Gleim Chapt 9

(Refer to Figure 24 below, and Legend 1 on page 303) (Refer to area 1) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to

the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement

(Refer to figure 52 on page 351) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

to the left on runway 14 and runway 32; to the right on runway 18 and runway 35

(Refer to figure 21 on page 337)(Refer to area 2) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

122.9 MHz

(Refer to figure 26 on page 341)(Refer to area 4) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

123.0 MHz

(Refer to figure 25 on page 339)(Refer to area 2) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

126.0 MHz

(Refer to figure 25 on page 339)(Refer to area 3) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

127.25 MHz

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331)(Refer to area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

1300 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 305) (Refer to area 2) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

1403 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 26 on page 313) (Refer to area 3) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than

2000 feet AGL

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 299) The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

2000 feet to 2500 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) (Refer to area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

2900 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 74 on page 323)(Refer to area 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

2901 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) (Refer to area 3) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is

3000 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 70 on page 319) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?

3200 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 309) (Refer to area 8) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?

3549 feet MSL

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

60

(Refer to figure 59 on page 315) (Refer to area 2) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?

A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 1) The NALF Fentress (NFE) airport is in what type of airspace

Class E

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) (Refer to area 2) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport

Class G airspace--surface up to but not including 1200 feet AGL; Class E airspace--1200 feet AGL up to but not including 18000 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 52 on page 351) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?

Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts

(Refer to legend 16 below) If the SSV Class of VORTAC is listed as a Terminal Class, the altitudes and distance to adequately receive the signal of the VORTAC is

1000 feet to 12000 feet and 25 NM

(Refer to figure 77 below and figure 76 on page 293) Refer to the area of Pierre Regional Airport (N44º22.96' W100º17.16"). What frequency can be monitored for the Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service in this area?

112.5 MHz

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 301)(Refer to area 3) The vertical limits of the portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

1200 feet AGL to 17999 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 22 below and figure 31 on page 347) (Refer to area 2 in figure 22) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

122.8 MHz

(Refer to figure 31 below and figure 22 on page 348) (Refer to area 2 in figure 22) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D'Alene to request fuel?

122.8 MHz

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

18000 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 2) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional airport is

19 feet

(Refer to figure 63 below) According to the chart supplement, what times can a pilot obtain fuel and services in September at Toledo Express (TOL) Airport?

0800-0000 hr local time

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

10 miles

(Refer to figure 21 on page 337) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?

117.1 MHz

(Refer to figure 79 below and figure 78 on page 295) At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42º20.67' W96º19.42'), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?

118.7 MHz

(Refer to figure 22 below and figure 31 on page 345) (Refer to area 2 in figure 22) At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

122.8 MHz

(Refer to figure 26 on page 341)(Refer to area 5) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

122.8 MHz

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 305) (Refer to area 1) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

1273 feet MSL

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

2000 feet AGL

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

(Refer to figure 21 on page 291) (Refer to area 2) Which airport is located at approximately 47º 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101º 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

Fischer

(Refer to figure 20 on page 343)(Refer to area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Transmit intentions

(Refer to figure 81 below, and figure 80 on page 352) Refer to Crawford Airport (N38º42.24' W107º38.62'). What is the traffic pattern for runway 25?

right hand traffic pattern

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331)(Refer to area 3) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010º radial is

454 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 26 on page 289) (Refer to area 2) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?

47º25'N - 98º06'W

(Refer to figure 22 on page 287) (Refer to area 3) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport

47º33'N - 116º11'W

(Refer to legend 15 below) What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL?

A magenta vignette that goes around an airport

(Refer to legend 14 below) What is the acronym for a computerized command response system that provides automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information selected from an automated menu by microphone clicks?

AUNICOM

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) (Refer to area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1200 feet AGL and 10000 feet MSL

3 miles and 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 feet horizontally from clouds

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 301)(Refer to area 1) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1200 feet AGL are

3 miles and 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 horizontally from each cloud

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 3) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck Country Airport

36º24'N - 76º01'W

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 309) (Refer to area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

4000 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 20 on page 343)(Refer to area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?

Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure

(Refer to figure 26 on page 341)(Refer to area 2) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?

Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

Chart Supplement

(Refer to figure 59 on page 315) (Refer to area 3) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?

E

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 299)(Refer to area 3) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

IFR training flights above 1500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

(Refer to figure 21 on page 291) (Refer to area 3) Which airport is located at approximately 47º21'N latitude and 101º01'W longitude?

Washburn

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a

military operations area

(Refer to figure 20 on page 333)(Refer to area 5) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

unmarked balloon on cable to 3008 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 20 on page 333)(Refer to area 2) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans Country Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) (Refer to area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

Class D airspace to 3200 feet MSL

(Refer to figure 26 on page 313) (Refer to area 3) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport

Class G airspace--surface up to but not including 1200 feet AGL; Class E airspace--1200 feet AGL up to but not including 18000 feet MSL

(Refer to legend 17 below) According to the chart supplement, what are the operational requirements of a VORTAC?

Collocated VOR and TACAN navigational facilities

(Refer to figure 75 on page 325) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (area 6) is classified as Class

D

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field

(Refer to figure 69 on page 317) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (area 4) to McCampbell Airport (area 1) at an altitude of 2000 feet MSL?

Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace

(Refer to figure 52 on page 351) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with

Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz

Which statement about latitude and longitude is true?

Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

(Refer to figure 21 on page 291) (Refer to area 2) Which airport is located at approximately 47º34'30"N latitude and 100º43'00"W longitude?

Makeeff

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 1) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

Mode C transponder and two-way radio

(Refer to figure 71 on page 321)(Refer to area 6) Sky Way Airport is

a nonpublic use airport

(Refer to figure 71 on page 321)(Refer to area 1) Dubey airport is

a privately owned airport restricted to use

(Refer to figure 74 on page 323)(Refer to area 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

both 2100 feet and 3000 feet MSL

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by

downloading them from the FAA website

(Refer to figure 22 on page 348) Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)

from AWOS 3 135.075

(Refer to Figure 23 below, and Legend 1 on page 329) (Refer to area 3) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to

the Chart Supplement

(Refer to figure 70 on page 319) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (area 5) at an altitude of 3500 feet MSL? When entering

the Livermore Airport Class D airspace

(Refer to figure 78 on page 327) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?

1 statute mile, clear of clouds

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331)(Refer to area 3) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

1548 feet MSL

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)?

3000

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

70

(Refer to figure 69 on page 317) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at

700 feet AGL

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating rules are issued under which subject number?

90

(Refer to figure 26 on page 313) (Refer to area 5) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of the Barnes County Airport is

Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL

What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)?

Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) (Refer to area 2) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

(Refer to figure 21 on page 337) Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?

Minot Int'l (area 1)

(Refer to figure 52 on page 351) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when tower is not in operation?

Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz

(Refer to figure 52 below) Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city?

Northwest approximately 1 mile

(Refer to figure 24 on page 335) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5)

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 4) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 309) (Refer to area 5) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft Worth International (DFW) is a

VOR/DME

(Refer to figure 75 on page 325) What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend airport, near area 3?

Wilderness area

(Refer to figure 80 below, and figure 81 on page 353) Refer to Crawford Airport (N38º42.24' W107º38.62'). Is fuel ever available at Crawford Airport?

Yes, 100LL fuel is available for emergency use only

When NOTAMs are published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP), they are

only available in a standard weather briefing if the pilot requests published NOTAMs

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

received prior authorization from the controlling agency