Micro Unit 4
Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following
cholera peptic ulcers salmonellosis shigellosis.
"Rice water stools" are characteristic of
cholera.
Each of the following conditions are associated with chronic hepatitis infections
cirrhosis of the liver. liver failure. hepatocellular carcinoma.
What do chronic hepatitis infections result in?
cirrhosis, liver failure, or hepatocellular carcinoma Submit
What is the most common respiratory tract infection, regardless of age?
common cold
Which of the following can occur even if the infectious agent is killed by the time it enters the host?
food poisoning
If left untreated, diphtheria can progress to:
formation of a thick, leathery membrane in the upper airway.
All of the following are effective preventative measures for conjunctivitis in children and adults
frequent hand washing Avoiding contaminated objects Avoiding infected individuals
Blastomycosis is commonly treated with ____________.
fuconazole or itraconazole
Mycoses are caused by _________.
fungi
The condition in which the stomach is inflamed is called __________.
gastritis
Influenza A strains are characterized by their __________.
glycoprotein spikes
A child comes home from daycare with lesions on his or her hands and blisters in the mouth. Your immediate suspicion is that the child has contracted ________.
hand, foot, and mouth disease
Which of the following is MOST common in children in daycare and preschool settings?
hand, foot, mouth disease
A 21-year-old male is admitted to the hospital in severe respiratory distress. Despite care, he died of rapid pulmonary edema within 12 hours of admission. Family members report that he had recently started work at a nearby state park. He was on a detail to clean out and renovate a group of rodent-infested rental cabins. Based on the information, what is the likely diagnosis?
hanta pulmonary syndrome
A rash comprised of small, slightly raised solid lesions and discolored areas of the skin is a __________.
maculopapular rash
Koplik's spots are a sign of a _________ infection.
measles
A maculopapular rash is characteristic of
measles.
Which of the following best describes why children are prone to developing otitis media (ear infection) when they contract a cold?
Children have shorter and narrower Eustachian tubes that do not drain effectively.
The early signs and symptoms of an infection with Marburg virus are very similar to infections with __________.
Ebola virus
Skin defenses
melanin= brown pigment with antimicrobial properties prevents UV damage perspiration (sweat): low ph, high salt; lysozyme; mechanical defenses sebum: only substances, low ph and proteins; moisturizes and protects
Haemophilus influenzae causes __________.
meningitis
Types of inflammation
meningitis: inflammation of meninges encephalitis: inflammation of brain meningitis: inflammation of both
Bacterial infections: Otitis media
middle ear infection -S. pneumonia, H. influenza - treatment/ RX: amoxicillin - less likely for adults to get middle ear infections than it is kids
A course of infection with Schistosoma is described as having three stages. During the ___________ stage a rash or itchy skin is present at the site of infection.
migratory
Which of these is true of the Sabin but NOT the Salk polio vaccine? a. requires multiple injections b. currently administered in the United States c. mimics the normal route of infection d. is an inactivated vaccine
mimics the normal route of infection
Development of an infection with Clostridium difficile is mainly associated with:
overuse of antibiotics.
Rabies vaccinations are recommended for all of the following
owners of domesticated dogs
What would be the most effective form of treatment for scarlet fever?
penicillin
What cells or tissues will harbor the bacteria in a patient with Hansen disease?
peripheral nerve endings, mucous membranes, and skin cells in the fingers, toes, lips, and earlobes
Blindness from trachoma is the result of ________________________.
permanent damage to the cornea
Destruction of the mucociliary escalator is characteristic of
pertussis.
Tiny pinpoint spots that occur in the skin due to small capillaries bursting are known as _________.
petechiae
The medical term for a "sore throat" is _________
pharyngitis
The only form of plague that is transmitted from person to person is the __________ form.
pneumonic
Which of the following results in the inflammation of myelin?
polio
Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it
possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl.
Healthcare workers who experience an accidental needle stick are often given __________ to prevent HIV infection.
post-exposure prophylaxis
Individuals most at risk for infection with toxoplasmosis are immunocompromised individuals and _________.
pregnant women
Rubella infections are most serious when contracted by __________.
pregnant women
All of the following are at risk of nervous system infections caused by Listeria monocytogenes
pregnant women newborns elderly people
Infections with Listeria monocytogenes are most dangerous to:
pregnant women.
Tissue necrosis caused by Clostridium perfringens may be distinguished from necrotizing fasciitis in what way?
presence of Gram-positive, endospore forming bacilli in the affected area and emission of foul-smelling gases from the damaged tissue
Why is perspiration an effective defense against microorganisms?
presence of lysozyme
The causative agent of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is a __________.
prion
blood brain barrier
protects against contamination
Leishmaniasis is caused by a __________.
protozoan
The organisms that cause African sleeping sickness are __________.
protozoans
After being pumped from the right ventricle, blood enters the lungs through the __________.
pulmonary arteries
Symptoms of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome include __________.
pulmonary edema
Matching
pus-filled papule: pustule raised, solid lesion: . papule flat, discolored lesion: macule small, fluid-filled lesion: vesicle deep, closed, fluid-filled sac: cyst vesicle with larger diameter: bulla
A bluish tinge to an infected burn wound is likely due to __________, a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
pyocyanin
You notice that the pus in your patient's wound has a blue/green coloration. This is due to the production of _________ from a strain of _________.
pyocyanin; Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Periodontal disease is associated with all of the following signs and symptoms
receding gums. loose adult teeth. swollen and bleeding gums.
Complicated malaria is characterized by each of the following
repeated episodes of fever, sweating, and shivering.
Death from tetanus is primarily due to _________.
respiratory failure
High-risk patients can receive antibody injections if they are in danger of contracting __________.
respiratory syncyntial virus (RSV)
Which of the following is the leading cause of acute lower respiratory tract infections in children less than 5 years-old?
respiratory syncytial virus.
Latent tuberculosis
results when M. tuberculosis bacteria are phagocytized and effectively walled off within granulomas in the lungs.
Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the __________.
right atrium
E. coli and Shigella share all of the following characteristics
rod- or bacillus-shaped. Gram-negative. produce the Shiga toxin.
Viral hemorrhagic fevers are spread through all of the following mechanisms
rodents. blood from slaughtered animals. bats.
Group A streptococcus can cause all of the following
strep throat scarlet fever necrotizing fasciitis.
Wheezing associated with a blocked or narrowed airway is known as
stridor.
Cutaneous mycoses are generally considered ___________.
superficial
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is transmitted by __________.
swimming in warm, stagnant water
Tularemia is difficult to diagnose because:
symptoms vary based on how the organism was transmitted.
Human T lymphotropic virus (HTLV) is common in each of the following areas
the Caribbean. Japan. sub-Saharan Africa.
Although amoebiasis is found worldwide, it is most common in all of the following areas
the United States.
Encephalitis is an inflammation of __________.
the brain
Meningitis is an infection of all of the following
the brain
Cryptococcus neoformans primarily targets ___________.
the central nervous system
Malaria is endemic in each of the following areas
the eastern Mediterranean. Africa. Southeast Asia.
Infection in the respiratory tract is limited by all except
the epiglottis sealing the airway during swallowing.
The most damaging aspect of meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae is:
the exotoxin that stimulates severe inflammation.
Each of the following is an accessory organ to the GI tract
the gallbladder. the liver. the salivary glands.
In addition to causing dysentery, Entamoeba histolytica can cause abscesses in all of the following organs
the liver. the brain. the lungs.
Lymphatic vessels carry lymph to __________ for waste filtering and pathogen detection.
the lymph nodes
Which of the following best describes the mucociliary escalator?
the mucociliary escalator sweeps away microbes and debris trapped in mucus.
Mycobacterium leprae causes damage to the extremities, ears, and nose because:
the organism's optimal growth temperature is 30-35°C.
Mycobacterium leprae, the cause of Hansen's disease (leprosy) primarily infects __________.
the peripheral nerves
A unique morphological feature of Trypanosoma brucei is __________.
the production of two types of flagella
The best way to prevent the spread of a norovirus infection among a population is ____________.
the speedy decontamination of surfaces with chlorine bleach solution
What determines which form of Hansen disease a person will develop after infection with the causative bacterium?
the state of a person's immune response during early development of the disease
Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted by __________.
the tsetse fly
Eventually, lymph is funneled back to __________.
the venous blood supply
Viral meningitis is more common than bacterial meningitis because
they are small enough to more easily pass through the blood-brain barrier.
Which of the following is NOT transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?
Ebola
What type of neuron receives signals from the body?
Sensory neuron
The most common reservoir of the West Nile virus is _______.
birds
__________ is common in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys.
blastomycosis
Lymph is directed into the venous system to maintain __________.
blood volume
Which infections are caused by both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes?
Impetigo
Which of the following diseases is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
Impetigo Streptococcal pharyngitis Scarlet fever
Which of the following best describes the effect of the tetanus toxin on the nervous system?
Spastic paralysis
Which of the following statements concerning Hepatitis C is/are correct? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
-The majority of chronically infected patients are not diagnosed until the latter stages of the disease. -The majority of infected patients develop chronic infections.
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Typhoid fever
- caused by Salmonella typhi - G- facultative anaerobe, bacillus - spread by humans feces (fecal-oral route) -rare in US - spreads through body in phagocytes and then released in bloodstream - 1-3% are chronic carriers (gallbladder), they can only spread it, not get it - symptoms: high fever, headache, lethargy, nausea, death - treatment: quinolones, cephalosporins
Which of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system?
Spinal cord
Viral Nervous System Infections: Poliomyelitis
"infantile paralysis" - caused by poliovirus - fecal oral transmission - intestinal cells to skeletal muscle to motor neurons of central nervous system - cytolytic= kills neurons leading to inflammation of myelin (myelitis) - dead motor cells (paralysis) -respiratory failure (flaccid paralysis) approximately 1x - salk vaccine: -inactivated virus -aka inactivated public vaccine (IVP) - injected and requires boosters - used in US - Sabin vaccine: - live attenuated virus - lifelong immunity - used in developing nations because: cheaper, shed attenuated virus that spreads the vaccine to immunize those around them
viral skin infection: Fifth Disease
"slapped cheek syndrome" =erythema infectiosum - sore throat, low fever, stomach discomfort
Systemic Viral infection: Dengue
- 1st stage: febrile (= fever) stage - symptoms: fever, vomiting, rash, body aches -rx: hydration and monitoring (ex: anemia) - 2nd stage: after fever stops - symptoms: abdominal pain, vomiting, dehydration - more severe, hemorrhagic, decreases blood volume, shock - diagnosis: positive tourniquet test, Blood pressure cuff (5 min), petechiae 4 Types of viruses: immune to one but not to the others (early infection increases risk of developing more severe symptoms than others) - no vaccine, no rx
Your 10-year-old patient is diagnosed with hemolytic-uremic syndrome after consupmtion of undercooked beef. The most likely causative agent is
- E. coli O157:H7. - Shiga toxin-producing E. coli. - enterohemorrhagic E. coli.
Staphylococcus species
- G+ -catalyse + - gow in high NaCl (ex: mannitol salt agar ) staphylococcus aureus: - coagulase + -ferment mannitol staphylococcus epidermidis: -coagulase - -does not foment and mannitol
staphylococcus aureus or S. aureus
- G+ cocci -catalase -coagulase + - Kinase + -exfoliative toxin -pyrogenic toxin - hemolysin and leukocidins
Which of the following are true of measles?
- It causes a maculopapular rash. - It can evade the immune system because infected cells fuse together. - It is dangerous because it may lead to secondary infections.
Which of the following are about indole production?
- It is detected by Kovac's reagent. - A red color is indicative of a positive result.
Which of the following are true about chickenpox and smallpox?
- Vaccines are available to both. - They both cause vesicular rashes. - They are both transmitted by the respiratory route.
Viral diseases of the digestive system: Viral Gastroenteritis
- also known as stomach flu - 90% due to rotavirus and norovirus (fecal oral route is how it's transmitted) - acute vomiting and diarrhea Rotavirus - symptoms seen in kids 5 or younger (rare in adults), vomiting and diarrhea for 1 week Norovirus - 1/2 in long-term care facilities, vomiting, diarrhea 2-3 days - treatment: oral rehydration
Which of the following are characteristic of Staphylococcus and Micrococcus genera?
- catalase production -spherical-shaped - Gram-positive
Systemic bacterial infections: Tularemia
- caused by Francisella tularensis (G- coccobacillus) - endemic in North America, rare now - transmission: direct contact with infected animals (ex: wild rabbits "rabbit fever") - symptoms: headache, fever, vomiting, extreme weakness, ulcer develops at site of infection - eye infection - ingested leads to tonsils, mouth ulcers - rx: streptomycin, gentamicin, doxycycline
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Salmonellosis (Salmonella Gastroenteritis )
- caused by Salmonella enterica - foodborne illness - G- facultative anaerobe, bacillus - normal microbiota - invades intestinal cells and multiply - transmitted through: commercial chicken and egg production - symptoms: nausea diarrhea - Treatment: oral rehydration
People in the U.S. can contract rabies by all of the following
- dog bites - silver-haired bat bites - breathing in aerosols of bat droppings.
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Shigellosis (Bacillary Dysentery)
- caused by Shigella - foodborne illness - Shigella species (G- facultative anaerobes) - Shiga toxin is an endotoxin and being G-, it releases an endotoxin as well - M cells= microfold cells, part of Peyer's patches that detect pathogen in the intestine to induce an immune response to keep microbes at safe levels - bacteria attach to M cells (of Galt), invades and spreads to other cells, causing intestinal wall damage - symptoms: dysentery, HUS (hemolytic-uremic syndrome) - RX: quinolones - HUS: results in platelet destruction, anemia, blood vessel damage in kidneys, kidney failure
Fungal Diseases of the digestive system: Aflatoxin poisoning
- caused by aspergillus flavus - grows on legumes (ex: peanuts) - symptoms: liver cirrhosis and cancer -Rx: none
Fungal Diseases of the digestive system: Ergot Poisoning
- caused by claviceps purpurea -grows on grins (rye, wheat, barley) - symptoms: restricts blood flow to limbs (ischemia) hallucinogenic -Rx: none
Protozoan diseases of the digestive system: Amebic dysentery (amebiasis)
- caused by entamoeba histolytica -cysts can survive in stomach acid - symptoms: intestinal wall lysis, abscesses, severe dysentery, significant mortality -rx: metronidazole
Central nervous system infections: cryptococcosis
- caused by fungal spores in bird dropping (aerosolized) - means of entry: respiratory route Type 1: cryptococcus neoformans -enter lung macrophages to bloodstream to central nervous system -primarily affected: immunocompromised (HIV/AIDS) Type 2: C. gattii - emerging (from pacific NW) -both have: thick capsule, melanin that protects it from oxidative burst (neutro and natural killer cells)
Protozoan diseases of the digestive system: Giardiasis
- caused by giardia intestinalis or giardia lamblia - attaches to intestinal wall - symptoms: prolonged diarrhea, weight loss, flatulence, releases hydrogen sulfide -rx: metronidazole
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Campylobacter Gastroenteritis
- caused by jejuni - G- microphile, spiral shaped - foodborne illness - leading cause of foodborne illness in the US - common in chicken juices, intestines - symptoms: fever, abdominal pain, diarrhea -Rx: none
Viral Nervous System Infections: Rabies
- caused by rabies virus (bullet-shaped) - has a small genome which leaded to an increase in mutation - zoonotic via bite (ex: dog) or aerosol (bat droppings) -low in the US because of dog vaccinations - cause of rabies in the US: silver haired bat bites - long incubation period (2 months to a year) - spreads neuron to neuron - initially spreads: peripheral nervous system to central nervous system leading to encephalitis (negri bodies= viral inclusion found in the brainstem ) - later spread back to peripheral nervous system from the central nervous system - peripheral nervous system: salivary glands - symptoms: fever, nausea, pins and needles sensations, spasms of pharynx (hydrophobia), confusions, delirium, cardiac arrest and respiratory failure Types of rabies : 1) classical (furrows): animals are restless and highly excitable 2) Paralytic (numb/dumb): animals seem unaware if things; mildly excitable
viral skin infection: german measles
- caused by rubella virus -milder form of measles -respiratory droplets - congenital rubella syndrome (CSR) which leads to stillbirth, miscarriage, blindness, deafness, etc. - MMR vaccine 15 months after birth
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Staphylococcal food poisoning
- caused by staphylococcus aureus - food poisoning - intoxication by enterotoxin - toxin is not inactivated with boiling - toxin is produced when bacteria incubate (= temperature abuse) - symptoms: nausea, vomiting diarrhea - Rx: none
Central nervous system infections: Toxoplasmosis
- caused by toxoplasma gondii -cysts in cat feces -cats are the definitive hosts unless indoor because they eat birds and rodents with cyst in muscle tissue - transmission: eating contaminated meat, drinking contaminated water, blood transfusion - primarily affects immunocompromised (HIV/Aids) -encephalitis -congenital toxopath: crosses placenta to fetus -Symptoms: convulsions, deafness, disability
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Cholera
- caused by vibrio-cholerae - foodborne illness - curved, G- bacillus (comma-shaped) -cholera increase when sewage disposal systems and sanitation are compromised - AB toxin: releases - result of toxin release is rice-water stools -symptoms: diarrhea with increased water loss, lead to shock, organ failure, and death - treatment: rehydration via IV
Vector-borne infections: Plague (black death)
- caused by yersinia pestis (G- bacillus) - carriers/reservoir: rats, squirrels -transmission: rat flea (xenopsylla cheopis or oriental rat flea) 3 forms: 1) Bubonic plague - most common -bacteria grows in lymph system and forms buboes (swollen lymph nodes) - symptoms: high fever, headache, high heart rate and respiratory rates - buboes get 2-4 in diameter, they rupture and drain - high mortality 50-75% 2) Septicemic Plague - bacteria spreads through blood stream (septicemia and dangerous) - damage blood, liver, spleen, lungs -internal bleeding and death by septic shock -symptoms: same plus acral gangrene (leads to amputation) 3) Pneumonic plague - bacteria in lungs (alveoli) - transmission: respiratory droplets - symptoms: same as bubnic plus difficulty breathing, coughing which leads to bloody/frothy with bacteria, high heart rate, delirium - alveolar cells hemorrhage - poisons left side of heart= left sided heart failure -fluids back up into lungs leading to death, 100% mortality rate - rx: gentamicin
Systemic Viral infections: Yellow Fever
- causes jaundice - most cases: asymptomatic or mild - rare cases: fever, chills, headache, back pain, vomiting, jaundice, shock - Rx: supportive therapy, vaccine
gas gangrene= myonecrosis
- clostridium perfringens (G+ rodes; obligate anaerobes and can form endospores) -reservoir: soil -treatment: remove dead tissue (debridement) and or exposing to hyperbaric chamber (1000xO2)
secondary lesions
- crust: dried exudate (impetigo) - scale: flaking of skin (athletes foot) -purpura: purple spot due to subcutaneous bleeding (septicemia) -petechiae: small purpura; pinpoint (scarlet fever) -ulcer: sore from destroyed skin (cutaneous anthrax)
Bacterial skin infections: cellulitis
- deeper infections -dermal and sic -painful and swollen skin -fever, leukocytes and or lymphangitis
Which of the following genera does not cause cutaneous mycoses?
Sporothrix
Most common bacterial causes of sepsis:
- e. coli, S. aureus, streptococcal species -symptoms of sepsis: SIRS, diarrhea, vomiting, confusion, lymphangitis -RX: management and stabilizing the patient by maintaining blood pressure and oxygen levels, antibiotics, bicarbonate for preventing acute kidney injury - early stage of sepsis: hyper-inflammatory response (death with acute organ dysfunction due to cytokine storm ) - Late stage of sepsis: hypo-inflammatory response (death due to primary infection or development ) - Kallistatin reduces lymphocyte depletion in the splenic pulp - H and E - H= hematoxylin which stains the nucleus - E= eosin which stains the cytoplasm
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: E. coli Gastroenteritis
- foodborne illness - G- rod-shaped (bacillus) - Strain 1: E. coli 0157: H7= Shiga toxin producing e. coli STEC or enterohemorrhagic ETEC - Strain 2: Enterotoxigenic e. coli ETEC - Shiga-like toxin (exotoxin), phage conversation - upon infection to cell lysis to hemorrhagic colitis to HUS due to consumption of undercooked beef - symptoms: dysentery, hemorrhagic colitis, HUS - Rx: IV rehydration; antibiotic not recommended because of risk of developing HUS
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
- impetigo and cellulitis -necrotizing fasciitis = flesh eating disease - B- hemolytic (hemolysins ) - fascia= connective tissue between muscle and bones -debridement= removing dead tissue Streptococcus species: - G+ cocci - catalase - - coagulase -
Bacterial skin infections: Erysipelas
- impetigo spreads to lymph nodes -inflammation, pain, fever, leukocytes -less superficial
All of the following are associated with Streptococcus pyogenes
- impetigo. - strep throat. - necrotizing fasciitis - scarlet fever.
viral skin infection: maculopapular rash
- measles (rubeola) - caused by rubeola virus -spread by respidroplets -infected host cells fuse together to evade system - dampens immune system that lead to secondary infection (pneumoniae) -koplik's spots in mouth (red spots with white dots) -MMR vaccine (15 months after birth)
Systemic Viral infections: Zika
- most cases: asymptomatic; recover leads to lifelong immunity - symptoms: fever, rash (similar to dengue and Chikungunya), joint pain, eye infections - vertical transmission leads to microcephaly (pregnant mom to baby ) - preventative measures: mosquito nets (anopheles, night) not for (aedes, day) - releasing sterile makes, wolbachia bacteria infects large number if arthropods (mosquitoes )
viral skin infection: hand foot and mouth disease (HFMI)
- mucus or saliva (usually spread by kids) -daycare, preschool, kindergarten -Maculopapular rash
Viral diseases of the digestive system: Hepatitis
- symptoms: fever, joint pain, fatigue, abdominal pain, clay colored stevels, jaundice - HAV and HEV: ingested - HBV, HCV, HDV: parenteral HAV: - fecal oral route transmission - acute -treatment: antibodies, vaccine HBV: -parenteral transmission, sexual vertical - chronic condition in kids less than 1 year of age -acute condition in kids over 1 year old - complete virions= dane particles - incomplete particles (spiral and filamentous) lack DNA, contain HB surface antigens (HBs and antigens ) - Treatment: antiviral medication, vaccine - cirrhosis and or liver cancer HCV: the silent killer - parenteral transmission sexual, vertical route - chronic condition (asymptomatic for years) 75-85% affected - constant nutation by antigen switching: no vaccine -treatment: antivirals, cure approximately 90% - chronic condition leading to cirrhosis and or cancer
Systemic Viral infections: Chikungunya (= bent over)
- symptoms: severe joint pain (= polyarthralgia) fever, rash - resolves in a week - chronic: months to years -rx: supportice, no vaccine
primary lesions
- vesciche: small, fluid-filled lesion (chicken pox ) - bulla: vesicle greater than .5 cm in diameter (blister) -macule: flat discolored lesion (freckles) - papule: raised, solid lesion that is less than .5 cm in diameter (warts) - pustule: pus-filled papule (acne) - cyst: fluid-filled sac deep in skin (acne) - maculopapular rash: slightly raised papular lesion that overlaps or is interspersed with macules (rubella and rubeola)
Which of the following statements describes why children are more susceptible to otitis media compared to adults
-Children have less efficient drainage of fluid from the Eustachian tubes into the throat. -Children have narrower Eustachian tubes than adults.
Which of the following is/are caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
-Impetigo -Scalded skin syndrome -Cellulitis
Which of the following statements concerning Cryptococcus neoformans pathogenesis is/are true?
-Once fungal spores enter the lungs, C. neoformans invade macrophages, which then carry the fungus to the lymphatic system. -The pathogen's thick polysaccharide capsule shields the fungus from the host immune system. -Cryptococcocis is the leading cause of death for individuals with HIV/AIDS.
Choose the true statement(s) regarding the characteristics of smallpox compared to the characteristics of chickenpox.
-Smallpox is caused by the variola major virus whereas chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. -Chickenpox lesions are small, elevated and filled with a clear fluid whereas smallpox lesions are domed, solid, deep, and have a center dimple. -Smallpox lesions tend to develop on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet, whereas chickenpox lesions often appear on the torso.
true statement(s) about protective skin characteristics.
-Sweat contains lysozyme, which is an enzyme that breaks down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls. -Skin contains melanin, which protects against ultraviolet radiation and has antimicrobial properties. -Keratin waterproofs the epidermis.
Central nervous system infections: African sleeping sickness
-Symptoms: confusion, daytime sleepiness, nighttime insomnia, coma, death -when infected immune response is so strong that neutrophils harm neurons -caused by trypanosoma brucei transmitted by tsetse fly - T. brucei gambiense: type of trypanosoma -chronic disease - responsible for 98% of african ss - symptoms: fever, headache, swollen lymph nodes (boboes) - T Brucei Rhodesiense - rare and acute - can lead to cariac arres before neurilof=gical sympotoms (rapid - antigenic variation
Choose the true statement(s) regarding ways that Streptococcus pyogenes can be differentiated from Staphylococcus aureus.
-These organisms can be differentiated by the catalase test. -These organisms can be differentiated by using a microscope to view their cell arrangement.
the following are true about the tropical disease African sleeping sickness?
-Those infected cannot sleep at night and cannot stay awake during the day. -If the disease goes untreated, it is fatal. -It induces an immune system reaction so strong that host neutrophils can harm host neurons. -It is caused by the flagellated protozoan Trypanosoma brucei.
skin lesion is correctly matched with its description
-Vesicle: Elevated lesion with clear fluid -Cyst: Closed fluid-filled sac deep in skin -Pustule: Raised lesion with pus below the surface -Macule: Flat, discolored area of the skin
peripheral nervous system infections: Hansen's Disease
-also called leprosy -caused by mycobacterium leprae - grows best at 30 degrees celsius 1) grow in extremities (fingers and skin) 2) armadillos are natural carriers - divide in roughly 12 days - can survive in macrophages Types of Hansen's Disease 1) tuberloid (neural) form: flat, less-pigmented skin lesions, sensory loss, easily treated, not contagious 2) leperamatous (progressive) form: disfigured (macules and papules, fatal, bone and cartilage decay)
(staphylococcus aureus)Bacterial skin infections: Impetigo
-autoinoculation, spread by direct contact or fomites - highly contagious -vesicle to crust -more superficial
peripheral nervous system infections: botulism
-caused by botulinum, G+ rods, anaerobe, endospores - typically lives in soil but can be found in canned foods if not canned properly - botulinum toxin to acetylcholine to flaccid paralysis -death due to: respiratory or cardiac failure
peripheral nervous system infections: Tetnus
-caused by clostridium tetani: -grows in deep wounds with anaerobic conditions - also grows in soil - tetanospasmin toxin prevents muscular relaxation leading to muscle spasms (lock jaw and opisthotonos) - death due to to spasms of respiratory muscles - vaccine: Dtap and boosters lead to stimulated antibodies that neutralize the toxin - infected tissue can be removed through debridement
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Helicobacter peptic ulcer disease
-caused by helicobacter pylori - G- mia aerophile - protected by hydrochloric acid by invading nucleus - urrase produces urea (ammonia) ulcer -RX: antibiotic
Viral diseases of the digestive system: Mumps
-caused by mumps virus - parotid glands (salivary glands) - painful swelling 16-18 days after exposure -saliva and respiratory droplets vaccine: MMR vaccine
Chicken pox and shingles
-caused by varicella-zoster virus -respiratory droplets -vaccine for both -shingles results in vesicular rash -viral skin infections
viral skin infection: smallpox
-caused by variola virus 2 forms: 1) variola major: high mortality rate of more than 30% 2) variola minor: low mortality rate of less than 1% -transmission by respiratory droplets and fomites -completely eradicated through vaccination -vesicle to pustule to crust to scale
Digestive system infection symptoms:
-diarrhea, dysentery, dehydration, hypovolemic shock, gastritis= inflammation of stomach, enteritis= inflamed intestine, gastroenteritis
Botulinum toxin causes all of the following
-difficulty breathing -constipation -difficulty speaking -flaccid paralysis.
lower respiratory conditions
-laryngitis: voice box -tracheitis: trachea -bronchitis: bronchia -croup: laryngotracheobronchitis; caused by virus results in barking cough -stridor: wheezing -pneumonia: inflammation of alveoli
Congenital toxoplasmosis can cause all of the following
-neurological disabilities -convulsions -deafness -miscarriage or stillbirth.
The DTaP vaccine is used to prevent certain
-respiratory diseases. -nervous diseases.
upper respiratory tract conditions
-sinusitis= inflammation of sinuses -pharyngitis= inflammation pharynx -epiglottitis= inflammation of epiglottis; the worst
Bacterial nervous system infections: Meningitis
-symptoms: fever, headache, stiff-neck, confusion, vomiting Types of Meningitis: 1) Haemophilus Meningitis - caused by H. influenzae - Haemophilus vaccine for kids k-5 - untreated mortality rate: 100% 2) Meningococcal meningitis - Neisseria meningitis - G- aerobe, coccus; capsule - undergo "capsular switching" -symptoms: same as Haemophilus plus petechial rash (bruise- like lesions) -untreated: 80% mortality rate - primary effects those in close quarters like dorms 3) Pneumococcal meningitis - caused by S. pneumoniae - G+ dip;ococcus; facultative anaerobe - leading cause of bacterial meningitis - 70% healthy carriers if bacterium - if it enters the bloodstream it leads to blood-brain barrier being contaminated and grow into the cerebral spinal fluid - bacterium release an exotoxin causing inflammation and immune cells to release oxygen radicals which can damage our own cells - Vaccine: for kids and elderly - mortality rate in a kid: 30% elderly: 80% 4) Listeria meningitis - caused by by monocytogenes - G+ rods (bacillus) -avoids phagocytosis - spread cell to cell by actin tails - to get this disease you typically have to have a weakened immune system like the elderly and pregnant women (immunocompromised) - no vaccine
viral infections
1) common cold; most common - common colds are also sometimes called acute respiratory infections or (ARI) - host factors: age, environment, season, etc. - very infectious - transmitted by: droplets (cough or sneeze) and fomites (door handles) - leads to bacterial infections 2) Respiratory syncytial virus (RVS) - leading cause of acute lower respiratory infections in kids 5 or younger -top cause of bronchitis and pneumonia in kids 1 year or younger -primary cause of hospitalization in kids 1 or younger 3) influenza: second most common - symptoms: mimic severe cold; can lead to pneumonia -type A,B,C -A: HINI (mamm) HINI (swine) H5NI(avian) - H=hemagglutinin, N= neuraminidase - antigenic drift: minor changes in Hand N -antigenic shift: major changes in H and N; pandemics - injectable flu vaccines: contain inactivated virus - vaccine: herd immunity (=most immunized and unlikely to get it) - nasal mist vaccine: attenuated virus 4) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) -hantavirus= sin nombre virus -dust particles of rodent feces - hemorrhagic fever and renal syndrome (HFRS) - 30- 40% mortality
Systemic Viral infections
1) vector-borne 2) Hemorrhagic fevers Vector-borne= arbovirus= arthropod-borne viruses - mosquitoes 1) female bite and draw blood to make eggs 2) all mosquitoes need water to lay eggs and warm temperatures 3) attracted to carbon dioxide and possibly skin odors 4) found everywhere 5) food source for birds and bats and fish Types of mosquitoes - anopheles feed at night and cause malaria - Aedes feed during the day and cause dengue, yellow fever, zika, chikungunya
The West Nile virus and La Crosse virus cause about _________ cases per year in the United States.
1,300
As few as __________ cells can result in an infection with Cryptosporidium.
10
There are __________ different subtypes of influenza neuraminidase (NA) proteins.
10
Given the different combinations of subtypes of influenza hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) proteins, there are at least __________ subtypes of the influenza A virus.
170
There are __________ different subtypes of influenza hemagglutinin (HA) proteins.
18
With 1 in 10 individuals with SARS dying of the infection, the mortality rate of the 2003 SARS pandemic was similar to the __________.
1918 Spanish influenza pandemic
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system
2 types of foodborne illness 1) infection: pathogen enters GI tract and multiplies - not immediately apparent - fever, diarrhea - recovery: days to weeks 2) Intoxication: ingestion of preformed toxin (enterotoxin) - immediately apparent - no fever - diarrhea and vomiting - recovery: 24-48 hours
Put the layers of the heart in correct order from outermost to innermost layers. 1. Endocardium 2. Pericardium 3. Myocardium 4. Epicardium
2, 4, 3, 1
Put the stages of the Plasmodium life cycle in the correct order: 1. Merozoites become gametocytes, which infect mosquitos. 2. Sporozoites pass from mosquitoes to the bloodstream. 3. Merozoites burst out of red blood cells. 4. Sporozoites travel to the liver to mature.
2, 4, 3, 1
Put the steps of Trypanosoma brucei infection in the correct order: 1. Parasite crosses the blood-brain barrier 2. Bite of the tsetse fly 3. Asymptomatic phase 4. Fever, headache, swollen lymph nodes 5. Chancre around the bite site
2, 5, 3, 4, 1
meninges:
3 layers of tissue that protects the brain and spinal cord
Even with appropriate antibiotic treatment, __________ of children who contract Haemophilus meningitis will die.
3-6 percent
Which of the following does not describe a foodborne infection?
30 minute - 6 hour symptom onset.
Put the life cycle of a typical parasitic protozoan in the correct order of events: 1: Microgametes fertilize microgametes. 2: Oocytes release sporozoites. 3: Oocysts are expelled in the feces. 4: Sporozoites attach and invade intestinal epithelial cells. 5: Oocytes are ingested.
5, 2, 4, 1, 3
Approximately __________ percent of the US population has had an EBV infection.
90
viral skin infection: Roseola
= 6th disease or roseola infantum or exanthem subitum -high fever - recovery is 1-2 days - mild, common childhood disease
Which of the following cushions the brain and spinal cord?
Cerebrospinal fluid
Which of the following could result in a tetanus infection?
A two-inch piece of wood causes a deep puncture in your arm when replacing a board on your deck.
What skin disease does each of the viruses cause?
A. variola- smallpox B. varicella- chicken pox C. rubella- german measles D. rubeola- measles E. roseola- sixth disease
How is Listeria monocytogenes capable of spreading in the body?
Actin in the cytoskeleton propels the bacteria into an adjacent cell.
The oral microbiome includes all of the following
Actinomyces. Neisseria. Streptococcus.
Which of the following viruses most commonly causes "pink eye" (conjunctivitis)?
Adenoviruses
Which of the following is the best way to treat Cryptococcosis?
Adminstering antifungal drugs
Which of the following statements is true concerning the life cycle of Giardia lamblia?
After ingestion, a Giardia lamblia cyst hatches into two trophozoites in the small intestine.
Which of the following is a correct statement about your blood microbiome?
Almost 94 percent of the microbiome is found inside our white blood cells.
Your patient is an otherwise healthy 40-year old male who presents with high fever, severe abdominal pain, and shaking chills. An abdominal ultrasound confirms the presence of several liver abscesses. The patient notes that the week prior, he had dysentery. The patient is thought to have contracted the pathogen at a Florida waterpark three weeks ago. Based on the patient's clinical presentation and case history, which of the following diseases did your patient most likely contract?
Amoebiasis
Which of the following was likely the reason for the Spanish influenza pandemic of 1918?
Antigenic shift
Which of the following organisms causes the most prevalent helminthic infection worldwide?
Ascaris lumbricoides.
Which of the following infections cannot be prevented by a vaccine?
Aspergillosis
After a traveler returned from Sierra Leone, he complained of flu-like symptoms, including fever, sore throat, and muscle pain. He thought that he may have been exposed to a patient with Ebola. In order to prevent the patient from possibly spreading Ebola, at least, how long should he be quarantined?
At least 21 days
Which of the following is the best preventative measure for avoiding the Ebola virus?
Avoiding bodily fluids of victims.
Hepatitis ____ may be characterized by complete virions, incomplete spherical particles, and incomplete filamentous particles, and can be diagnosed due to the presence of HBsAg.
B
Which of the following causes cutaneous anthrax?
Bacillus anthracis
Human prion disease (vCJD) has been linked to eating contaminated _________
Beef
Which of the following best describes dysentery?
Blood and mucus in the stool.
Which component of the central nervous system protects it from pathogens?
Blood-brain barrier
Which of the following is not an outcome of HTLV infection?
Blood-tinged coughing, bloody diarrhea, and/or blood-laden vomit.
the following are signs of possible sepsis?
Body temperature above 101°F Increased respiratory rate Rapid heart rate
The causative agent for whooping cough is ________________.
Bordetella pertussis
Which of the following is not a plausible reason why cases of pertussis are on the rise?
Bordetella pertussis has mutated into a more virulent strain.
The tick-borne microbe that evades the immune system through antigenic variation of the outer membrane is:
Borrelia burgdorferi.
Which of the following best describes the intermediate transmission cycle of yellow fever?
Both human-to-mosquito and monkey-to-mosquito.
Which statement describes an important similarity between chickenpox and smallpox?
Both involve the formation of a vesicular rash.
A middle-aged adult female is displaying the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, flaccid paralysis in her extremities, and difficulty breathing. She reported that she had consumed home-made, canned vegetables. What is she most likely suffering from?
Botulism
the following are caused by adenoviruses?
Bronchitis Gastroenteritis Conjunctivitis
__________ plague is the most common form and infects the lymphatic system.
Bubonic
The most serious complication of infection with EBV is:
Burkitt's lymphoma.
Fecal transplants are sometimes used to treat
C. difficile infections.
The major cause of healthcare-acquired infections is
C. difficile.
Which of the following genera is not commonly found in dental plaque?
Campylobacter jejuni
Which of the following organisms causes food infection?
Campylobacter jejuni
According to the CDC, which of the following organisms is the leading cause of bacterial foodborne illness?
Campylobacter jejuni.
Poultry products are a likely source of infection by
Campylobacter jejuni.
A patient is presenting with the following signs and symptoms: diarrhea, abdominal cramps, vomiting, and fever. The patient indicated consuming slightly undercooked chicken three days ago. What is the patient likely suffering from?
Campylobacteriosis
Diaper rash is caused by __________.
Candida albicans
Which of the following most accurately describes Candida?
Candida is part of the human microbiome.
Why should a pregnant woman avoid changing and cleaning cat litter boxes?
Cat feces may contain the protozon Toxoplasma gondii, which can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.
_________ is a staphylococcal infection of the lower dermal and subcutaneous fat.
Cellulitis
Trachoma, the leading cause of preventable blindness, is caused by __________ trachomatis.
Chlamydia
__________ is spread by aerosolized bird droppings.
Chlamydophila psittaci
Which of the following actions would most likely result in exposure to Hantavirus within the United States?
Cleaning a previously undisturbed barn known to house deer mice
Which stage of HIV infection is marked by the absence of signs or symptoms?
Clinically asymptomatic stage.
Which pair of bacteria are obligate anaerobes?
Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani
__________ is considered a healthcare-associated infection (HAI).
Clostridium difficile
A patient presents with extensive tissue necrosis around her toes. You also notice a foul odor emitting from her infection. The lab results from organisms isolated from the infected tissue find endospore-forming, Gram-positive, strictly anaerobic bacterial cells. Which organism is this patient likely infected with?
Clostridium perfringens
The main causative agent of gas gangrene is ___________.
Clostridium perfringens
Which organism causes gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
Your patient has a foot wound that has developed into serious necrosis, and the recommended treatment has been sessions in the hyperbaric oxygen chamber. What is the etiology?
Clostridium perfringens
Which of the following endemic mycoses is mainly found in the southwestern U.S.?
Coccidioidomycosis
Why are children more likely to suffer from ear infections than adults?
Compared to adults, the eustachian tube in children is shorter, narrower, and more horizontal, making fluid drainage from the middle ear to the throat less efficient.
Effective trachoma treatments routinely involves all of the following
Corneal transplants
Which of the following conditions does not predispose an individual to endocarditis?
Coronary bypass.
Diphtheria
Corynebacterium diphtheriae: G+ bacillus -"bullneck"= neck swells - diphtheria= putrid sore throat and "strangling angel of children" - forms a tough grayish membrane (pseudomembrane) in throat fibrin and dead tissue blocks airflow (due to dip in toxins) -RX: penicillin - DtaPuaac: 2 months -d: diphtheria - t: tetanus - aP: acellular pertussis
the following does describe an active pulmonary tuberculosis infection?
Cough with blood-tinged sputum Weight loss Fever and night sweats
Which of the following best describes the paroxysmal stage of pertussis?
Coughing fits that may induce vomiting, fractured ribs, and loss of bladder control
Individuals working with livestock, wild animals, or animal products are at risk for contracting __________.
Coxiella burnetii
Which of the following infectious agents causes atypical pneumonia that is also characterized as a zoonotic illness?
Coxiella burnetii
Which of the following statements is correct about croup?
Croup is characterized by a barking cough and respiratory stridor.
The EPA estimates that between 65 and 95 percent of all US lakes and streams contain __________.
Cryptosporidium parvum
the following are a function of the meninges?
Cushion the brain and spinal cord
__________ is an infection that develops through a skin abrasion, forms a solid nodule on the skin, and then progresses to a blackened, swollen ulcer of necrotic tissue.
Cutaneous anthrax
Which microbes are less likely to be found on oily skin areas?
Cyanobacteria
Which of the following is not an antiretroviral therapy?
DNA polymerase inhibitor.
Which of the following immune cells does the yellow fever virus first infect?
Dendritic cells.
Which of the following health conditions is not influenced by the gut microbiota?
Dental caries.
Cutaneous mycoses generally infect all of the following
Dermis
Which of the following provides the best definition for the term dysentery?
Diarrhea accompanied by pain, blood, and/or mucus
Which of the following is not a symptom of hepatitis?
Diarrhea.
Which of the following infections would manifest itself in the upper respiratory system?
Diphtheria
Which of the following species of tapeworm is primarily associated with ingestion of infected fish?
Diphyllobothrium latum.
Which of the following is not a route through which all six diarrheagenic E. coli pathotypes are spread?
Direct penetration through the skin.
What primarily accounts for the low incidence of rabies in the U.S.?
Dog vaccinations
Which of the following best describes symptoms of a mumps infection?
Dry mouth, fever, headache, and swelling under the jaw.
After an initial infection with HSV-1, a flare-up can be triggered by all of the following
Eating spicy food
Shigella dysenteriae and __________ both produce the Shiga toxin.
E. coli O157:H7
Which bacterium forms a clear zone on blood agar and utilizes esculin?
E. durans
the following are mechanism by which meningitis caused by Listeria monocytogenes is spread from person to person?
Eating contaminated mangoes Eating contaminated cheeses Eating contaminated deli meats
_________ is the term used to describe an inflammation of the brain.
Encephalitis
_______________is an inflammation of the heart lining.
Endocarditis
Which of the following are not characteristics of smallpox?
Fever with an itchy, vesicular rash that begins on the torso.
Which of the following phyla is prevalent in all three parts of the respiratory system?
Firmicutes
Which of the following best describes the effect of the botulinum toxin on the nervous system?
Flaccid paralysis
Which of the following parasitic infections and treatments are mismatched? Schistosoma: praziquantel Trichinella: mebendazole Ascaris: albendazole Enterobius: nitazoxanide
Enterobius: nitazoxanide
the following are characteristic of an arbovirus?
Enveloped viruses Spread by arthropods Positive-sense RNA viruses
Which of the following layers of the skin typically harbors microbes?
Epidermis
Which skin component consists of dead cells that provide a barrier against infectious agents?
Epidermis
Which of the following anatomical sites is part of the upper respiratory tract?
Epiglottis Paranasal sinuses
Which of the following conditions associated with the upper respiratory tract is considered a medical emergency?
Epiglottitis
Consuming undercooked, contaminated hamburgers and unpasteurized dairy and juices may become sources of infection with _______________.
Escherichia coli O157:H7
Which of the following is not a characteristic of uncomplicated malaria?
Hypoglycemia and acidosis.
Which microbes are not considered normal skin microbiota?
Escherichia species
Which of the following organs is not associated with the lower gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
Esophagus.
Which Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor is directly associated with staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
Exfoliative toxin
All of the following are Staphylococcus aureus virulence factors
Exfoliative toxin Coagulase Catalase
Which of the following is not characteristic of the second stage of dengue infection?
Fever and rash.
Which of the following are characteristics of chickenpox?
Fever with an itchy vesicular rash
Which of the following statements accurately compares foodborne infections to food poisoning?
Foodborne infections are due to pathogen establishment, whereas food poisoning is a toxigenic infection.
Which of the following causes of atypical pneumonia is considered a potential biological weapon?
Francisella tularensis
____________ is considered the most infectious bacterium known to mankind and the causative agent of ______________.
Francisella tularensis; tularemia
How is Cryptococcus neoformans transmitted?
Fungal spores are inhaled.
MacConkey agar and Hektoen enteric agar plates are used to grow ______ bacteria, but not ______ bacteria.
G-negative; G-positive
__________ is a deep wound infection causing rapid and extensive necrosis that emits a foul-smelling gas and can quickly progress to shock, kidney failure, and death.
Gas gangrene
__________ is inflammation of the stomach.
Gastritis
After your dog drank puddle water at the dog park a few days prior, he is now suffering from severe diarrhea. The vet observed cysts in his stool sample. Which organism likely infected your dog?
Giardia lamblia
Which of the following protozoan parasites causes traveler's diarrhea?
Giardia lamblia.
Your patient is complaining of headache, dizziness, fatigue, and chills. He has a bull's-eye like rash on his back. He is likely suffering from Lyme disease which is caused by ___________.
Gram-negative spirochetes
Which of the following is the most commonly used vaccine against polio in the United States?
IPV
When should an individual that was bitten by a rabid animal seek medical treatment?
Immediately after exposure
Individuals most at risk for Cryptococcus neoformans infections are ____________.
HIV/AIDS patients
Which of the following causes of meningitis was once thought to have been the cause of the 1918 influenza pandemic?
Haemophilus influenzae
A 1-year old patient presents to the emergency room with fever, headaches, lethargy, stiff neck, and disorientation, with the absence of petechial rash. The mother noted that while her daughter was playing and eating normally that morning, later in the day she developed a non-specific fever and progressed quickly into her current state. When you ask the mother about her daughter's vaccination status, she states that she chose not to vaccinate her daughter due to her personal and religious preferences. Gram-stain analysis of the patient's cerebrospinal fluid reveals Gram-negative, encapsulated cells. Which of the following disease diagnoses is most likely?
Haemophilus meningitis
Which of the following are symptoms of African sleeping sickness?
Hallucinations and sleep disturbances
How is Toxoplasma gondii transmitted?
Handling cat litter
Which of the following characterizes shingles?
Headache, flu like symptoms but no fever, and a painful vesicular rash on one side of the body
Which area of the skin has the greatest variety of fungi?
Heels
Your patient complains of upper abdominal pain, heartburn, and indigestion. Based on the patient's case history and clinical presentation, you believe that your patient has a stomach ulcer caused by a resident microorganism. You ask the microbiology laboratory to culture the stomach pathogen from a gastric tissue biopsy. Which of the following bacterial genera would you expect the microbiology laboratory to observe in the patient's culture?
Helicobacter
Which of the following best describes the formation of stomach ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori damage the stomach lining, leading to an inflammatory response.
Which of the following GI pathogens is not detected by molecular testing?
Helicobacter pylori.
Each of the following virulence factors are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Hemolysin Hyaluronidase Lipase
Which of the following is not a typical sign or symptom of malaria?
Hemorrhage.
Which of the following is a major concern with the second stage of dengue?
Hemorrhaging, loss of blood volume, and organ failure.
_____________ is transmitted mainly via the fecal-oral route.
Hepatitis A
Which of the following types of hepatitis is spread through the fecal-oral route?
Hepatitis A.
__________ is a particular risk for healthcare workers who can contract the virus through needle sticks or cuts with contaminated sharps.
Hepatitis B
Which of the following forms of hepatitis cannot be prevented by a vaccine?
Hepatitis C.
Which of the following hepatitis viruses must co-infect with another hepatitis virus to cause infection?
Hepatitis D virus.
__________ is associated with poor sewage and water management.
Hepatitis E virus
Which of the following causes both meningitis and encephalitis?
Herpes simplex viruses
The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a member of the __________ family.
Herpesviridae
Which of the following is not a symptom of lepromatous leprosy?
High oxygen levels
Which of the following endemic mycoses is mismatched with its primary symptoms?
Histoplasma: skin rash
Which of the following best describes how hookworm is transmitted?
Hookworm is transmitted through burrowing into bare feet and legs.
Which of the following viruses is transmitted sexually?
Human papillomavirus
__________ cause croup, bronchitis, and pneumonia in infants and the elderly.
Human parainfluenza viruses (HPIV)
the following does describe the purpose of mucus in the upper respiratory tract?
Humidifies air entering the respiratory tract Traps microbes and debris entering the respiratory tract Warms air that enters the respiratory tract
Which of the following molecules are blocked from entering the cerebrospinal fluid?
Hydrophilic molecules
Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of rabies infection?
Hydrophobia
The most common cause of tapeworm infections in humans is:
Hymenolepis nana.
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to the rise of fungal diseases?
Increased resistance to antifungal drugs
Which of the following is not recommended in managing a patient with sepsis?
Increasing the patient's respiration rate.
Which of the following is considered the most common healthcare-acquired infection?
Infections with Clostridium difficile
Which of the following best describes the convalescent phase of pertussis?
Infrequent coughing spells that last for several months
Which of the following is the most likely pattern of transmission for toxoplasmosis?
Ingesting undercooked meat containing T. gondii cysts.
the following are symptom of lepromatous leprosy?
Irreversible skin damage Bone and nasal cartilage decay Macules, papules, and nodules on the body
Which of the following statements are true regarding leprosy?
It is caused by a bacterium that lacks a cell wall.
Which of the following signs/symptoms is often used to distinguish bacterial and viral conjunctivitis?
It is differentiated by the nature of the fluid discharge from the eye.
Which of the following statements about Amebiasis is correct?
It is transmitted via contaminated water.
Which of the following is a legitimate reason not to give a child the MMR vaccine?
The child is under a year old.
Which of the following is a characteristic sign of yellow fever?
Jaundice.
Which of the following is not a characteristic symptom of viral hemorrhagic fevers?
Jaundice.
The presence of ________, a waterproofing protein, in epidermis prevents many microorganisms from gaining access to the body.
Keratin
_________ destroys the protective layers of the cornea.
Keratitis
the following are matched correctly
Keratitis; common in contact lens users Fungal keratitis; eye trauma or eye surgery. Bacterial keratitis; Pseudomonas
What cause of atypical pneumonia is spread by aerosolized contaminated water?
Legionella pneumophila
Which of the following is not a zoonotic atypical pneumonia?
Legionella pneumophila
Industrial air-conditioner systems and other artificial water systems may cause the transmission of contaminated water that, when inhaled, may cause ____________.
Legionnaires' disease
All of the following are characteristics of smallpox
Lesions on the extremities but not the torso Lesions on the hands and the soles of the feet Domed lesions that are solid to the touch, extend deep into the surface, and have a center dimple
Which of the following would be symptoms found specific for bacterial meningitis?
Lethargy and rash
Which of the following does not describe the role of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
Limiting pathogen attachment to the GI tract.
Which of the following molecules can pass easily through the blood-brain barrier?
Lipophilic molecules
Which of the following foodborne pathogens survives well at refrigerator temperatures?
Listeria monocytogenes.
Each of the following organisms cause foodborne infections
Listeria monocytogenes. Campylobacter jejuni. Escherichia coli.
This disease is spread from person to person only. How contagious a disease is it considered to be?
The disease is rarely transmitted from person to person.
Which of the following best describes diarrhea?
Loose or watery stool.
Which of the following test results would support that a patient is suffering from bacterial but not viral meningitis?
Lower glucose concentration found in the cerebrospinal fluid
Which of the following descriptions is unique to pneumonia caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
Lower-than-normal body temperature in older people
the following are tick-borne diseases?
Lyme disease Rocky Mountain spotted fever Ehrlichiosis
A bull's-eye rash is characteristic of which of the following tick-borne diseases?
Lyme disease.
Which component of tears is also found in perspiration?
Lysozyme
_________, present in tears, breaks down bacterial cell walls and is an important defense mechanism of the eye.
Lysozyme
__________ is an enzyme found in perspiration that protects against microbial invaders by breaking down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls.
Lysozyme
The anti-phagocytosis factor produced by Streptococcus pyogenes is __________.
M-protein
Which of the following vaccines prevents the mumps?
MMR.
Which of the following is not an infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
MRSA
What type of nerve cells does poliovirus infect?
Motor neurons
Which of the following selective and differential culture media is not used to detect GI pathogens?
Mannitol salt agar.
the following diseases we currently have a vaccine available
Measles Shingles Rubella
Which Neisseria meningitidis vaccine is most effective for older adults?
Menomune®
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is a modified synthetic form of penicillin that was developed to combat penicillinase-producing bacteria?
Methicillin
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of toxoplasmosis?
Miscarriage, stillbirth, or delayed neurological problems in a child
Which of the following is not a mechanism by which tularemia spreads to humans?
Mosquitoes.
Which of the following conditions is mismatched to the organism that causes it?
Mucormycosis: C. immitis
During a pertussis infection, the pathogenic bacterium Bordatella pertussis produces tracheal cytotoxin, which destroys cilia. Which of the following would most likely result from ciliary destruction?
Mucus would accumulate in the respiratory tract.
Which of the following best describes helminth parasites?
Multicellular animals.
Which of the following characteristics help to explain why Mycobacterium leprae infects the peripheral nervous system?
Mycobacterium leprae prefers a lower growth temperature.
Hansen's disease is caused by ___________ and is often linked to exposure to _________.
Mycobacterium leprae; armadillos
The primary cause of tuberculosis is __________.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Each of the following organisms causes typical pneumonia
Mycobacterium tuberculosis Haemophilus influenzae. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Which of the following causative agents lacks a cell wall?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which of the following causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)?
Naegleria fowleri
The Gram stain of the CSF from a patient suffering from headaches, stiff neck, and petechial rash reveals the presence of Gram-negative diplococci. A follow-up capsule stain was also positive for the presence of capsules. With which organism is the patient likely infected?
Neisseria meningitis
Central nervous system infections: Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)
Naegleria fowleri (= brain- eating amoeba) -always fatal: 100% mortality 1) dormant cyst 2) infectious trophozoite - no flagella - flagellated to motile - warm ponds or neti pots - direct, environmental
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by
Naegleria fowleri.
Specialized tissue degrading enzymes give what infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes the terrifying title of "flesh-eating disease"?
Necrotizing fasciitis
Which of the following is a diagnostic sign of rabies noted after the victim has died from the infection?
Negri bodies
Which of the following outcomes is observed during Rabies virus pathogenesis?
Negri bodies are a diagnostic sign of Rabies virus infection.
Which etiology of meningitis is typically given to people living in close quarters (e.g., college dorms) and may result in a petechial rash?
Neiserria meningitidis
Which of the following is a cause of neonatal conjunctivitis?
Neisseria
A patient is suspected of having meningitis. A lumbar puncture reveals a Gram-negative diplococcus. What organism is the causative agent?
Neisseria meningitidis
Which of the following species of bacteria causes meningitis characterized by a distinctive petechial rash?
Neisseria meningitidis
__________ are chemical signals that send responses between PNS and the CNS.
Neurotransmitters
Which of the following vaccines contains live, attenuated poliovirus?
OPV
Which of the following is not a method used to differentiate chikungunya from dengue?
Observation of signs and symptoms unique to each pathogen.
Which of the following statements regarding polio vaccines is true?
One disadvantage of the oral polio vaccine is that immunocompromised individuals can develop illness from the attenuated virus and, in rare circumstances, develop paralytic polio
Cryptosporidium has a complex life cycle. Which of the following is the infectious form of the parasite?
Oocysts
You are preparing for your trip to southeast Asia. The following would be an option available to prevent malaria?
Opting to receive a vaccine Taking daily oral prophylaxis such as doxycycline Using mosquito abatement such as repellent and bed nets
Which species of Plasmodium is most virulent?
P. falciparum.
Which of the following signs and symptoms is/are most likely to be present in a patient with shingles?
Painful and burning rash on one side of the body
What group of viruses causes warts?
Papillomaviruses
During which of the following stages of pertussis would a patient display the characteristic "whoop" during a coughing spell?
Paroxysmal stage
Which of the following is not a complication due to endocarditis?
Pericarditis.
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Personality changes, memory loss, blurred vision
Which of the following defense mechanisms is particularly effective against microorganisms because it creates an acidic and salty environment on the skin?
Perspiration
__________ creates an acidic skin pH, has a high salt content, and washes away microbes to protect against microbial invaders.
Perspiration
In addition to raw eggs, undercooked chicken products, and seafood, which of the following has also been associated with Salmonella enterica serovars infections?
Pet reptiles
The mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is comprised of all of the following
Peyer's patches tonsils. appendix.
Which of the following meninges is found closest to the brain and spinal cord?
Pia mater
Which of the following best describes how the biofilm dental plaque causes dental caries?
Plaque holds the bacteria found in the mouth and on the teeth close to the surface of the tooth.
For which of the following infections is a vaccine available?
Pneumococcal meningitis
Which of the following is mainly found in immunocompromised patients?
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Which of the following is worldwide the most common type of community-acquired, typical pneumonia?
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Patients with __________ often experience a dry, nonproductive cough.
Pneumocystis pneumonia
__________ is a serious infection of the alveoli that disrupts gas exchange.
Pneumonia
Which of the following vaccines is most effective against pneumococcal meningitis among people over age 65 and children over two?
Pneumovax®
Which of the following infectious agents infects the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
Poliovirus
Which of the following conditions can occur 10-40 years after initial infection with polio?
Post-polio syndrome
Although a wide variety of animals harbor Salmonella, where is it most likely to be found?
Poultry products.
Which of the following vaccines is most effective against pneumococcal meningitis for immunocompromised adults and children under two years?
Prevnar®
The most common genus of bacteria living in the pharynx (throat) is __________.
Prevotella
Which of the following is not a characteristic of both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes?
Produce golden-colored colonies
Which of the following causes acne?
Propionibacterium acnes
Recent studies have found that resident microbes in the digestive system may actually exert some influence on nervous system functions. A recent study found that people experiencing depression had lower levels of ___________ in their GI tract than people that did not suffer from depression.
Proteobacteria
Once thought to be sterile, it has recently been found that the lungs harbor all of the following microbial genera
Pseudomonas Streptococcus Veillonella
A patient in the ER is displaying the following signs and symptoms: back pain, fever, hacking cough, and headaches. From his patient history you learn that he owns birds and he owns several pet shops that sell parrots. What is he suffering from and what is the likely infectious agent?
Psittaciosis, which is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci.
Which of the following is not common to both rotavirus and norovirus infection?
Quick onset vomiting and diarrhea.
Which of the following agents is the leading cause of acute lower respiratory tract infection in children under age five?
RSV
A patient arrives at the hospital ER displaying symptoms of hydrophobia, hallucinations, and disorientation. The family mentioned that the patient was recently bitten by a bat. Which disease is this patient likely suffering from?
Rabies
Which of the following is not a zoonosis?
Rabies West Nile virus Toxoplasmosis
Which of the following is not a route of transmission for warts?
Respiratory route
Which of the following is the leading cause of bronchitis and pneumonia among children under one year old?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Which of the following antibiotics is given to people living in close quarters with individuals diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis?
Rifampicin
Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus?
Ringworm
The components of tears provide all of the following functions
Rinse away foreign objects Binds free iron Break down bacterial cell walls
Which of the following infections of the eye is not associated with contact lenses?
River blindness
A patient presents the following signs and symptoms: macule rash, fever, headache, and nausea. He reports that he was recently bitten by a deer tick. Which of the following tick-borne diseases was he likely suffering from?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A baby develops a sudden high fever and a rash all over its body. What is the likely cause?
Roseola
Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccine?
Rotavirus gastroenteritis
Which of the following best describes the catarrhal phase of pertussis?
Runny nose, watery eyes, and a moderate cough
sepsis
SIRS + infection= sepsis - severe sepsis: sepsis with organ damage -septic shock: severe sepsis + hypotension
Which of the following components of the GI system does the mumps virus infect?
Salivary glands.
Poultry products are a likely source of infection by
Salmonella enterica or Campylobacter jejuni.
Which of the following organisms does not produce a toxin involved in food poisoning?
Salmonella species.
Which bacterium harbors inside the gallbladder of chronic carriers?
Salmonella typhi
In addition to Necator americanus, which of the following organisms also infects by burrowing into the skin?
Schistosoma species.
Which of the following has been found to contribute to the development of various types of acne?
Sebum production
the following are key virulence factor of Shigella?
Secretion of exotoxins Ability to induce apoptosis in macrophages Ability to move from one host cell to the next via host cytoskeletal actin
Which sign or symptom is unique to encephalitis but not to meningitis?
Seizures
"Rice water" stool is a sign of __________.
cholera
Which of the following capsular serotypes of Neisseria meningitidis is not common in the U.S.
Serotype W
One of your co-workers recently returned from Eastern Europe. She was there for over a year to support the medical staff in local hospitals. She is a healthy individual who does not have a history of TB and does not present any clinical signs. She is given a TB test to make sure she does not have the disease. After 72 hours, the site of the injection shows an induration that is 5 mm in diameter. How would you interpret this result?
She is negative for TB.
Which species of Shigella is most common in Central America and Africa?
Shigella dysenteriae.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between chickenpox and shingles?
Shingles is the result of reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that initially caused a chickenpox infection
Which of the following best describes protozoan parasites?
Single-celled eukaryotes.
_________ results from aggravation and inflammation of the paranasal sinus membranes.
Sinusitis
Which of the following skin infections is considered eradicated?
Smallpox
the following statements about the ocular microbiome are true
Some ocular microbiota are not bacteria. There are over a dozen species of microbes on the eye. Some limited Staphylococcus and Corynebacterium species are found on the eyes. right answer feedback:
Each of the following organisms is a typical causative agent of meningitis
Staphylococcus aureus
You isolated an unknown organism. It is catalase positive, coagulase positive, and ferments mannitol. After Gram staining, you observe purple, clustered cocci under the microscope. Which organism are you likely working with?
Staphylococcus aureus
All of the following are common causative agents of keratitis
Staphylococcus aureus Candida albicans HSV-1 and HSV-2
A bacterial analysis of a skin infection indicates that the bacteria are Gram-positive cocci that produce coagulase. The etiology is
Staphylococcus aureus.
Scalded skin syndrome is due to an exfoliative toxin released by
Staphylococcus aureus.
The high salt content of MSA plates allows for the growth of ______ species. Those bacteria that ferment mannitol cause the medium to turn a ______ color.
Staphylococcus; yellow
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)?
Stiff neck, seizures, and hallucinations
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcal) - G+ cocci, chains
Strep throat= pharyngitis - produce: - hyaluronic acid capsules= human HA - M protein - streptokinase - inflammation, fever, tonsillitis treatment/ rx: penicillin
The primary flora of the nasal cavity includes all the following
Streptococcus Staphylococcus Actinobacteria
A patient is suspected of having meningitis. A lumbar puncture reveals a Gram-positive streptococcus. What organism is the causative agent?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Most bacterial meningitis cases in the United States are pneumococcal meningitis, caused by which of the following bacteria?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A Gram-positive, spherical organism that you isolated from a patient's skin lesion is catalase-negative and displays beta hemolysis. Which of the following organisms is this patient likely infected with?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which bacterium produces the M-protein virulence factor?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following are true regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
a. It is the cause of walking pneumonia. c. Infections may be asymptomatic. d. It lacks a cell wall.
The bacterium that produces the M-protein virulence factor and can lead to the damage of heart valves and joints is
Streptococcus pyogenes.
Which of the following is mismatched?
Streptococcus pyogenes; catalase-positive
A bacterial analysis of a skin infection indicates that the bacteria are gram-positive cocci, catalase negative, and beta-hemolytic. The etiology is
Streptococcus.
Which of the following descriptions is unique to pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Sudden high fever
Which of the following most accurately describes how Listeria monocytogenes evades the immune system?
Survival within phagocytes
For the past days, you have observed your four-year-old daughter frequently itching her anal area. You suspect that she may be infected with Enterobius vermicularis and take her to see a doctor. How will the doctor confirm your suspicion and what will be the suggested treatment?
Tape adhesion test of the anal region for eggs and treat with over-the-counter medication
Your adolescent patient presents to the emergency room with "lock jaw" and is unable to open his mouth to speak. This spastic paralysis is due to which of the following?
Tetanospasmin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters that prevent muscle relaxation.
Which of the following Shigella virulence factors is only found in Shigella dysenteriae?
The Shiga toxin.
Provide one reason why children are more susceptible to otitis media than adults.
The adenoids in children are larger than they are in adults which leaves them more susceptible.
Why do symptoms persist after antibiotics have been used to treat and remove the bacterial infection?
The blebs containing lipid A are still present in the blood and in the tissues.
Why is tetanus commonly associated with deep puncture wounds?
The causative agent Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic, spore-forming organism.
Which of the following statements about Valley Fever is correct?
The causative agent of Valley Fever is a dimorphic fungus, growing as mold that makes arthroconidia spores that spread with the dry winds common to arid climates.
Which of the following is false about the lepromatous form of leprosy?
The lepromatous form is more common than the milder tuberculoid form.
Which of the following about Naegleria fowleri is true?
The organism prefers warm stagnant waters.
A patient was diagnosed with aspergillosis. Which of the following would you predict to be true about this person?
The patient is likely immunocompromised.
Which of the following best describes the peripheral nervous system?
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) inputs and transmits information to the body.
Which of the following is a valid difference between the central and peripheral nervous systems?
The peripheral nervous system inputs and transmits information, while the central nervous system integrates and responds to the information received.
Infection with tetanus is often associated with rusty nails. Which of the following most accurately describes how a rusty nail could cause tetanus?
The rusty nail has spore-containing soil or dust that transfers the pathogen.
The __________ stage is marked by opportunistic infections and rare cancers.
acquired immunodeficiency
What do Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, ehrlichiosis, and anaplasmosis all have in common?
They are all spread by ticks.
True statements regarding smallpox, chickenpox, and measles?
They are transmitted by the respiratory route. They are caused by viruses. They cause diseases of the skin.
What type of cell junction prevents certain molecules from passing through the blood-brain barrier?
Tight junctions
A wormlike lesion with a scaly red margin and a central lighter red coloration is characteristic of ___________.
Tinea corporis
Scaly, blistered, or inflamed skin between the toes is characteristic of ____________.
Tinea pedis
Which of the following symptoms is not associated with dental caries?
Tooth loosening.
The __________ stage of HIV infection is marked by flu-like symptoms that resolve within a few weeks.
acute HIV infection
Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
Trachea
_________ is the leading cause of preventable microbial blindness in the world.
Trachoma
Eating undercooked wild game or pork can transmit __________.
Trichinella spiralis
Your patient is suffering from fever and complaining of fatigue, chills, and muscle pain. He stated that he returned from a hunting trip about two weeks ago where he had consumed undercooked wild game. What is he likely suffering from?
Trichinellosis
Which of the following is not caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
Whooping cough
A lumbar puncture allows for CSF analysis to differentiate between viral and bacterial meningitis.
True
It is possible to get bone fractures from tetanus, due to opisthotonos for example
True
Which subspecies accounts for 98% of all cases of African sleeping sickness?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
Which of the following diseases is a zoonosis?
Tularemia
Which of the following statements is correct about tularemia?
Tularemia is usually associated with animals hunted by humans, such as wild rabbits.
What serotype of Haemophilus meningitis is the most serious and invasive?
Type b
Which of the following is considered a secondary skin lesion?
Ulcer
Which of the following tests is done to indirectly identify the presence of Helicobacter pylori in the stomach of a patient?
Urea breath test
A vaccine for respiratory infections caused by__________ is only available for military personnel.
adenoviruses
E. coli, Shigella, and __________ are able to survive the acid of the stomach to cause an infection.
Vibrio cholerae
Which of the following is mismatched?
Viral conjunctivitis; pus-like discharge
How do arboviruses such as the West Nile virus and La Crosse virus cause neurological damage?
Viruses infect the cells that form the blood-brain barrier.
Which of the following is not involved in inhibiting pathogen growth in the gut?
Vitamin K production produced by the gut microbiome.
the following would likely protect you from digestive system infections?
Washing hands Consuming fully cooked meat Wearing shoes
Which of the following is a classic sign of croup?
Wheezing or loud breathing associated with a blocked or narrowed airway
Neuraminidase (NA) spikes:
allow the influenza virus to escape the host cell.
Which bacterial pathogen causes plague?
Yersinia pestis
Your pediatric patient presents with severe coughing fits with intermittent gasping for air. Two weeks prior to his clinical presentation, your patient exhibited common cold symptoms such as runny nose, watery eyes, and moderate cough. Based on the patient's case history, which of the following statements is most likely true for the progression of disease in this patient?
Your patient will most likely have intense coughing fits for up to one additional month, followed by less frequent coughing spells the following month.
Vertical transmission of which of the following viruses has been linked to fetal microcephaly?
Zika virus
Cutaneous candidiasis is characterized by ___________________________________.
a bright red macular rash with white pustules that can be intensely itchy or burning
Key signs of diphtheria are ____________ and ___________.
a bull neck; pseudomembrane in the back of the throat
Match the infection with its etiology and means of transmission and/or description.
amebiasis: E. histolytica; ingestion of protozoan; dysentery cryptococcosis: C. neoformans; inhalation of fungus on bird droppings ergotism: C. purpurea; ingestion of mycotoxin; hallucinations giardiasis: G. intestinalis; ingestion of protozoan; prolonged diarrhea otitis media: S. pneumoniae or H. influenzae; middle ear infection PAM: N. fowleri; migration of protozoan up olfactory bulb sleeping sickness: T. brucei; transmission of protozoan by tsetse fly bite toxoplasmosis: T. gondii; ingestion of protozoan in cat feces tularemia: F. tularensis; direct contact with infected animals; rabbit fever impetigo: S. aureus; autoinoculation; crusty lesions
The infectious agent that causes tuberculosis is
an acid-fast bacterium of the genus Mycobacterium
treatment and preventative measures for malaria include all of the following
antimalarial drugs. bed nets. mosquito control.
Clostridium tetani, C. botulinum, and C. perfringens are similar in that they
are anaerobes.
Ubiquitous mycoses:
are found in varied climates and under diverse conditions.
Which region of the skin would most likely support the largest bacterial population?
armpits
Patients with _________ frequently cough up mucus plugs and blood.
aspergillosis
Bacterial diseases of the digestive system: Clostridium difficile
associated diarrhea - foodborne illness -caused by C. difficile (G+ anaerobe, endospores) - major cause of HAI's (MRSA) -normal gut flora, but antibodies allow endospores to survive - symptoms: diarrhea to colors, ulceration perforation of intestinal wall - treatment: metronidazole, vancomycin, fecal transplants.
The upper chambers of the heart are the __________.
atria
The hemagglutinin (HA) viral spike is used by the influenza virus to:
attach to and invade host cells.
A child with no known congenital problems is diagnosed with inflammation of the heart valves. The medical history of the child is unremarkable except for a sore throat and fever six weeks prior, which the parents attributed to a common cold. The heart valve inflammation is most likely due to
autoimmune complications of Streptococcus pyogenes.
Marburg hemorrhagic fever is prevented through avoiding infected bat droppings and __________.
avoiding consuming "bushmeat" or the meat of non-domesticated apes and monkeys
The electrical wave generated by a stimulus travels down the __________ of a neuron.
axon
CSF glucose levels are often assessed to differentiate between bacterial and viral meningitis. This is because
bacteria use glucose and lower its overall concentration in the CSF.
A patient was diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma. The level of the patient's T helper cells will likely be ____________; an indicator for ___________.
below 200 cells/mm3; AIDS
Before the introduction of the MMR vaccine in 1963, the CDC estimates that there were __________ cases of measles each year.
between three and four million
Indicate whether the following descriptions apply to bubonic plague (B), septicemic plague (S) and/or pneumonic plague (P).
bloody and frothy sputum P most common form B infectious form B 100% mortality if untreated P left-sided heart failure P swollen lymph nodes B
Cysts of Giardia lamblia resist all of the following
boiling water.
Poliovirus infection causes respiratory failure if it destroys nerves coming from the _________.
brain
All of the following are parts of the lower respiratory tract
bronchi larynx alveoli
Swollen lymph nodes are also known as
buboes
Each of the following are risk factors for the development of sepsis
cardiovascular disease. immunocompromise. diabetes.
Staphylococcus aureus is most often associated with being gram-positive
catalase-positive and coagulase-positive.
viral skin infection: warts
caused by =papillomas (small skin growths); direct contact, papillomaviruses -plantar warts (soles of feet); seed warts (hands and toes) -genital warts (groin); flat warts (elsewhere) - treated with cryotherapy, electrodesiccation or salicylic acid (folicite) - papule
Anthrax
caused by bacillus anthracis (G+ rod), facultative anaerobe that can form spores -reservoir: soil -[primarily affects grazing animals like cattle - release edema toxin that causes local swelling and interferes with phagocytosis -releases lethal toxins that leads to macrophages Cutaneous anthrax - endospores enter via minor cut - 1 out of 5 will die; 20% mortality rate Gastrointestinal anthrax: -caused by ingestion of undercooked food, contaminated food - 50% mortality rate Inhalation pulmonary anthrax: - caused by inhaled endospores to leads to septic shock -100% mortality rate
Pertussis
caused by bordetella pertussis; G- coccobacillus = whooping cough -capsule attaches to ciliated cells or trachea and shuts down mucociliary escalator 3 stages: -stage 1: 1-2 weeks; central stage (common cold symptoms ) -stage 2: 2-6; weeks paroxysmal stage (sudden violent coughing; gasping for air) - pertussis toxin (A-B toxin) leads to inflammation -stage 3: 1 month; convalescent stage (recovery) -DTap vaccine goes down after 12 years so Tdap booster is given
Necrotizing fasciitis is _________.
caused by group A streptococci
Hyaluronidase and lipase are enzymes that allow Staphylococcus aureus to invade deeper tissues and cause ________.
cellulitis
The brain and the spinal cord comprise the __________.
central nervous system
Matching
chickenpox: varicella consumption: tuberculosis whooping cough: pertussis flesh-eating disease: necrotizing fasciitis German measles: rubella myonecrosis: gas gangrene measles: rubeola hydrophobia: rabies warts: papilloma smallpox: variola
Polyarthralgia, or pain in multiple joints, is characteristic of symptoms seen in __________.
chikungunya
A rash is associated with all of the following vector-borne systemic viral infections
chikungunya. Zika. dengue.
What cause of atypical pneumonia infects about half of the population worldwide by age 20?
chlamydophila pneumoniae
The best prevention for infection with HTLV is ____________
condom use
The main public health threat with Zika virus is because of its ability to cause:
congenital defects.
The __________ surrounds the eyeball and lines the eyelids.
conjunctiva
Protozoan and helminth infections are primarily transferred via:
contact with human or animal feces.
Cases of cholera are characterized by __________.
copious, watery diarrhea known as "rice water" stools
The ________ is a transparent layer at the front of the eye that covers the iris.
cornea
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a(n):
coronavirus.
Which of the following genera is not found in the small and large intestines?
corynebacterium.
A two-year-old child presents to a pediatric practice with a barking cough and loud wheezing. The parent is alarmed and insists on antibiotics. What is the likely diagnosis, and are antibiotics appropriate?
croup / no, most cases are viral
Dried exudate or plasma on the skin is known as a(n) __________.
crust
In __________, painless ulcers form at bite sites and can persist for months or years. Choose the best answer.
cutaneous leishmaniasis
A __________ is a closed sac filled with fluid found deeper in the skin that is usually painless unless it ruptures or becomes infected.
cyst
A complication of tapeworm infections with Taenia species is __________.
cysticercosis
A major concern with a rotavirus or norovirus infection is:
dehydration.
In severe cases of __________, hemorrhaging can occur.
dengue
The tourniquet test is used to diagnose
dengue
All of the following are arboviruses
dengue yellow fever Zika Chikungunya.
A positive tourniquet test is an indicator that a patient may have __________.
dengue fever
Food poisoning is MOST associated with
staphylococcal enterotoxicosis.
Plasma enters the spaces around our cells and tissues through __________ and becomes lymph.
diffusion
The development of a pseudomembrane on the tonsils and throat is characteristic of
diphtheria.
The blockage of the passage of air to the lungs by fibrin and dead tissue are characteristic of ______, whereas destruction of the mucociliary escalator is characteristic of ______.
diphtheria; pertussis
Each of the following are signs or symptoms of sepsis
disseminated intravascular coagulation. systemic inflammatory response. shock.
The most common domesticated animal reservoir for rabies are ______.
dogs
Invasive candidiasis is most often treated with ________________.
echinocandin
If lymph is not properly collected, it can lead to __________.
edema
In order to avoid congenital defects in the fetus due to Zika infection, it is recommended that women wait __________ after infection before conceiving.
eight weeks
What is it called when there is only inflammation of the brain?
encephalitis
Infants can contract botulism through ___________.
endospores in honey
Toxins associated with food poisoning that specifically target the intestines are __________.
enterotoxins
What is the most life-threatening infection of the upper respiratory tract?
epiglottitis
Which of the following is mismatched?
epiglottitis — sore throat
A life-threatening bacterial infection that results in complete blockage of the airway due to swelling of a flap of tissue that normally protects the lungs during swallowing is
epiglottitis.
Scarlett Fever
erythrogenic toxin= red-producing - leads to pink/red rash( looks like measles/sunburn) - starts with face and travels down to body leads to tongue having spotted, strawberry appearance M proteins found in 2 heart calves, kidneys and joints -antibodies target body cells (also called cross reaction) - antibody targeting leads to autoimmune complications (rheumatogenic) - RX: penicillin
The _________ Candida albicans is well known for causing __________.
eukaryotic (fungal) organism; diaper rash
Bacterial skin infections: scalded skin syndrome
exfoliative toxins leads to the outer layer of skin peeling off - underlying skin is read and exposed -caused by staphylococcus aureus
A positive tuberculin skin test definitively indicates the presence of an active tuberculosis infection.
false
C. gattii is usually contracted from urban environments, C. neoformans is associated with natural settings.
false
Particularly virulent strains of Clostridium difficile have been effectively treated with:
fecal transplants.
"Slapped cheek syndrome" is a symptom of ______
fifth disease
A distinctive red rash on the cheeks with an otherwise mild illness is most likely
fifth disease
Candidiasis usually develops:
following antibiotic usage.
Four days after admission to the hospital, an elderly patient suddenly suffers from high fever, chills, and chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals substantial fluid accumulation in both lungs. The patient is likely suffering from ________________.
healthcare-acquired, typical pneumonia
Each of the following is elevated in a patient with sepsis
heart rate. respiratory rate. white blood cell count.
Acute hepatitis infections are only found with the __________ virus.
hepatitis A
The only type of hepatitis that does NOT lead to a chronic condition is
hepatitis A.
Dane particles are characteristic of
hepatitis B.
Poultry farmers and spelunkers may be at risk for contracting __________.
histoplasmosis
It has been estimated that __________ are responsible for 30% of respiratory infections among children under 5 years old.
human parainfluenza viruses (HPIV)
The __________ transmission cycle of yellow fever is mainly responsible for large epidemics.
human-to-human via mosquitoes
The early stage of sepsis is characterized by a
hyper-inflammatory response due to the release of cytokines and chemokines from T cells.
The late stage of sepsis is a ______ response due to ______.
hypo-inflammatory; immune cell apoptosis
Dysentery can lead to ________ and/or organ failure if medical attention is not sought in time.
hypovolemic shock
Sepsis is a(n) __________.
immune response to a pathogen
Erysipelas can result if __________ spreads to surrounding skin and lymph nodes.
impetigo
Which of the following versions of the polio vaccine is preferred in the United States?
inactivated polio vaccine which is injected into muscle and requires several boosters
Salmonella serovars cause foodborne infections by:
inducing phagocytosis in gastric endothelial cells.
Haemophilus influenzae type b is the most common causative agent of bacterial meningitis in __________.
infants and children
Infectious mononucleosis is most often transmitted through contact with _________.
infected saliva
Patients are infected with mumps via _____________.
infected saliva
Pneumonia
inflammation of the alveoli - symptoms: fever, cough, dyspnea, tachypnea - healthcare acquired: 48 hours after admissions to health care facility (most common healthcare acquired infection) -community acquired: was not contracted in a healthcare facility - typically contracted by: S. pneumoniae (Group B streptococcus ) G+ encapsulated Haemophilus influenzae- typical - atypical: contracted by other microbe - ex: mycoplasma pneumonia (= walking pneumonia ) - legionella pneumophila = legionnaires disease legionellosis.
Pneumonia is
inflammation of the alveoli which interferes with gas exchange.
A patient is complaining of chills and body aches and he also has a temperature. He is likely suffering from _______________.
influenza
The primary mechanism of transmission for vCJD is __________.
ingestion of infected meat
Most people who develop hanta pulmonary syndrome have _____________.
inhaled dust particles contaminated with rodent urine or feces
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is spread through __________.
inhaling rodent feces or urine
Tetanospasmin affects the release of _________ neurotransmitters and causes _________ paralysis.
inhibitory; spastic
Your "second brain" is located in the
intestines
Even though they may come into contact with it, few people will develop _________ caused by S. pyogenes.
invasive group A streptococci (GAS) disease
Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) production can be detected by ______, which turns ______.
iron; black
characteristics of Bacillus anthracis?
is anaerobic is gram-positive forms endospores found in soil
The waterproof coating of the epidermis is due to
keratin
M proteins on the surface of Streptococcus pyogenes are very similar to all of the following host tissues
kidney components. heart valves. joint tissue.
Patients are at risk for candidemia (invasive candidiasis) after all of the following interventions
kidney dialysis. intravenous (IV) lines. central venous catheters.
Croup is a result of inflammation in all of the following
larynx bronchi trachea
A granuloma in the lungs caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a symptom of __________ tuberculosis.
latent
Oxygenated blood from the lungs enters the __________ through the pulmonary veins.
left atrium
Oxygenated blood from the lungs will flow into the _____________.
left atrium
Skin afflictions = dermatosis
lesions = change or abnormality if the skin -primary lesions: associated with a disease -secondary lesions: may or may not be associated with disease - rash: widespread lesion
The first symptoms of diphtheria include:
low-grade fever and sore throat.
Most cases of sepsis are preceded by _________________.
lung infections
Which of the following paths does Cryptococcus neoformans take to get to the CNS?
lungs → macrophages → lymphatic system → blood → CNS
Fluid in the spaces around our tissues and cells is known as _________.
lymph
The symptoms of scarlet fever caused by Streptococcus pyogenes are due to:
lysogenized bacteriophage producing an erythrogenic toxin.
Freckles covering the face are an example of a(n) __________.
macular rash
The main method for preventing arboviral infections such as dengue, yellow fever, chikungunya, and Zika is:
mosquito control.
What is the correct order of the following eight parts of the GI tract?
mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus
In __________, lesions develop in the mouth or nose and can lead to permanent disfigurement.
mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms of __________.
mucormycosis
Infection of the parotid glands is characteristic of
mumps.
Tuberculosis
mycobacterium tuberculosis - waxy coating on cell wall of mycolic acid making it resistant to drying out - also known as consumption or white plague (pale from anemia) latent infection (no symptoms, not contagious) - 5% of the time: active pulmonary TB (bloody, sputum, fever, weight loss) Tuberculin skin test - purified tuberculin proteins that are injected intradermally -read 48-72 hours after test because of delayed hypersensitive induration -can't distinguish between active vs latent TB, just potential -passive results: current or previous - respiratory droplets: poverty and overcrowding
Fungal Diseases of the digestive system:
mycotoxins are released by fungal diseases (fungal toxin)
Signs and symptoms of uncomplicated malaria will include ____________.
nausea and vomiting
Polio is a ______ disease transmitted by ______.
nervous; ingestion of contaminated water
Virulence factors that assist H. pylori in causing stomach ulcers include all of the following
neutralization of stomach acid. polar flagella assist burrowing into host tissues. toxins trigger host cell death.
Propionibacterium acnes cause __________.
nodular cystic acne
Which viruses can cause gastroenteritis with severe vomiting?
noroviruses and rotaviruses.
Transmission of the Lassa virus can be avoided through:
not inhaling airborne dried rodent urine during cleaning and sweeping.
All of the following describe food poisoning (food intoxication)
occurs due to an ingestion of a toxin. symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, but no fever. resolution is usually within 24 hours.
Endemic mycoses:
only grow in specific geographical locations.
The most effective treatment for cholera is __________.
oral rehydration therapy
Swimming in a pool with inadequate chlorine treatment can result in __________ caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
otitis externa
you are a nurse serving as a medical volunteer in a refugee camp. Due to extreme poverty, political instability, and displacement, most individuals at the camp have not received any preventative medical care, including vaccinations. While providing care to a young woman in about the fourth month of pregnancy, she mentions that several children, including her toddler, suffered from a mild illness last month. Her toddler had a low fever, a runny nose, and a rash that started on his face then moved downward. The illness resolved quickly in all the children. What illness might the children have had and why should you be concerned?
rubella; the unborn child of the exposed mother may be stillborn or suffer from birth defects
Which of the following does cause maculopapular rashes?
rubeola rubella roseola
EBV is primarily transmitted through:
saliva.
You are working as a nurse in a clinic in the tropics. Your patient has a painless skin ulcer on his face that has persisted for a few weeks. He was very likely bitten by a _________ and is suffering from ___________.
sand fly; cutaneous leishmaniasis
Strawberry tongue and a sandpaper like rash all over the body are signs of _____________.
scarlet fever
This disease is caused by strains of Streptococcus pyogenes which produce an erythrogenic toxin due to the presence of a lysogenized bacteriophage.
scarlet fever
S. pyogenes can cause all of the following
scarlet fever impetigo. necrotizing fasciitis.
Erythrogenic toxin is produced in
scarlet fever.
Pinworm infections are primarily transmitted via:
scratching infected anal tissues.
Propionibacterium acnes use _________, which is usually antibacterial, as a nutrition source.
sebum
The metabolism of __________ creates toxic fatty acid breakdown products that inhibit the growth of microbial invaders on the skin.
sebum
What is the last stage of the sepsis continuum?
septic shock
Although sepsis proceeds through mild to moderate stages, the most severe stage of sepsis is:
septic shock.
If Yersinia pestis enters the bloodstream, __________ plague can result.
septicemic
A patient that shows blackening of two right and one left finger. He also has diarrhea, fever, and chills and is complaining of itchiness around his ankles and forearms. Further evaluation reveals red spots that look like flea bites. The patient may be suffering from _____________ .
septicemic plague
pertussis is characterized by
severe coughing attacks where the patient struggles to catch their breath.
HTLV is transmitted through each of the following mechanisms
sexual contact. vertical transmission from mother to child. intravenous drug use.
Since the development of the chickenpox vaccine, the number of chickenpox cases has ________
significantly decreased
Men are advised to delay conception for __________ after infection with Zika to avoid Zika-related fetal complications.
six months
Lactobacilli and Bacteroides are part of the microbiome associated with the _____________.
small and large intestines
Which of the following organs is not associated with the upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
small intestine
All of the following viral diseases of the skin are spread by the respiratory route
smallpox chickenpox measles.
. All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route
smallpox, chickenpox, rubella
The life cycle of Schistosoma passes through humans and __________.
snails
Rhinovirus and influenza symptoms are very similar. Each of the following symptoms does not distinguish a rhinovirus infection from influenza
sore throat and runny nose. coughing and sneezing. body aches.
Plasmodium depends on both Anopheles mosquitoes and humans to complete its complicated life cycle. The parasite passes as a __________ form from infected mosquitoes into the patient's bloodstream.
sporozoite
A patient with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 4 hours after eating most likely has
staphylococcal enterotoxicosis due to food poisoning
The left ventricle is more muscular because it must pump blood __________.
to the body
The "D" component of the DTaP vaccine is a _________ vaccine.
toxoid
The Plasmodium life cycle involves:
transmission through mosquito bites, red blood cells, and the liver.
After an initial infection, herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) migrates to the __________, where it becomes latent.
trigeminal nerve
The tetanospasmin toxin blocks normal inhibition while botulinum toxin blocks normal stimulation.
true
Your have a patient who is displaying the following signs and symptoms: fever, coughing blood-tinged sputum, and fatigue. You have a suspicion that he is suffering from ____________ and suggest to perform _____________ of his sputum
tuberculosis; acid-fast staining
Campylobacter jejuni infections are commonly associated with __________.
undercooked poultry or poultry juices
Tissue damage to the GI system can be assessed using:
upper and lower GI endoscopy.
Escherichia coli is implicated in foodborne infections and all of the following infections
urinary tract infections. bacteremia. meningitis.
To reduce the chances of bacterial meningitis, the CDC recommends what actions be taken for military recruits and college freshman?
vaccinations for meningococcus
Which virus results in shingles when it is reactivated with peripheral nerves?
varicella-zoster
The two lower chambers of the heart are the __________.
ventricles
A ___________ is a small, elevated lesion filled with clear fluid.
vesicle
All of the following describe the first stage of dengue infection
viremia. nausea and vomiting. fever and body aches.
Jaundice is a clinical indicator of __________ due to viruses infecting the __________.
yellow fever; liver
All forms of the plague are caused by:
yersinia pestis.
The demographic most at risk from respiratory syncytial virus are
young children.
