Module 6 Review

When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:

100′ past the scene on the same side of the road

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? A) Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B) Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. C) Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. D) Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.

A) Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.

What two medications do DuoDote Auto-Injectors contain? A) Atropine and 2-PAM chloride B) Atropine and epinephrine C) Epinephrine and 2-PAM chloride D) Lidocaine and atropine

A) Atropine and 2-PAM chloride

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? A) Chlamydia B) Ovarian cysts C) Genital herpes D) Ectopic pregnancy

A) Chlamydia

Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? A) Hydrogen cyanide B) Phosgene oxime C) Organophosphates D) Carbon monoxide

A) Hydrogen cyanide

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? A) Sight and sound B) Sound and smell C) Smell and sight D) Sight and touch

A) Sight and sound

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: A) cleaning. B) disinfection. C) sterilization. D) high-level disinfection.

A) cleaning.

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. A) complex access B) simple access C) vehicle stabilization D) incident management

A) complex access

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: A) defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B) protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control. C) a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. D) rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

A) defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received.

You are attending to a 66-year-old male patient in cardiac arrest. As you gather history and begin the resuscitation, an Advanced Life Support (ALS) provider arrives on scene. You should: A) ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side. B) stay focused on the resuscitation and allow the ALS provider to make his or her own assessment. C) pause the resuscitation and provide a patient care report as quickly as possible. D) . continue the resuscitation and provide a patient care report while you work.

A) ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A) has gathered patient history information. B) has obtained a complete set of vital signs. C) ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. D) has formed a general impression of the patient.

A) has gathered patient history information.

The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: A) is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. B) should be performed by the most experienced EMT. C) is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. D) determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.

A) is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: A) limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. B) performed in the presence of at least two police officers. C) as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. D) deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.

A) limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: A) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. B) facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C) prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. D) educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.

A) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. A) remain outside the danger (hot) zone B) enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only C) stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone D) relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient

A) remain outside the danger (hot) zone

When driving with lights and siren, you are _____ that drivers yield the right-of-way. A) requesting B) demanding C) offering D) None of these answers are correct.

A) requesting

When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use: A) road flares. B) reflective vests. C) portable floodlights. D) intermittent flashing devices.

A) road flares.

The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: A) skin. B) nervous system. C) vascular system. D) respiratory tract.

A) skin.

A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A) smallpox. B) sarin toxicity. C) yellow fever virus. D) cutaneous anthrax.

A) smallpox.

The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is: A. beta. B. alpha. C. gamma. D. neutron.

B. alpha.

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: A) the patient had a reported syncopal episode. B) she should contact the EMR about the incident. C) the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode. D) there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode.

A) the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

Abruptio placenta occurs when: A) the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B) a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. C) the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. D) the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.

A) the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

A drip set that delivers 1 mL for every ____ drops will allow for the MOST rapid delivery of intravenous fluid. A. 10 B. 15 C. 45 D. 60

A. 10

An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before: A. 20 weeks. B. 24 weeks. C. 26 weeks. D. 28 weeks.

A. 20 weeks.

When assisting ventilations in a newborn with a bag-valve mask, the rate is _____ breaths/min. A. 40 to 60 B. 35 to 45 C. 20 to 30 D. 30 to 50

A. 40 to 60

When arriving at the scene of a cave-in or trench collapse, response vehicles should be parked at least _____ away from the scene. A. 500 feet (152 m) B. 50 feet (15 m) C. 150 feet (46 m) D. 250 feet (76 m)

A. 500 feet (152 m)

Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is correct? A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part. B. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation. C. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting. D. Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.

A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease? A. A shuffling gait when walking B. Bright red blood in the urine C. A history of ectopic pregnancy D. Vaginal passage of blood clots

A. A shuffling gait when walking

_____ is defined as the ability to reach the patient. A. Access B. Rescue C. Extrication D. Disentanglement

A. Access

After assuming care of a cardiac arrest patient from an EMT, the paramedic should remember that: A. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum. B. the BLS care provided by the EMT are the "first steps" of ALS care. C. ALS interventions are the core interventions around which BLS care is provided. D. ALS interventions are fundamentally more critical than BLS interventions.

A. BLS efforts must continue throughout the patient care continuum.

Which of the following would you expect to encounter in a patient with moderate radiation toxicity? A. Hair loss and first-degree burns B. Nausea, dizziness, and headache C. Second- and third-degree burns D. White blood cell death and cancer

A. Hair loss and first-degree burns

Who has overall command of an emergency incident? A. Incident commander B. Safety officer C. Senior paramedic D. Medical director

A. Incident commander

Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? A. Level D protection B. Level C protection C. Level A protection D. Level B protection

A. Level D protection

According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who isnot breathing? A. Open the airway and reassess breathing status. B. Assign the patient in the "immediate" category. C. Ventilate the patient for 2 minutes and reassess. D. Triage the patient as "expectant" and move on.

A. Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

The EMT is assisting the paramedic with endotracheal intubation. A 7.0-mm endotracheal tube has been prepared, and the BVM and suction devices are immediately available. Which of the following additional pieces of equipment would be the MOST important to have available? A. Supraglottic airway device B. Automatic transport ventilator C. A properly sized cervical collar D. Another 7.0-mm endotracheal tube

A. Supraglottic airway device

Which of the following signs/symptoms is considered particularly significant in gynecological emergencies? A. Syncope B. Abdominal cramping C. Painful urination D. Vaginal bleeding

A. Syncope

A patient requires medication, but does not require additional fluids. The EMT would MOST likely be asked to prepare: A. a saline lock. B. a 250-mL bag of fluid. C. Microdrip tubing. D. Macrodrip tubing.

A. a saline lock.

Left untreated, _____ can lead to premature birth or low birth weight in pregnant women. A. bacterial vaginosis B. vaginal bleeding C. chlamydia D. gonorrhea

A. bacterial vaginosis

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in women who are: A. between 11 and 16 years of age. B. between 25 and 28 years of age. C. between 8 and 10 years of age. D. between 18 and 23 years of age.

A. between 11 and 16 years of age.

You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon arrival, you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, "Everyone is passing out!" You should: A. carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety. B. assist with the evacuation and begin triaging the patients. C. notify dispatch the state that a terrorist attack has occurred. D. contact the FBI immediately and report the current situation.

A. carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety.

You are attending to a 28-year-old female patient in labor. Her newborn baby boy has just been delivered, and you have dried and wrapped the newborn in a clean blanket. The umbilical cord has stopped pulsating. Based on this information, you should now: A. clamp the cord utilizing two clamps, placed approximately 6 inches from the newborn and 2 to 4 inches apart. B. clamp the cord, utilizing one clamp approximately 6 inches from the newborn and cut it on the maternal side of the clamp. C. pull the cord off of the newborn utilizing a consistent force and wrap in a clean towel. D. wrap the cord in a clean towel and transport mother and newborn together.

A. clamp the cord utilizing two clamps, placed approximately 6 inches from the newborn and 2 to 4 inches apart.

Most terrorist attacks are: A. covert. B. impulsive. C. unplanned. D. nuclear attacks.

A. covert.

Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles: A. cut grass. B. garlic. C. almonds. D. bleach.

A. cut grass.

To evaluate the scene for hazards and identify the number of patients, the EMT should first _____.- A. do a 360-degree walk B. around-interview witnesses C. ask law enforcement to search the scene D. photograph the accident scene

A. do a 360-degree walk

Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. emergency care provided at the scene. B. transport patient of patient to the hospital C. checking equipment of the ambulance D. transferring the patient to the ambulance

A. emergency care provided at the scene.

The primary duty of the triage division is to: A. ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment. B. communicate with the treatment division. C. begin basic treatment. D. establish zones for categorized patients.

A. ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.

As the first-arriving senior EMT at the scene of an incident, you should perform a scene size-up and then: A. establish command. B. begin the triage process. C. call for additional resources. D. quickly identify the walking wounded.

A. establish command.

Painful urination associated with burning and a yellowish discharge is associated with: A. gonorrhea. B. endometriosis. C. syphilis. D. chlamydia.

A. gonorrhea.

If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: A. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. B. quickly jerk the steering wheel. C. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth. D. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control.

A. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.

In the incident command system, organizational divisions may include sections, branches, divisions, and: A. groups. B. squads. C. platoons. D. teams.

A. groups.

In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant: A. has an even proportionately larger head. B. is often covered with excess vernix material. C. is one who is born before 38 weeks' gestation. D. retains heat better because of excess body hair.

A. has an even proportionately larger head.

As a woman approaches menopause: A. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. B. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. C. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. D. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly.

A. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.

_____ is a brownish-yellowish oily substance that is generally considered very persistent. A) Lewisite B) Phosgene oxime C) Sulfur mustard D) Vesicant

C) Sulfur mustard

In contrast to simple access, complex access: A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle. B. is a skill commonly taught to EMTs. C. does not involve the breaking of glass. D. often involves simply unlocking a door.

A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle.

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: A. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. B. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror. C. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. D. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible.

A. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance. B. assigning all patients a triage category. C. preparing all patients for transportation. D. continual assessment of critical patients.

A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance.

If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should: A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. B. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. C. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones. D. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.

A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.

You are attending to a patient who has fallen at a local sporting event. The patient appears to have sustained an injury to his lower left leg. You are met by a first responder at the scene who wishes to provide you with a patient care report. Your best course of action is to: A. maintain eye contact and listen to the report. B. ask the responder to wait and take their report after you have completed a primary survey. C. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient. D. ask the provider to hand you any documentation that they have and then move forward with patient care.

A. maintain eye contact and listen to the report.

A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should: A. maintain spinal immobilization as she is extricated. B. secure her with a short board or vest device. C. stabilize her condition before extrication begins. D. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.

A. maintain spinal immobilization as she is extricated.

Ambulances today are designed according to strict government regulations based on _____ standards. A. national B. state C. individual D. local

A. national

When you arrive at the scene where there is a potential for hazardous materials exposure: A. park your unit uphill of the scene. B. do not waste time waiting for the scene to be marked and protected. C. turn off your warning light. D. park your unit downhill of the scene.

A. park your unit uphill of the scene.

When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to: A. phosgene or chlorine. B. a vesicant agent. C. sarin or soman. D. a nerve agent.

A. phosgene or chlorine.

Pulmonary hemorrhage and inner ear damage are examples of _____ blast injuries. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. miscellaneous

A. primary

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the treatment supervisor? A. primary assessment B. secondary triage C. patient packaging D. communication with the medical branch director

A. primary assessment

Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound tachycardia. B. low birth weight. C. respiratory depression. D. premature delivery.

A. profound tachycardia.

Disentanglement involves: A. removing a patient from a dangerous position. B. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar. C. extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in. D. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle.

A. removing a patient from a dangerous position.

When driving with lights and siren, you are _____ that drivers yield the right-of-way. A. requesting B. demanding C. offering D. None of these answers are correct.

A. requesting

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: A. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. B. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. C. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging. D. become thick and spontaneously clot.

A. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.

When a female has reached menarche: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

A. she is capable of becoming pregnant.

While providing care to a patient, the EMT informs her partner that a shotgun is leaning against the wall in the corner of the room. In making this observation, the EMT has demonstrated: A. situational awareness. B. closed loop communication. C. crew resource management. D. constructive intervention.

A. situational awareness.

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: A. slow down and allow the driver to pass you. B. stop the ambulance and confront the driver. C. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. D. increase your speed to create more distance.

A. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

The EMT should perform a "rapid scan" to determine if the patient is __________ during the __________. A. stable or unstable; primary assessment B. breathing or not breathing; primary assessment C. complaining of vaginal bleeding; history taking D. pregnant; secondary assessment

A. stable or unstable; primary assessment

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A. surveying the area for hazards. B. gaining access to the patient(s). C. requesting additional resources. D. immediately beginning triage.

A. surveying the area for hazards.

During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because: A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit. B. the mother needs to be apprised of the situation. C. she may need emotional support during the delivery. D. mothers often need assisted ventilation during delivery.

A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit.

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I cannot remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: A. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. B. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say. C. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. D. the traumatic experience has created a mental block.

A. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident.

The term "bloody show" is defined as: A. the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous plug. B. mild vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 30 minutes after the onset of the second stage of the labor process. C. the normal amount of vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 24 hours following delivery of the baby and placenta. D. any volume of blood that is expelled from the vagina after the amniotic sac has ruptured and contractions have begun.

A. the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous plug.

The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: A. underestimating the logistics of the incident. B. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment. C. underutilizing personnel at the scene. D. unprepared to effectively manage the scene.

A. underestimating the logistics of the incident.

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: A. urinary bladder. B. fallopian tubes. C. uterus. D. ovaries.

A. urinary bladder.

You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to: A. use a bag-valve mask. B. perform mouth-to-mask ventilations. C. request a paramedic unit to intubate. D. perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations.

A. use a bag-valve mask.

The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n): A. violent religious group. B. extremist political group. C. single-issue terrorist group. D. group of domestic terrorists.

A. violent religious group.

The sperm typically fertilizes the egg in the _________. A.fallopian tube B. vagina C. uterus D. ovary

A.fallopian tube

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: A) is pregnant. B) is in shock. C) has an infection. D) has an ectopic pregnancy.

B) is in shock.

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: A) 7:53. B) 7:57. C) 7:59. D) 8:00.

B) 7:57.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? A) The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. B) PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. C) PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. D) The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.

B) PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? A) Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms. B) Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women. C) Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months of being infected. D) Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever.

B) Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women.

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A) The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred. B) Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. C) Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm. D) Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape.

B) Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis.

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? A) Vagina B) Uterus C) Cervix D) Perineum

B) Uterus

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: A) as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B) according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C) based on recommendations of the health department. D) in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.

B) according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A) regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B) alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. C) pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions. D) a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.

B) alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.

A disease vector is defined as: A) the spectrum of signs that define a disease. B) any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. C) the period of time between exposure and illness. D) the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread.

B) any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: A) break the window and unlock the door. B) ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C) request the rescue team to extricate him. D) use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

B) ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: A) perform a rapid secondary assessment. B) assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. C) assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D) perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

B) assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: A) engage the team member at once. B) discuss the problem after the call. C) contact the medical director at once. D) ignore the problem to avoid conflict.

B) discuss the problem after the call.

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. A) egg B) fallopian tubes C) abdomen D) cervix

B) fallopian tubes

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) face shields. B) hazardous materials gear. C) safety goggles. D) turnout gear.

B) hazardous materials gear.

Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as: A) using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. B) killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. C) removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants. D) destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.

B) killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: A) quickly gain access to the patient. B) observe the scene for safety hazards. C) determine if additional units are needed. D) carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

B) observe the scene for safety hazards.

At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls. A) logistics B) operations C) planning D) finance

B) operations

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. A) park as close to the incident as possible B) park at least 500 feet from the incident C) assist with the rescue operation D) determine if rescuers are operating safely

B) park at least 500 feet from the incident

In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: A) request the fire department at all scenes. B) perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene. C) use the information provided by dispatch. D) interview bystanders present at the scene.

B) perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene.

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: A) intrauterine bleeding. B) pulmonary embolism. C) acute pulmonary edema. D) spontaneous pneumothorax.

B) pulmonary embolism.

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: A) are far less infectious. B) respond to antibiotics. C) are usually not treatable. D) do not replicate in the body.

B) respond to antibiotics.

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: A) definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. B) secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. C) they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. D) all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.

B) secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: A) become thick and spontaneously clot. B) seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. C) attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. D) engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging.

B) seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): A) doomsday cult. B) single-issue group. C) violent religious group. D) extremist political group.

B) single-issue group.

Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: A) an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. B) the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. C) predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. D) performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew.

B) the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: A) the standard of care. B) the continuum of care. C) patient care advocacy. D) the scope of practice.

B) the continuum of care.

Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis typically include _________. A. blood associated with vaginal intercourse B. "fishy," foul-smelling discharge C. low back pain D. rectal pain and discharge

B. "fishy," foul-smelling discharge

You are requested out to County Road 93 for a vehicle collision at a rural area known for serious crashes. After driving with lights and sirens for nearly 20 minutes to reach the scene, you arrive at the intersection at the east end of the county. As you pull up, you see two pickup trucks crushed into a mass of twisted, smoking metal. A sheriff's deputy is shouting and waving you over to the passenger side door of one of the demolished trucks. You quickly look down all four roads leading to the scene and note that they are deserted as far as you can see. How would you ensure the proper control of traffic around this scene? A. Because the roads were deserted when you arrived, it is not a priority. B. Ask the law enforcement officer to control any traffic. C. Pull completely off the roadway and leave your red emergency lights flashing. D. Put out flares in a pattern that leads other vehicles safely around the involved vehicles.

B. Ask the law enforcement officer to control any traffic.

What two medications do DuoDote Auto-Injectors contain? A. Epinephrine and 2-PAM chloride B. Atropine and 2-PAM chloride C. Atropine and epinephrine D. Lidocaine and atropine

B. Atropine and 2-PAM chloride

Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? A. Rupture of the amniotic sac B. Crowning of the baby's head C. Irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes D. Expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

B. Crowning of the baby's head

Which of the following is the BEST example of gaining simple access to a patient? A. Using a pry bar to open a damaged door B. Entering a vehicle through an open window C. Breaking glass to gain access to the patient D. Removing the roof to access a critical patient

B. Entering a vehicle through an open window

Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? A. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250 feet from the scene. B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. C. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury. D. A trench deeper than 10 feet should be shored prior to entry.

B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.

Which of the following statements regarding transport of patients from a mass-casualty incident or disastersite is correct? A. Delayed-priority patients should be transported five at a time. B. Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time. C. Walking wounded patients should be taken to the closest hospitals. D. Patients who are in cardiac arrest should clearly be transported first.

B. Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time.

Which of the following is considered a priority when determining what needs to be done during the scene size-up? A. Notifying hospitals B. Incident stabilization C. Establishing operations D. Rescue operations

B. Incident stabilization

Which organ is most susceptible to pressure changes during an explosion? A. Kidney B. Lung C. Liver D. Heart

B. Lung

The six-pointed Star of Life emblem identifies vehicles that meet which of the following criteria? A. Are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT) B. Meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances C. Are operated federally certified ambulance operators D. Are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation

B. Meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. C. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. D. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.

B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? A. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months of being infected. B. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women. C. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever. D. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms.

B. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in both men and women.

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is NOT true? A. It enters the body through inhalation, cutaneous, and gastrointestinal routes. B. Pulmonary anthrax is associated with the lowest risk of death if left untreated. C. A vaccine is available to prevent anthrax infections. D. It is caused by a deadly bacterium that lies dormant in a spore.

B. Pulmonary anthrax is associated with the lowest risk of death if left untreated.

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A. Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm. B. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. C. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred. D. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape.

B. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis.

_____ is responsible for properly securing and stabilizing the vehicle and providing a safe entrance and access to the patient. A. The hazardous materials unit B. The rescue team C. Law enforcement D. The EMS service

B. The rescue team

Which of the following is the most important in protecting EMS providers during an extrication operation? A. The dispatch information B. The scene size-up C. The number of patients D. The availability of special operations personnel

B. The scene size-up

The most lethal of all the nerve agents is: A. sarin. B. V agent. C. soman. D. tabun.

B. V agent.

Premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus is known as: A. placenta previa. B. abruptio placenta. C. prolapsed cord. D. eclampsia.

B. abruptio placenta.

You are attending to an elderly female patient complaining of chest pain. The patient is in a public park and there are several bystanders. As you begin your assessment and provide the patient with oxygen, another unit arrives and one of the other EMTs tells you that you should "forget all that stuff and just take her to the hospital." Your best course of action would be to: A. inform the EMT that their comments are inappropriate and ask them to leave the scene. B. acknowledge the comment and request that they discuss this further after the call. C. ask the EMT to more fully explain his comment and present your rationale for the decisions that you are making. D. transport the patient immediately as per the EMT's instructions.

B. acknowledge the comment and request that they discuss this further after the call.

You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to: A. Ebola. B. anthrax. C. botulinum. D. a neurotoxin.

B. anthrax.

A weapon of mass destruction is MOST accurately defined as: A. a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location. B. any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructure damage. C. a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one country to another country. D. any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an effort to make a particular point.

B. any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructure damage.

Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: A. cause high fever. B. are not contagious. C. cause skin blistering. D. have a slow onset of symptoms.

B. are not contagious.

The process of using techniques and procedures to help ensure that pathogens are not introduced into the body during an invasive procedure is called: A. clean technique. B. aseptic technique. C. sterile technique. D. decontamination.

B. aseptic technique.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. assist her ventilations with a BVM. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

B. assist her ventilations with a BVM.

During a resuscitation attempt, the team leader asks the EMT to ventilate the patient at a rate of 20 breaths/min, and the EMT replies, "Actually, sir, the correct ventilation rate is 10 breaths/min." This is an example of: A. situational awareness. B. constructive intervention. C. closed loop communication. D. quality assurance monitoring.

B. constructive intervention.

A carboy is a container that would MOST likely be used to store and transport: A. explosives. B. corrosives. C. flammable liquids. D. combustible materials.

B. corrosives.

A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material.The tank ruptured and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to thedecontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should: A. decontaminate the patient as they would any other patient and then move him to the area where EMTs arewaiting. B. cut away all of the patient's clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter asthey can. C. defer the decontamination procedure and bring the patient directly to awaiting EMS personnel forimmediate treatment. D. request that EMS personnel don standard precautions, enter the warm zone, and begin immediate treatmentof the patient.

B. cut away all of the patient's clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter asthey can.

Tactical EMS providers are specially trained to function during _____. A. high-angle rescue operations B. dangerous law enforcement operations C. aircraft rescue and recovery operations D. swift-water rescue operations

B. dangerous law enforcement operations

You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you approach thescene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should: A. establish an incident command post until you are relieved of your duties. B. declare a mass-casualty incident and request additional resources. C. begin rapidly triaging all patients before requesting additional help. D. immediately move all ambulatory patients to a designated area.

B. declare a multiple-casualty incident and request additional resources.

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called: A. neutralization. B. decontamination. C. antidotal treatment. D. chemical containment.

B. decontamination.

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the IC would MOST likely: A. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions. B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions. C. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel. D. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene.

B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.

In dependent groups: A. each individual is responsible for his or her own area. B. each individual is told what to do by his or her supervisor or group leader. C. everyone works together with shared tasks D. individuals do not have to wait for their assignment before taking action.

B. each individual is told what to do by his or her supervisor or group leader.

If a pregnant patient requires spinal immobilization, you should secure her to the backboard and then: A. place a folded towel behind her head to make it easier to breathe. B. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets. C. raise the foot of the board 12 inches in order to maintain blood pressure. D. elevate the head of the board 6 inches to prevent breathing impairment.

B. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets.

The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to: A. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale mass-casualty incidents and to restore keyinfrastructure. B. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use ofresources. C. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity ofthe incident. D. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impactfrom such incidents.

B. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use ofresources.

When positioning a patient for endotracheal intubation, the EMT should: A. position the patient so that the chin is lower than the chest. B. ensure that the patient's ear canal is level with the sternal notch. C. flex the patient's head forward in order to align the airway structures. D. place a folded towel under the patient's shoulders and tilt the head back.

B. ensure that the patient's ear canal is level with the sternal notch.

Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag; immediate) include all of thefollowing, EXCEPT: A. severe medical problems. B. fractures of multiple long bones. C. any airway or breathing difficulty. D. uncontrolled or severe hemorrhage.

B. fractures of multiple long bones.

As the first-arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then: A. remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene. B. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive. C. direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control. D. carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices.

B. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.

Team leaders: A. should make strong decisions in isolation and accept no input from team members. B. help individual team members to do their jobs and also work together. C. work to accomplish their individual goals and results. D. should be the only member concerned with situational awareness.

B. help individual team members to do their jobs and also work together.

While preparing to intubate a patient, the paramedic asks the EMT to perform apneic oxygenation of the patient. This means that: A. the EMT should ventilate the patient faster just before intubation. B. high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula is provided during intubation. C. the EMT should slow the ventilation rate down just before intubation. D. all oxygen should be discontinued until the patient has been intubated.

B. high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula is provided during intubation.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: A. give five rescue breaths and reassess. B. immediately check for a pulse. C. triage him or her as expectant. D. open the airway and reassess breathing.

B. immediately check for a pulse.

A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20 feet from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. C. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device. D. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.

B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him.

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. A) 24-hour B) 48-hour C) 72-hour D) 96-hour

C) 72-hour

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. determine the underlying cause of her problem. B. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay. C. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. D. ask questions related to her gynecologic history.

B. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.

CPR is in progress on a pulseless and apneic 29-year-old woman who is 37 weeks pregnant. When treating this patient, the EMT should: A. deliver a compression rate of 120 to 140 per minute. B. manually displace the patient's uterus to the left. C. avoid defibrillation because it may harm the fetus. D. perform compressions slightly lower on the sternum.

B. manually displace the patient's uterus to the left.

A patient with vaginal bleeding _________. A. will have profound and obvious signs of shock B. may not have obvious signs of shock even if she has experienced significant blood loss C. may want to stand, rather than sit or lie on the stretcher D. will have a weak and rapid pulse but not pale or diaphoretic skin

B. may not have obvious signs of shock even if she has experienced significant blood loss

You are attending to a 26-year-old female patient who is at 37 weeks' gestation with her second pregnancy. The patient is in labor and delivery is imminent. The patient is on your stretcher. You should now: A. move the stretcher to the ambulance and transport immediately. B. open the OB kit and continue to prepare for the delivery. C. encourage the patient to push. D. hold the patient's legs together until you are ready for the delivery.

B. open the OB kit and continue to prepare for the delivery.

You are attending to an unresponsive trauma patient who was the driver of a vehicle involved in a motor vehicle collision. As you extricate the patient and immobilize her with a cervical collar and backboard, an Advanced Life Support (ALS) provider arrives on scene and the transfer of care is made. The decision is made to intubate the patient; however, the ALS provider cannot visualize the vocal cords and asks you to open the collar. Based on this information, you should: A. inform the ALS provider that you cannot remove the collar as it is required for immobilization and presents a risk to the patient. B. open the collar and maintain cervical spine immobilization as required. C. inform the ALS provider that this is outside your scope of practice. D. open the collar and remove any restraints.

B. open the collar and maintain cervical spine immobilization as required.

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? A) Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates. B) Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate. C) Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form. D) There is presently no vaccine against anthrax.

C) Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form.

You are attending to a 34-year-old female patient in labor. The pregnancy was a difficult one, and she spent much of the third trimester on bed rest. The delivery is uneventful, and as you are preparing for transport, the patient tells you that she is feeling short of breath. Based on this information, you should suspect: A. postpartum hemorrhage. B. pulmonary embolism. C. delayed delivery of the placenta. D. multiple gestation.

B. pulmonary embolism.

Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should: A. give the mother high-flow oxygen and transport at once. B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose. C. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital. D. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.

B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose.

A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can: A. evaporate quickly when left on a surface. B. remain on a surface for more than 24 hours. C. explode without warning and releases gases. D. remain in the environment for many weeks.

B. remain on a surface for more than 24 hours.

You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state, "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should: A. notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility. B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you. C. immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located. D. locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance.

B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.

Most terrorist attacks: A. occur within the continental United States. B. require multiple terrorists working together. C. involve the use of nuclear explosive devices. D. are carried out by fewer than three people.

B. require multiple terrorists working together.

If the paramedic's intubation attempt is unsuccessful, the EMT should: A. prepare a supraglottic airway device. B. resume ventilation with a BVM. C. suction the patient's airway for 15 seconds. D. place a folded towel under the patient's head.

B. resume ventilation with a BVM.

Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include: A. dry mouth, dilated pupils, and headache. B. salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea. C. hypertension and severe pulmonary edema. D. tachycardia, flushed skin, and unequal pupils.

B. salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea.

Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. body aches. B. skin blisters. C. high fever. D. headaches.

B. skin blisters.

The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A. report to a location where the patient will be carried. B. stand by at the command post until the person is located. C. direct the search effort from a centralized location. D. accompany search team members and provide care.

B. stand by at the command post until the person is located.

After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then: A. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook. B. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others. C. not allow anyone within 25 feet to 50 feet of the incident scene. D. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients.

B. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others.

You are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision with a critical trauma patient, and there are several EMS providers present. A system of Crew Resource Management (CRM) allows for: A. all team members to accomplish their roles without the burden of communication. B. the team leader to listen to critical information and incorporate it into his or her decision-making. C. team members to ignore the chain of command when decisions must be made. D. the team leader to listen to all feedback from all team members.

B. the team leader to listen to critical information and incorporate it into his or her decision-making.

Assisting with endotracheal intubation may include: A. visualization of the vocal cords. B. ventilation and preoxygenation. C. providing deep suctioning via the ET tube. D. inserting a supraglottic airway should the intubation attempt be unsuccessful.

B. ventilation and preoxygenation.

The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: A. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene. B. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash. C. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. D. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.

B. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.

An infant is considered to be premature if it: A. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb. B. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation. C. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb. D. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation.

B. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team: A. works independently. B. works interdependently. C. is not assigned specific roles. D. does not function under protocols.

B. works interdependently.

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?

Bleeding control supplies

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

C) 300

Which of the following occurs during true labor? A) Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. B) The uterus becomes very soft and movable. C) Uterine contractions become more regular. D) Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.

C) Uterine contractions become more regular.

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: A) bystanders may destroy the evidence. B) weather conditions may change quickly. C) a secondary explosive device may detonate. D) terrorists are often at the scene after an attack.

C) a secondary explosive device may detonate.

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: A) administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B) administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. C) administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. D) assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport.

C) administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: A) only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B) after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C) after receiving approval from the incident commander. D) only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.

C) after receiving approval from the incident commander.

Advanced airway management techniques should performed ONLY after: A) the patient is assessed as being apneic. B) the patient has been delivered to the hospital. C) basic airway techniques have been completed. D) the upper airway has been thoroughly suctioned.

C) basic airway techniques have been completed.

Hyperventilation during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation: A) will decrease the likelihood of aspiration. B) is acceptable if done for fewer than 2 minutes. C) can cause gastric distention and hypotension. D) provides a better oxygen reserve for the patient.

C) can cause gastric distention and hypotension.

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: A) retrieve all critical patients. B) rope off the entire perimeter. C) carefully assess the situation. D) divert traffic away from the scene.

C) carefully assess the situation.

The umbilical cord: A) separates from the placenta shortly after birth. B) carries blood away from the baby via the artery. C) carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. D) contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.

C) carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.

Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge? A) chlamydia B) gonorrhea C) genital herpes D) PID

C) genital herpes

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: A) limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. B) treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C) grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. D) perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.

C) grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: A) is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. B) should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. C) has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person. D) should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out.

C) has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

You are attending to a 68-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. An ALS provider arrives shortly after you do and the transfer of care is made. The ALS provider asks that you assist in the endotracheal intubation. As part of this process, you may be required to: A) ventilate and preoxygenate the patient but not handle any of the equipment required for the intubation. B) visualize the airway and look for any potential complications in advance of the intubation. C) help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure. D) perform the intubation with assistance.

C) help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure.

What is typically the most important intervention that an EMT can provide to the victim of sexual assault? A. Control of vaginal bleeding B. Calling for ALS personnel C. Comfort and reassurance D. High-flow oxygen therapy

C. Comfort and reassurance

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A) begin triage to determine injury severity. B) call medical control for further direction. C) immediately request additional resources. D) request law enforcement for traffic control.

C) immediately request additional resources.

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: A) dependently. B) independently. C) interdependently. D) under standing orders.

C) interdependently.

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: A) stop signs. B) stop lights. C) intersections. D) railroad crossings.

C) intersections.

After spiking a bag of IV fluid for the paramedic, the EMT notices that the drip chamber is too full. The EMT should: A) let the IV flow rapidly for 20 to 30 seconds. B) replace the administration set with a new one. C) invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber. D) squeeze the IV bag to force fluid into the tubing.

C) invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber.

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: A) they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. B) they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. C) it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. D) they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.

C) it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: A) focus on the patients who are unconscious. B) scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. C) move all walking patients to a designated area. D) get a quick head count of all the patients involved.

C) move all walking patients to a designated area.

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) suctioning of the upper airway. B) thorough drying with a towel. C) positive-pressure ventilations. D) some form of tactile stimulation.

C) positive-pressure ventilations.

Extrication is defined as: A) using heavy equipment to access a patient. B) dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. C) removal from a dangerous situation or position. D) immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.

C) removal from a dangerous situation or position.

Assisting with vascular access may include: A) visualization of the vocal cords. B) inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle. C) spiking the IV bag. D) ensuring that the equipment is handled only by the ALS provider and not by you.

C) spiking the IV bag.

The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident. A) triage B) support C) staging D) transportation

C) staging

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the: A) uterus. B) ovaries. C) urinary bladder. D) fallopian tubes.

C) urinary bladder.

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: A) the type of call. B) the location type. C) weather conditions. D) victim's statements.

C) weather conditions.

Menstrual flow will typically last approximately _________. A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 1 week D. 1 month

C. 1 week

A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth. A. 3 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 15 to 30 D. 30 to 60

C. 15 to 30

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. A. 200 B. 400 C. 300 D. 100

C. 300

Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? A. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped B. A patient found floating face down in a swimming pool C. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space D. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance

C. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space

Which of the following definitions of a mass-casualty incident is correct? A. Any situation that meets the demand of equipment or personnel B. Any call that involves at least one motor vehicle C. Any call that involves three or more patients D. Any incident that does not require mutual aid response

C. Any call that involves three or more patients

You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? A. Allow the mother to hold her baby. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Check the pulse rate at the brachial artery. D. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing.

C. Check the pulse rate at the brachial artery.

Which of the following terrorist groups poses the LEAST threat to a person's physical safety? A. Doomsday cults B. Single-issue groups C. Cyber terrorists D. Extremist political groups

C. Cyber terrorists

______________ may be a cause of vaginal bleeding in a patient who states that she is NOT pregnant. A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Hypotension C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Menopause

C. Ectopic pregnancy

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? A. Upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding B. Pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness C. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. Left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever

C. Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge

Which of the following is NOT performed immediately following delivery of the infant? A. Wrap the infant in a towel and place it on one side with head lowered. B. Use a sterile gauze pad to wipe the infant's mouth, then suction again. C. Obtain an Apgar score. D. Be sure the head is covered and keep the neck in a neutral position.

C. Obtain an Apgar score.

_____ is a brownish-yellowish oily substance that is generally considered very persistent. A. Lewisite B. Phosgene oxime C. Sulfur mustard D. Vesicant

C. Sulfur mustard

Which of the following processes occurs immediately following ovulation? A. Certain female hormone levels decrease significantly in quantity. B. The endometrium sheds its lining and is expelled from the vagina. C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation. D. Numerous follicles mature and release eggs into the fallopian tubes.

C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation.

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital? A. Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report. B. Clearly identifying your EMS certification level. C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format. D. Providing the handoff report only to a physician.

C. Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin. C. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. D. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions.

C. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.

The skin lesions associated with smallpox: A. initially form on the lower trunk. B. are of different shapes and sizes. C. are identical in their development. D. develop early during the disease.

C. are identical in their development.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: A. assign an immediate category. B. look for posturing. C. assess for a distal pulse. D. assess neurologic status.

C. assess for a distal pulse.

Rescuers have brought you a patient rescued from a structural collapse. You should immediately _____. A. notify the incident commander B. contact medical direction C. begin a rapid assessment D. transport the patient

C. begin a rapid assessment

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine. B. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses.

C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina.

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes: A. discipline. B. competition. C. collaboration. D. rigid protocols.

C. collaboration.

At the scene of a sexual assault, the EMT should attempt to preserve evidence by ___________. A. avoid direct, physical contact with the patient B. discouraging the patient from speaking with anyone other than EMS or Law Enforcement C. discouraging the patient from removing clothes, using the bathroom, or showering D. All of these answers are correct

C. discouraging the patient from removing clothes, using the bathroom, or showering

In order for a team to function effectively: A. all members are trained to the same level. B. only one member of the team speaks and provides direction. C. each member knows what is expected of him or her. D. team member remains committed to their individual goals.

C. each member knows what is expected of him or her.

After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: A. an urge to push. B. a bloated feeling. C. easier breathing. D. mid-back pain.

C. easier breathing.

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. restocking any disposable items you used. B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. C. giving a verbal report to the clerk. D. completing a detailed written report.

C. giving a verbal report to the clerk.

A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who: A. are younger than 30 years of age. B. are pregnant for the first time. C. have delivered a baby before. D. have gestational diabetes.

C. have delivered a baby before.

If there are downed power lines near a vehicle involved in a crash, you should: A. have the patient slowly exit the vehicle. B. touch the power lines with an object to see if there is active electricity. C. have the patient remain in the vehicle. D. attempt to move the power lines yourself.

C. have the patient remain in the vehicle.

The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is: A. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure. B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome. C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. D. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash.

C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

The term primigravida refers to a woman who: A. has never been pregnant. B. has had only one live birth. C. is pregnant for the first time. D. has had more than one live baby.

C. is pregnant for the first time.

Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should: A. turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake. B. park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene. C. leave only the essential warning lights activated. D. turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights.

C. leave only the essential warning lights activated.

The most common presenting sign of pelvic inflammatory disease is: A. nausea and vomiting. B. fever. C. lower abdominal pain. D. vaginal discharge.

C. lower abdominal pain.

If fertilization has not occurred in approximately 14 days postovulation: A. the ovum will begin to travel to the uterus. B. another egg will be released. C. menstruation will begin. D. All of these answers are correct.

C. menstruation will begin.

In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: A. request the fire department at all scenes. B. interview bystanders present at the scene. C. perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene. D. use the information provided by dispatch.

C. perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene.

Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: A. vaccine. B. detergent. C. pesticide. D. antibiotic.

C. pesticide.

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should: A. position her supine and elevate her legs 12 inches. B. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. C. place her in a left lateral recumbent position. D. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina.

C. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.

The concept of continuum of care is best demonstrated when: A. providers complete their responsibilities and then pass the patient on to the next level of care. B. providers fulfill their individual responsibilities for patient care. C. providers work as a unified team. D. providers share all responsibilities for all aspects of patient care.

C. providers work as a unified team.

When introduced into the body, ricin causes: A. intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis. B. enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain. C. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. D. necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction.

C. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure.

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: A. use your public address system to alert the driver. B. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. C. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass. D. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side.

C. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive.Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should: A. transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center. B. direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport. C. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives. D. assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.

C. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: A. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. B. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. C. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. D. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.

C. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.

Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: A. high levels of protein in the patient's urine. B. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy. C. seizures that result from severe hypertension. D. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.

C. seizures that result from severe hypertension.

Chlamydia, bacterial vaginosis, and gonorrhea are all examples of _________. A. "women's conditions" B. diseases that can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes C. sexually transmitted diseases D. causes of vaginal bleeding

C. sexually transmitted diseases

According to the JumpSTART triage system, infants or children not developed enough to walk or followcommands, including children with special needs: A. are treated immediately in the primary triage area and then transported. B. are initially triaged on the basis of whether or not they have distal pulses. C. should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage. D. are the first to be transported, regardless of the severity of their injuries.

C. should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage.

The ambulance inspection should include checks of: A) fuel level. B) brake fluid. C) wheels and tires. D) All of these answers are correct.

D) All of these answers are correct.

A critical function of the safety officer is to: A. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident. B. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety. C. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger. D. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim.

C. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.

Once the infant's head has been delivered: A. suction the infant's nose, and then the mouth. B. apply oxygen over the mother's vagina. C. suction the infant's mouth, then the nose. D. apply a nasal cannula at 3 L/min to the infant.

C. suction the infant's mouth, then the nose.

As you and your team removing an unresponsive patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has closed deformities to both her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should: A. realign the deformed extremities before continuing. B. splint the deformities before moving her any further. C. support the injured extremities and continue removal. D. assess distal neurovascular functions in her extremities.

C. support the injured extremities and continue removal.

Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: A. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. B. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. C. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. D. performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew.

C. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.

When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. B. the possibility of vehicle instability. C. the make and model of the vehicle. D. the position of the crashed vehicle.

C. the make and model of the vehicle.

A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless: A. he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma. B. he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine. C. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her. D. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest.

C. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her.

The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. A. triage B. treatment C. transportation D. medical

C. transportation

The reasons for rescue failure can be referred to by the mnemonic FAILURE. In this mnemonic the "U" stands for: A. underutilizing personnel at the scene. B. unprepared to effectively manage the scene. C. underestimating the logistics of the incident. D. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment.

C. underestimating the logistics of the incident.

During the transfer of patient care: A. any lifesaving care should be completed quickly and only the relevant documentation of care need be transferred. B. any lifesaving care should be done first and then any patient care reports can be done after the patient is transported. C. when possible, the team member giving the patient care report should hand off lifesaving care. D. both the team members giving and receiving the patient care report should focus on their own priorities.

C. when possible, the team member giving the patient care report should hand off lifesaving care.

Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways

Fallopian tubes

Connect(s) each ovary with the uterus

When looking at ECG graph paper, one large box represents: A) 0.04 seconds. B) 0.08 seconds. C) 0.12 seconds. D) 0.20 seconds

D) 0.20 seconds

The Microdrip administration delivers 1 mL of fluid for every ____ drops. A) 10 B) 15 C) 45 D) 60

D) 60

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. A) 5; 50 lb B) 6; 70 lb C) 7; 90 lb D) 8; 100 lb

D) 8; 100 lb

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? A) Ectopic pregnancy B) Vaginal trauma C) Spontaneous abortion D) All of these answers are correct.

D) All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? A) An incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients B) An incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials C) An incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured D) An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources

D) An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? A) Triage B) Transport C) Treatment D) Extrication

D) Extrication

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Incorrect Response A) Visualization of the vocal cords B) Placement of the endotracheal tube C) Suction under direct laryngoscopy Correct Answer D) Preoxygenation with a BVM

D) Preoxygenation with a BVM

Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: A) an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord. B) nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly. C) the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis. D) a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.

D) a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.

Botulinum is: A) an acute viral infection. B) a disease of the leukocytes. C) rarely associated with death. D) a potent bacterial neurotoxin.

D) a potent bacterial neurotoxin.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A) preeclampsia. B) placenta previa. C) gestational diabetes. D) an ectopic pregnancy.

D) an ectopic pregnancy.

The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: A) womb. B) cervix. C) fundus. D) birth canal.

D) birth canal.

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: A) accountability. B) lack of personnel. C) incident briefing. D) communications.

D) communications.

The purpose of a jump kit is to: A) facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. B) manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. C) carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. D) contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

D) contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

In order for a team to function effectively: A) all members are trained to the same level. B) only one member of the team speaks and provides direction. C) team member remains committed to their individual goals. D) each member knows what is expected of him or her.

D) each member knows what is expected of him or her.

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: A) nuclear weapons. B) chemical weapons. C) biologic weapons. D) explosive weapons.

D) explosive weapons.

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: A) advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. B) broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. C) provide specific information about the chemical being carried. D) give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.

D) give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.

If there are downed power lines near a vehicle involved in a crash, you should: A) attempt to move the power lines yourself. B) touch the power lines with an object to see if there is active electricity. C) have the patient slowly exit the vehicle. D) have the patient remain in the vehicle.

D) have the patient remain in the vehicle.

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: A) remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B) driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. C) driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. D) keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

D) keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

The most common presenting sign of pelvic inflammatory disease is: A) vaginal discharge. B) fever. C) nausea and vomiting. D) lower abdominal pain.

D) lower abdominal pain.

Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: A) two weeks after her last menstrual cycle. B) on the last day of her last menstrual cycle. C) two weeks before her last menstrual cycle. D) on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.

D) on the first day of her last menstrual cycle.

When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to: A) a nerve agent. B) sarin or soman. C) a vesicant agent. D) phosgene or chlorine.

D) phosgene or chlorine.

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: A) ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. B) allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. C) advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes. D) place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

D) place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: A) elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. B) administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport. C) insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D) place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.

D) place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: A) use your public address system to alert the driver. B) quickly pass the vehicle on the left side. C) pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. D) remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

D) remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. A) locate the safety officer B) stay with the incident commander C) assess firefighters for signs of fatigue D) remain with the ambulance

D) remain with the ambulance

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: A) end of one to the start of the next. B) start of one to the end of the next. C) end of one to the end of the next. D) start of one to the start of the next.

D) start of one to the start of the next.

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: A) pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B) back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C) slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D) stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

D) stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A) gaining access to the patient(s). B) requesting additional resources. C) immediately beginning triage. D) surveying the area for hazards.

D) surveying the area for hazards.

The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. A) triage B) medical C) treatment D) transportation

D) transportation

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. A) assist in the search on foot B) direct other incoming EMS units C) assume medical command D) wait at the staging area until the patient is located

D) wait at the staging area until the patient is located

Determine the Apgar score in the following scenario: You arrive at the scene of a home delivery. Upon entering the scene, the father appears upset and hands you a limp baby. The child has a weak cry, is completely cyanotic, and has a pulse of 70 beats/min. Respirations are slow. A. 9 B. 2 C. 7 D. 3

D. 3

The ambulance inspection should include checks of: A. fuel level. B. brake fluid. C. wheels and tires. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

You respond to a multiple-vehicle collision. You and your partner are reviewing dispatch information en route to the scene. You will be at a major intersection of two state highways. As you approach the scene, you review the guidelines for sizing up the scene. The guidelines include: A. looking for safety hazards. B. evaluating the need for additional units or other assistance. C. evaluating the need to stabilize the spine. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining how to protect oneself against the effects of radiation? A. Time B. Distance C. Shielding D. Body size

D. Body size

What should be done for any type of alternative-fuel vehicle that is involved in an accident? A. Drain the fuel. B. Apply fire retardant to the engine compartment. C. Leave the engine in neutral during rescue operations. D. Disconnect the battery.

D. Disconnect the battery.

_____ is heralded by the onset of convulsions, or seizures, resulting from severe hypertension in the pregnant woman. A. Abruptio placenta B. Placenta previa C. Supine hypotensive syndrome D. Eclampsia

D. Eclampsia

Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? A. Organophosphates B. Carbon monoxide C. Phosgene oxime D. Hydrogen cyanide

D. Hydrogen cyanide

What is (are) the primary female reproductive organ(s) called? A. Uterine tubes B. Uterus C. Vagina D. Ovaries

D. Ovaries

Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. As pregnancy progresses, the uterus enlarges and rises out of the pelvis. B. Gestational diabetes will clear up in most women after delivery. C. Some cultures may not permit male EMTs to examine a female patient. D. The leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy.

D. The leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy.

Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? A. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. B. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. C. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.

D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.

Which of the following is an example of closed loop communication? A. The EMT requests permission from medical control to assist a patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin. B. EMTs decide not to attempt resuscitation because the patient has rigor mortis and is cold to the touch. C. The EMT corrects the team leader, who states that chest compressions should be greater than 3 inches deep. D. The team leader assigns the EMT a task and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader.

D. The team leader assigns the EMT a task and the EMT repeats the request back to the team leader.

According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)? A. Apneic, despite manually opening the airway B. Conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min C. Conscious, in severe pain, with radial pulses present D. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min

D. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min

Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of: A. the federal government to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism. B. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team. C. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel. D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

Cross-contamination occurs when: A. an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated. B. two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. C. an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. D. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

D. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

A disease vector is defined as: A. the spectrum of signs that define a disease. B. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread. C. the period of time between exposure and illness. D. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.

D. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.

Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should: A. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation. B. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle. C. set up a staging area where firefighters can be treated if necessary. D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.

D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.

You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eightpeople. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient thatyou triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse isweak and thready. You should: A. assess the severity of her open head injury. B. place a red tag on her and continue triaging. C. begin ventilating her with a bag-mask device. D. assign her a low priority and continue triaging.

D. assign her a low priority and continue triaging.

The third stage of labor begins when the: A. placenta is fully delivered. B. cervix is completely dilated. C. umbilical cord has been clamped. D. baby is expelled from the vagina.

D. baby is expelled from the vagina.

Exposure to _____ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress. A. tabun B. soman C. lewisite D. chlorine

D. chlorine

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: A. incident briefing. B. accountability. C. lack of personnel. D. communications.

D. communications.

The purpose of a jump kit is to: A. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. B. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. C. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. D. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

D. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

You are at the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. In order for the resuscitation team to work successfully: A. all providers are trained to the same level. B. only one member of the team speaks and provides direction. C. team members remain committed to their individual goals. D. each provider knows what is expected of him or her.

D. each provider knows what is expected of him or her.

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. vagina. B. uterus. C. cervix. D. fallopian tube.

D. fallopian tube.

Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include: A. liver necrosis and diarrhea. B. dehydration and convulsions. C. joint pain and bradycardia. D. fever and headache.

D. fever and headache.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. has formed a general impression of the patient. B. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. C. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. D. has gathered patient history information.

D. has gathered patient history information.

A pediatric patient who is breathing 12 breaths/min would be categorized as: A. expectant. B. delayed. C. minimal. D. immediate.

D. immediate.

You are organizing a group of EMTs to provide triage in a mass-casualty exercise. In order for the group to be successful, it is essential that: A. individual goals are accomplished. B. all individuals have the same roles. C. individuals see this as a one-time exercise and that the group may change. D. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals.

D. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals.

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: A. under standing orders. B. dependently. C. independently. D. interdependently.

D. interdependently.

The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: A. should be performed by the most experienced EMT. B. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. C. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone. D. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.

D. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she: A. is pregnant. B. has an ectopic pregnancy. C. has an infection. D. is in shock.

D. is in shock.

In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: A. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status. B. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries. C. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable. D. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.

D. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.

When prioritizing care for the victim of a sexual assault, the EMT should focus on _________ first. A. preserving evidence B. relaying the patient's account of the event to law enforcement C. soft-tissue injuries D. life-threatening injuries

D. life-threatening injuries

General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include: A. parking the ambulance in a location that is upwind and downhill. B. taking standard precautions before entering any HazMat scene. C. asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind. D. maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.

D. maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: A. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. B. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes. C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. D. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms.

D. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms.

Upon arrival at an active law enforcement incident, the EMT should _____. A. look for the suspect(s) B. enter the hot zone C. set up a treatment area D. notify the incident commander

D. notify the incident commander

The EMT's primary responsibility during a rescue or extrication situation is _____. A. incident command B. documentation C. crowd control D. patient care

D. patient care

Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: A. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery. B. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding. C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection. D. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.

D. pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.

If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the incident commander should consider: A. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established. B. requesting a second incident commander to assist him or her. C. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions. D. relinquishing command to someone with more experience.

D. relinquishing command to someone with more experience.

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: A. apprise medical control of the tactical situation. B. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. C. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. D. report to the incident commander for instructions.

D. report to the incident commander for instructions.

A Level 4 hazardous material: A. causes temporary damage or injury unless prompt medical care is provided. B. requires protective gear to ensure that no part of the skin's surface is exposed. C. is mildly toxic but still requires the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). D. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

D. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT: A. pneumonic plague. B. smallpox. C. viral hemorrhagic fevers. D. ricin.

D. ricin.

Assisting with vascular access may include: A. inserting the needle at a 45-degree angle. B. visualization of the vocal cords. C. ensuring that the equipment is handled only by the ALS provider and not by you. D. spiking the IV bag.

D. spiking the IV bag.

The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident. A. transportation B. triage C. support D. staging

D. staging

Lighting at a scene, establishing a tool and equipment area, and marking for a helicopter landing all fall under: A. EMS operations. B. logistics operations. C. law enforcement. D. support operations.

D. support operations.

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, "Why even splint the patient's leg if they're only going to remove it in the ED?" This statement indicates that: A. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff. B. the patient's leg does not require splinting. C. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking. D. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

D. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal.

The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are: A. the bill of lading. B. your local EMS protocols. C. the material safety data sheet (MSDS). D. the Emergency Response Guidebook.

D. the Emergency Response Guidebook.

A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that: A. you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire. B. cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire. C. rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first. D. the battery has higher voltage than a traditional vehicle battery.

D. the battery has higher voltage than a traditional vehicle battery.

Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. liaison officer. B. safety officer. C. public information officer D. triage officer.

D. triage officer.

Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: A. place a flare near the crash. B. quickly access the patient. C. turn all warning lights off. D. turn your headlights off.

D. turn your headlights off.

The MOST appropriate location to park your ambulance at a HazMat incident is: A. downwind at least 200′ from the scene. B. downhill at least 100′ from the incident. C. uphill at least 25′ from the incident site. D. upwind at least 100′ from the incident.

D. upwind at least 100′ from the incident.

The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired result, is called: A. potentiation. B. alkalization. C. dissemination. D. weaponization.

D. weaponization.

Medivac

Medical evacuation of a patient by helicopter

Uterus

Muscular organ(s) where the fetus grows

Cervix

Narrowest portion(s) of the uterus; opens to the vagina

Vagina

Outer most cavity of a woman's reproductive system; forms the lower part of the birth canal

Ovaries

Produce(s) an ovum, or an egg

Disinfection

The killing of pathogenic agents by direct application of chemicals

Cleaning

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants

Sterilization

The process of removing microbial contamination

Emergency mode

The use of lights and sirens

Placenta

Tissue that develops on the wall of the uterus and is connected to the fetus

In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when:

a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:

a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers

When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should:

approach the aircraft from the downhill side

Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:

at least one EMT

While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to:

carefully exceed the posted speed limit

Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as:

killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.

Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT:

obtaining additional information from the dispatcher

When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to:

place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:

remain in the extreme left lane

When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use:

road flares

It is 10:30 pm and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should:

survey the area for power lines or other hazards

After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should:

turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws

Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should:

use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle

As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher:

whether you are back in service