Leadership 2nd test

Which statement is true regarding planned change? Select all that apply. A. Resistance to change should be expected as a natural part of the change process. B. Change should be viewed as a chance to do something innovative C. Technical changes are more resisted by staff than social changes are. D. Change affects the homeostasis of a group

A, B, D

Which statement is true concerning the refreezing phase of the change process? Select all that apply. A. The focus of this phase is to integrate the change into the status quo. B. Stabilization of change requires a 6- to 9 month period of time C. If refreezing is incomplete, prechange behavior will be resumed D. The change agent must remain involved until the refreeze stage is complete

A, C, D

In planning strategies to prevent stagnation and promote renewal, which action would most likely result in the desired outcome? A. Developing a program for recruitment of young talent B. Rewarding employees by promoting from within C. Having set pay increases mandated annually D. Using longevity to determine committee selection

A.

Which change is easier to make? A. Personal behavior B. Group behavior C. Group knowledge D. Personal attitudes

A.

A verdict of suspension or loss of licensure represents what type of law? A) Criminal B) Civil C) Administrative D) Judicial

Ans: C Feedback: A verdict of suspension or loss of licensure represents administrative law. This type of law is not based on any of the other options.

What is the basic argument for the use of rational empirical change strategies? A. Information supports change B. Peer influence brings about change C. Reward based incentives influence change D. Punishment supports the acceptance of change

A

Which action is reflective of the leadership role necessary for a successful planned change to occur? A. Demonstrates flexibility in goal setting B. Recognizing the need for a planned change. C. Identifying the resources that are available to support a change D. Support the staff during the implementation of a planned change.

A

It is appropriate to make a change for which reason? Select all that apply A. To solve an existing problem B. To increase staff efficiency C. To reduce unnecessary workload D. To improve staff productivity

A B C D

Which force is driving change in today's health care environment? Select all that apply. A. Increased cost of health care services B. Decrease in health care professionals and providers C. Decreased third party reimburse of health care services D. Increased need to update health are related technologies

A, B, C, D

Which would be a normal and expected behavioral response during the unfreezing phase of change? A. Anger B. Withdrawal and acceptance C. Open acceptance D. Active Collaboration

A. Anger

Refusing to work with a staff member who dresses unprofessionally most closely represents which change strategy? A. Power coercive B. Normative Reeducative C. Rational Empirical D. Resistance Withdrawl

A. Power Coercive

Which behavior/attitude makes it likely that a planned change will be unsuccessful? A. The suggested change is brought forward after the plan has been formalized B. Individuals affected by the change are involved in planning for the change C. The change agent is aware of the organization's internal and external environment. D. An assessment of resources to carry out the plan is completed before unfreezing

A. The suggested change is brought forward after the plan has been formalized

Distributing flyers that charge arbitrary action on the part of an employer in an effort to garner interest in employee unionization would be a part of what phase of planned change? A. Unfreezing B. Movement C. Refreezing D. Resistance

A. Unfreezing

10. What does the morale principle of autonomy govern? A) A person's right to make his or her own decision B) The obligation to do good and prevent harm C) Doing what is right and fair D) Truth telling

Ans: A Feedback: Autonomy, or self-determination, is also referred to as freedom of choice and accepting the responsibility for one's choice. None of the other options addresses this concept.

What is one way to promote open communication between patients and practitioners? A) Involving health-care consumers as active members of the health-care team B) Promoting the creation of cultures of patient safety in health-care organizations C) Establishing a federal leadership locus for advocacy of patient safety and health- care quality D) Building an evidence-based information and technology system that impacts patient safety and pursue proposals to offset implementation costs

Ans: A Feedback: One way to promote open communication between patients and practitioners is involving health-care consumers as active members of the health-care team. Pursing patient safety initiatives prevent medical injury by promoting the creation of cultures of patient safety in health-care organizations; establishing a federal leadership locus for advocacy of patient safety and health-care quality; and building an evidence-based information and technology system that impacts patient safety and pursue proposals to offset implementation costs.

25. Which activity best demonstrates a nursing unit manager's attention to the ethics standards of practice required of that position? A) Membership on the institution's ethic board B) Terminates a staff member for absenteeism C) Assures staff and patients that unit decisions are ethically sound D) Holds membership in the local and state American Nurses Association (ANA)

Ans: A Feedback: ANA standards for ethics related to nurse administrators identifies participants on multidisciplinary and interdisciplinary teams that address ethical risks, benefits, and outcomes as a criteria measurement. The remaining options while addressing ethical behaviors on the administrator's part are not as directly identified by the ANA.

What document permits a registered nurse to offer special skills and knowledge to the public in a particular jurisdiction when such practice would otherwise be unlawful? A) A state nursing license B) Institutional licensure C) ANA certificate D) ANA practice standards

Ans: A Feedback: In general, a license is a legal document that permits a person to offer special skills and knowledge to the public in a particular jurisdiction when such practice would otherwise be unlawful. A state nursing license allows for the practice of nursing in a specific state. Some professionals have advocated shifting the burden of licensure, and thus accountability, from individual practitioners to an institution or agency. Proponents for this move believe that institutional licensure would provide more effective use of personnel and greater flexibility. The ANA is not capable of permitting a person to practice nursing.

The nurse witnesses a patient sign an operative permit form. Legally, what does the nurses signature imply? A) Observed the client sign the consent form B) Is certain the client understands the proposed procedure C) Believe the client is capable of understanding the proposed procedure D) Assumes the client has had an adequate evaluation to agree to the procedure

Ans: A Feedback: Informed consent is obtained by a physician; therefore, a nurse is not legally responsible for informed consent but is confirming that the client signed the consent form. The other options are the responsibilities of the professional performing the procedure.

14. Collecting data about the ethical problem and identifying who should be involved in the decision-making process is accomplished in which phase of the MORAL decisionmaking model? A) Massage the dilemma B) Outline options C) Review criteria and resolve D) Affirm position and act

Ans: A Feedback: Massage the dilemma: Collect data about the ethical problem and who should be involved in the decision-making process. Outline options: Identify alternatives, and analyze the causes and consequences of each. Review criteria and resolve: Weigh the options against the values of those involved in the decision. This may be done through a weighting or grid. Affirm position and act: Develop the implementation strategy.

20. There are many terms used to describe moral issues faced by nurses, including moral uncertainty, moral conflict, moral distress, moral outrage, and ethical dilemmas. Which statement describes how moral uncertainty occurs? A) Occurs when an individual is unsure which moral principles or values apply and may even include uncertainty as to what the moral problem is B) Occurs when the individual knows the right thing to do but organizational constraints make it difficult to take the right course of action C) Occurs when an individual witnesses the immoral act of another but feels powerless to stop it D) Occurs when being forced to choose between two or more undesirable alternatives

Ans: A Feedback: Moral uncertainty occurs when an individual is unsure which moral principles or values apply and may even include uncertainty as to what the moral problem is. Moral distress occurs when the individual knows the right thing to do but organizational constraints make it difficult to take the right course of action. Moral outrage occurs when an individual witnesses the immoral act of another but feels powerless to stop it. Ethical dilemma is being forced to choose between two or more undesirable alternatives.

A state Nurse Practice Act is an example of which source of law? A) Statutes B) Constitution C) Administrative D) Judicial

Ans: A Feedback: Statutes are the only laws made by official enactment by the legislative body.

How is the question of whether a nurse acted with reasonable care generally proven? A) The expert testimony of nursing witnesses B) The defendants explanation of what the nurse did C) The trial judge, after checking the outcome of prior similar court cases D) The testimony of expert medical witnesses

Ans: A Feedback: The testimony of other nurses in the same specialty as the defendant may be used to prove breach of duty. The other options are not considered qualified to testify to this matter.

What is an example of an unintentional tort? A) Professional negligence B) Assault C) Battery D) False imprisonment

Ans: A Feedback: While professional negligence is considered to be an unintentional tort, assault, battery, false imprisonment, invasion of privacy, defamation, and slander are intentional torts.

What is the definition of a standard? A) A predetermined baseline condition or level of excellence that constitutes a model to be followed and practiced B) Diagnosis-based, step-by-step interventions for nurses to follow in an effort to promote evidence-based, high-quality care C) Process of measuring products, practices, and services against those of best- performing organizations D) Identify not only what and how an event happens but why it happens, with the end goal being to ensure that a preventable negative outcome does not recur

Ans: A Feedback: A standard is a predetermined baseline condition or level of excellence that constitutes a model to be followed and practiced. The remaining options all fail to accurately define a standard.

Which intervention is associated with the nursing leadership role? A) Inspiring staff to establish and maintain high standards regarding patient care B) Being aware of the changes in quality control regulations C) Reviewing research results upon which to base changes D) Identifying outcomes that support quality nursing care

Ans: A Feedback: Inspiring subordinates to establish and achieve high standards of care is a leadership skill. The remaining options are management roles.

What are the four evidence-based standards identified by the Leapfrog Group to reduce medical errors? A) Computerized physicianñprovider order entry, evidence-based hospital referral, ICU physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Practices scores B) Computerized physicianñprovider order entry, evidence-based visiting nurse referral, ED physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Practices scores C) Computerized primary care provider order entry, evidence-based hospital referral, ICU physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Medication scores D) Computerized nurse practitionerñprovider order entry, evidence-based outpatient referral, ED physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Medication scores

Ans: A Feedback: The Leapfrog Group identified four evidence-based standards that they believe will provide the greatest impact on reducing medical errors: computerized physicianñprovider order entry, evidence-based hospital referral, ICU physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Practices scores.

Which practice has the U.S. Food and Drug Administration suggested in order to decrease the risk of medication errors? A) Computerized order entry with a drug bar code system B) Medications automatically dispensed to patients at predetermined times C) Use of medication nurses to administer all ordered medications D) Have patients' medications kept at the bedside for self-administration

Ans: A Feedback: The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has suggested that a drug bar code system coupled with a computerized order entry system would greatly decrease the risk of medication errors.

Which task is a management function associated with quality control? A) Periodic evaluation of unit mission and philosophy B) Making out the daily patient care assignments C) Creating a yearly budget D) Distributing holiday staffing policies

Ans: A Feedback: Unit mission, philosophy, goals, and objectives are the blocks on which policies and standards rest. All these must be in place to measure whether quality is being achieved on the unit. The other options are not related to quality control.

13. Which factor should be considered when assessing the quality of ethical problem solving? Select all that apply. A) Outcomes B) Decision-making process C) Multiple alternatives D) Data gathering

Ans: A, B Feedback: Outcomes should never be used as the sole criterion for assessing the quality of ethical problem solving, because many variables affect outcomes that have no reflection on whether the problem solving was appropriate. Quality, instead, should be evaluated both by the outcome and the process used to make the decision. If a structured approach to problem solving is used, multiple alternatives are analyzed, and data gathering is adequate, then, regardless of the outcome, the manager should feel comfortable that the best possible decision was made at that time with the information and resources available. The satisfaction of the involved parties is not a reliable factor.

Which statement is true regarding criminal law cases? Select all that apply. A) Incarceration is a likely consequence of being found guilty of a criminal offense B) Intentionally giving an overdose of a potent narcotic is a criminal offense C) A guilty verdict requires evidence beyond a reasonable doubt D) Most malpractice cases are tried in criminal court

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: In criminal cases, the individual faces charges generally filed by the state or federal attorney general for crimes committed against an individual or society. In criminal cases, the individual is always presumed to be innocent unless the state can prove his or her guilt beyond a reasonable doubt. Incarceration and even death are possible consequences for being found guilty in criminal matters. Nurses found guilty of intentionally administering fatal doses of drugs to patients would be charged in a criminal court. Most malpractice cases are tried in civil court.

Which action demonstrates appropriate management regarding legal issues? Select all that apply. A) Remains current on all institutional policies and procedures B) Delegates with consideration to appropriate scopes of practice C) Requires physical proof of appropriate professional licensure each year D) Provides yearly in-services on the operation of newly acquired equipment

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Sound management functions regarding legal issues include understanding and adhering to institutional policies and procedures delegating to subordinates wisely, looking at the managers scope of practice and that of the individuals he or she supervises, and monitoring subordinates to ensure they have a valid, current, and appropriate license to practice nursing. In-services should be held frequently especially when related to issues that affect care delivery. The reliance on peers for advice in such matters is not prudent; the institutions legal advisor is much better prepared for this task.

21. Which characteristic of an organization has influence on the ethical decisions its managers' make? Select all that apply. A) Purpose B) Societal role C) Societal constraints D) Values

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: The manager's ethical obligation is tied to the organization's purpose, and the purpose of the organization is linked to the function that it fills in society and the constraints society places on it. So, the responsibilities of the nurse-manager emerge from a complex set of interactions. Society helps to define the purposes of various institutions, and the purposes, in turn, help to ensure that the institution fulfills specific functions. However, the specific values and norms in any particular institution determine the focus of its resources and shape its organizational life. The values of people within institutions influence actual management practice. The organization's societal status should not be considered when making ethical decisions. Page 9

24. Which statement concerning autonomy and the employee is true? Select all that apply. A) It is a form of personal liberty B) Its legal equivalent is self determination C) It is based on a person's right to make a choice D) It is supported by the process of progressive employee discipline

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: A form of personal liberty, autonomy is also called freedom of choice or accepting the responsibility for one's choice. The legal right of self-determination supports this moral principle. The use of progressive discipline recognizes the autonomy of the employee. The employee, in essence, has the choice to meet organizational expectations or to be disciplined further. If the employee's continued behavior warrants termination, the principle of autonomy says that the employee has made the choice to be terminated by virtue of his or her actions, not by that of the manager. Therefore, nurse-managers must be cognizant of the ethical component present whenever an individual's decisional capacity is in question. To take away a person's right to self-determination is a serious but sometimes necessary action.

A lawsuit pertaining to professional negligence must include duty, breach of duty, injury, and a causal relationship between breach of duty and injury. What else must be included? Which element is necessary to prove professional negligence? Select all that apply. A) Breach of duty B) Presence of injury C) Ability to foresee harm D) Causal relationship

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: A lawsuit pertaining to professional negligence must include duty, breach of duty, injury, a causal relationship between breach of duty and injury, and the ability to foresee harm. Intent to cause injury is not a requirement.

Which situations is a nurse-manager illegally responsible for reporting? Select all that apply. A) Suspected incidents of elder abuse B) Examples of substandard medical care C) Client-reported incidents of child abuse D) Confirmed case of a communicable disease

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: In addition, the manager, like all professional nurses, is responsible for reporting improper or substandard medical care, child and elder abuse, and communicable diseases, as specified by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Disagreements are not mandated reportable situations.

17. To make appropriate ethical decisions the nurse-manager must have knowledge of what items to assist in making decisions? Select all that apply: 1, 2, 3, 4. A) Organizational processes 1, 2 B) Proven decision-making models 1, 2, and 3 C) Professional approach that eliminates trial and error D) Ethical principles and frameworks

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: To make appropriate ethical decisions then, the manager must have knowledge of ethical principles and frameworks, use a professional approach that eliminates trial and error and focuses on proven decision-making models, and use available organizational processes to assist in making such decisions. Knowledge of the involved parties' wishes is not a focus of the decision-making process. Page 7

Who is involved in quality control measurement functions? Select all that apply. A) Facility staff B) Consumers C) All levels management D) Health-care professionals

Ans: A, B, C, D Feedback: Consumers, health professionals, staff, and all levels of management should be involved in quality control measurement. Community members become involved when they become health-care consumers.

Professional organizations generally espouse standards of care that have what relationship to those required by law? Select all that apply. A) Higher than those required by law B) The same as those required by law C) Are established after those required by law D) Are established prior to those required by law

Ans: A, D Feedback: Professional organizations generally espouse standards of care that are higher than those required by law. These voluntary controls often are forerunners of legal controls. The standards are written by health-care professionals while laws are written by legislatures.

What is the responsibility of a charge nurse who discovers that a medication error was made on the previous shift? A) Share that information with the charge nurse on the previous shift B) Document the incident as per hospital policy C) Write a memo to the nurse who made the error requesting incident report be written D) Write a note in the clients chart that an incident report will be completed

Ans: B Feedback: It is the responsibility as manager to immediately document the error according to hospital policy. Since policies concerning such situations vary, it is vital to know and follow established policies. It is not generally appropriate to make such a note on the clients chart

23. Which term is used to identify a person's feelings of powerlessness to stop unethical behavior in another person or institution? A) Moral conflict B) Moral outrage C) Ethical relativism D) Ethical universalism

Ans: B Feedback: Moral outrage occurs when an individual witnesses the immoral act of another but feels powerless to stop it. Moral uncertainty or moral conflict occurs when an individual is unsure which moral principles or values apply and may even include uncertainty as to what the moral problem is. Ethical relativism suggests that individuals make decisions based only on what seems right or reasonable according to their value system or culture. Ethical universalism holds that ethical principles are universal and constant and that ethical decision making should not vary as a result of individual circumstances or cultural differences. Page 10

16. Which member of the health-care team is often placed in situations where they are expected to be agents for patients, physicians, and the organization simultaneously, all of which may have conflicting wants and goals? A) Physicians B) Nurses C) Nurse practitioners D) Social workers

Ans: B Feedback: Nurses are often placed in situations where they are expected to be agents for patients, physicians, and the organization simultaneously, all of which may have conflicting needs, wants, and goals. The nature of the patient contact of a nurse is more direct and involves more time than the other members of the health-care team.

Which behavior will best minimize a nurse's risk for a malpractice claim? A) Always carry a personal liability insurance policy B) Always function with the states nursing practice act C) Ask for assistance when engaged in complicated procedures D) Devote time to establishing an effective nurse-patient relationship

Ans: B Feedback: Nurses can reduce the risk of malpractice claims by practicing within the scope of the Nurse Practice Act. Nurses should purchase their own liability insurance and understand the limits of their policies. Although this will not prevent a malpractice suit, it should help to protect a nurse from financial ruin should there be a malpractice claim. While the other options present reasonable advice, they will not necessarily help in the avoidance of a malpractice claim.

Which statement best describes the impact that the concept of respondeat superior has on the issue of nursing liability? A) It allows for joint liability among physicians, nurses, and health-care organizations B) It supports the sharing of blame among all involved sources of health-care services C) It encourages legal intervention when health care is thought to be substandard D) It implies that the institution is responsible for the acts of its employees

Ans: B Feedback: Nurses must remember that the purpose of respondeat superior is not to shift the burden of blame from the employee to the organization but rather to share the blame, increasing the possibility of larger financial compensation to the injured party. While the other options may be true statements, the correct option describes the more nurse-related implication of the concept.

What defines the legal boundaries of nursing at the state level? A) The states Attorney General B) The Nurse Practice Act C) The ANA standards of practice D) The ANA Code for Nurses

Ans: B Feedback: The 51 Nurse Practice Acts representing the 50 states and the District of Columbia are examples of statutes. These Nurse Practice Acts define and limit the practice of nursing, stating what constitutes authorized practice as well as what exceeds the scope of authority. Although Nurse Practice Acts may vary among states, all must be consistent with provisions or statutes established at the federal level. The other options lack the comprehensiveness and focus of a states Nurse Practice Act.

Page 3 7. What is the role of the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics and Interpretive Statements? A) Outlines minimum levels of ethical behavior that nurses must maintain B) Functions as a guide to the highest standards of ethical practice for nurses C) Is a legally binding document that directs a nurse's ethical and moral behavior D) Mandates the ethical behavior prerequisite for maintaining a nursing licensure

Ans: B Feedback: The ANA Code of Ethics outlines the important general values, duties, and responsibilities that flow from the specific role of being a nurse in order to achieve and maintain the highest standards. The document is not legally binding nor is it a mandate of behavior.

6. Which ethical framework would most likely be used to arrive at the nurse's decision to work overtime in spite of previous social plans? A) Utilitarianism B) Duty based C) Rights based D) Intuitionism

Ans: B Feedback: The duty framework says that some things should be done just because there is a duty to do them or refrain from doing them. Utilitarianism states that the good of the many outweighs the wants or needs of the individual. The remaining options are not relevant to the situation.

What is the best reason that nurse-managers have an ongoing responsibility to be aware of legislation affecting nursing practice? A) This will prevent them from getting sued B) Laws are fluid and subject to change C) It will protect the agency from a lawsuit D) It will ensure that correct procedure is carried out

Ans: B Feedback: When using doctrines as a guide for nursing practice, the nurse must remember that all laws are fluid and subject to change. Laws are not static. It is the responsibility of each manager to keep abreast of legislation and laws affecting both nursing practice and management practice. While the other options are correct, they do not describe the most encompassing reason that nurse-managers need to keep aware of current legislature affecting nursing practice.

Nursing students who scored in the top 5% on the examination studied in small groups, attended class 100% of the time, took frequent rest breaks during study sessions, and ate a balanced diet for 1 week before the examination. What type of audit provided this type of data? A) Structure B) Process C) Outcome D) Concurrent

Ans: B Feedback: A process audit assumes that a relationship exists between the process used and the quality of the result. This is the only option that fulfills that function.

Which statement is true regarding adverse drug events (ADEs)? A) They occur infrequently in accredited hospitals B) They are responsible for about 20% of hospitalized disabilities C) They usually involve either prescribing or pharmacy errors D) They occur because of individual recklessness

Ans: B Feedback: ADEs occur in all hospitals, are to blame for 20% of injury disabilities, and involve more than prescribing or pharmacy errors, but are rarely due to individual recklessness. They occur in both accredited and unaccredited facilities.

What results from the development of plan of correction associated with health-care delivery errors? A) Sentinel event B) Root cause analysis C) Quality assessment (QA) program D) Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)

Ans: B Feedback: Another Joint Commission priority is the development of root cause analysis with a plan of correction for the errors that do occur. A sentinel event is likely the trigger of the root cause analysis. FMEA examines all possible failures in a designóincluding sequencing of events, actual and potential risk, points of vulnerability, and areas for improvement. QA is an ongoing process that focuses on continued delivery improvement.

What do clinical practice guidelines provide? A) A predetermined baseline condition or level of excellence that constitutes a model to be followed and practiced B) Diagnosis-based, step-by-step interventions for nurses to follow in an effort to promote evidence-based, high-quality care C) Process of measuring products, practices, and services against those of best- performing organizations D) Identify not only what and how an event happens but why it happens, with the end goal being to ensure that a preventable negative outcome does not recur

Ans: B Feedback: Clinical practice guidelines provide diagnosis-based, step-by-step interventions for nurses to follow in an effort to promote evidence-based, high-quality care and yet control resource utilization and costs. The remaining options all fail to accurately identify what a clinical practice guideline provides.

When working on clinical practice guidelines for a mental health unit, the nursing committee will implement which intervention initially? A) Assessing the medical psychiatric staff for practice suggestions B) Implementing a search of the literature for current related research results C) Reviewing patient satisfaction data to identify the unit's strengths and weaknesses D) In-servicing all unit nursing staff on the need to adhere to established guidelines

Ans: B Feedback: Clinical practice guidelines reflect evidence-based practice; that is, they should be based on cutting edge research and best practices. The other options may be helpful but should occur after the review of the research literature.

What is the greatest limitation of the Health Plan Employer Data Information Set (HEDIS)? A) Findings are not released to the public B) Only about half of managed care organizations have chosen to participate C) Performance indicators are process focused rather than outcome focused D) There are only 15 performance measures

Ans: B Feedback: The NCQA, a private nonprofit organization that accredits managed care organizations, has developed HEDIS. One of the most significant weaknesses of NCQA accreditation is that such accreditation is voluntary and only about half of managed care organizations currently undergo such review. The remaining options do not relate to the HEDIS

A doctor orders a medical procedure that the staff nurse has reason to believe will harm the patient. Which statement accurately states the legal consequences of carrying out, or refusing to carry out, the procedure? A) The staff nurse cannot be held legally liable for any harm to the patient if the procedure is carried out with due care B) The nurse may lose his or her license by refusing to carry out the procedure C) The nurse can be held legally liable for any harm if the procedure is carried out without question D) The nurse can be held accountable for practicing medicine without a license

Ans: C Feedback: All nurses have personal liability, which means that every person is liable for his or her own conduct. None of the remaining options describes that liability or its outcomes accurately.

11. Protecting patient confidentiality respects the client's right to A) self-esteem B) self-defense C) self-determination D) self-incrimination

Ans: C Feedback: Confidentiality is a foundation of both medical and nursing ethics, and it respects the client's right to self-determination. While the other options are worthy of respect, they are not associated with confidentiality.

Malpractice or professional negligence is the failure of a person with professional training to act in a reasonable and prudent manner. How many components must be present for an individual to be found guilty of malpractice? A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six

Ans: C Feedback: Five components must be present for a professional to be held liable for malpractice: duty to use care, failure to meet standard of care, foreseeability of harm, direct relationship between failure to meet the standard of care and injury can be proved, and injury.

15. Which statement is correct regarding the distinction between legal and ethical obligations in decision making? A) Ethical controls are clearer and philosophically impartial B) Ethical controls are much clearer and individualized C) Legal controls are clearer and philosophically impartial D) Legal controls are much less clear and individualized

Ans: C Feedback: In general, legal controls are clearer and philosophically impartial; ethical controls are much less clear and individualized. Page 6

What element must be included in the process of securing informed consent? A) A timeline of when the treatment is expected to occur B) Written information on what the post procedure outcomes will be C) Information regarding the risks involved in the proposed procedure D) An explanation of the nature of all associated treatment provided by the nurse

Ans: C Feedback: Informed consent can be given only after the patient has received a complete explanation of the surgery, procedure, or treatment and indicates that he or she understands the risks and benefits related to it. Timeline and nursing responsibilities are not components that are included. Outcomes are identified as expected or desired; no guarantees are given.

5. Which statement regarding the MORAL decision-making model is true? A) It is a problem-solving model B) It does not include an evaluation step C) The identification and analysis of multiple alternatives for action is required D) The decision is arrived upon with only the involvement of the decision maker

Ans: C Feedback: MORAL is a decision-making model that is useful in clarifying ethical problems, and it requires the identification and analysis of multiple alternatives for action. The other options are not true statements regarding this decision-making model.

22. Which ethical principle associated with an adult child is legally given the right to make medical decisions for a cognitively impaired parent? A) Justice B) Fidelity C) Paternalism D) Beneficence

Ans: C Feedback: Paternalism is when one individual assumes the right to make decisions for another. Justice requires that a person seek fairness, treat ìequalsî equally, and treat ìunequalsî according to their differences. Fidelity involves the need to keep promises. Beneficence involves actions that are taken in an effort to promote good.

Which characteristics are required of a reasonable and prudent nurse? A) Years of clinically focused nursing experience B) Specialized nursing skills C) Average nursing judgment and skills D) Earned advanced nursing degree

Ans: C Feedback: Reasonable and prudent generally means the average judgment, foresight, intelligence, and skill that would be expected of a person with similar training and experience. The other options describe qualifications not required of a reasonable and prudent nurse.

12. Much of the difficulty people have in making ethical decisions results from a lack of formal education about problem solving. Research at the University of Pennsylvania found what percentage of the nurses and social workers reported having no ethics training? A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 30

Ans: C Feedback: Research done at the University of Pennsylvania found that nearly 25% of the nurses and social workers reported having received no ethics training. Page 5

hirty-eight percent of the people who attended a smoking cessation clinic were not smoking 1 year after the clinic closed. What type of audit provided this type of data? A) Structure B) Process C) Outcome D) Concurrent

Ans: C Feedback: An outcome audit determines what outcomes resulted from specific nursing interventions for clients. That is the function of the remaining options.

Which statement is true regarding criteria for assuring that a quality control program will be effective? A) The primary purpose of the program is to satisfy various federal and state standards B) Developed standards should reflect minimally acceptable levels so the organization will score well on self-assessment audits C) A belief in the importance of quality control must be integrated through all levels of the organizational hierarchy D) The process should be reactive; in other words, quality improvement efforts should be initiated after problems are identified

Ans: C Feedback: For any quality control program to be effective, a belief in the importance of quality control must be integrated through all levels of the organizational hierarchy. The remaining statements are false.

What results from effective benchmarking? A) Two organizations become financially integrated under a capitated model B) Organizations compete for a ìbest practicesî label from the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) C) An organization compares its performance with that of ìbest-performing institutionsî D) Minimum practice guidelines are established for each health-care organization

Ans: C Feedback: In benchmarking, an organization compares its performance with that of ìbest- performing institutions.î Benchmarking is not associated with the other options.

Which description best describes the theory behind nonlinear change? A. It occurs in organized steps B. It must have a logical sequence C. It results in equilibrium D. It has unpredictable outcomes

D. It has unpredictable outcomes

What is the best course of action to stimulate staff nurses' involvement in quality control research on a nursing unit? A) Hire a well-qualified researcher to help staff design studies B) Create a joint medical/nursing staff research committee C) Provide staff with paid release time for research activities D) Ensure that research designs are well grounded and scientific

Ans: C Feedback: Staff should be involved in determining criteria or standards, reviewing standards, and collecting data. To stimulate staff nurses' involvement in quality control research, the best course of action would be to provide staff with paid release time for research activities. The other options fail to actually stimulate the nurse's involvement in the process.

Which is a true statement regarding TQM? A) It is based on the premise that the organization knows what is best for the consumer B) Its guiding purpose is to save the organization money C) It is based on the premise that the customer is the focal element on which production and service depend D) It assumes that inspection and removal of errors lead to the delivery of quality services

Ans: C Feedback: TQM is based on the premise that the customer is the focal element on which production and service depend. The other options are false statements.

What role has the Joint Commission assumed in ensuring quality at the organizational level? A) Establishing clinical practice guidelines B) Reducing diagnosis-related group reimbursement levels C) Standardizing clinical outcome data collection D) Assessing monetary fines for hospitals that fail to meet standards

Ans: C Feedback: The Joint Commission ensures quality at the organizational level by requiring participating organizations to choose from among 60 acceptable performance measurement systems. The Joint Commission is not actively involved in any of the other options.

What is the first step in quality control? A) To take corrective action when standards have not been met B) To collect data to determine whether standards have been met C) To determine criteria and standards D) To determine who will measure the standard

Ans: C Feedback: The first step in quality control is to determine criteria and standards. Measuring performance or making corrections is impossible if standards have not been clearly established.

What is the function of a nursing minimum data set? A) Compares the quality of nursing care and medical care B) Identifies minimal levels of quality necessary for nurses to maintain licensure C) Standardizes the collection of nursing data for use by multiple data users D) Identifies only ìnursing-sensitiveî patient outcome measures

Ans: C Feedback: The nursing minimum data set standardizes the collection of nursing data for use by multiple data users. None of the remaining options accurately describes the function of such a data set.

Which statement is true regarding the implications of a Good Samaritan law for a registered nurse? Select all that apply. A) A nurse has a legal responsibility to provide emergency services B) Such laws are universally worded so as to minimize state-to-state differences C) In order for protection to apply, the nursing care cannot be considered negligent D) A nurse who provided out-of-scope care is not protected by the Good Samaritan law

Ans: C, D Feedback: Nurses are not required to stop and provide emergency services as a matter of law, although most health-care workers feel ethically compelled to stop if they believe they can help. Good Samaritan laws suggest that health-care providers are typically protected from potential liability if they volunteer their nursing skills away from the workplace (generally limited to emergencies), provided that actions taken are not grossly negligent and if the health-care worker does not exceed his or her training or scope of practice in performing the emergency services. However, not being paid for your services alone will not provide Good Samaritan law protection. Good Samaritan laws apply only if the health-care worker does not exceed his or her training or scope of practice in performing the emergency services. Protection under Good Samaritan laws varies tremendously from state to state. In some states, the law grants immunity to RNs but does not protect LVNs or LPNs. Other states offer protection to anyone who offers assistance, even if they do not have a health-care background. Nurses should be familiar with the Good Samaritan laws in their state.

18. Using both a systematic approach and proven ethical tools and technology allows managers to make better decisions and increases the probability that they will feel confident about the decisions they have made. Leadership roles and management functions are involved in management ethics. What is an example of a leadership role? A) Uses a systematic approach to problem solving and decision making when faced with management problems with ethical ramifications B) Identifies outcomes in ethical decision making that should always be sought or avoided C) Uses established ethical frameworks to clarify values and beliefs D) Role models ethical decision making, which is congruent with the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics and Interpretive Statements and Professional standard

Ans: D Feedback: A leadership role is role models ethical decision making, which is congruent with the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics and Interpretive Statements and Professional standard. Uses a systematic approach to problem solving and decision making when faced with management problems with ethical ramification, identifies outcomes in ethical decision making that should always be sought or avoided, and uses established ethical frameworks to clarify values and beliefs are examples of management functions.

8. Which statement regarding ethical decision making is true? A) Outcomes are the basic criterion for evaluating ethical decision making B) Only desirable alternatives are identified when solving ethical dilemmas C) Critical ethical decisions are made quickly so the situation does not worsen D) Accepting some ambiguity and uncertainty are a part of ethical decision making

Ans: D Feedback: Ethical decision makers choose between two or more undesirable alternatives, and because they can use only the information and resources available at the time, they must live with some ambiguity and uncertainty. The remaining options are not true statements regarding the ethical decision-making process.

Page 1 1. Which statement best describes ethics? A) How our lives and relationships are led in our reality B) How people make decisions they see as legally and morally appropriate C) The conflict, power, and interdependency associated with the way we live D) What our conduct and actions should be regarding what is right and good

Ans: D Feedback: Ethics is the systematic study of what a person's conduct and actions should be with regard to self, other human beings, and the environment; it is the justification of what is right or good and the study of what a person's life and relationships should be, not necessarily what they are.

9. Which ethical framework involves an individualized decision-making framework? A) Duty based B) Rights based C) Utilitarian D) Intuitionist

Ans: D Feedback: Intuitionist states that each case weighed on a case-by-case basis to determine relative goals, duties, and rights. Utilitarian provides the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Duty based is a duty to do something to refrain from doing something. Rightsbased individuals have basic inherent rights that should not be interfered with. Page 4

3. The practice of allocating organs for transplantation based on a person's ìworth to societyî is an example of what ethical principle for decision making? A) Autonomy B) Beneficence C) Utility D) Justice

Ans: D Feedback: Justice: Seek fairness, treat ìequalsî equally, and treat ìunequalsî according to their differences. Autonomy: Promotes self-determination and freedom of choice. Beneficence: Actions are taken in an effort to promote good. Utility: The good of the many outweighs the wants or needs of the individual. Page 2

19. Using both a systematic approach and proven ethical tools and technology allows managers to make better decisions and increases the probability that they will feel confident about the decisions they have made. Leadership roles and management functions are involved in management ethics. What is an example of a management function? A) Is self-aware regarding own values and basic beliefs about the rights, duties, and goals of human beings B) Accepts that some ambiguity and uncertainty must be a part of all ethical decision making C) Accepts that negative outcomes occur in ethical decision making despite highquality problem solving and decision making D) Identifies outcomes in ethical decision making that should always be sought or avoided

Ans: D Feedback: Management function identifies outcomes in ethical decision making that should always be sought or avoided. Leadership roles include the following: Is self-aware regarding own values and basic beliefs about the rights, duties, and goals of human beings; accepts that some ambiguity and uncertainty must be a part of all ethical decision making; accepts that negative outcomes occur in ethical decision making despite high-quality problem solving and decision making. Page 8

How is the legal expansion of nursing roles accomplished? A) The expansion of job descriptions in an agency B) Written contracts between the nurse and the client C) A written agreement between the nurse and the physician D) Revision of the Nurse Practice Act

Ans: D Feedback: RN scope of practice is always determined by the Nurse Practice Act and any expansion of roles must occur through legislated changes in that statute. None of the remaining options are sufficient to expand nursing roles legally.

2. What is an ethical dilemma? A) A problem that can be solved using empirical data B) A situation that has clearly delineated facts for decision making C) A problem that when handled effectively has a mutually agreed-upon solution D) A situation that requires choosing between two or more undesirable alternatives

Ans: D Feedback: The most difficult of all moral issues is termed a moral or ethical dilemma, which may be described as being forced to choose between two or more undesirable alternatives. The problem is not generally solved with a solution that is mutually satisfying nor does it lend itself to empirical or delineated facts.

4. The only treatment alternative left for a patient diagnosed with advanced cancer is a rare, highly experimental bone marrow transfusion with a 10% success rate. The insurance company refuses to authorize payment for the $200,000 procedure, arguing that the money could be better spent providing well-baby screening for 2,000 residents in the service area. What does this decision by the insurance company reflect? A) Unethical conduct B) Maleficence C) Paternalism D) Utility

Ans: D Feedback: The principle of utility states that what is best for the common good outweighs what is best for the individual. There is no indication of unethical or maleficence behavior on the part of the insurance company. Paternalism would be characterized by the insurance company making treatment decision without the patient having input.

What component of professional negligence is represented when a patient experiences a seizure resulting from a medication error? A) Duty to use due care B) Failure to meet standard of care C) Foreseeability of harm D) A causal relationship

Ans: D Feedback: A direct causal relationship between failure to meet the standard of care (breach) and injury can be proved when a patient is harmed because proper care is not given. None of the remaining options are relevant to this criterion.

What is the guiding principle when attempting to address errors made in the delivery of health care? A) Reporting of errors must be both mandatory and voluntary B) Errors are a result of faulty organizational processes C) People are the root cause of health delivery errors D) Errors are either unavoidable or result from reckless behavior

Ans: D Feedback: A just organizational culture emphasizes the finding of the middle ground between the two extremes of error cause (people or system). It seeks to separate unavoidable error from reckless behavior and unjustifiable risk. Reporting of errors can be both mandatory and voluntary but this factor has less importance than the organization attitude regarding the cause of errors.

What do the critics of prospective payment system argue? A) Diagnosis-related groups have not helped to contain rising health care costs B) The system has increased the length of hospital stay C) Services provided under this system have only slightly increased D) On the whole quality of care has declines since its implementation

Ans: D Feedback: Critics of the prospective payment system argue that although DRGs may have helped to contain rising health-care costs, the associated rapid declines in length of hospital stay and services provided have resulted in declines in the quality of care.

An RN is a supervisor in an organization that has total quality management (TQM) as the backbone of its organizational goals and objectives for quality control. How does the RN practice TQM on the unit? A) Encouraging employees to think of a unit slogan B) Developing a quota system for number of patients cared for C) Explaining to the staff that ìif it's not broke, don't fix itî D) Promoting teamwork rather than individual accomplishments

Ans: D Feedback: In TQM, team efforts are favored over individual accomplishments. Slogans, quota systems, and maintaining the status quo work against quality in this philosophy.

What is the best qualitative measurement in determining quality control for marketing? A) Morbidity and mortality rates B) Nursing care hours per patient day C) Average length of stay D) Patient surveys of general satisfaction

Ans: D Feedback: In determining quality control for marketing, the best qualitative measurement would be patient surveys. The other options are not necessarily qualitative measurements.

Which statement is true regarding the factors that impact patient satisfaction with a hospitalization? A) The quality of care delivered is the primary factor related to B) The patient's understanding of his/her condition influences satisfaction C) The length of the hospital stay is the deciding influence on satisfaction D) The patient's satisfaction has little to do with actual health improvement

Ans: D Feedback: Patient satisfaction often has little to do with whether a patient's health improved during a hospital stay. It is important to remember that quality care, length of stay, and patient perception do not always equate with patient satisfaction.

What component of professional negligence is represented when a nurse fails to look up an unfamiliar medication before administering it? A) Duty to use due care B) Failure to meet standard of care C) Foreseeability of harm D)A direct relationship between failure to meet the standard of care (breach) and injury can be proved

Ans:C Feedback: The nurse must have reasonable access to information about whether the possibility of harm exists not fulfilling this responsibility may result in a foreseeable harm to the client. None of the remaining options are relevant to this criterion.

Which factor is the greatest contributor to the resistance encountered with organizational change? A. Poor organizational leadership B. Presence of employee mistrust C. Ineffective organizational management D. Insufficient staff involvement in the process

B

Which statement reflects an important factor to consider when implementing a planned change? A. Change should be implemented suddenly B. Change should be implemented gradually C. Change should be implemented arbitrarily D. Change should be implemented sporadically

B

Which characteristics associated with change by drift changes? Select all that apply. A. They are planned B. They are accidental C. They are unplanned D. They are a result of a threat

B, C

Historically many of the changes that have occurred in nursing or have affected the profession are the result of what type of change? A. Planned B. Change by drift C. Rational empirical D. Normative educative

B.

What characteristics is associated with organizational groups assigned to manage the change process? A. Both formulate and implement the change B. Have representation from all key stakeholders C. Are made up of quality circles D. Are teams of resistance breakers

B.

Which situation is associated with and aging organization? A. Retired staff is replaced with new graduate nurses B. State of the art cardiac monitoring equipment is placed in the ICU C. The unit functions with strict adheres to institutional rules and policies D. A suggestion committee composed of staff and management meets monthly

C

What activity associated with the unfreezing state of change will have the greatest impact on the success of the movement stage of the change process? A. Accurate identification of the problem requiring change B. Effective information gathering concerning the problem C. Key personnel voicing their opinions regarding the need for change D. The need for change is perceived by all those affected by the problem

D

What is required to successfully implement the chaos theory of change? A. Most stakeholders accepting the need for change B. Finding solutions to resistance to change C. Changing attitudes more than increasing knowledge D. Finding underlying order in random data

D

Which activity is associated with the movement stage of the development of a plan? A. Gather data B. Accurately diagnose the problem C. Decide if change is needed D. Develop a plan

D

Which action represents a management function in planned change? A. Inspiring group members to be involved in planned change. B. Visionary forecasting C. Role modeling high level interpersonal communication skills in providing support for individuals undergoing rapid or difficult change D. Recognizing the need for planned change and identifying the options and resources available to implement change.

D.

Which activity does a change agent make a commitment to in order to best assure a successful implementation of a change? A. Helping followers arrive at total consensus regarding the change B. Encouraging subgroup opposition to change so many viewpoints can be heard C. Using change by drift if the resistance to change is too strong D. Being available to support those affected by a change until the change is complete

D.

Which statement is true regarding the philosophy of nonlinear change theories? A. Change occurs in sequential steps. B. Change is predictable. C. Change success relies on policies and hierarchies. D. Change is necessary because organizational stability is brief

D.