Foundations exam 3 EAQ Quizzes
Which infectious agent is responsible for the most common community-acquired pneumonia? A. adenovirus B. rhinovirus C. parainfluenza virus D. respiratory syncytial virus
D
Which is an example of an elective surgery? A. appendectomy B. acute cholecystitis C. intestinal obstruction D. total knee replacement
D
Which member of the interprofessional health care team would the nurse contact first for a patient who is feeling suicidal? A. social worker B. cognitive therapist C. spiritual counselor D. clinical psychologist
D
Which other substance may a patient be allergic to in conjunction with a shellfish allergy? A. Latex B. Morphine C. Folic acid D. Providone-iodine
D
Which question would the nurse ask the patient when completing the preoperative assessment? A. What is your weight B. What is your occupation C. What type of insurance do you have D. What medications are you currently taking
D
Which statement explains the purpose of rehabilitation? A. rehab ends when the person is discharged B. rehab is a short-term process of learning to live with disabilities C. rehab goals exclude education and therapy for cardiac problems D. rehab aims to restore and maintain functional ability
D
Which surgical procedure for laryngeal cancer involves removal of the hyoid bone? A. laser surgery B. transoral cordectomy C. vertical laryngectomy D. supraglottic partial laryngectomy
D
Which team member supervises the nursing assistants or nursing technicians in the care of patients? A. physical therapist B. occupational therapist C. rehabilitation therapist D. licensed practical nurse
D
Which term is used to describe a layer of black nonviable, denatured collagen that covers a full-thickness pressure injury? A. cellulitis B. urticaria C. undermining D. wound eschar
D
Which tool would the rehabilitation nurse use in a medical-surgical setting to assess the patient's ability to perform ADLs? A. brief cognitive assessment tool (BCAT) B. minimum data set C. shift change assessment D. functional independence measure
D
Which type of exposure to human immune deficiency virus (HIV) is described as consensual and nonconsensual sexual exposures involving insertive and receptive types of sex with oral, vaginal, or anal contact? A. perinatal B. parenteral C. occupational D. nonoccupational
D
Which vitamin deficiency can cause osteomalacia? A. vitamin A B. vitamin B C. vitamin C D. vitamin D
D
While medical emergency can lead to a life-threatening situation? A. tracheomalacia B. tracheal stenosis C. tracheoesophageal fistula D. trachea-innominate artery fistula
D
Which process occurs in the third intention of wound healing? A. removal of debris B. elimination of dead space C. inward pulling of wound edges D. replacement of dead tissue with scar tissue
A
Which term is used to describe a physician who specializes in rehabilitative medicine? A. physiatrist B. pharmacist C. physiotherapist D. activity therapist
A
Which term is used to refer to alveolar damage from an inflammatory response? A. biotrauma B. barotrauma C. volutrauma D. atelectrauma
A
Which type of drain is useful for a patient with a cholecystectomy? A. T-tube B. penrose C. Hemovac D. Jackson-Pratt
A
Which type of lesion occurs as a result of necrosis? A. eschar B. papule C. vesicle D. macule
A
Which value indicates clinical hypoxemia? A. partial pressure of arterial oxygen (Pao2) of 50 mmHg B. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (Pao2) of 30 mmHg C. Hemoglobin of 22g/dL D. Oxygen saturation of 90%
A
Which topic is included in preoperative patient teaching? select all that apply A. splinting B. incisional care C. pain management D. incentive spirometry E. lower extremity exercises
A,C,D,E
Lower respiratory tract includes which structures? select all that apply. A. lungs B. larynx C. bronchi D. pharynx E. trachea
A,C,E
Which surgery is an example of a surgical procedure performed to relieve the symptoms of a disease? A. Revision of scars B. Cholecystectomy C. Ileostomy creation D. Total joint replacement
C
Which term describes a splitting open of a wound for a postoperative patient? A. drainage B. intubation C. dehiscence D. evisceration
C
Which patient action during self-management after a laryngectomy can lead to complications? A. swimming B. using saline in the stoma C. cleaning the stoma with mild soap and water D. taking a shower instead of a bath
A
Which process involves the replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue that aids in would healing? A. granulation B. contraction C. resurfacing D. re-epithelialization
A
Which regulation or act gives patients the right to a living will and/or durable power of attorney? A. Affordable care act B. Patient self-determination act C. Americans with disabilities act D. Needle stick safety and prevention act
B
Which skin inflammation is characterized by extreme itching? A. drug eruption B. atopic dermatitis C. contact dermatitis D. nonspecific eczematous dermatitis
B
Which skin layer provides protection from injury by corrosive materials? A. corium B. epidermis C. adipose tissue D. stratum corneum
B
Which staff member would be assigned as the care manager for a patient with a stroke who has physical and speech deficits? A. physical therapist B. rehabilitation nurse C. recreational therapist D. speech-language pathologist
B
Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea? A. glottis B. epiglottis C. arytenoid cartilage D. cricothyroid membrane
B
Which substance makes the horny layer waterproof? A. sebum B. keratin C. melanin D. collagen
B
Which surgical treatment for laryngeal cancer has a high cure rate with a normal resulting voice quality? A. laser surgery B. laryngofissure C. total laryngectomy D. transoral cordectomy
B
Which term describes the small, elastic flap attached to the top of the larynx that opens during breathing? A. glottis B. epiglottis C. costal cartilage D. cricoid cartilage
B
Which term is a synonym of athletes foot? A. tinea cruris B. tinea pedis C. tinea manus D. tinea corporis
B
Which term would the nurse use for the process of learning to live with and manage chronic and disabling conditions? A. healing B. rehabilitation C. psychoanalysis D. psychiatric therapy
B
Which tool is used in point-of-care screening for delirium? A. braden scale B. confusion assessment method (CAM) C. brief cognitive assessment tool (BCAT) D. functional independence measure (FIM)
B
Which type of assessment is used to measure a patient's abilities to perform activities? A. physical assessment B. functional assessment C. vocational assessment D. psychosocial assessment
B
Which respiratory condition is a potential complication associated with surgery? Select all that apply. A. asthma B. atelectasis C. pneumonia D. laryngeal edema E. chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
B,C,D
Which patient skill would the nurse assess as instrumental ADLs (IADLs)? Select all that apply. A. bathing B. cooking C. shopping D. ambulating E. housekeeping
B,C,E
Which professional promotes a patient's community reintegration and acceptance of disability? Select all that apply. A. chemical pathologist B. registered dietitian C. clinical psychologist D. academic counselor E. vocational counselor
B,C,E
Which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine a patient's ability to oxygenate? select all that apply A. serum magnesium B. arterial blood gases C. white blood cell count D. hemoglobin and hematocrit E. partial thromboplastin time
B,D
Which definition of autologous blood is accurate? A. A bloodless surgery B. Blood from a universal blood donor C. Blood from the patient before surgery D. Blood donated by a patient's family member
C
Which factor is the distinction between human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. viral load B. course of treatment C. duration of infection D. number of CD4+ T-cells
D
Which description is characteristic of a wound that is healing by third intention? A. the wound is made aseptically B. it is a chronic wound with tissue damage C. It is a potentially infected surgical wound D. the edges cannot by smoothly approximated
C
Which finding is common with infectious disease? A. Dry and pink skin B. Hypothermia C. Decreased respiratory rate D. Fever
D
Which process is supported by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)? A. evidence-based guidelines for safe patient handlings B. use of catheters with engineered safety mechanisms C. use of personal protective equipment when handling chemotherapy drugs D. evidence-based hand hygiene before palpation of an insertion site
A
The visceral pleura cover which area of the body? A. lungs B. alveoli C. Diaphragm D. chest cavity
A
What issue may cause a systemic altered inflammatory response? A. leukemia B. heart failure C. hypovolemia D. lymphedema
A
Which part of Medicare provides reimbursement for skilled rehabilitation and nursing services when older residents are admitted to skilled nursing facilities (SNFs)? A. part A B. part B C. part C D. part D
A
At what time interval is lung function assessed in a postoperative patient during the first 24 hours after surgery? Every _____________ hours.
4
How often would the nurse assess wound healing in a postoperative patient after the health care provider removes the initial dressing? Every __________ hours.
8
A patient is schedules for abdominal surgery, but the patient is unable to give consent and has no family. Who can appoint a legal guardian for the patient? A. the court B. a friend C. an attorney D. the health care provider
A
After surgical placement of a tracheostomy tube, which method is recommended to verify correct placement? A. chest x-ray B. bronchoscopy C. symmetrical chest expandsion D. auscultation of bilateral lung sounds
A
How often should a patient taking tenofovir/emtricitabine for PrEP for HIV be tested for HIV? A. every 3 months B. every 12 months C. once before beginning PrEP D. after each contact that puts the patient at risk
A
Which assessment identifies actual or potential interruptions in tissue integrity? A. skin assessment B. nutritional assessment C. perceptual assessment D. neurologic assessment
A
Which assessment tool is used to identify patients at risk for impaired tissue integrity? A. skin assessment B. urinary assessment C. perceptual assessment D. neurologic assessment
A
Which condition is caused by undernourishment of older patients? A. fatigue B. loss of vision C. high blood pressure D. loss of hearing
A
Which condition would the nurse suspect in a patient with an eosinophil count of 700/mm3? A. asthma B. tuberculosis C. viral infection D. bacterial infection
A
Which constraint would the nurse explain to a disabled patient with limited finances who asks about robotic-assistive devices? A. high cost B. discomfort C. invasive surgical procedure D. use of electronic equipment
A
Which descriptor of urination is associated with the term oliguria? A. scanty B. painful C. bloody D. frequent
A
Which disease may cause urticaria? A. cancer B. vasculitis C. lymphedema D. diabetes mellitus
A
Which factor in the development of infection is specific to the host? A. advanced age B. pathogenicity C. virulence D. transmission
A
Which factor is required for independence in bowl elimination patients? A. mobility B. good sleep C. nutritious diet D. deep breathing
A
Which factor will be discussed when educating a patient about factors that alter nail growth and appearance? A. serious illness B. genetic factors C. hormonal changes D. chronic sun exposure
A
Which intervention would the nurse plan to promote the emotional well-being of a patient with early-stage chronic kidney disease? A. identifying the patient's social support systems B. limiting the patient from performing independent activities C. using written indicators to assess the self-esteem of the patient D. assessing the cognitive and physical demands of the patient's job
A
Which measurement is essential when determining antiembolic stocking size for a patient? A. Leg length B. Foot length C. Height D. Weight
A
Which member of the rehabilitation team would the nurse consult to pursue a patient's interest in knitting? A. activity therapist B. physical therapist C. cognitive therapist D. vocational counselor
A
Which drug is often administered as an epidural analgesic to manage pain in the postoperative patient? A. Ketorolac B. Acetaminophen C. Bupivacaine D. Ibuprofen
C
Which role do members of the clergy play on the rehabilitation team? A. they help in spiritual assessments and care of the patient B. they work to help patients continue or develop hobbies or interests C. they help patients identify support services and resources, including financial assistance D. they intervene to help the patient achieve self-management by focusing on gross mobility skills
A
Which role would the physiatrist on the rehabilitation team perform? A. prescribe therapy for a patient's medical problems B. develop the fine-motor skills of the patient C. evaluate patients with swallowing problems D. educate patients about techniques like moving out of bed
A
Which skin infection is associated with postherpetic neuralgia? A. shingles B. cellulitis C. furuncle D. folliculitis
A
Which skin layer supports the exchange of heat and oxygen? A. dermis B. epidermis C. stratum corneum D. subcutaneous layer
A
Which statement is true about health care-associated pneumonia but not true about community-acquired pneumonia? A. it is likely to be resistant to some antibiotics B. the fibrin and edema of inflammation stiffen the lung' C. capillary leak spreads the infection to areas of the lungs D. it requires antibiotics for effective treatment
A
Which step would the nurse consider first in the emergency approach to a patient with chest injuries? A. airway B. breathing C. circulation D. disability
A
Which team member continues the rehabilitation therapy plan of care in long-term care settings during the absence of rehabilitation therapists? A. restorative aides B. activity therapists C. physical therapists D. cognitive therapists
A
Which team member oversees the prescription and preparation of medications and provides essential information regarding drug safety? A. pharmacist B. physical therapist C. nursing technician D. cognitive therapist
A
Which team member provides the team with information about drug safety, interactions, and side effects? A. pharmacist B. physical therapist C. nursing technician D. cognitive therapist
A
Which team member teaches the techniques for performing activities such as transferring, ambulating, and toileting? A. physical therapist B. cognitive therapist C. recreational therapist D. occupational therapist
A
Which team member will be the primary decision maker in coordinating transfer from acute care to community-based care for a patient who requires rehabilitation? A. patient B. case manager C. rehabilitation nurse D. medical-surgical nurse
A
Which term describes microorganisms that do not cause disease and may be beneficial to the host? A. normal flora B. colonized organisms C. pathogenic organisms D. phagocyte
A
Which term describes the opening between the vocal cords? A. glottis B. epiglottis C. palatine tonsils D. arytenoid cartilage
A
Which drug reduces the severity of infection and mortality rate during a pandemic flu? Select all that apply A. zanamivir B. oseltamivir C. ethambutol D. pyrazinamide
A,B
Which concern would be included in the plan of care after a patient returns from surgery with a new tracheostomy? A. tube obstruction B. tube dislodgement C. accidental decannulation D. securing the endotracheal tube E. plugging the tube for communication
A,B,C
Which factors increase a patient's risk for delayed wound healing? Select all that apply A. older age B. obesity C. compromised immune system D. diabetes E. smoking
A,B,C,D,E
Plaque psoriasis is commonly found on which areas? select all that apply. A. scalp B. lower back C. knees D. facial skin E. elbows
A,B,C,E
Which action would the nurse take in assisting a patient with partial left-sided paralysis to stand and walk? Select all that apply. A. assist the patient from the front B. assess for a slippery or uneven floor C. apply a gait belt before the patient stands D. place feet together when helping the patient to stand E. keep the patient as close to the nurses body as possible
A,B,C,E
Which condition can contribute to impaired wound healing after surgery? Select all that apply. A. obesity B. diabetes C. dysrhythmias D. weak immune system E. electrolyte imbalances
A,B,D
Which member is involved in the rehabilitation health care team? A. physicians B. social workers C. media workers D. nursing assistants E. physical therapists
A,B,D,E
Which symptom might the nurse observe in a preoperative patient with anxiety? A. Anger B. Crying C. Constipation D. Decreased pulse E. Urinary frequency
A,B,E
Which cardiovascular complication can arise after a surgery? Select all that apply A. sepsis B. atelectasis C. dysrhythmias D. joint contractures E. electrolyte imbalances
A,C
Which consideration helps a patient maintain healthy skin? Select all that apply. A. oxygen intake B. nitrogen C. sensation D. adequate food E. carbon dioxide
A,C,D
Which supplement may be prescribed for a postoperative patient to promote wound healing and red blood cell formation? Select all that apply. A. iron B. fats C. zinc D. vitamin C E. carbohydrates
A,C,D
Which is a cause of upper airway impairment associated with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)? select all that apply. A. obesity B. alcohol C. smoking D. short neck E. large uvula
A,C,D,E
Which condition is indicated by the presence of a pulse deficit when assessing the vital signs of a postoperative patient? A. dyspnea B. dysrhythmia C. hypothermia D. deep vein thrombosis
B
A patient has a fenestrated tracheostomy tube in place. Which multidisciplinary team member would be involved in the discharge planning process, specific to the tracheostomy? A. physical therapist B. speech therapist C. occupational therapist D. patient care assistant
B
Which finding is a clinical manifestation of depression? A. fever B. fatigue C. chest pain D. hopeful feelings
B
Which drug is used to reduce prolonged GI symptoms in postoperative patients? A. morphine B. ketorolac C. ondansetron D. hydromorphone
C
How soon after administration of a bisacodyl suppository would the nurse expect the patient to have results? A. 1-14 minutes B. 15-30 minutes C. 31-45 minutes D. 46-60 minutes
B
In which location are the palatine tonsils found? A. below the thyroid cartilage B. on the sides of the oropharynx C. below the level of the vocal cords D. below the throat at the base of the tongue
B
Normal nasogastric (NG) tube drainage should have which color or characteristic? A. pink B. green C. brown D. coffee-ground
B
Which health policy directive entitles a patient with severe hearing loss to receive sign language interpretation services in the workplace? A. affordable care act B. Americans with disabilities act C. patient self-determination act D. needlestick safety and prevention act
B
The nasopharynx contains which structures? A. muscles B. adenoids C. cartilage D. air-filled cavities
B
The nurse is assessing an older-adult patient who appears to be experiencing hallucinations after starting urinary antispasmodic drug therapy. Which drug action may be responsible for this condition? A. cholinergic effect B. anticholinergic effect C. fluid retention effect D. diuretic effect
B
The nurse reviews a patient's medical record and identifies that which history finding is a risk factor for cancer of the nasal cavities and sinuses? A. presence of chronic, persistent nasal drainage B. chronic exposure to dust from wood, leather, or flour C. several allergies and frequent sinus infections as a child D. patient report of the need to sleep with the head of the bed elevated
B
What method is considered the best way to identify a microorganism causing infection? A. examine the blood under a microscope B. cultivate the pathogen in tissue cultures C. observe tissues under a microscope D. use radiologic studies
B
Which action would the nurse take to support a patient coping with a disability? A. help the patient to develop a hobby B. refer the patient and family to a counselor C. teach the patient about work-related skills D. promote community acceptance of the disability
B
Which ambulatory aid would the nurse expect the patient to be using 6 weeks after a total hip replacement? A. crutches B. straight cane C. walker with rollers D. walker with a seat
B
Which infectious disease is caused by bacterial endotoxins? A. tetanus B. typhoid C. Botulism D. Diphtheria
B
A patient with right-sided weakness is receiving antihypertensive medications. Which instruction would the nurse provide to the physical therapist who is planning to help the patient walk? A. use a gait belt when ambulating the patient B. remind the patient to use the left side to grip C. move the patient from lying to standing slowly D. monitor the patient for fatigue during exercise
C
A wound in which site will heal more quickly than in other areas? A. leg B. foot C. head D. abdomen
C
The epiglottis serves which function? A. acts as a passage way for food and air B. facilitates gas exchange and perfusion C. prevents food from entering the trachea D. acts as an opening between the true vocal cords
C
What condition, if untreated, is likely to lead to a patient experiencing neck swelling, muffled voice, and bad breath? A. rhinitis B. sinusitis C. tonsillitis D. pharyngitis
C
What device delivers low-flow oxygen? A. face tent B. venturi mask C. nasal cannula D. tracheostomy collar
C
Which assessment considers how patients can maximize functional status and resume usual activities? A. physical assessment B. functional assessment C. vocational assessment D. psychosocial assessment
C
Which assessment considers the patient's body image and self-esteem? A. functional assessment B. vocational assessment C. psychosocial assessment D. comprehensive assessment
C
Which assessment for home modification is likely to help diminish the patient's anxiety about the process of discharge? A. doing discharge teaching B. performing a predischarge assessment C. planning a leave of absence visit D. having a predischarge home visit by the case manager
C
Which body area is most commonly affected by psoriasis? A. neck B. chest C. elbow D. facial skin
C
Which cells produce scar tissue? A. fat cells B. mast cells C. fibroblasts D. keratinocytes
C
Which condition is characterized by the presence of a rash of white or red edematous papules? A. pruritus B. trauma C. urticaria D. pressure injuries
C
Which explanation supports the use of electric clippers and depilatories to remove hair at the surgical site? A. It is the easiest method B. It helps with wound healing C. It reduces the potential for infection D. It is a less time-consuming method
C
Which explanation would the nurse review with the patient before an operation as the primary need for vascular access? A. To hydrate the patient B. To reduce the chance of infection C. To deliver a general anesthetic D. To warm the patient
C
Which facility admits patients to live independently along with other disabled adults? A. hospital B. skilled nursing facility C. group home D. ambulatory care clinic
C
Which factor affects the ability of older patients to process new information? A. arthritis B. pneumonia C. loss of vision D. Long-term memory loss
C
Which food is contraindicated in patients with povidone-iodine allergy? A. egg B. peanuts C. shellfish D. soy products
C
Which goal is a purpose of oxygen therapy? A. to cure the condition B. to stop the disease process C. to provide an acceptable blood oxygen level D. to use the highest fraction of inspired oxygen
C
Which information helps evaluate the adequacy of a patient's oxygenation? A. fraction of inspired oxygen B. positive end-expiratory pressure C. partial pressure of arterial oxygen D. the patient's acceptance of the continuous positive airway pressure machine
C
Which is the outermost horny skin layer? A. dermis B. epidermis C. stratum corneum D. subcutaneous layer
C
Which item is provided by the blood collection center to the patient after autologous blood donation? A. money B. medicine C. matching tag D. vitamin preparations
C
Which member of the rehabilitation team teaches the patient to use a walker? A. physiatrist B. activity therapist C. physical therapist D. occupational therapist
C
Which nursing intervention promotes independence for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia who has been transferred to a rehabilitation unit? A. arranging to sent the patient to a long-term care facility B. telling the patient to do the "best" that he or she can do C. instructing the patient step by step on how to put on a robe D. assisting the patient with all ADLs
C
Which postoperative condition is considered to be a neuromuscular complication of surgery? A. sepsis B. atelectasis C. hypothermia D. pressure ulcers
C
Which practice for safe patient handling (SPH) would the nurse teach to the nursing student? A. keep the patient at arm's length to maximize your leverage in moving the patient B. place your feet at right angles to the patient's feet to stabilize yourself C. put the bed at your waist level for care and at your hip level for moving the patient D. try to keep the patient positioned to your side so that you can rotate when moving him
C
Which term describes infections caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually are kept in check by normal immunity but may cause infection in patients with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)? A. viral infections B. co-occurring infections C. opportunistic infections D. sexually transmitted infections
C
Which tracheostomy cuff pressure would the nurse maintain to prevent mucosal ischemia or air leakage? A. 0-6 mmHg B. 8-12 mmHg C. 14-20 mmHg D. 22-28 mmHg
C
Which type of tube is commonly used in the surgical process to promote GI rest? A. T-tube B. levin tube C. nasogastric (NG) tube D. penrose drain
C
Which vital sign is the most important for the nurse to monitor in a patient receiving general anesthesia in the postanesthesia care unit? A. pulse B. blood pressure C. respiratory rate D. body temperature
C
Which clinical manifestation is usually present when an older adult has pneumonia? Select all that apply. A. fever B. cough C. fatigue D. weakness E. confusion F. poor appetite
C,D,E,F
Which device is used in a low-flow oxygen delivery system? select all that apply. A. venturi mask B. aerosol mask C. simple facemask D. t-piece apparatus E. Nonrebreather mask
C,E
An older-adult patient is admitted to the transitional care unit for stroke rehabilitation. The patient's blood pressure is controlled with antihypertensive medications. The assistive personnel reports that the patient's systolic blood pressure drops by 20 mm Hg when the patient get out of bed. Which situation is the likely cause of this patient's change in blood pressure? A. the stroke is worsening, becoming more acute B. the dose of the antihypertensive med is too low C. the dose of the antihypertensive med is too high D. orthostatic hypotension is exacerbated by the medications
D
The need for antibiotics for infection prevention is re-evaluated at which time after surgery? A. 2 hours B. 6 hours C. 12 hours D. 24 hours
D
Which health care professional is member of the rehabilitation team? A. oncologist B. psychiatrist C. hematologist D. social worker
D
What action describes paradoxical chest wall movement? A. bilateral separation of the ribs from their cartilage B. deviation of the trachea away from side of the injury C. forceful entry of air into the chest cavity causing lung collapse D. inward movement of the thorax during inspiration
D
What condition causes subcutaneous emphysema in a patient with a new tracheostomy? A. hemorrhage from a nicked artery B. effusion from fluid in the pleural space C. inflammation from an infectious process D. trapping of air escaped into the tissues
D
What is the purpose of group homes for patients with spinal cord injuries? A. cognitive retaining B. emotional support C. protection from embarrassment D. independent living arrangements
D
What medication is commonly used for the treatment of actinic keratosis? A. systemic cisplatin B. topical vismodegib C. systemic cetuximab D. topical fluorouracil
D
Which action would the nurse take to prevent constipation in the patient with a lower motor neuron spinal cord injury? A. provide a bedpan when toileting B. include 10 g to 15 g of fiber in the diet C. plan for one daily serving of whole grain D. schedule a routine bowel program
D
Which category of surgery is an ileostomy creation? A. cosmetic B. curative C. diagnostic D. palliative
D
Which cells are responsible for the secretions of eccrine sweat glands? A. fat cells B. melanocytes C. keratinocytes D. epithelial cells
D
Which cells renew skin tissue integrity and maintain optimal barrier function? A. fat cells B. mast cells C. fibroblasts D. keratinocytes
D
Which condition is likely in a patient who has experienced a stroke? A. cancer B. asthma C. arthritis D. dysphagia
D
Which condition may arise because of nasogastric tube drainage? A. pneumonia B. constipation C. urinary retention D. metabolic alkalosis
D
Which equipment would the nurse expect the physical therapist to use when teaching a patient with paraplegia to independently transfer from the bed to the chair? A. tilt table with straps B. sliding board C. side rails of the bed D. wheelchair with removable arms
D
Which explanation would the nurse review with the patient before an operation regarding the placement of drains? A. they deliver medications during surgery B. they reduce the chance of infection C. they deliver a general anesthetic D. they remove fluid from the surgical site
D
Which purpose led to the passing of the Americans with Disabilities Act? Select all that apply. A. to discriminate against disabled people B. the help patients minimize functional status C. the make people aware of the problems of disabled people D. to require employers to offer assistance to the disabled employee E. to encourage disabled people to resume normal activities in the workplace
D,E
