Medical Assisting - Chapter 47

The types of cells in urine are 1) Keratinocytes 2) Erythrocytes 3) Epithelial cells 4) Leukocytes 5) Melanocytes

Erythrocytes Epithelial cells Leukocytes

The condition of having cloudy urine is called 1) Oliguria 2) Nocturia 3) Hematuria 4) Turbidity

Turbidity

Which of the following are physical characteristics of urine? 1) Turbidity 2) Nitrites 3) Color 4) Glucose 5) Volume

Turbidity Color Volume

The goal of urine specimen collection, storage, and preservation is for the sample to have ______ physical, chemical, or microscopic properties. 1) Unchanged 2) Transformed 3) Unaltered 4) Adulterated

Unchanged Unaltered

A splinting catheter is inserted after plastic repair of the 1) Uterus 2) Uvula 3) Urethra 4) Ureter

Ureter

The external opening of the urethra is called the 1) Urinary junction 2) Urethral meatus 3) Renal pelvis 4) Bladder

Urethral meatus

Bilirubinuria is the condition of having bilirubin in the 1) Lymph 2) Urine 3) Blood 4) Feces

Urine

A measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of urine is urinary 1) pH 2) Protein 3) Nitrites 4) Ketones

pH

For how long does refrigerating a urine specimen prevent bacterial growth? 1) 1 hour 2) 4 hours 3) 24 hours 4) 72 hours

24 hours

Which urine collection technique is typically used for a urine culture? 1) Clean-catch 2) First-morning 3) Random 4) 24-hour

Clean-catch

Beginning with the first step on top, list the steps for performing a urine pregnancy test.

1) Label the kit with the patient's name or identification number 2) Apply the urine to the test chamber per manufacturer's instructions 3) At the appropriate time, read and interpret the test results 4) Record the results

Beginning with the first step on top, list the steps for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen

1) Label the specimen 2) At the start of the observation time, void and discard the first urine 3) For the next 24 hours, collect each urine specimen in the container 4) At the end of the 24 hours, void the final specimen into the container

What is the average daily urine output? 1) 2,000 mL 2) 500 mL 3) 1,250 mL 4) 100 mL

1,250 mL

The specific gravity of distilled water is 1) 100 2) 1.001 3) 1.100 4) 1.000

1.000

Which of the following values falls into the range for normal urinary pH? 1) 4.2 2) 8.6 3) 6.8 4) 2.9

6.8

The absence of urine production is called 1) Nocturia 2) Oliguria 3) Anuria 4) Polyuria

Anuria

A clean-catch urine specimen may be submitted for ______ testing to identify the number and types of pathogens present. 1) Glucose 2) Viral 3) Sensitivity 4) Bacterial

Bacterial

Which of the following is the condition of having bilirubin in the urine? 1) Bilirubinuria 2) Hematuria 3) Ketonuria 4) Hemoglobinuria

Bilirubinuria

Which of the following are reasons for decreased urine specific gravity? 1) Chronic renal disease 2) Adrenal insufficiency 3) Dehydration 4) Systemic lupus erythematosus 5) Diabetes insipidus

Chronic renal disease Systemic lupus erythematosus Diabetes insipidus

A urine specimen that is collected after a night's sleep is called a ______ urine specimen. 1) Random 2) First morning 3) Clean-catch 4) 24-hour

First morning

Diseases, bacteria, and certain ______ are factors that can change the odor or urine. 1) Perfumes 2) Food coloring 3) Foods 4) Liquids

Foods

A Foley catheter is also known as a(n) ______ catheter. 1) Retention 2) Ureteral 3) Indwelling 4) Straight

Indwelling

Urobilinogen is a colorless compound formed in the ______, possibly indicating increased hemolysis or liver disease. 1) Kidneys 2) Liver 3) Stomach 4) Intestines

Intestines

The cause of high urinary urobilinogen levels is 1) Dehydration 2) Liver disease 3) Recurrent diarrhea 4) Increased hemolysis

Liver disease Increased hemolysis

Which of the following are advantages of measuring urine specific gravity with a refractometer? 1) It is fast. 2) The patient can perform the test. 3) It is comprehensive. 4) It requires a very small urine volume.

It is fast. It requires a very small urine volume.

Bacterial infections of the GI system typically cause what symptoms? 1) Constipation 2) Dry, scanty, bloody stool 3) Odorless stool 4) Loose, bloody, mucus-tinged stool

Loose, bloody, mucus-tinged stool

Phenylketonuria can cause 1) Mental retardation 2) Encephalitis 3) Heart disease 4) Kidney failure

Mental retardation

Which of the following are conditions that may cause alkaline urine? 1) Metabolic alkalosis 2) Urinary tract infections 3) Phenylketonuria 4) Acidosis

Metabolic alkalosis Urinary tract infections

Urinalysis includes the physical, chemical, and ______ evaluation of urine. 1) Functional 2) Compositional 3) Structural 4) Microscopic

Microscopic

Myoglobinuria is the presence of ______ in the urine. 1) Myoglobin 2) Blood 3) Hemoglobin 4) Ketones

Myoglobin

Which of the following is the presence of myoglobin in the urine? 1) Myoglobinuria 2) Dysuria 3) Hemoglobinuria 4) Hematuria

Myoglobinuria

Which STIs can be diagnosed using nucleic acid amplification tests with a urine specimen? 1) Neisseriae gonorrhoeae 2) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome 3) Chlamydia trachomatis 4) Herpes simplex

Neisseriae gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis

Match the collecting, processing, and testing urine and stool specimens terms with their definitions.

Oliguria - Insufficient production of urine Refractometer - Optical instrument that measures the bending of light as it passes through a liquid Urinalysis - Physical, chemical, and microscopic evaluation of urine Urine specific gravity - Measurement of the concentration of dissolved substances in urine

Which condition is associated with the inability to properly metabolize phenylalanine and is the presence of phenylktones in the urine? 1) Phenylketonuria 2) Pregnancy 3) Starvation 4) Diabetes

Phenylketonuria

Color, turbidity, volume, odor, and specific gravity are ______ the characteristics of urine. 1) Physical 2) Microscopic 3) Functional 4) Chemical

Physical

An excess amount of protein in the urine is called 1) Hemoglobinuria 2) Ketonuria 3) Hematuria 4) Proteinuria

Proteinuria

A test that indicates the presence or absence of a substance in urine is called a ______ analysis. 1) Quantity 2) Quantitative 3) Quality 4) Qualitative

Qualitative

A test that measures the amount of a specific substance in urine is called a ______ analysis. 1) Quantity 2) Qualitative 3) Quantitative 4) Quality

Quantitative

Which of the following are types of urinary drainage catheters? 1) External 2) Spiral 3) Retention 4) Straight 5) Ureteral 6) Indwelling

Retention Straight Ureteral Indwelling

Cells, casts, crystals, bacteria, yeast, and parasites are elements that form ______ after urine is centrifuged. 1) Serum 2) Sediment 3) Urea 4) Precipitate

Sediment Precipitate

The advantages of measuring urine specific gravity with a refractometer are that it is faster and requires a ______ amount of urine. 1) Small 2) Nonexistent 3) Large 4) Copious

Small

Which of the following substances are typically tested in 24-hour urine specimens? 1) Lipids 2) Sodium 3) Sedimentation rate 4) Calcium 5) Chloride

Sodium Calcium Chloride

Reagent strips and refractometers are methods for testing ______ gravity. 1) Limited 2) Comprehensive 3) Adjusted 4) Specific

Specific

A measure of the concentration of dissolved substances in urine is called 1) Urinary pH 2) Volume measure 3) Reagent strip 4) Specific gravity

Specific gravity

With the first step on top, place the steps in order for explaining the instructions for collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen.

1) Confirm the patient's identity 2) Explain the procedure in detail 3) Confirm the patient's understanding 4) Collect the specimen

Beginning with the first step on top, list the steps for performing urinalysis using a reagent strip test.

1) Swirl the specimen 2) Dip the urine strip into the aliquoted specimen 3) Read the test pad against the chart on the designated time 4) Record the values on the laboratory form 5) Discard the used disposable items

Phenylketonuria and acidosis may cause a(n) ______ urine sample. 1) Acidic 2) Unmeasurable 3) Poor-quality 4) Alkaline

Acidic

Urinary pH is the measure of the degree of the ______ or alkalinity of urine. 1) Concentration 2) Odor 3) Acidity 4) Turbidity

Acidity

Which of the following conditions can cause excessively acidic urine? 1) Metabolic alkalosis 2) Urinary tract infection 3) Acidosis 4) Phenylketonuria

Acidosis Phenylketonuria

Which of the following conditions can be indicated by an increased specific gravity? 1) Gallstones 2) Adrenal insufficiency 3) Dehydration 4) Congestive heart failure 5) Respiratory infection 6) Urinary tract infection 7) Hepatic disease

Adrenal insufficiency Dehydration Congestive heart failure Urinary tract infection Hepatic disease

When are most reagant strips considered invalid? 1) After 10 minutes 2) After 24 hours 3) After 5 minutes 4) After 2 minutes

After 2 minutes

Patients with UTIs, metabolic alkalosis, and respiratory alkalosis may exhibit a(n) ______ urine sample. 1) Unmeasurable 2) Low-quality 3) Alkaline 4) Acidic

Alkaline

Match the terms associated with collecting, processing, and testing urine and stool specimens with their definitions.

Anuria - Absence of urine production Cast - By-product of protein breakdown found in urine Catheterization - Insertion of a sterile plastic tube to drain fluid Glycosuria - Presence of glucose in the urine Hematuria - Presence of blood in the urine

Which of the following may cause false-positive fecal occult blood test results? 1) Aspirin 2) Beets 3) Asparagus 4) Acetaminophen 5) Broccoli 6) Ibuprofen

Aspirin Beets Broccoli Ibuprofen

Which of the following drugs can cause a false-positive FOBT result? 1) Aspirin 2) Calcium 3) Amoxicillin 4) Ibuprofen

Aspirin Ibuprofen

During pregnancy, when do HCG levels typically peak? 1) At 12 weeks 2) At 8 weeks 3) At 4 weeks 4) At 28 weeks

At 8 weeks

Refrigerating urine specimens prevents the growth of _______ for 24 hours. 1) Viruses 2) Casts 3) Bacteria 4) Parasites

Bacteria

A Foley catheter remains in place in the ______ to continually drain urine. 1) Stomach 2) Kidney 3) Bladder 4) Uterus

Bladder

A fecal occult blood test is a test for hidden ______ in the stool. 1) Mucus 2) Glucose 3) Blood 4) Protein

Blood

Menstruation, UTIs, and kidney trauma may cause the presence of ______ in a urine sample 1) Ketones 2) Urobilinogen 3) Blood 4) Leukocytes

Blood

The condition of having _____ in the urine is called hematuria. 1) Urobilinogen 2) Ketones 3) Blood 4) Leukocytes

Blood

What is the first action to take before testing refrigerated urine samples? 1) Check for casts in the samples. 2) Check the color of the samples. 3) Bring the samples back to room temperature. 4) Check the pH of the samples.

Bring the samples back to room temperature.

The consent form for drug and alcohol testing may be a separate from or a part of the 1) CMS-1450 2) UB-04 3) CMS-1500 4) CCF

CCF

What is the first step before using a refractometer? 1) Calibrate it with distilled water. 2) Read the specific gravity value. 3) Document the procedure. 4) Draw the specimen into the dropper.

Calibrate it with distilled water.

A refractometer should be ______ with distilled water prior to use. 1) Moistened 2) Calibrated 3) Cleaned 4) Lubricated

Calibrated

Which of the following bacteria can cause infections characterized by loose, bloody, or mucus-tinged stools? 1) Campylobacter 2) Shigella 3) Salmonella 4) Pseudomonas

Campylobacter Shigella Salmonella

What are cylinder-shaped elements in the urine with flat or rounded ends? 1) Mucus 2) Casts 3) Epithelial cells 4) Crystals

Casts

What element forms when protein from the breakdown of cells accumulates and precipitates in the kidney tubules? 1) Leukocytes 2) Crystals 3) Precipitate 4) Casts

Casts

Which of the following are microscopic components of urine? 1) Casts 2) Parasites 3) Nitrites 4) Bilirubin 5) Cells

Casts Parasites Cells

A sterile plastic tube inserted into the kidney, ureter, or bladder to provide urinary drainage is called a urinary 1) Pump 2) Sling 3) Catheter 4) Drain

Catheter

Urinary ______ is performed for many reasons, including to relieve urinary retention, to obtain a sterile specimen, and to measure residual urine. 1) Surgery 2) Hygiene 3) Catheterization 4) Organ ablation

Catheterization

Epithelial cells, leukocytes, and erythrocytes are ______ found in urine. 1) Pathogens 2) Cells 3) Bacteria 4) Normal flora

Cells

The doctor may order ______ testing of urine to determine the status of body processes such as carbohydrate metabolism, liver or kidney function, or acid-base balance. 1) Experimental 2) Chemical 3) Limited 4) Restrictive

Chemical

Using reagent strips is the most common method of ______ urine tests. 1) Physical 2) Chemical 3) Microscopic 4) Functional

Chemical

Turbidity is the condition of 1) Cloudiness 2) Odor 3) Concentration 4) Color

Cloudiness

Which of the following conditions may be suspected when the physician orders stool sample testing? 1) Colitis 2) Cancer 3) Viral infection 4) Parasitic infection 5) Pregnancy

Colitis Cancer Parasitic infection

Which of the following are instructions to give a patient collecting a timed urine specimen? 1) Start with the first morning urine. 2) Store the container at room temperature. 3) Collect all urine for a specified time. 4) Collect only a small amount each time you void. 5) Do not mix urine with stool or toilet paper.

Collect all urine for a specified time. Do not mix urine with stool or toilet paper.

Medical assistants may be responsible for many parts of the handling of urine and stool specimens, including 1) Collection 2) Processing 3) Diagnosing 4) Testing

Collection Processing Testing

A first morning urine sample contains a greater ______ of substances that collect over time. 1) Concentration 2) Separation 3) Assimilation 4) Mixture

Concentration

The goal of the procedure for collecting a urine specimen is to ensure that the specimen is free from 1) Color 2) Agitation 3) Light 4) Contaminants

Contaminants

Specimen containers should include which of the following pieces of information? 1) Patient's address 2) Date and time of collection 3) Patient's name 4) Physician's name 5) Patient's Social Security number

Date and time of collection Patient's name Physician's name

Overhydration, diabetes insipidus, chronic renal disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus are reasons for _______ urine specific gravity. 1) Decreased 2) Increased 3) Critical 4) Normal

Decreased

Which of the following are reasons for high urine specific gravity? 1) Dehydration 2) Adrenal insufficiency 3) Diabetes insipidus 4) Congestive heart failure 5) Certain foods

Dehydration Adrenal insufficiency Congestive heart failure

Fruity-smelling urine may indicate 1) Pregnancy 2) A congenital metabolic disorder 3) Diabetes 4) A urinary tract infection

Diabetes

Proper collection and testing of urine and fecal samples are a crucial step in the ______ process. 1) Diagnostic 2) Discovery 3) Documentation 4) Billing

Diagnostic

A reagent strip is also referred to as a 1) Void stick 2) Probe 3) Dipstick 4) Urinometer

Dipstick

Instructions for collecting a timed urine specimen include telling the patient to ______ the first urine sample. 1) Label 2) Refrigerate 3) Discard 4) Separate

Discard

When performing a 24-hour urine specimen, patients should ______ the first urine specimen. 1) Measure 2) Discard 3) Test 4) Dilute

Discard

Indwelling, retention, ureteral, cystostomy, and straight are types of ______ catheters are used to withdraw fluids. 1) Drainage 2) Splinting 3) Arterial 4) Rectal

Drainage

A urinary catheter is placed to provide urinary 1) Retention 2) Overflow 3) Drainage 4) Collection

Drainage Collection

The chemical testing of urine checks for the presence of 1) Cancer 2) Drugs 3) Leukemia 4) Infections 4) Toxins

Drugs Infections Toxins

Ketone bodies in the urine can be an indication of which of the following? 1) Overeating 2) Low-protein diet 3) Excessive vomiting 4) Diabetes mellitus 5) Low-carbohydrate diet

Excessive vomiting Diabetes mellitus Low-carbohydrate diet

Glycosuria is the presence of significant levels of ______ in the urine. 1) Glucose 2) Ketones 3) Protein 4) Nitrate

Glucose

Which of the following is the presence of significant levels of glucose in the urine? 1) Hemoglobinuria 2) Hematuria 3) Myoglobinuria 4) Glycosuria

Glycosuria

Proteinuria may indicate which of the following? 1) Diabetes 2) Heavy exercise 3) Pregnancy 4) Renal disease 5) Heart attack

Heavy exercise Pregnancy Renal disease

Which of the following is the condition of having blood in the urine? 1) Oliguria 2) Nocturia 3) Dysuria 4) Hematuria

Hematuria

Which of the following is the presence of hemoglobin in the urine? 1) Phenylketonuria 2) Dysuria 3) Hemoglobinuria 4) Hematuria

Hemoglobinuria

The term occult means 1) Blood 2) Excessive 3) Hidden 4) Dark

Hidden

UTIs, dehydration, adrenal insufficiency, hepatic disease, and CHF are reasons for _______ urine specific gravity. 1) High 2) Low 3) Critical 4) Normal

High

Pregnancy is diagnosed by the presence of which chemical in the urine? 1) Chlamydia trachomatis 2) Human chorionic gonadotropin 3) Phenylketones 4) Semen

Human chorionic gonadotropin

Match the type of cast with the clinical significance.

Hyaline - Kidney disease or strenuous exercise White blood cell - Pyelonephritis Epithelial cell - Excessive kidney disease Waxy - Severe renal disease

The intermediary products of fat and protein metabolism in the body are called 1) Bilirubin 2) Carbohydrates 3) Ketone bodies 4) Uric acid

Ketone bodies

A low-carbohydrate diet, starvation, excessive vomiting, and diabetes mellitus may cause an increased amount of ______ on a urine reagent strip. 1) Urobilinogen 2) Blood 3) Ketones 4) Leukocytes

Ketones

Ketone bodies are intermediary products of ______ and protein metabolism in the body. 1) Lipid 2) Vitamin 3) Carbohydrate 4) Fat

Lipid Fat

Ketone bodies are intermediary products of ______ and protein metabolism in the body. 1) Lipid 2) Vitamin 3) Fat 4) Carbohydrate

Lipid Fat

A refractometer is an optical instrument that measures the bending of light as it passes through a 1) Liquid 2) Solid 3) Gel 4) Lotion

Liquid

Following the proper guidelines in obtaining urine specimens will ensure that their physical, chemical, and ______ properties will remain unaltered. 1) Compositional 2) Microscopic 3) Structural 4) Functional

Microscopic

Following the proper guidelines in obtaining urine specimens will ensure that their physical, chemical, and ______ properties will remain unaltered. 1) Structural 2) Compositional 3) Functional 4) Microscopic

Microscopic

Many significant conditions may be noted with the assessment of which types of examination of a patient's specimen? 1) Microscopic 2) Functional 3) Chemical 4) Physical 5) Structural

Microscopic Chemical Physical

In cases of suspected protozoal or parasitic infections, the physician may request which of the following specimens? 1) O&P 2) T&O 3) A&P 4) O&R

O&P

Disease, bacteria, and certain foods may alter the ______ of urine. 1) Temperature 2) Odor 3) Consistency 4) Function

Odor

The condition of having insufficient production of urine is called 1) Oliguria 2) Nocturia 3) Hematuria 4) Anuria

Oliguria

The average daily ______ of urine is 1,250 mL. 1) Output 2) Retention 3) Input 4) Production

Output

The normal color of urine is 1) Pale orange to dark amber 2) Bright yellow to light amber 3) Light green to dark yellow 4) Pale yellow to dark amber

Pale yellow to dark amber

An O&P specimen is examined for 1) Blood 2) Parasites 3) hCG 4) Protozoans 5) Eggs

Parasites Protozoans Eggs

Protozoal, bacterial, or _______ infections, along with cancer or colitis, may be suspected conditions when the physician orders stool specimen testing. 1) Viral 2) Parasitic 3) Staphylococcal 4) Nosocomial

Parasitic

Copies of a CCF should be distributed to the 1) Patient 2) Requesting party 3) Medical review officer 4) Billing department 5) Medical insurance provider 6) Collector

Patient Requesting party Medical review officer Collector

When performing a urine pregnancy test, one test chamber should be labeled with patient identification, and the another chamber should be labeled for a(n) 1) Fasting glucose test 2) Second test for verification 3) Positive and negative control 4) Blood sample

Positive and negative control

If a urine sample is shipped to an outside laboratory for testing, a chemical ______ is added. 1) Preservative 2) Binding agent 3) Fixative 4) Diluent

Preservative

An excess amount of protein in the urine is called 1) Ketonuria 2) Proteinuria 3) Hemoglobinuria 4) Hematuria

Proteinuria

A urine sample taken at any time of the day is a ______ urine specimen. 1) Random 2) Scheduled 3) Quantitative 4) Qualitative

Random

The most common type of urine sample is a ________ specimen. 1) Timed 2) Clean-catch 3) Random 4) 24-hour

Random

The most common method of chemical urine testing is with 1) Refractometer tests 2) Reagent strips 3) Microscopic exams 4) Visual inspections

Reagent strips

A ______ is an optical instrument used to measure the bending of light as it passes through a liquid. 1) Refractometer 2) Speedometer 3) Hemocytometer 4) Urinometer

Refractometer

Abnormal levels of protein in the urine are indicative of which condition? 1) Diabetes 2) Renal dysfunction 3) Preeclampsia 4) Urinary tract infections

Renal dysfunction Preeclampsia

Which of the following can result in epithelial cell casts? 1) Renal ischemia 2) Excessive fluid intake 3) Strenuous exercise 4) Shock 5) Heavy-metal poisoning

Renal ischemia Shock Heavy-metal poisoning

Distilled water is the standard against which _______ is measured. 1) Composition 2) Function 3) Output 4) Specific gravity

Specific gravity

Which type of catheter is inserted after plastic repair of the ureter and must remain in place for at least a week after surgery. 1) Foley 2) Urinary 3) Indwelling 4) Drainage 5) Splinting

Splinting

Which type of catheter is inserted after plastic repair of the ureter and must remain in place for at least a week after surgery. 1) Foley 2) Urinary 3) Indwelling 4) Splinting 5) Drainage

Splinting

Medical assistants may be responsible for many parts of the handling of urine and stool specimens, including 1) Testing 2) Processing 3) Diagnosing 4) Collection

Testing Processing Collection

Which of the following are advantages to urine tests for STIs? 1) They are highly specific 2) The tests are highly sensitive 3) Organisms do not have to be living to be detected 4) The tests are inexpensive 5) Organisms can be retained for up to 30 days for follow-up culture

They are highly specific. The tests are highly sensitive. Organisms do not have to be living to be detected.

Which of the following are reasons for performing catheterization? 1) To instill chemotherapy 2) To obtain a random specimen 3) To measure residual urine 4) To relieve urinary retention

To instill chemotherapy To measure residual urine To relieve urinary retention

The physical, chemical, and microscopic evaluation of urine to obtain information about body health and disease is called 1) Urology 2) Urinometry 3) Cystocentesis 4) Urinalysis

Urinalysis

The types of testing included in ______ are physical, chemical, and microscopic. 1) Urine drug tests 2) Urine protein tests 3) Urinalysis 4) Urine cultures

Urinalysis

To accurately perform the required duties in the collecting, processing, and testing of urine and stool samples, medical assistants should have an understanding of the anatomy and physiology of the ______ systems. 1) Urinary 2) Integumentary 3) Nervous 4) Digestive

Urinary Digestive

Pregnant women may be prone to 1) Respiratory tract infections 2) Decubitis ulcers 3) Bowel obstruction 4) Urinary tract infections

Urinary tract infections

Which of the following may be a cause of blood in a urine sample? 1) Metabolic alkalosis 2) Increased urinary pH 3) Phenylketonuria 4) Urinary tract infections

Urinary tract infections

Hemoglobinuria is the condition of having hemoglobin in the 1) Lymph 2) Sputum 3) Blood 4) Urine

Urine

Oliguria is a condition of insufficient production of 1) Blood 2) Sputum 3) Lymph 4) Urine

Urine

Specific gravity is the measurement of the concentration or amount of dissolved substances in 1) Sputum 2) Lymph 3) Blood 4) Urine

Urine

Which type of specimen is used to confirm if a patient has a urinary tract infection? 1) Routine urinalysis 2) Urine culture 3) Fecal occult blood 4) Pregnancy test

Urine culture

Hemolysis and liver disease may cause high ______ levels. 1) Ketone 2) Urobilinogen 3) Leukocyte 4) Glucose

Urobilinogen

The colorless compound formed in the intestines, which if present in the urine, may indicate liver disease, is called 1) Bilirubin 2) Hemoglobin 3) Myoglobin 4) Urobilinogen

Urobilinogen

Urine color comes from a yellow pigment known as what? 1) Uric pigmentation 2) Urobilinogen 3) Urochrome 4) Kodachrome

Urochrome

If patients are given a container that contains a preservative, they should be warned that the additive may contain 1) sulfa 2) acid 3) saline 4) talc

acid

The normal range of urine specific gravity is _______ to 1.028. 1) 1.002 2) 1.025 3) 1.020 4) 1.000

1.002

Which urine specimen is collected over the period of a day? 1) Random 2) 24-hour 3) Clean-catch, midstream 4) First morning

24-hour

The normal urinary pH range is 1) 8.0-10.0 2) 6.0-9.5 3) 10.5-12.0 4) 4.5-8.0

4.5-8.0

Foul-smelling urine may indicate 1) A urinary tract infection 2) Diabetes 3) Congenital metabolic disease 4) Pregnancy

A urinary tract infection

Anuria is a(n)_______ the production of urine. 1) Increase in 2) Decrease in 3) Change in 4) Absence of

Absence of