Hematology - Laboratory Testing
76. The principle behind point-of-care devices to measure hematocrit is: A. Counting the RBCs and determining the MCV; then, multiplying the MCV x RBC/10 B. Calculating the conductance of the blood sample and correcting for temperature, conductivity of the plasma, and size of the fluid segment C. Detecting cumulative pulse height D. Centrifuging the sample at a standard speed and time, then measuring the RBC column vs. whole blood.
B
78. What is the characteristic RBC that is uniquely associated with HbSS? A. Target cell (codocyte) B. Sickle cell (drepanocyte) C. Polychromatophilic cell D. Spherocyte
B
82. A known sickle cell trait patient has a hemoglobin electrophoresis test performed. Which of the following hemoglobin percentage sets would most closely match this patient's diagnostic state? A. Hgb A = 90%, Hgb S = 8%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 0% B. Hgb A = 60%, Hgb S = 38%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 0% C. Hgb A = 40%, Hgb S = 58%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 0% D. Hgb A = 25%, Hgb S = 70%, Hgb A2 = 2%, Hgb F = 3%
B
95. A 17-year old African-American male had the following laboratory results: Sickle cell screen = positive Hemoglobin Electrophoresis: Hb S = 45% Hb A = 53% HbA2 = 2% Which of the following is the PROBABLE hemoglobin genotype? A. SS B. AS C. SC D. AC
B
97. In the heterozygous state of HbS, referred to as sickle cell trait, which of the following hemoglobins appear in combination with HbS? A. HbE B. HbA C. HbC D. HbD
B
56. Calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin content (MCHC) when Hgb = 15 g/dL (150 g/L) RBC count = 4.50 x 106/µL (4.50 x 1012/L) Hct = 47% (0.47). A. 34.7 g/dL B. 10.4 g/dL C. 31.9 g/dL D. 33.9 g/dL
C
87. All of the following are associated with Hgb C disease, EXCEPT? A. Hgb C crystal B. Target cells C. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6
D
89. You are running quality control for Hemoglobin A1C by high-pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC). The high control was 2.5 standard deviations above the mean. The low control was 2.2 standard deviations below the mean. Should you continue to run patient samples? A. Yes. Neither QC value exceeded 3 standard deviations and therefore did not violate a Westgard QC rule. B. Yes. Although a Westgard 13S rule was violated, it only indicates caution and not rejection of the QC run. C. No. These QC values indicate a violation of the Westgard 41S rule and are therefore cause for rejection. D. No. These QC values indicate a violation of the Westgard R4S rule and are therefore cause for rejection.
D
95. Which of the following analytes will be falsely decreased due to hemolysis? A. Potassium, Magnesium, Hemoglobin B. Potassium, Magnesium, Iron, Total Protein C. Hematocrit, Red Blood Cell Count, Potassium D. Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, Red Blood Cell Count
D
96. Which of the following is most likely to interfere with the measurement of hemoglobin? A. Leukocytopenia B. EDTA C. Heparin D. Lipemia
D
98. A hemoglobin F concentration of 100% may be seen in which beta thalassemia? A. Beta thalassemia minor (ß0/ß) B. Beta thalassemia major (ß0/ß0) C. Delta-beta thalassemia minor (dß0/ß) D. Delta-beta thalassemia major (dß0/dß0)
D
44. All of the following are true concerning the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) EXCEPT: A. ESR can be used to follow the course of a disease B. ESR is decreased during inflammatory conditions C. Highest ESR values are usually seen in Multiple Myeloma D. ESR values are increased in rheumatoid conditions
B
47. Methylene blue stain works by: A. Staining cellular components that have a neutral pH, such as neutrophilic granules B. Staining cellular components that have an acidic pH such as ribosomes, DNA, and RNA C. Staining cellular components that have a basic pH such as cytoplasmic proteins D. Staining cellular components regardless of the pH
B
48. Which of the following formulas will provide the value that reflects the average cell volume in a blood sample? A. Hemoglobin (g/dL) x 10/RBC count (1012/L) B. Hematocrit (%) x 10/RBC count (1012/L) C. Hemoglobin (g/dL) x 100/Hematocrit (%) D. Hemoglobin x 3
B
61. What is the most significant cause of decreased haptoglobin levels? A. Acute infection B. Intravascular hemolysis C. Liver disease D. Myoglobinuria
B
65. Which one of the following sets of laboratory results is consistent with hemolytic anemia? A. Increased concentration of haptoglobin; negative hemoglobinuria B. Decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme; decreased haptoglobin levels C. Decreased serum LDH activity; normal catabolism of heme D. Normal concentration of haptoglobin; marked hemoglobinuria
B
66. Considering the red cell distribution width (RDW) in alpha thalassemia, how would you expect the red blood cell histogram to look? A. Shifted to the right B. Shifted to the left C. Bimodal D. Normal
B
68. A quick mathematical check which can be applied to verify that the hemoglobin and hematocrit values on a complete blood count correspond with each other would be: A. Hematocrit X 3 = hemoglobin B. Hemoglobin X 3 = hematocrit C. Hemoglobin / hematocrit = 3 D. Hemoglobin + hematocrit = 3
B
70. Which of the following set of results would be consistent for a patient with the following findings: macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia? A. MCV 115 fL; Hgb 9.5 g/dL; WBC 6.5 x 103/µL; Platelets 75,000/µL B. MCV 115 fL; Hgb 7.5 g/dL; WBC 2.5 x 103/µL; Platelets 75,000/µL C. MCV 75 fL; Hgb 7.5 g/dL; WBC 2.5 x 103/µL; Platelets 75,000/µL D. MCV 75 fL; Hgb 9.5 g/dL; WBC 6.5 x 103/µL; Platelets 175,000/µL
B
71. What are the usual results of the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and the red cell distribution width (RDW) in alpha thalassemia? A. Both within normal range B. The MCV is decreased but the RDW is usually increased C. The MCV is increased but the RDW is normal D. Both the MCV and RDW are decreased.
B
73. An MCV is reported by the instrument as 82 fL. The MCV is flagged with a delta check alert as the previous MCV reported on this patient 12 hours earlier was 97 fL. What is a possible cause for this discrepancy? A. Transfusion B. The specimens are not from the same patient C. Acute hemorrhage D. The second specimen was hemolyzed
B
75. Which of the following hematology tests is used to indicate anemic conditions? A. White blood cell count B. Platelet count C. Hematocrit D. White blood cell differential
B
10. Which of the following markers is associated with normal mature B cell expression? A. CD19 B. CD8 C. CD14 D. C42
A
100. Which of the following statements best describes a normal mature erythrocyte? A. A biconcave disc, 6-8 µm in diameter, that stains pinkish-orange (salmon) in color B. A biconcave disc, 7 µm in diameter, with a salmon-colored cytoplasm and condensed nucleus C. A biconcave disc, 6-8 µm in diameter, containing ribosomes and mitochondria D. A biconcave disc, 7 µm in diameter, responsible for transporting myoglobin
A
13. It has already been established that the gated cell population is lymphocytic in nature. CD19 and CD20 cell surface antigens both appear on what type of lymphocytes? A. B cells B. T-helper cells C. Cytotoxic T cells D. NK cells
A
18. What is a potentially negative aspect to molecular (DNA) testing for mutations of the HFE gene, the gene found in the majority of patients diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? A. Genetic discrimination based on knowledge of test results B. Interference from preanalytical and physiologic variables C. Inaccuracy of test results D. Insensitivity of test methods
A
19. During data analysis in flow cytometry, how are cells gated? A. By placing a gate around cells with the same light-scattering. B. By placing a gate around cells with different light-scattering. C. By placing a gate around cells with different fluorescent properties. D. By placing a gate around cells that have no fluorescence
A
2. CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations? A. Mature T cells B. Normal B cells C. Both mature T cells and normal B cells D. None of the above, CD5 is not a lymphoid marker
A
24. The peroxidase stain is useful in differentiating between which cells? A. Lymphocytic and granulocytic cells B. Monoblastic and myeloblastic cells C. Leukemoid reaction and myelocytic leukemia D. Eosinophils and neutrophils
A
33. What stain is most commonly used in the hematology laboratory? A. Wright stain B. Gram stain C. New methylene blue stain D. Sternheimer-Malbin stain
A
37. Which of the following is MOST responsible for increasing the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)? A. Fibrinogen B. Albumin C. Alpha-2-globulins and beta-globulins D. Gamma-globulins
A
39. Which of the following will cause a falsely increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate? A. ESR tube is slanted B. EDTA tube is clotted C. EDTA tube is one-third full D. EDTA specimen is 24 hours old
A
4. What is an appropriate use for molecular (DNA) tests for mutations of the HFE gene, the gene found in the majority of patients diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)? A. Testing family members of persons with HH B. Screening of all newborns C. Predicting the severity of iron overload D. Identifying persons with iron overload
A
41. Which of the following is considered to be the stain of choice for evaluation of a peripheral blood smear to include red cell morphology as well as a white cell differential count? A. Wright B. Brilliant cresyl blue C. New methylene blue D. Prussian blue
A
42. Laboratory results obtained on a 47-year-old patient were as follows: WBC 51.2 x 103/µL RBC 4.27 x 106/µL HGB 12.6 g/dL HCT 36.9% PLT 403 x 103/µL Differential: 50% segmented neutrophils 20% bands 12% lymphocytes 7% monocytes 1% eosinophils 9% metamyelocytes 1% myelocytes RBC morphology: normocytic, normochromic WBC morphology: moderate toxic granulation, slight Dohle body Which test would be MOST helpful in establishing a diagnosis in this case? A. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain (LAP stain) B. Nonspecific esterase stain C. Acid phosphatase D. Sudan black B
A
46. Which of the following conditions would be associated with an increased osmotic fragility test result? A. Hereditary spherocytosis B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Thalassemia
A
58. A complete blood count is performed on a post-surgical, post-transfusion patient. The red cell distribution width (RDW) reported with the automated cell count is 16.5%. The reference interval in this laboratory is 11.0-14.5%. What would be demonstrated on the peripheral smear that relates directly to the RDW value? A. Anisocytosis B. Macrocytosis C. Microcytosis D. Nucleated red blood cells
A
6. When using a flow cytometer, forward scatter measures which of the following parameters? A. Cell size B. Clonality C. Cytoplasmic complexity (granularity) D. Fluorescence
A
60. What does the red cell distribution width (RDW) indicate on the peripheral blood smear? A. Variability of RBC volume B. Poikilocytosis C. Macrocytosis D. Microcytosis
A
67. A patient has anemia with an elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 106 fL (reference range 80-100 fL). All of the following could be likely causes EXCEPT: A. Vitamin B12 deficiency B. Alcoholism C. Acute blood loss D. Liver disease
A
77. The most common screening test for Hb S, the hemoglobin solubility test, is based on which of the following principles? A. Decreased solubility of deoxygenated Hb S in solution produces visible turbidity. B. The reduction of iron from the ferrous to the ferric state produces visible turbidity. C. Increased solubility of deoxygenated HbS in solution produces visible turbidity. D. The fact that any unstable hemoglobin will result in visible turbidity.
A
79. Which of the following non-HbS hemoglobins can also sickle and show a positive solubility test? A. HbC Harlem B. HbD LosAngeles C. HbG Philadelphia D. HbO Arab
A
8. During the 'staining' process prior to flow cytometry analysis of white blood cells, how are the erythrocytes treated? A. Lysed B. Bound C. Counted D. Stained
A
86. At an alkaline pH, which of the following hemoglobins cannot be separated from hemoglobin S during hemoglobin electrophoresis? A. Hb D B. Hb C C. Hb A D. Hb F
A
88. Which of the following is currently considered to be a good test for screening persons for hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) due to its sensitivity and specificity for iron overload? A. Transferrin saturation B. Liver biopsy C. Phlebotomy D. Serum iron alone
A
9. In flow cytometry, the granularity of a cell is indicated by which of the following? A. Side scatter B. Forward scatter C. Hydrodynamic focusing D. Fluorochromes
A
90. Which compound normally contains the majority of the body's total iron? A. Hemoglobin B. Enzymes C. Myoglobin D. Cytochromes
A
91. Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as Hb A, Hb F, Hb S, etc. include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Sodium metabisulfite solubility test B. High performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) C. Citrate agar electrophoresis D. Alkaline electrophoresis
A
92. A two-year old male patient has the following hemogram results: Hgb = 6.7g/dL Hct = 20% Platelets = 355 x 109/L RBC = 3.0 x1012/L WBC = 8.75 x 109/L Differential = 6% eos, 20% segs, 68% lymphs, 6% monos Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis? A. Dietary iron deficiency B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia C. Lymphocytic leukemia D. Lead poisoning
A
93. Which form of hemoglobin cannot be measured using the cyanmethemoglobin method? A. Sulfhemoglobin B. Carboxyhemoglobin C. Oxyhemoglobin D. Hemoglobin
A
11. Detecting the BCR/ABL1 mutation by molecular techniques is useful in the diagnosis of which of the following diseases/conditions? A. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) C. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) D. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)
B
14. Which of the following represents the percent population of T-helper cells in this sample data? absolute lymphocyte count= 2.4 x 109/L %CD3 = 60 %CD4 = 40 %CD8 = 20 A. 60% B 40% C. 20% D. 80%
B
15. The mutational status of Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) is most commonly used for the diagnosis of which of the following? A. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) B. Myeloproliferative neoplasms C. Anemias due to nutritional deficiencies D. Hypoproliferative conditions
B
20. Which of the following phenotypes is most indicative of a natural killer (NK) cell? A. CD2+ CD3+ CD5+ CD7+ B. CD2+ CD3- CD11b+ CD16+ C. CD11b+ CD16+ CD33+ CD56- D. CD19+ CD20+ CD22+ CD57-
B
22. Pappenheimer bodies (or siderotic granules) in erythrocytes can be detected using the following stain/s. A. Wright's stain only B. Wright's stain and Prussian blue stain C. Prussian blue stain only D. Sudan black B stain
B
27. Which one of the following conditions is associated with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency? A. Microcytic red cells B. Precipitation of hemoglobin C. Faulty heme synthesis D. Hemoglobins with low oxygen affinities
B
31.What is the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test? A. The Kleihauer-Betke test capitalizes on the resistance of fetal hemoglobin to alkaline treatment. B. The Kleihauer-Betke test capitalizes on the resistance of fetal hemoglobin to acid treatment. C. The Kleihauer-Betke test capitalizes on the resistance of fetal hemoglobin to enzymatic treatment. D. The Kleihauer-Betke test capitalizes on the resistance of fetal hemoglobin to radiation treatment.
B
36. Esterase stains are used to help differentiate which of the following? A. Myeloblasts from lymphoblasts B. Monoblasts from myeloblasts C. Monoblasts from lymphoblasts D. Erythroblasts from lymphoblasts
B
38. Which one of the following RBC inclusions can be visualized with Supravital stain but CANNOT be detected on a Wright stained blood smear? A. Basophilic stippling B. Heinz bodies C. Howell-Jolly bodies D. Pappenheimer bodies
B
40. Which of the following statements is true regarding the staining protocol used for bone marrow smears compared to that for peripheral blood smear? A. Bone marrow smears cannot be stained with automated stainer B. Longer staining time should be used to allow thorough staining C. Wright-Giemsa stain cannot be used with bone marrow smear D. Fixing with absolute methanol is not required with bone marrow staining
B
43. If one finds excessive rouleaux formation on a blood smear examination, then which of the following parameters might also be increased? A. Leukocyte count B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. Hematocrit D. Osmotic fragility
B
1. Flow cytometry is a useful tool in the study all of the following disorders, EXCEPT? A. HIV B. Leukemia C. Viral hepatitis D. Lymphoma
C
12. Laser light can be described by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Intensity and concentration B. Used in flow cytometry for cell sorting and identification of cells C. LASER is an acronym for light amplified by stimulated energy radiation D. Monochromaticity
C
16. Which white blood cell population would have the MOST side scatter when analyzed using flow cytometry? A. Monocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Granulocytes D. Erythrocytes
C
21. In addition to a Romanowsky stain, which one of the following would be useful in the routine evaluation of a bone marrow? A. Chloroacetate esterase B. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) C. Prussian blue D. Sudan black B
C
23. For which determination is the brilliant cresyl blue stain used MOST often? A. Malaria - ring forms B. Plasma Cells C. Reticulocytes D. Basophilic stippling
C
26. All of the following factors would cause an increase erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) values EXCEPT? A. Severe anemia B. Abnormal proteins (Rouleaux) C. Blood drawn into sodium citrate anticoagulant D. A slanted (not perpendicular) tube
C
32. What physiological factor causes sedimentation in the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)? A. Elevated levels of immunoglobulins B. Increased concentrations of fibrinogen C. Rouleaux formation D. Tilted tube, varying from the vertical
C
45. Cells that stain positive with acid phosphatase, and are NOT inhibited with tartrate, are characteristically seen in: A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Infectious lymphocytosis C. Hairy cell leukemia D. T-cell ALL
C
5. The principle behind the diagnosis of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH) by flow cytometry is: A. Incubation of patient blood in sucrose solutions, thus promoting hemolysis of PNH blood by complement. B. Evaluating the patient's lymphocytes for CD4 and CD8 markers. C. Using a fluorescein labeled proaerolysin variant to selectively bind to GPI anchor proteins D. Evaluating red blood cell histograms for variation in size.
C
50. Hemoglobin (g/100mL) x 10 / RBC count (millions/mm3) is the formula for calculating: A. MCHC B. MCV C. MCH D. RDW
C
53. How would the RBCs appear on the peripheral blood smear if the red cell indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV 88.5 f1 MCH 30.2 pg MCHC 33.1 % A. Microcytic, hypochromic B. Microcytic, normochromic C. Normocytic, normochromic D. Normocytic, hypochromic
C
54. All of the following are decreased in beta thalassemia major EXCEPT? A. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) B. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) C. Red cell distribution width (RDW) D. Red blood cell (RBC) count
C
57. Blood samples for complete blood counts are collected on morning rounds and stored in a rack in the phlebotomist's basket. When the phlebotomist delivers the samples to your work station, the cells and plasma in the samples have separated. One of the samples has lipemic plasma. Which of the following parameters may be affected by the lipemia? A. RDW B. MCV C. MCHC D. None of the parameters would be affected
C
59.In patients with Sickle cell disease, upon sickling what laboratory test will see an increase? A. MCV B. RBCs C. MCHC D. Hematocrit
C
62. Calculate the red cell indices from the following set of patient data: RBC count = 3.19 x 1012/L Hemoglobin = 11.3 g/dL Hematocrit = 35% A. MCV = 99 fL, MCH = 38 pg, MCHC = 34 g/dL B. MCV = 109 fL, MCH = 36 pg, MCHC = 34 g/dL C. MCV = 110 fL, MCH = 35 pg, MCHC = 32 g/dL D. MCV = 105 fL, MCH = 38 pg, MCHC = 32 g/dL
C
72. A peripheral smear demonstrates a population of cells composed of red cells that are mostly 5 - 5.5 µm in diameter. The CBC data shows RDW of 13% (reference range 11.5-14.5%). Which of the following morphologies is consistent with these findings? A. Macrocytosis, low variation of cell volume B. Normocytic cell, low variation of cell volume C. Microcytosis, low variation of cell volume D. Normocytic cell, high variation of cell volume
C
80. The gel electrophoresis pattern for hemoglobin S (HbS) shows which of the following migration patterns? A. HbS migrates alone in alkaline and with HbD in acid electrophoresis. B. HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and with HbA in acid electrophoresis. C. HbS migrates with HbD in alkaline and alone in acid electrophoresis. D. HbS migrates with HbA in alkaline and HbD in acid electrophoresis.
C
81. In the hemoglobin methodology using potassium ferricyanide the following measurable reaction occurs: A. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed B. Iron remains in the ferrous state C. Ferrous iron is oxidized to ferric iron to form methemoglobin D. Acid hematin is formed
C
83. Which of the following is least likely to interfere with the measurement of hemoglobin? A. Icteric plasma B. Lipemia C. Cold agglutinin D. Leukocytosis
C
84. Hematocrit is: A. Percentage of blood made up of serum B. Concentration of serum X 100 C. Percentage of blood made up of red blood cells D. Concentration of red cells X 100
C
85. What substance is measured in a spectrophotometer when Drabkin's solution is used for hemoglobin determinations? A. Hemoglobin B. Methemoglobin C. Cyanmethemoglobin D. Acid hematin
C
99. Which of the following is an important technique consideration in order to obtain consistently high quality bone marrow smears? A. Use the largest drop of marrow possible for each slide. B. Do not prepare the slides at the patient bedside. C. Select or concentrate bone marrow spicules, ensuring they are transferred to the slide. D. Only make one slide.
C
64. Which of the formulas given below is used to calculate MCHC- mean cell (corpuscular) hemoglobin (Hgb) concentration? A. Hgb (g/dL) x 10/ red blood cell (RBC) count B. Hematocrit (%) x 10/ red blood cell (RBC) count C. Red blood cell (RBC) count / Hgb (g/dL) x 10 D. Hgb (g/dL) x 100/ Hematocrit (%)
D
69. Which of the following RBC indices is expressed in femtoliters? A. RDW B. MCHC C. MCH D. MCV
D
7. What principle(s) of flow cytometry is employed when performing immuno-phenotyping? A. Diffraction grating B. Impedance C. Diffraction grating and impedance D. Fluorescent antibody tagging and light scatter
D
74. In serum protein electrophoresis all of the following proteins reside in the band closest to the anodal end EXCEPT: A. Retinol-binding protein (RBP) B. Transthyretin C. Albumin D. Haptoglobin
D
17. Which one of the following antigen markers is BEST associated with stem cells? A. CD3 B. CD10 C. CD18 D. CD34
D
25. What is the principle of the New Methylene Blue test? A. Reflecting ultra-violet light B. Inhibit lipids and proteins C. Staining hemoglobin components D. Staining cytoplasmic RNA, mitochondria, and ribosomes
D
28. A medical laboratory scientist working in Hematology was performing Myeloperoxidase staining on a suspected AML case. They found positive reactions of the segmented neutrophils. What would be the next step? A. Report result, patient is confirmed for AML B. Report result and perform Sudan Black B and Esterase stains to further confirm AML C. Inaccurate result, Myeloperoxdase stain confirms ALL and not AML D. Inaccurate result, only blast cells are to be examined for reaction
D
29. Which of these methods could be used to differentiate between Howell-Jolly bodies and Pappenheimer bodies and what results would be noted? A. Wright-Giemsa stain: Pappenheimer bodies stain blue but Howell-Jolly bodies do not stain blue B. Wright-Giemsa stain: Howell-Jolly bodies stain blue but Pappenheimer bodies do not stain blue C. Prussian blue stain: Howell-Jolly bodies stain blue but Pappenheimer bodies do not stain blue D. Prussian blue stain: Pappenheimer bodies stain blue but Howell-Jolly bodies do not stain blue
D
3. Which of the following laboratory tests would be most helpful in determining the number of T cells in circulation? A. Complete blood count B. Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) C. Manual differential D. Flow cytometry
D
30. What would the following Schilling test results indicate: Part I: 2% excretion of radioactive vitamin B12 (normal: 5-35%) Part II: 8% excretion of radioactive vitamin B12 after intrinsic factor was given with vitamin B12 (normal: 7-10%). A. Tropical sprue B. Transcobalamin deficiency C. Folic acid deficiency D. Pernicious anemia
D
34. Sudan III will confirm the presence of: A. Parasites B. Sperm C. Mucus D. Fat
D
35. When a few small, purple inclusions are found in erythrocytes, they can be confirmed as containing iron by: A. Describing them very carefully B. Performing a crystal violet stain C. Performing a new methylene blue stain D. Performing a Prussian blue stain
D
49. The hematology laboratory is experiencing instrument downtime. The laboratory has a back-up method for hemoglobin and hematocrit testing that is being used until the instrument is repaired. The hematologist calls and asks if you can provide any of the red blood cell indices. Which of the indices, if any, can you provide for the hematologist? A. MCV and MCH B. MCH and MCHC C. MCH only D. MCHC only
D
51. Calculate the red cell indices from the following set of patient data: RBC count = 5.22 x 1012/L Hemoglobin = 17.5 g/dL Hematocrit = 53% A. MCV = 100 fL, MCH = 28 pg, MCHC = 36 g/dL B. MCV = 102 fL, MCH = 34 pg, MCHC = 36 g/dL C. MCV = 100 fL, MCH = 28 pg, MCHC = 33 g/dL D. MCV = 102 fL, MCH = 34 pg, MCHC = 33 g/dL
D
52. Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores: A. Albumin B. Transferrin C. Haptoglobin D. Ferritin
D
55. Which of these blood levels will decrease during intravascular hemolysis? A. Serum (plasma) LDH B. Serum (plasma) bilirubin C. Reticulocytes D. Haptoglobin
D
64. Which of the following conditions would produce the results listed below in an anemic patient? MCV = 115 fL MCH = 30 pg MCHC = 34 % A. Sickle cell anemia B. Aplastic anemia C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Pernicious anemia
D
