled by the pilot?

Anytime the aircraft is operating in VFR conditions outside of class A.

What is the difference between a straight-in approach and a straight-in landing?

A straight-in approach (IFR) is an instrument approach wherein the final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure turn. A straight-in landing is a landing made on a runway aligned within 30° of the final approach course following completion of an instrument approach.

When in HVR POSN mode, will pressing against the cyclic without pressing the cyclic TRIM REL switch change the hover reference point?

As long as ground speed does not exceed 2 knots, it will not be affected. Above 2 knots, DECL mode will engage and POSN will re-engage over the new position.

What is Resultant Relative Wind?

At a hover, resultant relative wind is rotational relative wind modified by induced flow. When the helicopter has horizontal motion, airspeed further modifies resultant relative wind.

What type of current is the primary source of power for the helicopter (AC/DC)?

AC

You haven't flown NVG's in 180 days. What must be done to make you current for NVG's?

Academic training(subjects in Fig. 4-1, TC 1-210), one hour static cockpit(night), min 4.5 hours NVG tasks(recommended 7 hours) (tasks Fig. 2-3, TC 1-212) Fig. 4-2 TC 1-210. ATP & ATM

What is AVCS (what is its purpose)?

Active Vibration Control System - reduces vibrations by mechanically generating additional vibrations out of phase with the main rotor in the 90-105 NR range. It compensates for changes in helicopter configurations throughout flight such as weight and CG.

Three Types of Fatigue

Acute (Minor - Short Term) Chronic (Serious - Long Term) Motivational Exhaustion / Burnout (Very Serious)

Autorotate (Definition)

Adjusting the flight controls as necessary to establish an autorotational descent and landing.

What is the NVG currency requirement?

At least 1 hour of flight in their aircraft category at the flight controls while wearing NVGs every 60 days.

How long before flight should a flight plan be filed?

At least 30 minutes. However, base ops may have their own time requirements.

Describe the compressibility of air at low and high airspeeds.

At low airspeeds, air is incompressible. Air density remains relatively constant. At higher airspeeds, as air compresses it's air density changes.

Discuss NVG failure:

At terrain flight altitudes, initiate climb, announce NVG failure, transfer flight controls.

Night Flight Requirements Equipment (A6C3F3SPLITH)

Attitude Indicator Airspeed Indicator Anti Collision Lights Altimeter - Pressure Altimeter - Radar AHARS Clock Commo Compass-Magnetic Flashlight Fuel Quantity Indicator Free Air Temp Standby Instruments Position Lights Landing/Search Light Instrument Lights Transponder Heading Indicator

If the #1 PUMP light comes on, deactivating LDI and the B/U PUMP is now pressurizing the #1 system and the leak continues, what happens next?

B/U RES LOW light illuminates. Pilot isolates the #1 Primary servos.

What are your VFR cloud clearance, airspeed and VSBY minimums in Class G airspace?

BELOW 1200: Clear clouds, speed to see and avoid and 1/2 sm day. ABOVE 1200: Basic cloud clearance, 1 sm day, 3 sm night.

AR 40-8 Blood or Plasma Donation

BLOOD OR PLASMA DONATION- Aircrew members will not be regular (more than two times per year) blood or plasma donors. Following blood donation (200 cc or more), aircrew members will be restricted from flying duty for a period of 72 hours. For plasma, 24 hours. Bone marrow donation must be cleared by FS prior to return to duty.

Mission Equipment emergency procedures without associated W/C/A messages are in the ______ section.

BLUE

For the purpose of attaining a mission approval, what is considered a "Bona-fide Absence" (of the BN/SQDN/TF CDR) allowing field grade Air Ambulance Commanders, XO or S-3 to accept and approve the risk for operations that are moderate or below?

BN/SQDN/TF CDR not being physically present at the BN/SQDN/TF location and cannot be contacted.

Lights

BSP Effects of Bright Lights ABC Performance Relations

What busses are powered when only the battery switch is on?

BUB - Battery Utility Bus Battery Essential Bus DC Essential Bus

What is transverse flow effect?

Basically, when in forward flight, the air passing over the rear portion of the disk has a greater downwash angle than the air passing through the forward portion. This creates more lift on the forward portion of the disk than the rear portion of the disk.

Star above airport

Beacon

At what airspeed can HVR HOLD modes be engaged?

Below 60 knots

What airspeed would you experience transverse flow?

Between 10 and 20 knots.

When does ETL typically occur?

Between 16 and 24 knots.

For flight into moderate icing conditions, all equipment in b. and ______must be installed, operational, and turned on

Blade De-Ice

How is Dissymmetry of Lift compensated for?

Blade flapping and cyclic feathering.

What can cause the size of the regions to vary?

Blade pitch setting, rate of descent, and rotor RPM.

What are the brains for the Stabilator? Muscle?

Brains - 2 FCCs. Muscle - 2 Stabilator Actuators.

What is the brains for FPS? Muscle?

Brains - FCCs Muscle - Trim Actuators

How can HVR VHLD be engaged?

By pressing the HVR hold button on the FD/DCP between 1-60 knots, or by pressing the cyclic TRIM REL button while in HVR DECL mode. Also, if in HVR POSN and the TRIM beeper switch is held for more than 1 second, HVR VHLD will be engaged.

What spheroid are we in anywhere in the United States?

CL6

C inside a circle

CTAF

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the ALTP (altitude pre-select) mode?

Can be armed in flight or on the ground (will capture within 300')

Describe the Post-Roll (Gillingham) Illusion.

Can manifest after a roll maneuver. Pilot may initiate a roll rate into a coordinated turn, complete the maneuver, but then incorrectly provide control input to add additional bank in the same direction with the misperception of a decrease in bank

What does an underline on a Nav Aid frequency mean?

Cannot talk across that freq

Night Flight Requirements Weather (CCW)

Ceiling/Visibility Cloud Clearance Winds

What activity requires 6 hours of restriction?

Centrifuge runs, with no residual effects

How often do class 1 and 2 aircraft need to be weighed?

Class 1 - 36 months Class 2 - 24 months

What are the 2 classifications of aircraft, and what classification is the UH60M?

Class 1 and Class 2. The UH60M is a class 2 aircraft.

How is each class of airspace depicted on a sectional chart?

Class A - Not depicted Class B - Solid Blue Line Class C - Solid Magenta Line Class D - Segmented Blue Line Class E (sfc) - Segmented Magenta Line Class E beginning at 700' AGL - Magenta Vignette Class E beginning at 1200' AGL - Magenta Vignette

Which airspaces require clearance for entry?

Class A and B

Blue Concentric Circles

Class B Airspace

Magenta Concentric Circles

Class C Airspace

What boost servos are on the helicopter?

Collective, Yaw and Pitch.

What is electronic coupling? What does it compensate for?

Collective/Airspeed to Yaw - helps compensate for the torque effect. Decreases TR pitch as airspeed increases and TR and cambered fin become more efficient. Maximum mixing occurs from 0-40 knots, then decreases to 100 knots, after which no mixing occurs.

NVG Operational Considerations (CALMWWADSOS)

Color Airspeed Lights Magnification Wx Weapons A/C Lighting Depth Perception Scan Obstructions Spatial D

Types of Wires

Commo Wires, power wires, guy wires, fence wires, tow wires, enemy erected wires

Hypoxia that is associated with altitudes of 10,000 to 15,000 ft

Compensatory stage

Compensatory

Compensatory: 89%-80% oxygen saturation Altitude: 10-15k feet Symptoms: Drowsiness; poor judgment; impaired coordination and efficiency

What is the PC required to ensure regarding the DD Form 365-4?

Computations are correct and a 365-4 is on board and that the aircraft will remain w/n Weight and CG limits throughout the entire flight.

Visual Illusions

Confusion w/ ground lights Height-depth perception Autokinesis Fascination/Fixation False Horizons Crater Illusion Vection Structural Size-Distance

CT

Control Tower

Blue Airports

Controlled

What are the 4 types of airspace?

Controlled Uncontrolled Special Use Other

What allows power from one generator to power all of the other generators main busses?

Current Limiters

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the visual signal to signal lost communications in a UH-60 during the day and at night?

D - Flash Visual Position N - Flash Visual/IR Landing Light or White Flashlight.

What are the Self- Imposed stresses?

D- Drugs E- Exhuastion A- Alcohol T- Tobacco H- Hypoglycemia

What publication lists the forms, pubs, and records that are required in the aircraft?

DA Pam 738-751

What is the DoD identifier for a flight plan?

DD 175

What is the DoD identifier for a weather brief?

DD 175-1

Self Imposed Stress

DEATH: Drugs, Exhaustion, Alcohol, Tobacco and Hypoglycemia

Torque Limits (Q)

DUAL ENGINE Above 80 KIAS - 10 Second Transient: 100-144% - Continuous: 0-100% 80 KIAS or below - 10 Second Transient: 120-144% - Continuous: 0-120% SINGLE ENGINE 10 Second Transient: 135-144% Continuous: 0-135%

What is a DA/DH, and what type of approach is it used on?

Decision Altitude / Decision Height is a specified altitude or height at which a decision must be made to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach used in conjunction with a precision approach. DA is referenced to MSL and DH is referenced to Threshold Elevation.

NVG Characteristics

Definition Intensification Acuity Limited Field of View Voltage Low Indicator Power Supply

Dark Adaptation

Definition Starting Level Sensitivity Time to adapt Time to readapt Time to readapt

Depth Perception

Degree of contrast Available light Type and Quality of NVG Experience

Drift

Difference between TH and TR (Track)

What is dissymmetry of lift?

Dissymmetry of lift is the unequal lift between the advancing half and retreating half of the rotor disk caused by different wind flow velocities across each half.

Disturbance

Disturbance: 79%-70% oxygen saturation. Altitude: 15-20k feet Symptoms: Impaired flight control, handwriting, speech,vision, intellectual function, and judgment; decreased coordination, memory, and sensation to pain

What is middle ear discomfort caused by?

During descent, pressure of external air is greater than the pressure in the middle ear and the eardrum is forced inward.

Describe the induced flow during settling with power.

During normal hovering flight induced flow velocity is highest at the rotor tips and lowest at the center of the disk. During settling with power, the induced flow starts becoming upward rather than downward starting at the center of the disk and moving outward.

When must passengers be in their seats and restrained by seat belts and harnesses?

During takeoff, landing, and turbulence

How can you recover from settling with power?

During the initial stage (when large amounts of power are available), a large application of collective pitch may arrest the descent. Otherwise, apply cyclic in any direction to gain airspeed and arrest the upward induced flow. If altitude permits, lower the collective.

Explain why the nose of the helicopter tends to pitch up when taking off:

Dyssemetry of lift- difference in lift between the advancing and retreating halves of the blades. Gyroscopic procession causes the action to take place 90 degrees later which makes it occur over the nose and the rear of the aircraft. Transverse flow- difference in lift between the forward and aft section of the rotor disc. Increased downward velocity causes increased drag and a decreased lift on the aft section of the rotor disc.

The primary function of the ____ is to compute attitude, heading, present position, and turn rate.

EGI

Who are the standard approval authorities for Extremely High Risk, High Risk, Moderate Risk, and Low Risk Missions?

EH - First GO in the chain of command H - First O-6 in the chain of command (normally the Aviation BDE CDR) M - BN/SQDN/TF Commander L - Company/Troop Commander

Crossbleed starts shall not be attempted unless the ___ advisory does not appear, and operating engine must be at ___ or above and rotor speed at ___

ENG 1 ANTI-ICE ON or ENG 2 ANTI-ICE ON 90% NG 100 % NR

What is ETL?

ETL is an increase in efficiency of the rotor blades once the helicopter outruns the circulation of old vortexes and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air.

What are the emergency exits on the helicopter?

Either cockpit door (or windows if Navy style windows are installed), or cabin windows.

How often do weight and balance records need to be *reviewed*?

Every 12 months. They have until the last day of the 12th month to complete the review.

How often is ALSE gear required to be inspected?

Every 180 Days

How often does a 365-4 need to be *checked for accuracy*?

Every 90 days

What are the visual illusions?

False Horizons (sloping cloud deck/terrain, reduced vis) Fascination/Fixation (task saturation, target fixation) Vection (motion illusion) Confusion With Ground Lights (w/Stars) Autokinesis (Single Light appears to move) Structural (precip, heatwaves, other visual obscirants) Size-Distance (Comparing with familiar size) Height-Depth Perception ( Loss of visual cues) Crater Illusion Aerial Perspective Size-Consistency Shape-Consistency

What are some of the characteristics of the inner loop of the FCCs?

Fast in response, limited in authority, does not move the flight controls.

Use of Internal/External Lights

Flashlight Landing/Search/IR Anti-Collision Light Position Lights Cockpit Lights Supplemental Cockpit Lighting

What does a sideways "T" on a route indicate?

MEA, MOCA, and/or MAA change at other than a NAVAID.

What type of bearings are used in the main rotor system? Tail rotor?

Main - Elastomeric bearings Tail - None. The tail rotor is a bearingless tail rotor system.

What type of rotor system is the main rotor? Tail rotor?

Main - Fully Articulated (it can feather, flap, and lead/lag) Tail - Rigid

Dynamic Rollover Physical

Main rotor thrust Aircraft CG Surface Area/slopes Tail-rotor thrust Crosswind

What is the best action if recovery is possible from dynamic rollover?

Make smooth moderate control inputs.

Task 1167 - Perform Flight Maneuvers using Standby Flight Instrument System

Maneuver the aircraft to establish and maintain the desired altitude, heading, and airspeed as appropriate.

Lockout (Definition)

Manual control of engine RPM while bypassing DEC/EDECU functions.

Masking/Unmasking

Map/photo recon ensure exposure time <10 sec Mask from enemy visual and electronic detection observe assigned scan sector Maintain distance from obstacles report Move to new location

What is an MAA?

Maximum Authorized Altitude - The maximum usable altitude for an airspace structure or route segment. On a route segment it is the highest altitude that assures navigation aid signals.

Rotor (NR) - Power Off (Autorotation)

Maximum: 110% Transient: 105-110% Normal: 90-105%

Hazards to Terrain Flight

Meteorological Physical-Natural/Man-made Human

What is the pilot's responsibility in regards to closing flight plans at military and non-military installations?

Military Installation - The pilot should verbally confirm closing the flight plan with tower or base ops (usually it's done automatically). Non-Military Installation - The pilot must close the flight plan through the nearest FSS.

What is the main function of the MMU?

Minimize inherent control coupling. (Basically decrease pilot workload)

What is an MCA, and how is it identified?

Minimum Crossing Altitude - The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. It is identified by a "flag" with an "X" in it.

What is an MDA, and what type of approach is it used on?

Minimum Descent Altitude is the MSL altitude to which descent is authorized on final approach, or during a circle-to-land maneuver, used in conjunction with a non-precision approach.

What is an MEA, and what does it ensure?

Minimum Enroute IFR Altitude - The lowest altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

What phrase would you use to communicate to ATC that your fuel supply is at a state that, upon reaching the destination, you can accept little or no delay. (It's not an emergency, but could become an emergency if delays are encountered).

Minimum Fuel

What is an MIA?

Minimum IFR Altitude - The minimum altitude for IFR operations. If no minimum altitude is prescribed, the minimum altitude is 1000' AHO (non-mountainous) or 2000' AHO (mountainous) within 4 NM of the course to be flown.

What is a MOCA, and what does it ensure?

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - The lowest altitude between radio fixes which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR.

What is an MRA, and how is it identified?

Minimum Reception Altitude - The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined. It is identified by a "flag" with an "R" in it.

On an approach plate, what is an MSA and what does it provide?

Minimum Safe Altitude. It is for emergency use and provides at least 1000 feet of obstacle clearance within a 25 NM radius of the fix that the procedure is predicated upon. It is either a Minimum Sector Altitude or Emergency Safe Altitude. An Emergency Safe Altitude provides obstacle clearance of 1000 feet in non-mountainous terrain and 2000 feet in mountainous terrain within 100 NM of the fix. It is generally only used in military procedures.

What is an MVA?

Minimum Vectoring Altitude - The lowest MSL altitude at which IFR aircraft can be radar vectored. It meets obstacle clearance requirements, but is not published on charts. It is only available to controllers.

Tactical LZ/PZ Recon

Mission Security Location

What conditions make the discomfort worse?

More susceptible with a cold or sore throat, sinusitis, etc. and descending altitude. It is more evident during rapid descents at low altitudes.

What are the Search techniques?

Motive: Terrain Flight Side Scan: 100' AGL or higher/cruise speed Stationary: NOE

Visual Cues

Movement Color Light Obvious sightings Shadows Smoke Texture Trails

When must the engine inlet anti-ice come on? When might it come on? When won't it come on?

Must - 4°C and below May - Above 4°C to 13°C Will Not - Above 13°C

What are your 30 minute limits?

Ng, TGT, ENG OIL TEMP, APU operation (above 43 deg C with rotors and engine operating), Main gearbox in a nose up attitude.

Can RL3 designated crewmembers perform 2000 or 3000 series tasks?

No

Is a Flight Plan required in a Operators Log is completed per AR95-1?

No

What fire fighting capability is lost when there is no AC power to the helicopter?

No 2 Engine

What is hypoxic hypoxia?

Not enough oxygen in the air (altitude)

Describe the G-Excess Illusion

Occurs in a sustained (>1) G environment with a head movement in a steep turn. If a pilot turns his/her head up to the inside of steep turn at high G, it may be interpreted as an underbank and the pilot may overbank the aircraft with an inadvertent descent.

What is an OROCA?

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - An off route altitude which provides obstruction clearance within each bounded lat/long quadrant as shown on IFR charts. It may not provide NAVAID signal coverage.

What type of scanning should we use to fly unaided?

Off-center. Night blind spot is 5.5 to 7.5 degrees.

What switch is located on the #1 accessory module?

Oil Pressure Switch (Light at 14 PSI +/- 2)

How is the angle of attack different on the forward and aft portion of the disk? Why is it different?

On the forward portion of the disk, the AOA is increased (compared to the rear) because of the more horizontal flow of air, which increases lift. In the rear portion of the disk, the AOA is decreased (compared to the front) because of the more vertical flow of air, which decreases lift.

How often should crewmembers receive no-notice evaluations?

Once per year, outside the APART window (minimum).

Can commanders conduct self-approval for missions in which they are flying as the PC/AMC?

Only commanders in the grade of LTC (05) or above.

Distance, Rate, and Quantity are read on which circle of the E6-B?

Outer

During holding, when does outbound timing begin?

Over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later.

What are the oxygen requirements for an unpressurized aircraft?

Oxygen will be used by: *Aircrew* >10,000' PA for more than 1 hour. >12,000 PA for more than 30 minutes. *Aircrew and other occupants* >14,000' PA for any period of time. >18,000 PA prebreathing is required by the aircrew.

Task 1040 - Additional Info

P* announce whether T/O from the ground or hover and intent to abort or alter the T/O, and select reference points to maintain T/O flight path.

What are the 3 types of drag, and what causes them?

Parasite Drag - Incurred from the non-lifting components of the aircraft. Increases as airspeed increases and is the main cause of drag at high airspeeds. Profile Drag - Incurred from the frictional resistance of the blades passing through the air. It increases moderately at high airspeeds. Induced Drag - Incurred as a result of the production of lift. It decreases as airspeed increases.

Star after CT

Part Time Operation

What type of vision do we use with NVG's?

Photopic

What are the 3 types of vision?

Photopic- day, color, cones Mesopic- dawn, dusk, loss of vis. Acuity, loss of color Scotopic- Night, rods, no color, vis acuity 20/200 or less

Describe the Leans.

Pilot fails to perceive angular motion - rolling in and out of banking maneuvers may cause a false perception of attitude and the pilot will "lean" his body until the false sensation leaves

What are the types of Vestibular Illusions and what causes each type?

Somatogyral Illusions (semicircular canals) are caused by a misperception of direction or magnitude of rotation. Somatogravic Illusions (otolith organs) are caused by changes in linear acceleration/deceleration and gravity. Oculoargravic - Visually analogous to somatogravic illusions and occur under similar conditions.

What type of actuators used for pitch, roll, yaw, and collective trim?

Pitch - Electrohydromechanical actuator. Roll, Yaw, Collective - Electromechanical actuators.

What does the DECL (ILS Deceleration) mode provide when activated?

Pitch command to slow the helicopter to 70 KIAS by 200' AGL using the DECEL mode (0.5 kts per second deceleration).

What axes (motions) does Trim work in?

Pitch, Roll, Yaw, and Collective

What is the muscle for SAS?

Pitch, Roll, and and Yaw SAS Actuators.

How would a pilot document services required at a destination?

Place an S in remarks section

What could the beacon running during the day possibly indicate?

Possible IFR conditions

Transmission Temp (T)

Precautionary: 105-140°C Continuous: -20-105°C

Transmission Pressure (P)

Precautionary: 65-130 psi Continuous: 30-65 psi Idle and Transient: 20-30 psi

What are the 3 blade regions associated with autorotation and where are they located?

Stall Region - Inboard 25% Driving Region - In the middle 25-70% Driven Region - Approximately the outer 30%.

What are the Elements and Objectives of crew coordination?

Principles - Communicate positively; Be explicit; Announce actions; Acknowledge actions; Direct assistance; Offer assistance; Coordinate action sequence and timing; Provide aircraft control and obstacle advisories. Objectives (*TWIX-P*) - Establish and maintain *T*eam Relationships; Establish and maintain *W*orkloads; Exchange Mission *I*nformation; Cross-monitor Performance (*X*-monitor); *P*lan mission and rehearse

How often should Aviation Crew Members ensure they are current on the reading file?

Prior to each flight.

Flight into heavy or severe icing is ________

Prohibited

Flight with cockpit door(s) removed is ______

Prohibited

Intentional flight into severe turbulence is _______

Prohibited

Intentional flight into thunderstorms is _______

Prohibited

Manual operation of the stabilator in flight is _______ except as required by formal training and maintenance test flight requirements or as alternate stabilator control in case the AUTO mode malfunctions.

Prohibited

Operating an engine against the gust lock is ________

Prohibited

The jettisoning of fuel tanks in other than an emergency is __________

Prohibited

What are the 2 regulatory types of special use airspace?

Prohibited and Restricted

Blue Feathered Line

Prohibited, Restricted, Warning Area

Describe the Coriolis Illusion.

Prolonged turn is initiated and pilot makes a head motion in a different geometrical plane, can result in a head over heels tumbling sensation If the controls are not quickly taken by the co-pilot, the aircraft may never recover.

What is the purpose of the Flight Director?

Provide autopilot functions

What is the purpose of the OAT sensor?

Provides a signal to the controller for heating EOT (element on time) of the rotor blades. The lower the OAT, the longer the EOT will be.

What do the otolith organs provide and how do they provide it?

Provides gravity and linear acceleration / deceleration sensory indications Provides it through sensory hairs that bend from movement of the otlithic membrane when under gravitational forces / accel / decel forces.

What is the definition of fatigue?

State of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from prolonged mental or physical work, extended periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environments, or loss of sleep.

What are static and dynamic stability?

Static Stability is long term and is the tendency to return to the pilot's desired heading, attitude, or airspeed. Dynamic Stability is short term and is the tendency to resist movement.

Name the following Weapons Control Status: weapon is stowed, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bolt forward, and weapon selector is on FIRE.

Stowed

How long can you fly above 14,000ft w/o oxygen?

Supplemental Oxygen is always required at this altitude

What is the height of Class D airspace?

Surface to 2500ft AGL

What direction does TAF act in normal flight?

TAF is normally inclined up and rear.

What is the equation for determining Magnetic Heading?

TC +- DC = TH +- VAR = MH

What parameters will activate HSP? Can it be overridden?

TGT > 900C, NG < 60%, NP < 50%. It can be disabled for emergency starts by pressing and holding the overspeed test button (TEST A/B) for the engine being started during the start sequence.

Black Concentric Circles

TRSA

Takeoff Considerations

Tactical Situation Long Axis Obstacles Wind

Approach Considerations

Tactical Situation Suitability of the Landing Area Long Axis Obstacles Wind

How are the #1 and #2 hydraulic pumps driven? The backup pump?

The #1 and #2 pumps are driven by the accessory modules (in response to RPM R). The backup pump is driven by an AC electric motor.

Where does the APU get fuel from?

The #1 fuel tank

Which FCC is the only FCC that sends signals to the trim actuators?

The #2 FCC

When filing IFR to a destination airfield, what must the destination weather be?

The *predominant* weather must be equal to or greater than the published weather planning minimums for the *approach to be flown* at *ETA through 1 hour after ETA*.

What is the air source for starting the APU?

The APU Accumulator

How does each FCC know the status of the other?

The Cross Channel Data Link (CCDL)

Where does the extinguishing agent go if more than one lever is pulled?

The LAST lever pulled.

Who is responsible for approving and submitting the flight plan?

The PC

Who will announce altitude to climb?

The PC

Who will ensure that all required ALSE is onboard prior to takeoff?

The PC

Who is responsible for closing the Flight Plan? How?

The PC In accordance with the FLIP: -By phone -By aircraft radio -In person at flight ops

What is the army aircraft callsign?

R + last five of aircraft serial number

Warnings, along with fires, and emergencies without associated W/C/A messages are located in the ________ section.

RED

All ____ and ____ aviators are authorized to operate the APU regardless of seat designation unless otherwise restricted by the commander.

RL1, RL2

If a "VOCO" approval is attained, what must be written on the R-COP?

Rank and initials/name of the VOCO approval, along with the DTG and the name of whom the VOCO came through.

Prolonged ______ and _____ are to be avoided to prevent accumulation of _____ in the helicopter and heat damage to ______

Rearward flight Downwind hovering Exhaust Fumes Windows on open cargo doors

NVG Protective Equipment

Red Lighting Supp O2 Sunglasses

Hypemic Hypoxia

Reduction in O2 carrying capability of red blood cells; e.g. carbon monoxide

Stagnant Hypoxia

Reduction in blood flow; e.g. positive G maneuvers

What are the 2 categories of airspace?

Regulatory and Non-Regulatory

If planning an IFR flight through class G airspace, what are the altitude considerations?

Remain at least 1000' AHO in flat terrain, or 2000' AHO in designated mountainous terrain. Also, you must meet the "semi-circular rule".

What is hypoxia?

Results when the body lacks oxygen

How is this different from retreating blade stall?

Retreating blade stall occurs with Low RPM.

Define effective translational lift (ETL).

Rotor completely outruns the re-circulation of old vortices and begins to work in relatively undisturbed air. Occurs between 16-24 knots.

Airflow IGE

Rotor efficiency is increased by ground effect to a height of about one rotor diameter. This causes a reduction in induced flow velocity. The air circulation IGE reduces the rotor tip vortices, reducing drag and the power required to hover.

What indications would be experienced during compressibility?

Rotor roughness, vibration, cyclic shake, nose pitch down, and right roll.

What sensor is located on the #2 accessory module?

Rotor speed. (There is also one on the #1 accessory module in the A+ and L models for transient droop response.)

Rectangular runway drawn

Runway > 8069 ft

What happens if both tail rotor cables fail?

The centering spring will position the tail rotor servo linkage to provide 10.5 degrees of pitch.

Airports inside a circle

Runway less than 8069ft

What do the semi-circular canals provide and how do they provide it?

Sense changes in angular acceleration (pitch, roll, or yaw attitude). There is "endolymph" fluid in the canals that moves on the three planes stimulating hairs through the cupula which then is transmitted to the brain.

Describe what happens during settling with power?

Settling with power is a condition in which the helicopter settles in its own downwash. The helicopter normally produces vortices around the blade tips, however when the helicopter starts a near vertical descent, the upward flow of air creates vortices starting at the hub and moving outward as well. These vortices reduce the rotor disc surface area that is creating lift, eventually not producing enough lift to keep the helicopter from descending.

NVG Operational Defects

Shading Edge Glow Emission Points Flashing

What other 3 aerodynamic phenomenon cause the effects on the aircraft?

The combined effects of dissymmetry of lift, gyroscopic precession, and transverse flow effect cause this tendency.

If the exclusion period for RL progression exceedes 45 consecutive days, what must happen?

The crewmember must restart their current phase of RL progression.

What region(s) is/are responsible for thrust/acceleration? Drag/deceleration?

The driving region is responsible for acceleration and thrust of the blade, while the driven region creates lift which slows the rotation of the blade, and creates drag.

What is a warning area?

Similar to a restricted area only the US government does not have jurisdiction over the airspace. Extends from 3 NM out from the coast of the US.

Tactical Report(Hasty)

Size Activity Location Time What we are doing

Size Distance

Size-consistency Shape-consistency Aerial Perspective

Intentional flight into turbulence with a _______ attached and an inoperative _______ is prohibited

Sling load Collective trim

If a Trim actuator becomes jammed, what allows the controls to still be moved? What force is required?

Slip clutches allow the flight controls to be moved if an actuator becomes jammed. It requires 80 lbs maximum in Yaw, 13 lbs maximum in Roll, and 22 lbs maximum in Collective.

Dynamic Rollover Human

Slow corrective inputs Wrong Corrective inputs Inattention Inexperience Loss of visual references

What is the Touchdown Zone?

The first 3,000' of the usable landing surface, and used to determine the TDZE (Touchdown Zone Elevation).

What happens to induced flow as ETL is experienced? Drag? AOA?

The flow of air through the rotor system becomes more horizontal as the helicopter moves forward which decreases induced flow, as well as induced drag. AOA is subsequently increased.

What happens if there is a leak in the APU Accumulator?

The flow rate should increase. When it increases to 1.5 GPM (normally the flow is 1 GPM), the velocity fuse in the utility module will shutoff flow to the accumulator, preventing all of the fluid from being drained from the backup pump.

What are the 3 functions of Trim?

Force Gradient Muscle for FPS Electronic Coupling

What are the maximum ground speeds forward, aft, and laterally in HVR VHLD?

Forward: 50 knots Aft: 20 knots Laterally: 20 knots

How is primary DC power obtained?

From 2 converters with the batteries as a secondary power source.

When are the position lights supposed to be on?

From official sunset to sunrise. Or if the conditions require it. They will be on bright

What are the Somatogravic Illusions?

G-Excess Illusion Elevator Illusion

If the weather at the airfield that you are filing to is not known and if there is no weather reporting service at the airfield, then what weather forecast can you use?

GFA (Graphical Forecast for Aviation)

Advisories and Annunciators with an associated emergency procedure are in the ______ section.

GREEN

Fundamentals of Recon

Gain and maintain enemy contact Orient on the recon objective Report all info rapidly and accurately Retain freedom to maneuver Develop situation rapidly Do not keep recon elements in reserve Ensure continuous recon

Fundamental of Reconnaissance

Gain and maintain enemy contact Orient on the reconnaissance objective Report all information rapidly and accurately Retain the freedom of maneuver Do not keep reconnaissance assets in reserve Develop the situation rapidly Ensure continuous reconnaissance

What provides the reference for how to complete a military flight plan?

General Planning

If you are asked to Air Taxi, what airspeed/altitude is expected?

Generally at speeds greater than 20 knots and less than 100' AGL. However, the pilot is solely responsible for selecting a safe altitude/airspeed for the operation.

Describe class G airspace chart depiction: lateral dimensions: vertical dimensions: operating requirements: cloud clearance requirements:

Generally none, uncontrolled airspace uncontrolled airspace uncontrolled airspace no operating requirements Below 1200' AGL: 1/2SM C/C (day) 1SM C/C (night) Above 1200' AGL/below 10,000MSL 1SM vis 500/1000/2000 (day) and 3SM vis 500/1000/2000 (night) Above 1200 AGL/above 10,000MSL: 5SM vis 1000/1000/1SM

Distance Estimation/Depth perception

Geometric Perspective Retinal Image Size Aerial Perspective Motion Parallax

What do we use for estimating distance with NVG's?

Geometric Perspective: - Vertical position in the field. - Apparent foreshortening. - Linear perspective. Retinal Image Size: - Known size of objects. - Increasing/decreasing size of objects. - Overlapping contours. Aerial Perspective: - Fading of colors or shades - Loss of detail or texture. - Light and shadows(pos of light source) Motion Parallax

What are the methods of refuel, and what are the maximum fuel pressures and flows associated with each?

Gravity Pressure - 55 PSI at 300 GPM Closed Circuit - 15 PSI at 110 GPM.

What part of ATC instructions/clearance are required to be read back?

Ground - Runway assignments and hold short instructions Air - Altitude assignments/restrictions, radar vectors, and altimeter settings when received from Approach Control.

Wind Recognition

Ground Indicators Aircraft Indicators Cockpit Indicators Forecast vs Actual Winds

What are the 3 different HVR modes that can be activated with the coupled Flight Director?

HVR DECL (deceleration mode) HVR VHLD (velocity hold) HVR POSN (position hold)

What HVR mode is engaged when pressing the "Z-axis plunge" on the trim beeper below 60 knots, and what other hold mode will be engaged (below 1500' AGL)?

HVR DECL will be engaged along with RALT hold below 1500' AGL

What is HAA, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with?

Height Above Airport is the height of the MDA above the published Airport Elevation, used in conjunction with circling minimums.

What is HAL, and what type of approach is it used for?

Height Above Landing is the height above a designated helicopter landing area used for helicopter instrument approach procedures.

What is HATh, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with?

Height Above Threshold is the height of the DH or MDA above the runway Threshold Elevation, used in conjunction with straight in minimums.

What is HAT, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with?

Height Above Touchdown is the height of the DH or MDA above the highest elevation in the Touchdown Zone, used in conjunction with straight in minimums.

what flight conditions are likely to cause a retreating blade stall?

High GWT, low rotor, high DA, steep or abrupt maneuvers, turbulent air, high airspeed.

When is the only time you would see Np>Nr?

High speed shaft failure.

When indicating how much fuel is on board how is it shown?

Hours + min

Flight conditions are conducive to settling with power:

Hover OGE above the hovering ceiling Hover OGE w/o precise altitude control Downwind approaches Steep approach at a high rate of descent Mask/Re-Mask operations Formation flight approach

Hover height plus 25 ft

How high must you be to cross under wires?

What type of Hypoxia could you possibly get from smoking?

Hypemic hypoxia

Excessive rate and depth of respiratory leading to abnormal loss of CO2

Hyperventilation

STABILATOR UNCOMMANDED NOSE DOWN PITCH ATTITUDE CHANGE

If an uncommanded nose down pitch down attitude occurs: - *Cyclic mounted stabilator slew-up switch - Adjust* (as required to arrest nose down pitch rate)

When does a flight plan "time out" of the ATC system?

If it is not activated or updated by the pilot within 2 hours of the proposed departure time.

When in HVR POSN mode, and the cyclic TRIM beeper is pressed, what will happen?

If less than one second, the POSN reference will be adjusted by 1-2 feet in that direction. If more than one second, HVR VHLD will be engaged.

During a radar approach, when do you initiate lost commo?

If no transmissions are received for: 1 minute for vectoring prior to final approach 15 seconds on final for an ASR 5 seconds on final for a PAR

What should you do if the APU fails?

If the APU FAIL light appears, note and analyze the bite indications before cycling the battery, or attempting another start. If the APU ACCUM LOW light hasn't come on, you can pull the manual override lever on the accumulator manifold and hold it until the APU has reached self-sustaining speed.

What happens if you press the TRIM REL button while in HVR VHLD mode? Cyclic Trim Beeper?

If the TRIM REL button is pressed, HVR VHLD will be disengaged and when the TRIM REL button is released, it will re-capture at the current longitudinal and lateral velocities. If the cyclic TRIM beeper is pressed, it will increase/decrease the VHLD velocity at a rate of 3.5 knots per second.

When will a diverse departure be authorized, and how would you execute it?

If the airport has at least one IAP, and there are not published departure procedures, a diverse departure can be flown. Fly runway heading until 400' above runway elevation before executing any turns and maintain a 200 Ft/NM climb gradient (unless otherwise published).

Will an IFR flight plan automatically be canceled when landing?

If the airport of landing has an operating control tower, the flight plan is automatically canceled upon landing. If the airport of landing does not have an operating control tower, the pilot must cancel the flight plan. This can be done after landing, or before landing, if the landing will be made in VFR conditions.

What does spatial disorientation mean?

Innacurate perception of one's position relative to the center of the earth.

What are the inner loop and outer loop systems in the FCCs?

Inner loop - SAS Outer loop - Trim

Hypoxic Hypoxia

Insufficient pressure of O2 in the air; e.g. flying at altitude

What is histotoxic hypoxia? What can it be caused by?

Interference with the use of oxygen by the body tissues. Caused by alcohol, narcotics, certain poisons.

What does transverse flow cause the aircraft to do?

It causes the helicopter to have a right rolling motion.

What does AR 40-8 say about tobacco?

It degrades physical performance including vision. Aircrews are discouraged from use of tobacco.

On a VFR Sectional, what is indicated by an airport where the runways are drawn in a bold line without a circle around it?

It indicates that the runway is a hard surfaced runway greater than 8069 feet long.

How is translating tendency compensated for?

It is compensated for in the MMU and AFCS, as well as pilot input.

What is Rotational Relative Wind?

It is just how we refer to relative wind in a helicopter. Rotational refers to the method of producing relative wind.

What is TAF?

It is the resultant force of lift and drag. It acts as the center of pressure on the airfoil.

What is it the sum of?

It is the sum of lift and drag.

What is the purpose of the APU?

It is used to start the main engines, cabin heating, and electrical power for ground and emergency in-flight electrical operations.

What does FPS provide? In what axes? What type of stability does it provide (dynamic/static)?

It provides a basic autopilot function in the Pitch, Roll and Yaw axis. Provides long term static stability.

How can HVR POSN mode be activated?

It will automatically capture when either HVR VHLD or HVR DECL modes are engaged and the helicopter velocity drops below 1 knot GS.

retinal image size

Known Size Increasing/Decreasing Size Terrestrial Association Overlapping Contours

Explains what happens when you get a #1 RES LOW caution light?

LDI is activated, turning on the BACKUP pump, the #1 T/R SERVO and the #2 T/R SERVO ON advisory light.

What is stagnant hypoxia? What can it be caused by?

Lack of circulation of oxygen through the body. Caused by heart failure, arterial spasm, high G's.

Exhaustion

Lack of sleep Physical Conditionioning

Technical LZ/PZ recon characteristics

Landing Formation Obstacles Number and type of AC Ground Slope Load Suitability App & Dep direction Size of available landing area Surface condition Vulnerability

What does Land as Soon as Practicable mean?

Landing in the nearest suitable landing area. The primary consideration is the Urgency of the emergency.

Recovery from settling with power:

Large application of collective pitch may arrest rapid descent Apply cyclic to gain airspeed Lower the collective as altitude permits

What are the Somatogyral Illusions?

Leans (most common) Graveyard Spin (usually fixed wing) Coriolis Illusion (most dangerous) Post-Roll (Gillingham Illusion)

Where is the tourniquet located?

Left Shoulder

Below 50 knots, what will the collective trim beeper do?

Left/Right - Pedal turn of approximately 3 degrees per second. Once released, maintains heading. Up/Down - Will adjust the reference altitude for collective FD functions. Once released, altitude hold (if previously engaged) is re-engaged at the new altitude.

Above 50 knots, what will the collective trim beeper do (if heading mode is not engaged)?

Left/Right - Standard rate turn until released, then back to wings level (previously set attitude). Up/Down - Will adjust the reference altitude for collective FD functions. Once released, altitude hold (if previously engaged) is re-engaged at the new altitude. The collective AFCS Trim Button is deactivated any time the heading hold mode is engaged.

What are the life preserver requirements according to AR 95-1?

Life Preservers - All personnel aboard an aircraft without single engine flight capability and flown beyond gliding distance of land will wear life preservers. All other AC will have life preservers readily available.

What is the range on the VHF/UHF and FM?

Line of sight (Note:Range of transmission depends on many variables including weather, time of day, operating frequency, power of transmitter and altitude of the helicopter)

Geometric Perspective

Linear Perspective Apparent Foreshortening Vertical position in the field

Task 1253 - Operate Flight Management System - Central Display Unit

Load, configure, and utilize mission information as necessary to complete assigned mission.

Name the following Weapons Control Status: weapon is manned, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bold forward, and weapon selector is on FIRE.

Loaded

How does Coriolis usually happen?

Looking inside while entering a climbing or decending turn, then suddenly looking up.

What happens during a complete alternator failure?

Loss of Ng cockpit indication with corresponding ENG OUT warnings and audio (Ng < 55%). NOTE: There will be no loss of NP1 and NP2, or Q, and Overspeed Protection is still available due to DEC being backed up by airframe power.

When will the SAS OFF caution appears?

Loss of actuator pressure, or if both SAS1 and SAS2 are turned off.

If you experience decompression sickness what are the restrictions?

You cannot fly until cleared by a flight surgeon.

During holding, how much should your wind correction be outbound compared to inbound?

You should multiply your inbound correction by 3 for an outbound correction.

When HVR DECL is activated through the z-axis plunge, what will the DECL mode do, and can the rate be changed?

The helicopter will be slowed at 2.5 knots per second, and the lateral velocity will be kept at 0. The helicopter will continue to slow until it is below 1 knot and HVR POSN will be engaged. The deceleration rate can be adjusted from 1.5 to 3.5 knots per second by pushing forward or aft on the cyclic trim beeper.

During lost commo, what altitude should you fly?

The highest of: 1) Altitude last assigned 2) Altitude ATC told you can be expected 3) Minimum altitude for IFR operations (i.e. MEA, feeder route)

Where are the freewheeling units located?

The input modules

What will happen if the helicopter is shut down after one cable is severed?

The other tail rotor cable will become disconnected.

Describe the Graveyard Spin.

The pilot enters a spin, recovers from the spin, but feels as though he is spinning in the other direction, and reenters the initial spin direction again.

Describe Type 3.

The pilot experiences such an overwhelming sensation of movement that he cannot orient himself by using visual cues or the aircraft instruments. Not fatal if co-pilot can gain control of the aircraft.

When departing a non-military airport, what must the pilot do in regards to the time he takes off. Why?

The pilot must ensure that the actual departure time is passed on to the tie-in FSS, so that the aircraft does not arrive unannounced.

Describe Type 2.

The pilot perceives a problem (resulting from SD). The pilot may fail to recognize it as SD.

What bottle must be discharged if there is no AC power to the helicopter?

The reserve

Visual search definition

The systematic visual coverage of a given area so that all parts of the area are observed

What is translating tendency?

The tendency of the helicopter to drift in the direction of tail rotor thrust (to the right).

Which window on the E6-B do you use to convert from indicated altitude to true altitude TALT?

The window on the left

If the APU generator is the sole source of power, what limitations exist (with the systems)?

The windshield anti-ice and backup pump cannot be used simultaneously.

On a VFR sectional, what does a star on top of the airfield symbol (depiction of the runways) mean?

There is a rotating airport beacon in operation from sunset to sunrise.

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the rotor disk separation for the following formations: Tight, Close, Loose, and Extended

Tight - 1-2 disks Close - 3-5 disks Loose - 6-10 disks Extended - Greater than 10 disks

Why is bypass required for the hydraulic system? Is there a bypass on the return and pressure filters? When will the bypass valve open?

To prevent hydrostatic lock. There is no bypass on the pressure filter. The return filter bypass valve opens at 100 +/- 10 psi above normal.

Techniques of Movement

Traveling - Enemy unlikely; least amount of security/fastest method for moving a formation Traveling Overwatch - Enemy possible; continuous movement/contour flight is normally used. Airspeed is high and varied Bounding Overwatch - Enemy contact; greatest concealment required. Contour/NOE flight used. Airspeed varies depending on bounds.

If both cables fail, is trimmed flight available? At what airspeeds?

Trimmed flight is available between 25 KIAS to 145 KIAS (depending on gross weight).

Someone fires a rifle at us on our route south of Kingston, what do you do?

Turn away and zig zag until out of range then resume course.

What are the types of SD?

Type 1: Unrecognized Type 2: Recognized Type 3: Incapacitating

Types of spatial disorientation

Type 1: unrecognized (no perceived indication of SD) Type 2: recognized (perceived a problem, but no recognition of SP) Type 3: incapacitating (experiences overwhelming SD effects, not fatal if regain control of aircraft)

What is acute fatigue?

Type of fatigue that occurs between 2-3 regular sleep periods. It is treated with normal sleep. You can recover with 1 regular sleep cycle. Symptoms: inattention, errors and irritability.

Magenta Airports

Uncontrolled

What is retreating blade stall?

Unequal lift of the retreating blade.

frequency at end of airport info

Unicom

What will happen if you z-axis plunge above 60 knots?

Unusual attitude recover mode will be engaged. It will: - Engage barometric altitude hold - Level the wings (within the limitations of the trim system) - Engage IAS hold at: o 80 knots (between 60-80 knots) o Current speed (between 80-120 knots) o 120 knots (above 120 knots)

What are the regulations on medication use?

Use of all medications will be with the knowledge of flight surgeon or APA. Self medication is permitted only in accordance with the OTC medication APL.

What is a military operations area?

Used to separate military training activities from IFR aircraft. Examples of activities conducted in MOAs include, but are not limited to: air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low-altitude tactics. Military pilots flying in an active MOA are exempted from the provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.303(c) and (d) which prohibits aerobatic flight within Class D and Class E surface areas, and within Federal airways. Additionally, the Department of Defense has been issued an authorization to operate aircraft at indicated airspeeds in excess of 250knots below 10,000 feet MSL within active MOAs.

What is the purpose of a VFR flight plan? IFR?

VFR - enables search and rescue to identify an overdue aircraft and where it might be. IFR - to communicate the pilot's intentions to ATC.

What are helicopter fuel reserve requirements VFR and IFR?

VFR: 20 minutes at cruise IFR: 30 minutes at cruise

How is the abeam point determined when holding over a NAVAID?

VOR By the first change of the TO/FROM flag or, By observing the 90 degree radial from the VOR NDB By observing the 90 degree bearing to the NDB

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class A airspace?

Vertical Limits: 18,000' MSL to FL600 Lateral Limits: Entire contiguous US and Alaska including airspace 12NM out from the coast. Equipment: IFR Equipped Weather: N/A Note: Must be IFR.

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class D airspace?

Vertical Limits: SFC to 2,500' Above airport elevation. Lateral Limits: Individually tailored for IAPs however generally 5 NM. Communication: Establish 2 way radio communication with ATC. Equipment: 2 Way Radio Weather: 3SM visibility and BCC.

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class C airspace?

Vertical Limits: SFC to 4,000' Above airport elevation (inner), 1200' to 4,000' Above airport elevation (outer) Lateral Limits: 5NM (inner), 10NM (outer) Communication: Establish 2 way radio communication with ATC. Equipment: 2 Way Radio, Mode C Transponder Weather: 3SM visibility and BCC (Basic Cloud Clearance).

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class B airspace?

Vertical Limits: Usually SFC to 10,000MSL. Each "layer" is individually tailored. Lateral Limits: Individually tailored. Communication: Must have clearance to enter Equipment: 2 Way Radio, Mode C Transponder, (VOR or TACAN for IFR operations) Weather: 3SM visibility and Clear of Clouds

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class G airspace?

Vertical and Lateral: SFC to base of Class E. No Comm or Equipment Requirements Weather: *< 1200' AGL* Day - 1/2 SM visibility and Clear of clouds. Night - 1 SM visibility and Clear of clouds. *> 1200' AGL but < 10,000' MSL* Day - 1 SM visibility and BCC Night - 3 SM visibility and BCC *> 1200' AGL and > 10,000' MSL* Day and Night - (5-111) 5 SM visibility, 1000' above, 1000' below, 1 SM horizontal.

What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class E airspace?

Vertical: Either starts at the ground, 700' AGL, 1200' AGL or 14,500' MSL (if it isn't specified otherwise), up to 18,000' MSL. Also includes the airpace above FL600. Lateral: Entire contiguous US and Alaska extending 12 NM of the coast. Communication: None if VFR. Equipment: No requirement Weather: <10,000' MSL - 3 SM visibility and BCC. ≥10,000' MSL - (5-111) 5 SM visibility, 1000' above, 1000' below, 1 SM horizontal.

What indications would be experienced during retreating blade stall?

Vibrations and buffeting and a roll left and nose pitch up.

Meteorological LZ/PZ Recon

Visibility DA Winds Ceiling

Sensory systems

Visual (80% of orientation) Vestibular (motion and gravity) / semicircular canals detect acceleration and otolith organs detect changes in attitude Proprioceptive - "flying by the seat of your pants" the body itself senses changes while flying

What are the sensory systems that help keep equlibrium for the human body?

Visual, vestibular, proprioceptive.

Describe the Oculoargravic Illusion.

Visually analogous to the somatogravic illusions and occur under similar conditions. It is due to the visual misperception of a fixed object (such as, the instrument panel) moving up or down due to acceleration or deceleration.

What on the PPC relates to retreating blade stall?

Vne and Max Angle

What is another name for settling with power?

Vortex Ring State

Where are vortices created during a hover?

Vortices are created at the rotor tip.

What are the 4 types of non-regulatory special use airspace?

Warning Areas Military Operations Areas (MOAs) Alert Areas Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs)

Name the following Weapons Control Status: PC may engage any target not positively identified as friendly IAW established ROE as well as directed engagement and bypass criteria.

Weapons Free

Name the following Weapons Control Status: Do not fire except in self-defense.

Weapons Hold

Name the following Weapons Control Status: PC Fires only at targets positively identified as hostile IAW established ROE as well as directed engagement and bypass criteria.

Weapons Tight

Factors that affect a visual search

Weather Altitude Airspeed Terrain Cues Human Eye

Rules for Var calculations:

West is best (add for west) East is least (subtract for east)

Scanning Off Center Vision Shapes and Silhouettes

What are our Night Vision Techniques?

Airflow OGE

When Out of Ground Effect, induced flow velocity and the rotor tip vortices are increased. The larger rotor tip vortices increase drag, requiring more power to hover.

When does the EDECU switch from the 10-minute TGT limiting value to the higher 2.5-minute TGT limiting value?

When any of the following occur: 1) NP drops below 96% 2) Greater than 3% droop between reference NP and actual NP. 3) Greater than 5% per second NP droop rate exists and NP less than or equal to NP reference.

When not in radar contact, when should you report an updated estimate (of time).

When it becomes apparent that an estimate previously submitted is in error in excess of three minutes.

When must the crew members wear a properly adjusted seat belt and shoulder harness?

When on the controls or required by mission

When does the APU GEN ON advisory appear?

When only the APU generator is supplying power to the system. It will not appear when either the No.1 or No.2 generator is supplying power.

When/How is turn coordination activated?

When roll attitude is greater than 1 degree for any of the following: 1) Lateral cyclic greater than 1/3 inch stick displacement from trim. 2) Cyclic TRIM REL is pressed. 3) Roll attitude is beeped beyond 2.5 degrees bank angle.

Why does blowback occur? How is it compensated for?

When the blades flap, the maximum upflap position is at the nose and the maximum downflap position is at the tail. This causes blowback. It is compensated for by cyclic feathering from the aviator (forward cyclic).

What happens when the blades flap? Is AOA increased or decreased on advancing and retreating blades?

When the blades flap, the upward and downward motion changes the induced flow velocity, in turn changing the AOA. AOA is decreased on the advancing half and increased on the retreating half.

What is an autorotation?

When the engine is disengaged from the rotor system, and the upward flow of air through the rotor system drives the rotor.

When will the ACOL lights be on?

When the engines are running unless conditions could cause flicker vertigo or there is another hazard to safety.

Describe retreating blade stall.

When the helicopter is in forward flight, forward speed of the helicopter decreases the relative velocity of the retreating half of the rotor disk. Because of the decrease in a velocity, a higher AOA is required to generate the same lift as the advancing side. In addition, there is a smaller area of the disk creating lift (due to the no lift areas) on the retreating side which places an even greater demand on that area to create the lift required. Eventually, the AOA becomes so high that it stalls.

When will the heater automatically disengage?

When the starter button is pressed to start an engine.

When will the ENG INLET ANTI-ICE ON advisories appear?

When the temperature of the inlet fairing gets above about 93°C.

When does the BATT LOW CHARGE caution appear?

When voltage on the BUB drops below 20.5 VDC.

In regards to Multiship Operations, at what distance is "CLOSING" called?

When within 10 rotor disks.

At the completion of an IFR approach, when officially may you descend below the MDA or DH?

When you have one of the following in sight: 1) Approach lights 2) Runway threshold 3) Other marking (i.e. runway paint markings) identifiable with the approach end of the runway. AND the aircraft is in a position from which a safe landing can be made.

What colors is the rotating beacon?

White and Green

On the MFD, what does it mean when the stabilator indicator is white, yellow, and red?

White: AUTO MODE Yellow: MANUAL MODE Red: When stabilator fail flag is displayed.

Who will announce IIMC?

Whoever goes IIMC. Both pilots may or may not be inadvertent.

Cautions are in the ________ section

YELLOW

If you are removed from RL1 due to a training deficiency and reclassified as RL2 or RL3, must you still meet the ATP requirements for RL1?

Yes

Does an RL1 designated crewmember need to perform a certain number of iterations of each 1000, 2000, and 3000 series task on the CTL?

Yes, RL1 crewmembers must perform one iteration of each 1000, 2000, and 3000 series task listed in the CTL *during the training year*.

Can a GPS-based instrument approach be planned for at an alternate airfield?

Yes, but only if one hasn't been planned for at the destination. A GPS based approach cannot be planned for at both the destination and alternate.

If an engine fails to the highside (DEC failure), will the other engine RPM rise with it? For how long?

Yes, but only until NP is 3% above the reference NP.

If an IFR approach plate says "Dual VORs Required" and you only have one VOR can you execute the approach?

Yes, dual VOR equipment requirements specified on approach charts do NOT apply to Army aircraft.

Can a task current aviator be substituted for the additional CE requirement for NVG tasks that require a minimum crew of 4?

Yes, if a CE is not available but only as a last resort.

Can we continue to fly if a GEN BRG appears? For how long?

Yes, the auxiliary bearing will allow 10 additional hours of operation after the caution appears.

Can an RL2 designated rated crewmember fly with a PC?

Yes, they can fly with a PC and perform all tasks in each mode of flight as authorized on the CTL previously evaluated as "S" by an IP or SP.

Do flight plans have to be filed to go on a flight in an Army aircraft?

Yes, unless it's a local flight and an operation's log is used. AR 95-1 states that aircraft will not be flown unless a flight plan (military or civilian) has been filed or an operation's log completed.

If, upon arrival at your destination, the weather is below approach weather minimums, can you do the approach anyway?

Yes, upon arrival at your destination, an approach may be initiated, regardless of ceiling and visibility.

If you receive clearance to leave the fix during holding, do you have to wait until you are back over the fix to depart holding?

Yes, you must depart from over the fix, unless ATC states "cleared from you present position".

Do you need to request permission to go through a prohibited, restricted, or warning area? Alert or MOA?

Yes- Contact controlling agency for permission prior to entry No

If a simulator period is "flown" prior to actual aircraft flight in the same duty period, do the flight hours flown in the sim count toward the maximum number of flying hours that can be flown in a duty day?

Yes.

Is a crew and passenger manifest required for every flight?

Yes. A crew an passenger manifest is required for all flights.

For UH-60s, if a qualified and current NRCM is not available to fly, can the crew fly with only a PC and PI?

Yes. BN Commanders may authorize routine day training flights without an NRCM, but *should* include a third aviator to assist with airspace surveillance and clearing the aircraft.

For IFR *planning*, must you avoid flying through a restricted area?

Yes. Unless on an airway, avoid flying through a restricted area by 3 nm. During flight, ATC will clear a pilot through if it is a Joint Use restricted area and the using agency releases the airspace to ATC.

If your aircraft is instrumented for IFR and flown by an instrument rated pilot, do you have to file an IFR flight plan.

Yes. Unless: 1) The flight is primarily for VFR training. 2) Time will not permit mission completion under IFR. 3) Mission can only be accomplished under VFR 4) Excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal area delays are encountered. 5) Hazardous weather conditions must be avoided. 6) Aircraft is being flown single pilot

Task 1070 - Respond to Emergencies

a. Conduct the Emergency Response Method (fly, alert, diagnose, execute, communicate-fly [FADEC-F]) upon recognition of an emergency. b. Select a suitable landing area, if required.

Task 1032 - Perform Radio Communication Procedures

a. Program, check and operate A/C avionics. b. Configure appropriate tactical internet (J-VMF, EDM, and BFT) system for desired operation. c. Transmit, receive, review, and delete messages (J-VMF, EDM, and BFT) and mission information as required. d. Establish radio contact with desired unit or ATC. When communicating with ATC, use correct radio commo procedures and phraseology. e. Operate ICS. f. Explain 2 way radio failure procedures per DOD FLIP or host-nation regs.

What altitude does the cruising rule go into effect?

above 3000ft

Red and Yellow striped tapes and red readouts indicate the limit _____________________. Yellow tapes and readouts indicate_______________. Green tapes and readouts indicate the______________.

above or below which continued operation is likely to cause damage or shorten component life. the range when special attention should be given to the parameter the instrument represents. the normal operating range of the parameter the instrument represents.

In regards to IIMC planning, normally base airspeed and airspeed changes should be used when ____________________.

aircraft separation cannot be made by heading changes.

What is the height for traffic patterns for Army Helicopters?

at least 700ft AGL

In regards to IIMC planning, standard heading adjustment will be _________________.

base +/- 10 degrees times the chalk # to the clear side of the formation.

In regards to IIMC planning, standard altitude adjustment will be ________________.

base +/- 500' for subsequent chalks.

Below what oil pressure will the ENG OIL PRESS caution light illuminate?

below 25 psi

Describe class B airspace? chart depiction: lateral dimensions: vertical dimensions: operating requirements: cloud clearance requirements:

blue concentric circles individually tailored individually tailored (MSL) ATC clearance required to enter and operate in class B, mode C transponder required 3SM vis and C/C

Describe class D airspace? chart depiction: lateral dimensions: vertical dimensions: operating requirements: cloud clearance requirements:

blue segmented lines individually tailored generally from surface to 2,500' MSL above airport elevation 2-way radio prior to entry and maintained, mode C transponder 3 SM / 500' below, 1000' above, 2000' horizontally

CTAF

common traffic advisory frequency

Where does class E airspace extend to?

from floor up to but not including 18,000 ft

The stabilator shall be set _____ at speeds below __ KIAS.

full down 40

Results when there is interference with the use of O2 by body tissue

histotoxic hypoxia

The ____ is the most common form of spatial disorientation

leans

Describe class E airspace? chart depiction: lateral dimensions: vertical dimensions: operating requirements: cloud clearance requirements:

magenta / blue vignettes and magenta dash lines as depicted from wherever it begins to a designated alititude or to the adjacent overlying controlled airspace normally no operating requirements (AGL) Below 10,000': 3SM vis, 500/1000/2000 Above 10,000': 5SM vis, 1000/1000/1SM

Describe class C airspace? chart depiction :lateral dimensions: vertical dimensions: operating requirements: cloud clearance requirements:

magenta concentric circles core surface area 5NM / shelf 10NM surface to 4,000' above airport elevation(MSL) / shelf - no lower than 1,200' up to 4,000' above the airport elevation 2-way radio communication prior to entry and maintained 3SM vis / 500' below, 1000' above, 2000' horizontally

Histotoxic Hypoxia

metabolic poisons such as cyanide prevent the tissues from using oxygen delivered to them

Describe class A airspace? chart depiction: lateral dimensions: vertical dimensions: operating requirements: cloud clearance requirements:

none airspace over water 12NM off the coast 18,000' MSL up to FL 600 (60,000')IFR only none (IFR only)

Engine overspeed check in flight is ___. Engine overspeed checks, on the ground, are authorized by ____ only

prohibited designated maintenance personnel

What corrections can be made to get out of a retreating blade stall?

reduce power, airspeed, G loading, increase RPM, check trim.

Use of the rotor brake with engine(s) operating is restricted to ______ and ____ engine starts and operations at ____ only.

single dual IDLE

Visual Search Purpose

to detect objects or activities on the ground

At what psi does the HYD PUMP caution light illuminate?

when pressure drops below 2000 psi

Common Standards for All Tasks

a) Do not exceed aircraft limitations b) Crewmember will comply with all evaluation considerations, warnings, cautions, and notes in the task. b) Perform crew coordination actions IAW chapter 8.

Name 3 of the visual illusions:

a) False Horizon b) Flicker vertigo c) Fixation d) Confusion e) Relative motion f) Autokinesis g) Structural illusions h) Height perception illusion i) Size-Distance illusion j) Reversible perspective

Common Standards for In-flight.

a) Heading ± 10 degrees. b) Altitude ± 100 ft. c) Airspeed ± 10 KIAS d) Maintain ground track with minimum drift. e) Maintain rate of climb or descent ± 200 FPM. f) Trim ± 1/2 ball width.

Common Standards for all tasks with the APU/engines operating.

a) Maintain airspace surveillance (Task 1026) b) Apply appropriate environmental consideration.

Which UH-60 NVG tasks require a minimum crew of 4?

a) When Combat Cruise formation is briefed or required. b) When in flight formation changes are briefed or anticipated. c) During training or mission Tactical Sling load Operations, Hoist operations, or FRIES/SPIES operations. e) MEDEVAC

Stress

The nonspecific response of the body to any demand placed on it is the definition of

What is the definition of stress?

The nonspecific response of the body to any demand placed upon it.

What is experienced in the aircraft?

The nose pitches up and the aircraft rolls right.

What forms when airflow slows from supersonic to subsonic?

As airflow slows from supersonic to subsonic airspeed, a shockwave is formed.

Prevention of Hypoxia

1. Limiting time at altitude 2. Supplemental oxygen 3. Pressurizing the cabin

How much is max torque reduced with use of engine anti-ice?

20% TRQ

Explain settling with power:

- aircraft settles in it's own downwash. - increased vortex ring state causes more wing tip vortices which move inside the rotor system. - causes: high GWT, vertical or near vertical descent of at least 300 fpm, power of at least 20-100% and an airspeed of 10 kts or less.

We're between Pam and Racquel tonight at 200 ft AGL. What class of airspace are we in and what are our VFR weather requirements?

-G - Below 1200: clear clouds, speed to see and avoid, 1/2 sm day, 1 sm night VFR min & proc. - Above 1200: baic cloud clearance, 1 sm day, 3 sm night

*Flight Controls and AFCS*

...

*Powertrain*

...

*Relative Wind*

...

*Utility Systems*

...

The dots located on the Glide Slope Pointer represent how much above or below the glide slope?

.25 degrees above or below the glide slope

What are the time differences for the backup pump to come on when the main generator is operating vs when the APU generator is operating?

.5 seconds when the main generator is operating and 4 seconds when operating from the APU generator or external power. The depressurization valve reduces output pressure of the pump upon startup of the electric motor to reduce it's current demand and torque requirement.

What are the 3 conditions for "settling with power"?

1. A vertical or near vertical descent rate of 300fpm or greater 2. 20-100% engine power with insufficient power to slow or stop the descent 3. Slow forward airspeed, less than ETL

Vestibular illusions

1. Leans (most common form of SD) 2. Graveyard spin 3. Coriolis (most dangerous)

Types of hypoxia:

1. Hypoxic (not enough oxygen in the air or low atmospheric pressure) 2. Hypemic (lack of blood or blood's inability to carry the oxygen - being shot / carbon monoxide) 3. Stagnant (inadequate circulation of the blood) 4. Histotoxic (interference with the use of oxygen by the body's tissues)

A method of estimating maximum range speed in winds is to increase IAS by ___ knots per each 10 knots of effective headwind?

2.5 (You decrease IAS by 2.5 for a tailwind)

Upon illumination of the TANK EMPTY capsule light, how much fuel remains in the extended range fuel system tanks?

2.5 to 4.0 gallons remain in the tank

How much of the total lifting force does the tail rotor provide at a hover?

2.5%

The wedge mounted pilot tube is ___ degrees further outboard and ___ degrees nose down.

20 / 3

What are your annual simulator minimums?

20 hours

How many pounds of downward pressure are to be placed on the load beam when performing the operational check of the cargo hook?

20 lbs.

How long after shutdown must you wait to check engine oil level? When must it be at the full line?

20 minutes. Flights over 6 hours.

During transfer, periodically verify that AUXILIARY FUEL MANAGEMENT panel is decreasing at a minimum of ___ lbs. per minute, per tank pair.

40 lbs. (Fuel transfer of less than 40 lbs. may indicate a reduced fuel flow from one or both tanks.)

The minimum ground-air source (pneumatic) required to start the helicopter engines is __ psig and ___ ppm at ___ (300°F). The maximum ground-air source to be applied to the helicopter is ___ psig at ___ (480°F), measured at the external air connector on the fuselage.

40 psig 30 ppm 149°C 50 psig 249°C

How much fluid has been lost when the RSVR LOW caution light illuminates?

40%

Routine stops will be with engine(s) off, NR below ___% and with _____ - ______ psi applied to stop the rotor in not less than ___ seconds.

40% 150-180 psi 12 seconds

What is the emergency guard frequency for FM?

40.50

The service platform is capable of supporting a static weight of?

400 lbs. on any area without yeilding

How many possible codes are there for MODE 3/A?

4096

What is the turning radius of the UH-60?

41 feet 7.7 inches

How hot does the windshield get when the de-ice is turned on?

43 C/ 109 F

To prevent APU overheating, APU operation at ambient temperature of _____ and above with engine and rotor operating, is limited to ___ minutes. With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be operated _____ up to an ambient temperature of ___.

43°C 30 mins Continuously 51°C

How long do you have to complete your CDR's Eval after signing in to your next unit?

45 calendar days

Maximum wind velocity for rotor start or stop is _____ from any direction.

45 knots

If (transmission) oil pressure is not steady during steady state forward flight or in a level hover, or if oil pressure is steady but under ___ psi, make an entry on the appropriate maintenance form. Sudden pressure drop (more than ___ psi) without fluctuation requires an entry on the appropriate maintenance form.

45 psi 10 psi

Describe the Elevator Illusion.

A type of G-excess illusion whereby a false sense of pitch may be experienced with significant upward or downward acceleration. A sudden increase in vertical G-force drives the eyeballs downward. May be perceived as nose high and dive the aircraft.

Identify the parts of the following airfoil

A) Induced Flow B) Resultant Relative Wind C) Angle of Attack D) Chord Line E) Lift F) Total Aerodynamic Force G) Resultant H) Drag I) Rotational Relative Wind (Free Stream Velocity)

AR 40-8 - Anesthesia

ANESTHESIA- Aircrew will be restricted from flying duty for 48 hours after general, spinal, or epidural anesthesia and for a minimum of 12 hours after local or regional anesthesia, to include dental.

Which DOD FLIP contains information about MTRs?

AP/1B

Class B Airspace Requirements

ATC Clearance 2-way Radio Transponder with altitude reporting capability

Class A Airspace Requirements

ATC Clearance IFR Equipped Instrument Rating

What are your Class C IFR requirements?

ATC clearance, 2 way radio commo, Mode C transponder

Can you fly through an MOA while on an IFR flight?

ATC will clear you through a MOA *if* radar separation can be provided.

As a single ship, taking off from a friendly airfield, before reaching 50 KTS, you get the stabilator auto mode failure audio, master caution, and a stabilator caution light. What are your actions?

Abort the takoff!

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the ALT (barometric altitude hold) mode?

Above 50 KIAS

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the HDG (heading hold) mode?

Above 50 KIAS

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the FMS Navigation mode, and what will it provide?

Above 50 KIAS Provides roll command to follow the FMS flight plan.

What are the FD/DCP engagement parameters for the VOR, LOC, and GS Navigation modes, and what will it provide?

Above 50 KIAS VOR and LOC modes provide roll commands for the desired course, and GS mode provides collective commands to follow the glide slope.

Class G airspace is where?

Anywhere another airspace is not depicted. Goes up to 700ft within Magenta Vignette and 1200ft every where else unless otherwise depicted.

How long can the SLAB battery operate in flight if it is the sole source of power?

Approximately 15 minutes (less when using the searchlight)

When do the FUEL LOW cautions appear?

Approximately 172 lbs.

What is a prohibited area?

Areas where flight is prohibited (for reasons of security or national welfare).

What is a restricted area?

Areas where operations are hazardous to non-participating aircraft. Contain unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (i.e. artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles).

Name the following Weapons Control Status: weapon is manned, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bolt locked fully to the rear and weapon selector is on FIRE when firing and on SAFE when not firing.

Armed

Why does transonic airflow occur on an airfoil?

As air flows over the airfoil, it speeds up and slows down. When the airfoil (the tip of the rotor blade) is traveling near the speed of sound, the airflow will exceed the speed of sound (become supersonic) when it naturally speeds up going across the airfoil.

Blue Dash Circle

Class D Airspace

Magenta Dash Line

Class E Surface Airspace

Name the following Weapons Control Status: weapon is stowed, chamber is visually cleared of rounds, bolt is locked to the rear, weapon selector is on SAFE, and there are not rounds in the feed tray.

Clear

What are the requirements to enter Class B Airspace?

Clearance 2 Way Radio Communications Transponder Height as Depicted

Light Flash Compensation

Close one eye Alter course automatic weapons fire turn away from lights

NVG Protective Measures

Cockpit Lighting Exterior Lighting Light Flash Compensation

What is the most dangerous illusion?

Coriolis

HA Recon

Cover and Concealment Obstacles Key Terrain Avenues of App/Dep Security

What does AR 40-8 say about smoking?

Crew members are discouraged from smoking. Especially before flight at night because increased CO in blood gives greater detrimental physiological effects from altitude.

What is the critical mach number? What happens if it is exceeded?

Critical mach is the highest airspeed that can be attained without reaching supersonic flow. If it is exceeded, the flow will become supersonic

Critical

Critical: 69%-60% oxygen saturation Altitude: 20-25k feet Symptoms: Circulatory and central nervous system failure;convulsions; cardiovascular collapse; death

How could you prevent settling with power?

Descend on flight paths shallower than about 30 degrees.

Aerial Observation Standards

Detect Identify Locate Report

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the standard rotor disk separation En route, RP Inbound, Landing, and Outbound SP for Day and Night/NVG?

En Route: D - 3, N/NVG - 3 RP Inbound: D - 2, N/NVG - 3 Landings: D - 1, N/NVG - 2 Outbound SP: D - 2, N/NVG - 3

In what 3 (emergency) situations will TGT limiting not work?

Engine Starts Compressor Stall Lockout

Emergency Engine Shutdown (Definition)

Engine shutdown without delay

What is the purpose of the Stabilator?

Enhance the handling qualities of the helicopter and improves static and dynamic stability about the pitch axis.

How many seat belts must be installed in the aircraft?

Enough for each person in the aircraft

What are the PC's requirements for weight and balance in accordance with AR 95-1?

Ensure: 1) The accuracy of computations on the DD 365-4 2) That a completed DD 365-4 is aboard the aircraft. 3) Verify that weight and CG will remain within allowable limits for the entire flight. Several forms completed for other loadings can be used to meet this requirement, but the actual loading being verified must be clearly within the extremes of the loading shown on the 365-4 used for verification.

Task 1052 - Perform Visual Meteorological Conditions Flight Maneuvers.

Enter, operate in, and depart a traffic pattern

How is a SAS malfunction identified?

Erratic motion in the helicopter.

What is the *annual* flying-hour requirement for simulator hours (if within 200 SMs of a SFTS device)?

FAC 1 - 18 hours FAC 2 - 12 hours FAC 3 - 10 hours semiannually regardless of distance.

Annual simulation device flying-hour requirements.

FAC 1 - 18 hours FAC 2 - 12 hours FAC 3 - 10 hours semiannually, can be prorated. RCMs may apply 12 hours of simulator time toward the aircraft flying hour minimums.

What are the semiannual flying-hour requirements for RCMs in each FAC level?

FAC 1 - 48 hours FAC 2 - 30 hours FAC 3 - none

Semi-annual flying-hour requirements

FAC 1 - 48 hours from the pilot's or copilot's seat. FAC 2 - 30 hours from the pilot's or copilot's seat. FAC 3 - none. NVG RL1 RCMs - 9 hours of NVG flight, of which 6 must be flown at night in the A/C. The other 3 can be in the H-60FS.

Competence, Confidence, Cohesion, and Control

Factors that may decrease one vulnerability to combat stress are

Aerial Perspective

Fading of color Loss of Detail Light source position/shadow direction

What are the causes of stress?

I- Illness P- Physical conditioning S- Sleep and rest D- Drugs E- exhaustion A- Alcohol T- Tobacco H- Hypoglycemia

Single and dual engine starts and operation at ____ with rotor brake on are not time limited.

IDLE

Single-engine operation with gust lock engaged will be performed by authorized pilot(s) at ____ only.

IDLE

What are the requirements to enter Class A airspace?

IFR Aviator/Aircraft Clearance 2 Way Radio Transponder

Describe airflow during a hover IGE. OGE.

IGE - Air flows down through the rotor system and vortices are created at the rotor tips. Because of the close distance to the ground, the downward and outward flow of air tends to restrict vortex generation. In addition, due to the proximity to the ground, the induced flow velocity is reduced because the ground interrupts the airflow which increases AOA, reduces induced drag, allows for a more vertical lift vector, and increases rotor efficiency. OGE - Air flows down through the rotor system and vortices are created at the rotor tips. These vortices build much greater than during IGE hover because they are not being restricted by ground interference. In addition, induced flow velocity is higher than during IGE hover causing a decrease in AOA. This means that a higher pitch angle is required on the blades, so that creates more drag.

AR 40-8 Immunizations

IMMUNIZATIONS- Medical restriction from flying duty will be for a minimum period of 12 hours following any immunization as long as no side effects occur.

Why shouldn't ice be allowed to accumulate on the windshield?

Ice shedding can cause engine FOD.

Should you make a radio call FAF inbound?

If NOT in Radar Contact

What does AR 40-8 say about vision?

If a crewmember requires corrective lenses for 20/20 vision, they are restricted unless they are wearing contact lenses or glasses that correct to 20/20.

During lost commo, if you reach your clearance limit, and the clearance limit is where you approach begins, do you hold or execute the approach?

If you have received an EFC time, and it has not passed, hold until EFC and then commence the approach. If you have not received an EFC time, commence the approach according to your flight plan (as amended).

During lost commo, if you reach your clearance limit, and the clearance limit is NOT where your approach begins, do you hold or continue?

If you have received an EFC, hold and leave the clearance limit at your EFC. If you do not have an EFC, continue to the fix where the approach begins, hold until the ETA from your flight plan and then commence the approach.

NVG Blemishes

Image Distortion Image Disparity Bright Spots Black Spots Chicken wire Fixed Pattern Noise Output Brightness Variation

In regards to Multiship Operations, how does the flight indicate they are ready for takeoff?

In REVERSE chalk order report when REDCON 1. When lead reports "REDCON 1", the flight is ready for takeoff.

What is an alert area?

In place to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Describe the airflow during transverse flow.

In the forward portion of the disk, the air is more horizontal, and in the rear portion of the disk, the air is more vertical.

During lost commo, what route would you follow?

In the order below: 1) Route last assigned 2) Route ATC told you to be expected 3) Route filed in your flight plan Note: if being radar vectored, proceed direct to the fix being radar vectored to.

What is motivational exhaustion/burnout?

In this type of fatigue the body ceases to function occupationally and socially. Recovery can take months.

What is chronic fatigue?

Inadequate recovery from successive periods of acute fatigue. It may take several days to several weeks to recover. Symptoms: insomnia, depressed mood, irritability, weight loss, poor judgement, loss of appetite, slow reaction time and poor motivation.

Describe the 3 no lift areas. What happens as speed increases?

Inboard to Outboard: Reverse Flow - Air flows backward from the trailing edge to the leading edge of the blade. Negative Stall - The blade stalls with a negative AOA. Negative Lift - The blade has a negative AOA creating negative lift. As airspeed increases, the areas grow larger.

Stages of hypoxia and associated altitudes:

Indifferent (0-10,000') - reduced visual ability Compensatory (10,000-15,000') -impaired efficiency Disturbance (15,000-20,000') -physiologically impaired Critical (20,000-25,000') -incapacitated after 3-5mins

The 4 stages of hypoxia

Indifferent, Compensatory, Disturbance, and Critical Stages

Indifferent

Indifferent: 98%-90% oxygen saturation Altitude: 0-10K feet Symptoms: Decreased night vision

If #1 ENG TQ reads 104% and #2 ENG TQ reads 96%, how long could you pull that amount of power?

Indefinitely

How long could the Backup Pump run today before we crank the engines?

Indefinitely FAT DEG C: OP. TIME: COOLDOWN TIME: -52-32 unlimited -------------- 33-38 24 minutes 72 minutes 39-52 16 minutes 48 minutes

What does AR 40-8 say about restriction due to CS/Tear Gas?

No residual effects and local effects have resolved.

Can extensions (duty day, flying hour, etc) be forced on a crewmember/crew?

No, all extensions must be requested.

Is the TGT temp displayed in the aircraft the actual temperature of the engine? Why?

No, it has a -112 degree C bias (the engine is running hotter than the indication).

Can an MBO brief a mission when he is part of the crew?

No, self briefing is not authorized.

Can an engine be primed when the other engine is running?

No, the prime pump capacity is not enough to prime an engine when the opposite engine is running.

Can both #1 and #2 primary servos be turned off at the same time? Why?

No, they cannot because of an electrical interlock.

Can aided and unaided aircraft be mixed in the same formation?

No.

Does the angle of attack change from an IGE hover to an OGE hover?

No.

Is a phone call in garrison and/or momentary awakening (<30min) during other than garrison considered an interruption of a rest period?

No.

Requirements to fly in Class G airspace?

None

What is the annual hood/weather requirement in the ATM?

None. It will be determined by the commander.

Fuel Quantity

Normal: >200 lbs Precautionary: 0-200 lbs

What must be on for Trim to be fully operational (because of yaw trim)?

SAS / BOOST

What are the brains of SAS1? SAS2?

SAS 1 - #1 FCC SAS 2 - #2 FCC.

What does SAS provide? In what axes? What type of stability does it provide (dynamic/static)?

SAS enhances dynamic stability by providing short term rate dampening in the pitch, roll and yaw axis.

What systems must be on for FPS to work?

SAS/BOOST, Trim, SAS 1 and/or SAS 2. Stabilator is not required performance will increase when operated in the auto mode.

What are the SVFR minimums for the West corridor?

SVFR is not allowed in the West corridor.

Night Vision Techniques

Scanning Off Center Vision Shapes/Silhouettes

Do we have any equipment on the helicopter to protect us from small arms?

Seats and slicing armored wings.

What 2 things can only be pressurized by the backup hydraulic system?

Second stage of the tail rotor servo and the APU accumulator.

What section of the GP should you go to for flight plan?

Section 4

On a VFR sectional, what does a star next to a tower frequency mean?

That the tower operates part time.

Task 1020 - Prepare Aircraft for Mission

Task 1020 - Prepare Aircraft for Mission 1) Perform or ensure that a thorough passenger briefing has been conducted and that a passenger manifest is on file IAW AR 95-1. Conduct the passenger briefing IAW the aircraft -10/FRC and unit SOP. 2) Ensure that the passengers/cargo is restrained IAW the -10. 3) Ensure that floor loading limits are not exceeded. 4) Install, secure, inspect, and inventory all mission equipment. 5) Prepare the A/C for the assigned mission.

If you are asked to taxi, and your aircraft has wheels, what is expected?

Taxi (without the preface of air or hover) is used to describe ground taxi for helicopters with wheels.

TFR

Temporary Flight Restrictions

What is the title of AR 40-8

Temporary Flying Restrictions Due to Exogenous Factors Affecting Aircrew Efficiency.

TRSA

Terminal Radar Service Area (Voluntary)

What does a TAIL ROTOR QUADRANT caution indicate?

That a tail rotor cable has been severed.

What happens to the aerodynamic center of the airfoil when the shockwave moves aft? What does this cause the blade to do?

The aerodynamic center of pressure moves away from its normal location and moves aft. This causes the leading edge to be deflected downward, which may result in structural failure of the blade.

Variation -

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north.

If an aviator fails to meet ATP requirements and an extension is granted, what restrictions are imposed?

The aviator is restricted from performing pilot-in-command duties (primary, additional, or alternate) in the aircraft, and if applicable, briefing officer duties, until the missed ATP requirements are met.

What will HVR VHLD maintain while engaged?

The longitudinal and lateral velocity references at the reference ground speed at the time of engagement (lateral and longitudinal speed).

What does AR 40-8 say about strenuous physical activity?

They may adversely affect the ability of aircrew members to perform their respective flight tasks safely.

Describe Alternobaric Vertigo (Pressure Vertigo)

This is not actually an illusion. Changes in atmospheric pressure can sometimes lead to vestibular dysfunction. May arise due to changes in altitude, a middle ear equilibration maneuver (Valsalva or Tyonbee), or pressure differences between the two ears. Usually only lasts 10 seconds or less.

What does class 2 mean?

Those aircraft whose weight or CG limits can be readily exceeded by loading arrangement normally used in tactical operations or those AC designed primarily for transporting troops and other passengers. Therefore, a high degree of loading control is needed.

What is the purpose of the BIM?

To visually inspect the blade spar structural integrity. If a crack occurs or a seal leaks, nitrogen will escape. When the pressure drops below minimum, the indicator will show a red band.

If you are cleared for the option, what are you allowed to do?

Touch-and-go Low approach Missed approach Stop-and-go Full stop

Helicopters with the following equipment installed, operational, and turned on are permitted to fly into ___ or ___ icing conditions: (5 things)

Trace, Light (1) Windshield Anti-ice. (2) Pitot Heat. (3) Engine Anti-ice. (4) Engine Inlet Anti-ice Modulating Valve. (5) Insulated Ambient Air Sensing Tube.

What is the cruising altitude rule?

Traffic traveling East (001 - 180 deg) fly at odd altitude + 500ft Traffic flying west (181-360 deg) fly at even altitude + 500 ft

Rotor (NR) - Power On

Transient: 101-107% Continuous: 95-101% Transient: 91-95%

What is transonic airflow?

Transonic airflow is when some parts of the airflow on the airfoil is subsonic and some is supersonic.

When does outbound timing start during intersection holding?

Wings level on the outbound heading.

How are the main generators cooled?

With transmission oil

If you are asked to Hover Taxi, what airspeed/altitude is expected?

Within ground effect and less than approximately 20 knots (actual height will vary).

PROHIBITED MANEUVERS.

a. Hovering turns greater than 30°per second are prohibited. Intentional maneuvers beyond attitudes of +/-30°pitch or over 60°roll are prohibited. b. Simultaneous moving of both ENG POWER CONT levers to IDLE or OFF (throttle chop) in flight is prohibited. c. Rearward ground taxi is prohibited.

Task 1048 - Perform Fuel Management Procedures

a. PC will verify that the required amount of fuel is onboard at the time of T/O b. Initiate alternate course of action if actual fuel consumption varies from planned value, and flight cannot be completed without the use of the required reserve. c. Balance/manage fuel tank levels to maintain A/C within CGs limits a. Initiate an in-flight fuel check within 10 minutes of leveling off or entering into mission profile. b. Within 15 to 30 minutes after taking initial readings, compute the fuel consumption rate ± 50 lbs/hour and complete fuel consumption check. c. Monitor the remaining fuel quantity and continuing rate of consumption. Notes: Calculate initial fuel figures, fuel flow, burnout, and reserve times.

Task 1022 - Perform Preflight Inspection

a. Perform preflight per -10/CL b. Review the logbook for service intervals and deficiencies. c. Enter appropriate info on the -13 and -13-1 if required. Night/NVG considerations: Use a flashlight with an unfiltered lens. Leaks and other defects are hard to see with colored lenses.

Task 1062 - Perform Slope Operations

a. Select suitable landing area b. Set parking brake before landing c. Perform a smooth and controlled descent and touchdown d. Maintain heading ±5 degrees. e. Do not allow aircraft to drift ± 3 feet until touchdown, then no drift is allowed. f. Perform a smooth controlled ascent from the surface. Notes: P* will announce intent, and note hovering attitude. Before performing slope operations, crew must understand dynamic rollover and droop stop pounding.