NASM PRACTICE TEST

What is the rest interval for rest interval?

0-60 sec

What is the rest interval for strength endurance?

0-60 sec

What is the rest time for stabilization endurance

0-90 sec

How many sets and reps are there in stabilization endurance?

1-3 12-20

What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? Select one: a. 35 minutes b. 2 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 5 minutes

10 MIN

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes? Select one: a. 60 to 90 seconds b. 90 to 120 seconds c. Less than 15 seconds d. 15 to 60 seconds

15 TO 60 SECONDS

What is the sets and reps for strength endurance?

2-4 sets 12-20 reps

What is the tempo and intensity for muscular dev (hypertrophy)?

2/0/2 75-85%

What are the sets and reps for power?

3-5 sets 8-10 reps for POWER 1-5 reps for STRENGTH

What is the sets and reps for muscular dev (hypertrophy)?

3-6 sets 6-12 reps

What are the sets and reps for maximal strength?

4-6 sets 1-5 reps

What is the tempo and intensity for strength endurance?

4/2/1 2/0/2 SUPER SETS 50-70%

What is the tempo and intensity for stabilization endurance?

4/2/1/1 50-70

What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10 sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds? Select one: a. 6,750 reps b. 675 pounds c. 2,250 pounds d. 6,750 pounds

6,750 REPS

For what is vitamin D most important? Select one: a. Skin pigmentation b. Eyesight c. Hair growth d. Bone health

BONE HEALTH

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Select one: a. Precontemplation b. Action c. Contemplation d. Maintenance

CONTEMPLATION

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Depth jumps b. Ice skaters c. Single-leg hops d. Box jumps

DEPTH JUMPS

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Transversus abdominis c. Internal oblique d. Erector spinae

ERECTOR SPINAE

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Multifidus b. Pelvic floor muscles c. Erector spinae d. Transverse abdominis

ERECTOR SPINAE

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Full-depth squat b. Femur parallel to ground c. Knees to 45 degrees d. Butt to heels

FEMUR PARALLEL TO GROUND

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Glucose b. Ketone bodies c. Fat d. Protein

GLUCOSE

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Squat jump b. Proprioceptive plyometrics c. Ice skaters d. Depth jumps

ICE SKATERS

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Implementation intention b. Coping plan c. Guided practice d. Self-monitoring

IMPLEMENTATION INTENTION

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Rectus femoris and biceps femoris b. Quadratus lumborum and erector spinae c. Infraspinatus and teres minor d. Levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoid

INFRASPINATUS AND TRES MINOR

Which term best describes core training's effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries? Select one: a. Performance b. Injury resistance c. Improved posture d. Rehabilitation

INJURY RESISTANCE

What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node? Select one: a. Left bundle branch b. Intercalated discs c. Internodal pathway d. Right bundle branch

INTERNODAL PATHWAY

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function? Select one: a. It helps transmit the motor signal. b. It converts ADP back to ATP. c. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle. d. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

IT STIMULATES ACTIN AND MYOSIN

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Sandbag rotational lunge b. Cable machine single-arm row c. Kettlebell RDL d. Stability ball abdominal crunches

KETTLEBELL RDL

Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Maximal Strength Training

MAXMIAL STRENGTH TRAINING

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight trainers b. BOSU balls c. Medicine balls d. Strength machines

MEDICINE BALLS

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Middle and lower trapezius d. Teres major

MIDDLE AND LOWER TRAPEZIUS

When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Oxidation b. Phosphorylation c. Transformation d. ATP-PC

PHOSPHORYLATION

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior? Select one: a. Action self-efficacy b. Subjective norms c. Planning d. Outcome expectations

PLANNING

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Select one: a. Pushing b. Hip hinge c. Squatting d. Pulling

PUSHING

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion b. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press c. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra d. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation Feedback

ROW, SHOULDER EXTERNAL ROTATION, AND SHOULDER PRESS

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Theory of general relativity b. Archimedes' principle c. SAID principle d. Law of thermodynamics

SAID PRINCIPLE

Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels? Select one: a. Warm-up b. Cool-down c. Skill development d. Resistance

SKILL DEVELOPMENT

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Cardiac output b. Venous return c. Resting heart rate d. Stroke volume

STROKE VOLUME

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? Select one: a. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension b. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension c. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion d. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation

THE BICEPS BRACHII BEING ACTIVE DURING ELBOW EXTENSION

Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise is intense. b. The exercise is continuous in nature. c. The exercise is rhythmic. d. The exercise targets large muscle groups

THE EXERCISE IS INTENSE

Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)? Select one: a. The sight, hearing, and taste systems b. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems d. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.

THE MUSCULAR, SKELETAL, AND NERVOUS SYSTEM

What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Select one: a. Periodization b. Training plan c. Acute variables d. Macrocycle

TRAINING PLAN

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Axial d. Frontal

TRANSVERSE

Which muscle acts to increase intra-abdominal pressure? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Diaphragm c. Quadratus lumborum d. Pelvic floor musculature

TRANSVERSE ABDOMINIS

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Soccer throw b. Two-arm push press c. Front medicine ball oblique throw d. Medicine ball chest pass

TWO ARM PUSH PRESS

What is the tempo and intensity for Max strength?

X/x/x (explosive) 85-100%

What is the tempo and intensity for power?

X/x/x EXPLOSIVE 30-45%

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? a. Zone 1 b. Zone 4 c. Zone 2 d. Zone 3

ZONE 3

What is forecasting? Select one: a. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs b. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal d. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale

A BUSINESS MANAGEMENT TECHNIQUE THAT HELPS PREDICT HOW MUCH WORK IS NEEDED TO MEET A REVENUE GOAL

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 5-15% b. About 30% c. About 90% d. About 50%

ABOUT 5-15%

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? Select one: a. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system b. Activation of sarcomeres c. Activation of the intercalated discs d. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system

ACTIVATION OF THE SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Upper trapezius c. Adductor complex d. Hip flexors

ADDUCTORS COMPLEX

What is defined as the level of commitment to a behavior or plan of action? Select one: a. Adherence b. Goals c. Overtraining d. Hypertrophy

ADHERENCE

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Thighs parallel to the ground b. As far as can be controlled without compensating c. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion d. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion

AS FAR AS CAN BE CONTROLLED W/O COMPENSATING

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? Select one: a. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. b. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant. c. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases. d. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.

AS THE VELOCITY OF THE MUSCLE ACTION INCREASES, ITS ABILITY TO PRODUCE FORCE DECREASES