Neuro questions
Which patient is most appropriate for the intensive care unit (ICU) charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the medical unit? a. A 45-year-old receiving IV antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis b. A 25-year-old admitted with a skull fracture and craniotomy the previous day c. A 55-year-old who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is receiving hyperventilation therapy d. A 35-year-old with ICP monitoring after a head injury last week
A An RN who works on a medical unit will be familiar with administration of IV antibiotics and with meningitis. The postcraniotomy patient, patient with an ICP monitor, and the patient on a ventilator should be assigned to an RN familiar with the care of critically ill patients.
A female patient who had a stroke 24 hours ago has expressive aphasia. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of impaired verbal communication. An appropriate nursing intervention to help the patient communicate is to a. ask questions that the patient can answer with "yes" or "no." b. develop a list of words that the patient can read and practice reciting. c. have the patient practice her facial and tongue exercises with a mirror. d. prevent embarrassing the patient by answering for her if she does not respond.
A Communication will be facilitated and less frustrating to the patient when questions that require a "yes" or "no" response are used. When the language areas of the brain are injured, the patient might not be able to read or recite words, which will frustrate the patient without improving communication. Expressive aphasia is caused by damage to the language areas of the brain, not by the areas that control the motor aspects of speech. The nurse should allow time for the patient to respond.
A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether a patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory b. Muscle coordination c. Glasgow Coma Scale d. Pupil reaction to light
A Decreased short-term memory is one indication of postconcussion syndrome. The other data may be assessed but are not indications of postconcussion syndrome.
Which action will the public health nurse take to reduce the incidence of epidemic encephalitis in a community? a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season. b. Remind patients that most cases of viral encephalitis can be cared for at home. c. Teach about the importance of prophylactic antibiotics after exposure to encephalitis. d. Arrange for screening of school-age children for West Nile virus during the school year.
A Epidemic encephalitis is usually spread by mosquitoes and ticks. Use of insect repellent is effective in reducing risk. Encephalitis frequently requires that the patient be hospitalized in an intensive care unit during the initial stages. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not used to prevent encephalitis because most encephalitis is viral. West Nile virus is most common in adults over age 50 during the summer and early fall.
A patient with carotid atherosclerosis asks the nurse to describe a carotid endarterectomy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The obstructing plaque is surgically removed from an artery in the neck." b. "The diseased portion of the artery in the brain is replaced with a synthetic graft." c. "A wire is threaded through an artery in the leg to the clots in the carotid artery and the clots are removed." d. "A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area, and the balloon is inflated to flatten the plaque."
A In a carotid endarterectomy, the carotid artery is incised and the plaque is removed. The response beginning, "The diseased portion of the artery in the brain is replaced" describes an arterial graft procedure. The answer beginning, "A catheter with a deflated balloon is positioned at the narrow area" describes an angioplasty. The final response beginning, "A wire is threaded through the artery" describes the mechanical embolus removal in cerebral ischemia (MERCI) procedure.
Following a cauda equina spinal cord injury, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Catheterize patient every 3 to 4 hours. b. Assist patient to ambulate several times daily. c. Administer medications to reduce bladder spasm. d. Stabilize the neck when repositioning the patient.
A Patients with cauda equina syndrome have areflexic bladder, and intermittent catheterization will be used for emptying the bladder. Because the bladder is flaccid, antispasmodic medications will not be used. The legs are flaccid with cauda equina syndrome and the patient will be unable to ambulate. The head and neck will not need to be stabilized following a cauda equina injury, which affects the lumbar and sacral nerve roots.
A 42-year-old patient who has bacterial meningitis is disoriented and anxious. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage family members to remain at the bedside. b. Apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury. c. Keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation. d. Minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input.
A Patients with meningitis and disorientation will be calmed by the presence of someone familiar at the bedside. Restraints should be avoided because they increase agitation and anxiety. The patient requires frequent assessment for complications. The use of touch and a soothing voice will decrease anxiety for most patients. The patient will have photophobia, so the light should be dim.
Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 c. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30
A Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing's triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with impaired functioning of the left glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and the vagus nerve (CN X)? a. Withhold oral fluid or foods. b. Provide highly seasoned foods. c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. d. Apply artificial tears every hour.
A The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and control the gag reflex. A patient with impaired function of these nerves is at risk for aspiration. An oral airway may be needed when a patient is unconscious and unable to maintain the airway, but it will not decrease aspiration risk. Taste and eye blink are controlled by the facial nerve.
A 39-year-old patient is being evaluated for a possible spinal cord tumor. Which finding by the nurse requires the most immediate action? a. The patient has new onset weakness of both legs. b. The patient complains of chronic severe back pain. c. The patient starts to cry and says, "I feel hopeless." d. The patient expresses anxiety about having surgery.
A The new onset of symptoms indicates cord compression, which is an emergency that requires rapid treatment to avoid permanent loss of function. The other patient assessments also indicate a need for nursing action but do not require intervention as rapidly as the new onset weakness.
A patient is admitted with possible botulism poisoning after eating home-canned green beans. Which intervention ordered by health care provider will the nurse question? a. Encourage oral fluids to 3 L/day b. Document neurologic symptoms c. Position patient lying on the side d. Observe respiratory status closely
A The patient should be maintained on NPO status because neuromuscular weakness increases risk for aspiration. Side-lying position is not contraindicated. Assessment of neurologic and respiratory status is appropriate.
A 40-year-old patient has a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention will be included in the care plan? a. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. b. Assist to dangle on edge of bed and assess for dizziness. c. Encourage patient to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway to prevent airway obstruction.
A The patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage usually has minimal activity to prevent cerebral vasospasm or further bleeding and is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). Activities such as coughing and sitting up that might increase intracranial pressure (ICP) or decrease cerebral blood flow are avoided. Because there is no indication that the patient is unconscious, an oropharyngeal airway is inappropriate.
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 62-year-old patient who is experiencing pain from trigeminal neuralgia? a. Assess fluid and dietary intake. b. Apply ice packs for 20 minutes. c. Teach facial relaxation techniques. d. Spend time talking with the patient.
A The patient with an acute episode of trigeminal neuralgia may be unwilling to eat or drink, so assessment of nutritional and hydration status is important. Because stimulation by touch is the precipitating factor for pain, relaxation of the facial muscles will not improve symptoms. Application of ice is likely to precipitate pain. The patient will not want to engage in conversation, which may precipitate attacks.
For a patient who had a right hemisphere stroke the nurse establishes a nursing diagnosis of a. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. b. impaired physical mobility related to right-sided hemiplegia. c. impaired verbal communication related to speech-language deficits. d. ineffective coping related to depression and distress about disability.
A The patient with right-sided brain damage typically denies any deficits and has poor impulse control, leading to risk for injury when the patient attempts activities such as transferring from a bed to a chair. Right-sided brain damage causes left hemiplegia. Left-sided brain damage typically causes language deficits. Left-sided brain damage is associated with depression and distress about the disability.
A 32-year-old pregnant patient with Bell's palsy refuses to eat while others are present because of embarrassment about drooling. The best response by the nurse is to a. respect the patient's feelings and arrange for privacy at mealtimes. b. teach the patient to chew food on the unaffected side of the mouth. c. offer the patient liquid nutritional supplements at frequent intervals. d. discuss the patient's concerns with visitors who arrive at mealtimes.
A The patient's desire for privacy should be respected to encourage adequate nutrition and reduce patient embarrassment. Liquid supplements will reduce the patient's enjoyment of the taste of food. It would be inappropriate for the nurse to discuss the patient's embarrassment with visitors unless the patient wishes to share this information. Chewing on the unaffected side of the mouth will enhance nutrition and enjoyment of food but will not decrease the drooling.
When admitting a 42-year-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.
A The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED.
After receiving change-of-shift report on the following four patients, which patient should the nurse see first? a. A 60-year-old patient with right-sided weakness who has an infusion of tPA prescribed b. A 50-year-old patient who has atrial fibrillation and a new order for warfarin (Coumadin) c. A 40-year-old patient who experienced a transient ischemic attack yesterday who has a dose of aspirin due d. A 30-year-old patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage 2 days ago who has nimodipine (Nimotop) scheduled
A tPA needs to be infused within the first few hours after stroke symptoms start in order to be effective in minimizing brain injury. The other medications should also be given as quickly as possible, but timing of the medications is not as critical.
When admitting an acutely confused 20-year-old patient with a head injury, which action should the nurse take? a. Ask family members about the patient's health history. b. Ask leading questions to assist in obtaining health data. c. Wait until the patient is better oriented to ask questions. d. Obtain only the physiologic neurologic assessment data.
A When admitting a patient who is likely to be a poor historian, the nurse should obtain health history information from others who have knowledge about the patient's health. Waiting until the patient is oriented or obtaining only physiologic data will result in incomplete assessment data, which could adversely affect decision making about treatment. Asking leading questions may result in inaccurate or incomplete information.
A 42-year-old patient who has bacterial meningitis is disoriented and anxious. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage family members to remain at the bedside. b. Apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury. c. Keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation. d. Minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input
ANS: A Patients with meningitis and disorientation will be calmed by the presence of someone familiar at the bedside. Restraints should be avoided because they increase agitation and anxiety. The patient requires frequent assessment for complications. The use of touch and a soothing voice will decrease anxiety for most patients. The patient will have photophobia, so the light should be dim.
Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure 154/68, pulse 56, respirations 12 b. Blood pressure 134/72, pulse 90, respirations 32 c. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28 d. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30
ANS: A Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing's triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process.
To assess for functional deficits, which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted for treatment of a benign occipital lobe tumor? a. "Do you have difficulty in hearing?" b. "Are you experiencing visual problems?" c. "Are you having any trouble with your balance?" d. "Have you developed any weakness on one side?"
ANS: B Because the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception, the patient with a tumor in this area is likely to have problems with vision. The other questions will be better for assessing function of the temporal lobe, cerebellum, and frontal lobe.
A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patient's record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and ICP
ANS: B Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP): (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] - diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). Therefore the (MAP) is 70 and the CPP is 56 mm Hg, which is below the normal of 60 to 100 mm Hg and approaching the level of ischemia and neuronal death. Immediate changes in the patient's therapy such as fluid infusion or vasopressor administration are needed to improve the cerebral perfusion pressure. Adjustments in the head elevation should only be done after consulting with the health care provider. Continued monitoring and documentation will also be done, but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take.
A 20-year-old male patient is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing football. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.
ANS: B Clear nasal drainage in a patient with a head injury suggests a dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. If the drainage is CSF, it will test positive for glucose. Fluid leaking from the nose will have normal nasal flora, so culture and sensitivity will not be useful. Blowing the nose is avoided to prevent CSF leakage
Which statement by a 40-year-old patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse? a. "I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated." b. "I am going to drive home and go to bed." c. "I do not even remember being in an accident." d. "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache."
ANS: B Following a head injury, the patient should avoid driving and operating heavy machinery. Retrograde amnesia is common after a concussion. The patient can take acetaminophen for headache and should return if symptoms of increased intracranial pressure such as dizziness or nausea occur.
After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Pulse 102 beats/min b. Temperature 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure 90 mm Hg
ANS: B Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse are all borderline high but require only ongoing monitoring at this time
The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patient's nose. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Keep the head of bed elevated. b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. c. Turn patient side to side every 2 hours d. Apply cold packs intermittently to face.
ANS: B Rhinorrhea may indicate a dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Insertion of a nasogastric tube will increase the risk for infections such as meningitis. Turning the patient, elevating the head, and applying cold packs are appropriate orders.
Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff." b. "The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." c. "The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure." d. "This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage."
ANS: B Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members' anxiety.
The charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.
ANS: C Suctioning increases intracranial pressure, and should only be done when the patient's respiratory condition indicates it is needed. The other actions by the staff nurse are appropriate
The public health nurse is planning a program to decrease the incidence of meningitis in adolescents and young adults. Which action is most important? a. Encourage adolescents and young adults to avoid crowds in the winter. b. Vaccinate 11- and 12-year-old children against Haemophilus influenzae. c. Immunize adolescents and college freshman against Neisseria meningitides. d. Emphasize the importance of hand washing to prevent the spread of infection.
ANS: C The Neisseria meningitides vaccination is recommended for children ages 11 and 12, unvaccinated teens entering high school, and college freshmen. Hand washing may help decrease the spread of bacteria, but it is not as effective as immunization. Vaccination with Haemophilus influenzae is for infants and toddlers. Because adolescents and young adults are in school or the workplace, avoiding crowds is not realistic.
Which information about a 30-year-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hour c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 128 beats/minute
ANS: C The PbtO2 should be 20 to 40 mm Hg. Lower levels indicate brain ischemia. An intracranial pressure (ICP) of 15 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal. CSF is produced at a rate of 20 to 30 mL/hour. The reason for the sinus tachycardia should be investigated, but the elevated heart rate is not as concerning as the decrease in PbtO2.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.
ANS: C The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury.
Several patients have been hospitalized for diagnosis of neurologic problems. Which patient will the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) returning from carotid duplex studies b. Patient with a brain tumor who has just arrived on the unit after a cerebral angiogram c. Patient with a seizure disorder who has just completed an electroencephalogram (EEG) d. Patient prepared for a lumbar puncture whose health care provider is waiting for assistance
B Because cerebral angiograms require insertion of a catheter into the femoral artery, bleeding is a possible complication. The nurse will need to check the pulse, blood pressure, and the catheter insertion site in the groin as soon as the patient arrives. Carotid duplex studies and EEG are noninvasive. The nurse will need to assist with the lumbar puncture as soon as possible, but monitoring for hemorrhage after cerebral angiogram has a higher priority.
After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
B Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in intracranial pressure, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in intracranial pressure.
Which finding would the nurse expect when assessing the legs of a patient who has a lower motor neuron lesion? a. Spasticity b. Flaccidity c. No sensation d. Hyperactive reflexes
B Because the cell bodies of lower motor neurons are located in the spinal cord, damage to the neuron will decrease motor activity of the affected muscles. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes are caused by upper motor neuron damage. Sensation is not impacted by motor neuron lesions.
To assess for functional deficits, which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted for treatment of a benign occipital lobe tumor? a. "Do you have difficulty in hearing?" b. "Are you experiencing visual problems?" c. "Are you having any trouble with your balance?" d. "Have you developed any weakness on one side?"
B Because the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception, the patient with a tumor in this area is likely to have problems with vision. The other questions will be better for assessing function of the temporal lobe, cerebellum, and frontal lobe.
A patient with paraplegia resulting from a T9 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflexic bladder. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Teach the patient the Credé method. b. Instruct the patient how to self-catheterize. c. Catheterize for residual urine after voiding. d. Assist the patient to the toilet every 2 hours.
B Because the patient's bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Credé method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with areflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patient's incontinence.
A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patient's record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and ICP.
B Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP): (CPP = mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (systolic blood pressure [SBP] - diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). Therefore the (MAP) is 70 and the CPP is 56 mm Hg, which is below the normal of 60 to 100 mm Hg and approaching the level of ischemia and neuronal death. Immediate changes in the patient's therapy such as fluid infusion or vasopressor administration are needed to improve the cerebral perfusion pressure. Adjustments in the head elevation should only be done after consulting with the health care provider. Continued monitoring and documentation will also be done, but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take.
Several weeks after a stroke, a 50-year-old male patient has impaired awareness of bladder fullness, resulting in urinary incontinence. Which nursing intervention will be best to include in the initial plan for an effective bladder training program? a. Limit fluid intake to 1200 mL daily to reduce urine volume. b. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. c. Perform intermittent catheterization after each voiding to check for residual urine. d. Use an external "condom" catheter to protect the skin and prevent embarrassment.
B Developing a regular voiding schedule will prevent incontinence and may increase patient awareness of a full bladder. A 1200 mL fluid restriction may lead to dehydration. Intermittent catheterization and use of a condom catheter are appropriate in the acute phase of stroke, but should not be considered solutions for long-term management because of the risks for urinary tract infection (UTI) and skin breakdown.
Which assessment data for a patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome will require the nurse's most immediate action? a. The patient's triceps reflexes are absent. b. The patient is continuously drooling saliva. c. The patient complains of severe pain in the feet. d. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 150/82 mm Hg.
B Drooling indicates decreased ability to swallow, which places the patient at risk for aspiration and requires rapid nursing and collaborative actions such as suctioning and possible endotracheal intubation. The foot pain should be treated with appropriate analgesics, and the BP requires ongoing monitoring, but these actions are not as urgently needed as maintenance of respiratory function. Absence of the reflexes should be documented, but this is a common finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Which nursing action has the highest priority for a patient who was admitted 16 hours previously with a C5 spinal cord injury? a. Cardiac monitoring for bradycardia b. Assessment of respiratory rate and effort c. Application of pneumatic compression devices to legs d. Administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) infusion
B Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patient's respiratory function. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) is no longer recommended for the treatment of spinal cord injuries. The other actions also are appropriate but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort.
Which statement by a 40-year-old patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse? a. "I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated." b. "I am going to drive home and go to bed." c. "I do not even remember being in an accident." d. "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache."
B Following a head injury, the patient should avoid driving and operating heavy machinery. Retrograde amnesia is common after a concussion. The patient can take acetaminophen for headache and should return if symptoms of increased intracranial pressure such as dizziness or nausea occur.
A patient in the clinic reports a recent episode of dysphasia and left-sided weakness at home that resolved after 2 hours. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. alteplase (tPA). b. aspirin (Ecotrin). c. warfarin (Coumadin). d. nimodipine (Nimotop).
B Following a transient ischemic attack (TIA), patients typically are started on medications such as aspirin to inhibit platelet function and decrease stroke risk. tPA is used for acute ischemic stroke. Coumadin is usually used for patients with atrial fibrillation. Nimodipine is used to prevent cerebral vasospasm after a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
A construction worker arrives at an urgent care center with a deep puncture wound after an old nail penetrated his boot.. The patient reports having had a tetanus booster 6 years ago. The nurse will anticipate a. IV infusion of tetanus immune globulin (TIG). b. administration of the tetanus-diphtheria (Td) booster. c. intradermal injection of an immune globulin test dose. d. initiation of the tetanus-diphtheria immunization series.
B If the patient has not been immunized within 5 years, administration of the Td booster is indicated because the wound is deep. Immune globulin administration is given by the IM route if the patient has no previous immunization. Administration of a series of immunization is not indicated. TIG is not indicated for this patient, and a test dose is not needed for immune globulin.
Which action will the nurse take when caring for a 46-year-old patient who develops tetanus from an injectable substance use? a. Avoid use of sedatives. b. Provide a quiet environment. c. Check pupil reaction to light every 4 hours. d. Provide range-of-motion exercises several times daily.
B In patients with tetanus, painful seizures can be precipitated by jarring, loud noises, or bright lights, so the nurse will minimize noise and avoid shining light into the patient's eyes. Range-of-motion exercises may also stimulate the patient and cause seizures. Although the patient has a history of injectable drug use, sedative medications will be needed to decrease spasms.
After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Pulse 102 beats/min b. Temperature 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure 90 mm Hg
B Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse are all borderline high but require only ongoing monitoring at this time.
Propranolol (Inderal), a b-adrenergic blocker that inhibits sympathetic nervous system activity, is prescribed for a patient who has extreme anxiety about public speaking. The nurse monitors the patient for a. dry mouth. b. bradycardia. c. constipation. d. urinary retention.
B Inhibition of the fight or flight response leads to a decreased heart rate. Dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention are associated with peripheral nervous system blockade.
A 39-year-old patient with a suspected herniated intervertebral disc is scheduled for a myelogram. Which information is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider before the procedure? a. The patient is anxious about the test. b. The patient has an allergy to shellfish. c. The patient has back pain when lying flat. d. The patient drank apple juice 4 hours earlier.
B Iodine-containing contrast medium is injected into the subarachnoid space during a myelogram. The health care provider may need to modify the postmyelogram orders to prevent back pain, but this can be done after the procedure. Clear liquids are usually considered safe up to 4 hours before a diagnostic or surgical procedure. The patient's anxiety should be addressed, but this is not as important as the iodine allergy.
Which action should the nurse take when assessing a patient with trigeminal neuralgia? a. Have the patient clench the jaws. b. Inspect the oral mucosa and teeth. c. Palpate the face to compare skin temperature bilaterally. d. Identify trigger zones by lightly touching the affected side.
B Oral hygiene is frequently neglected because of fear of triggering facial pain. Having the patient clench the facial muscles will not be useful because the sensory branches of the nerve are affected by trigeminal neuralgia. Light touch and palpation may be triggers for pain and should be avoided.
The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patient's nose. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Keep the head of bed elevated. b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. c. Turn patient side to side every 2 hours d. Apply cold packs intermittently to face.
B Rhinorrhea may indicate a dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Insertion of a nasogastric tube will increase the risk for infections such as meningitis. Turning the patient, elevating the head, and applying cold packs are appropriate orders.
Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff." b. "The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." c. "The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure." d. "This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage."
B Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members' anxiety.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned after having left carotid artery angioplasty and stenting. Which assessment information is of most concern to the nurse? a. The pulse rate is 102 beats/min. b. The patient has difficulty speaking. c. The blood pressure is 144/86 mm Hg. d. There are fine crackles at the lung bases.
B Small emboli can occur during carotid artery angioplasty and stenting, and the aphasia indicates a possible stroke during the procedure. Slightly elevated pulse rate and blood pressure are not unusual because of anxiety associated with the procedure. Fine crackles at the lung bases may indicate atelectasis caused by immobility during the procedure. The nurse should have the patient take some deep breaths.
The nurse admitting a patient who has a right frontal lobe tumor would expect the patient may have a. expressive aphasia. b. impaired judgment. c. right-sided weakness. d. difficulty swallowing.
B The frontal lobe controls intellectual activities such as judgment. Speech is controlled in the parietal lobe. Weakness and hemiplegia occur on the contralateral side from the tumor. Swallowing is controlled by the brainstem.
Which finding for a patient who has a head injury should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Intracranial pressure is 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours. c. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg. d. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the last 2 hours.
B The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy.
The nurse assessing a 54-year-old female patient with newly diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia will ask the patient about a. visual problems caused by ptosis. b. triggers leading to facial discomfort. c. poor appetite caused by loss of taste. d. weakness on the affected side of the face.
B The major clinical manifestation of trigeminal neuralgia is severe facial pain that is triggered by cutaneous stimulation of the nerve. Ptosis, loss of taste, and facial weakness are not characteristics of trigeminal neuralgia.
An unconscious 39-year-old male patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a head injury. The patient's spouse and teenage children stay at the patient's side and ask many questions about the treatment being given. What action is best for the nurse to take? a. Ask the family to stay in the waiting room until the initial assessment is completed. b. Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them. c. Refer the family members to the hospital counseling service to deal with their anxiety. d. Call the family's pastor or spiritual advisor to take them to the chapel while care is given.
B The need for information about the diagnosis and care is very high in family members of acutely ill patients. The nurse should allow the family to observe care and explain the procedures unless they interfere with emergent care needs. A pastor or counseling service can offer some support, but research supports information as being more effective. Asking the family to stay in the waiting room will increase their anxiety.
A 46-year-old patient with a head injury opens the eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15.
B The patient has a score of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response.
A 20-year-old patient who sustained a T2 spinal cord injury 10 days ago angrily tells the nurse "I want to be transferred to a hospital where the nurses know what they are doing!" Which action by the nurse is best? a. Clarify that abusive language will not be tolerated. b. Request that the patient provide input for the plan of care. c. Perform care without responding to the patient's comments. d. Reassure the patient about the competence of the nursing staff.
B The patient is demonstrating behaviors consistent with the anger phase of the grief process, and the nurse should allow expression of anger and seek the patient's input into care. Expression of anger is appropriate at this stage, and should be accepted by the nurse. Reassurance about the competency of the staff will not be helpful in responding to the patient's anger. Ignoring the patient's comments will increase the patient's anger and sense of helplessness.
When the nurse is developing a rehabilitation plan for a 30-year-old patient with a C6 spinal cord injury, an appropriate goal is that the patient will be able to a. drive a car with powered hand controls. b. push a manual wheelchair on a flat surface. c. turn and reposition independently when in bed. d. transfer independently to and from a wheelchair.
B The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed.
The nurse will explain to the patient who has a T2 spinal cord transection injury that a. use of the shoulders will be limited. b. function of both arms should be retained. c. total loss of respiratory function may occur. d. tachycardia is common with this type of injury.
B The patient with a T2 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Loss of respiratory function occurs with cervical spine injuries. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.
Which information about the patient who has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of having a stiff neck. b. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 90/50 mm Hg. c. The patient reports a severe and unrelenting headache. d. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) report shows red blood cells (RBCs).
B To prevent cerebral vasospasm and maintain cerebral perfusion, blood pressure needs to be maintained at a level higher than 90 mm Hg systolic after a subarachnoid hemorrhage. A low BP or drop in BP indicates a need to administer fluids and/or vasopressors to increase the BP. An ongoing headache, RBCs in the CSF, and a stiff neck are all typical clinical manifestations of a subarachnoid hemorrhage and do not need to be rapidly communicated to the health care provider.
Which equipment will the nurse obtain to assess vibration sense in a diabetic patient who has peripheral nerve dysfunction? a. Sharp pin b. Tuning fork c. Reflex hammer d. Calibrated compass
B Vibration sense is testing by touching the patient with a vibrating tuning fork. The other equipment is needed for testing of pain sensation, reflexes, and two-point discrimination.
A 33-year-old patient with a T4 spinal cord injury asks the nurse whether he will be able to be sexually active. Which initial response by the nurse is best? a. Reflex erections frequently occur, but orgasm may not be possible. b. Sildenafil (Viagra) is used by many patients with spinal cord injury. c. Multiple options are available to maintain sexuality after spinal cord injury. d. Penile injection, prostheses, or vacuum suction devices are possible options.
C Although sexuality will be changed by the patient's spinal cord injury, there are options for expression of sexuality and for fertility. The other information also is correct, but the choices will depend on the degrees of injury and the patient's individual feelings about sexuality.
A 72-year-old patient who has a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) has an order for aspirin 160 mg daily. When the nurse is administering medications, the patient says, "I don't need the aspirin today. I don't have a fever." Which action should the nurse take? a. Document that the aspirin was refused by the patient. b. Tell the patient that the aspirin is used to prevent a fever. c. Explain that the aspirin is ordered to decrease stroke risk. d. Call the health care provider to clarify the medication order.
C Aspirin is ordered to prevent stroke in patients who have experienced TIAs. Documentation of the patient's refusal to take the medication is an inadequate response by the nurse. There is no need to clarify the order with the health care provider. The aspirin is not ordered to prevent aches and pains.
Which nursing action will be included in the care for a patient who has had cerebral angiography? a. Monitor for headache and photophobia. b. Keep patient NPO until gag reflex returns. c. Check pulse and blood pressure frequently. d. Assess orientation to person, place, and time.
C Because a catheter is inserted into an artery (such as the femoral artery) during cerebral angiography, the nurse should assess for bleeding after this procedure. The other nursing assessments are not necessary after angiography.
A patient who had a C7 spinal cord injury a week ago has a weak cough effort and audible rhonchi. The initial intervention by the nurse should be to a. administer humidified oxygen by mask. b. suction the patient's mouth and nasopharynx. c. push upward on the epigastric area as the patient coughs. d. encourage incentive spirometry every 2 hours during the day.
C Because the cough effort is poor, the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the ability to mobilize secretions. Administration of oxygen will improve oxygenation, but the data do not indicate hypoxemia. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient's ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse's first action.
The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired self-feeding ability for a left-handed patient with left-sided hemiplegia. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Provide a wide variety of food choices. b. Provide oral care before and after meals. c. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. d. Teach the patient the "chin-tuck" technique.
C Because the nursing diagnosis indicates that the patient's imbalanced nutrition is related to the left-sided hemiplegia, the appropriate interventions will focus on teaching the patient to use the right hand for self-feeding. The other interventions are appropriate for patients with other etiologies for the imbalanced nutrition.
When evaluating outcomes of a glycerol rhizotomy for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia, the nurse will a. assess whether the patient is doing daily facial exercises. b. question whether the patient is using an eye shield at night. c. ask the patient about social activities with family and friends. d. remind the patient to chew on the unaffected side of the mouth.
C Because withdrawal from social activities is a common manifestation of trigeminal neuralgia, asking about social activities will help in evaluating whether the patient's symptoms have improved. Glycerol rhizotomy does not damage the corneal reflex or motor functions of the trigeminal nerve, so there is no need to use an eye shield, do facial exercises, or take precautions with chewing.
Which finding in a patient with a spinal cord tumor is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Back pain that increases with coughing b. Depression about the diagnosis of a tumor c. Decreasing sensation and ability to move the legs d. Anxiety about scheduled surgery to remove the tumor
C Decreasing sensation and leg movement indicates spinal cord compression, an emergency that will require rapid action (such as surgery) to prevent paralysis. The other findings will also require nursing action but are not emergencies.
When caring for a patient with a new right-sided homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Apply an eye patch to the right eye. b. Approach the patient from the right side. c. Place objects needed on the patient's left side. d. Teach the patient that the left visual deficit will resolve.
C During the acute period, the nurse should place objects on the patient's unaffected side. Because there is a visual defect in the right half of each eye, an eye patch is not appropriate. The patient should be approached from the left side. The visual deficit may not resolve, although the patient can learn to compensate for the defect.
A patient has increased intracranial pressure and a ventriculostomy after a head injury. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who regularly work in the intensive care unit? a. Document intracranial pressure every hour. b. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. c. Check capillary blood glucose level every 6 hours. d. Monitor cerebrospinal fluid color and volume hourly.
C Experienced UAP can obtain capillary blood glucose levels when they have been trained and evaluated in the skill. Monitoring and documentation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) color and intracranial pressure (ICP) require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice. Although repositioning patients is frequently delegated to UAP, repositioning a patient with a ventriculostomy is complex and should be supervised by the RN.
During the neurologic assessment, the patient is unable to respond verbally to the nurse but cooperates with the nurse's directions to move his hands and feet. The nurse will suspect a. cerebellar injury. b. a brainstem lesion. c. frontal lobe damage. d. a temporal lobe lesion.
C Expressive speech is controlled by Broca's area in the frontal lobe. The temporal lobe contains Wernicke's area, which is responsible for receptive speech. The cerebellum and brainstem do not affect higher cognitive functions such as speech.
Which nursing action will the home health nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with paraplegia at the T4 level in order to prevent autonomic dysreflexia? a. Support selection of a high-protein diet. b. Discuss options for sexuality and fertility. c. Assist in planning a prescribed bowel program. d. Use quad coughing to strengthen cough efforts.
C Fecal impaction is a common stimulus for autonomic dysreflexia. Dietary protein, coughing, and discussing sexuality/fertility should be included in the plan of care but will not reduce the risk for autonomic dysreflexia.
Which stroke risk factor for a 48-year-old male patient in the clinic is most important for the nurse to address? a. The patient is 25 pounds above the ideal weight. b. The patient drinks a glass of red wine with dinner daily. c. The patient's usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. d. The patient works at a desk and relaxes by watching television.
C Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor. People who drink more than 1 (for women) or 2 (for men) alcoholic beverages a day may increase risk for hypertension. Physical inactivity and obesity contribute to stroke risk but not as much as hypertension.
The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication's effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. Oxygen saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration.
The nurse is admitting a patient with a neck fracture at the C6 level to the intensive care unit. Which assessment finding(s) indicate(s) neurogenic shock? a. Hyperactive reflex activity below the level of injury b. Involuntary, spastic movements of the arms and legs c. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, pink extremities d. Lack of sensation or movement below the level of injury
C Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and vasodilation leading to warm skin temperature. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes do not occur at this stage of spinal cord injury. Lack of movement and sensation indicate spinal cord injury, but not neurogenic shock.
he charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.
C Suctioning increases intracranial pressure, and should only be done when the patient's respiratory condition indicates it is needed. The other actions by the staff nurse are appropriate.
A patient admitted with dermal ulcers who has a history of a T3 spinal cord injury tells the nurse, "I have a pounding headache and I feel sick to my stomach." Which action should the nurse take first? a. Check for a fecal impaction. b. Give the prescribed analgesic. c. Assess the blood pressure (BP). d. Notify the health care provider.
C The BP should be assessed immediately in a patient with an injury at the T6 level or higher who complains of a headache to determine whether autonomic dysreflexia is occurring. Notification of the patient's health care provider is appropriate after the BP is obtained. Administration of an antiemetic is indicated after autonomic dysreflexia is ruled out as the cause of the nausea. After checking the BP, the nurse may assess for a fecal impaction using lidocaine jelly to prevent further increased BP.
The public health nurse is planning a program to decrease the incidence of meningitis in adolescents and young adults. Which action is most important? a. Encourage adolescents and young adults to avoid crowds in the winter. b. Vaccinate 11- and 12-year-old children against Haemophilus influenzae. c. Immunize adolescents and college freshman against Neisseria meningitides. d. Emphasize the importance of hand washing to prevent the spread of infection.
C The Neisseria meningitides vaccination is recommended for children ages 11 and 12, unvaccinated teens entering high school, and college freshmen. Hand washing may help decrease the spread of bacteria, but it is not as effective as immunization. Vaccination with Haemophilus influenzae is for infants and toddlers. Because adolescents and young adults are in school or the workplace, avoiding crowds is not realistic.
Which information about a 30-year-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hour c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 128 beats/minute
C The PbtO2 should be 20 to 40 mm Hg. Lower levels indicate brain ischemia. An intracranial pressure (ICP) of 15 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal. CSF is produced at a rate of 20 to 30 mL/hour. The reason for the sinus tachycardia should be investigated, but the elevated heart rate is not as concerning as the decrease in PbtO2.
A 38-year-old patient has returned home following rehabilitation for a spinal cord injury. The home care nurse notes that the spouse is performing many of the activities that the patient had been managing unassisted during rehabilitation. The most appropriate action by the nurse at this time is to a. remind the patient about the importance of independence in daily activities. b. tell the spouse to stop because the patient is able to perform activities independently. c. develop a plan to increase the patient's independence in consultation with the patient and the spouse. d. recognize that it is important for the spouse to be involved in the patient's care and encourage that participation.
C The best action by the nurse will be to involve all the parties in developing an optimal plan of care. Because family members who will be assisting with the patient's ongoing care need to feel that their input is important, telling the spouse that the patient can perform activities independently is not the best choice. Reminding the patient about the importance of independence may not change the behaviors of the spouse. Supporting the activities of the spouse will lead to ongoing dependency by the patient.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.
C The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury.
A male patient who has right-sided weakness after a stroke is making progress in learning to use the left hand for feeding and other activities. The nurse observes that when the patient's wife is visiting, she feeds and dresses him. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for the patient? a. Interrupted family processes related to effects of illness of a family member b. Situational low self-esteem related to increasing dependence on spouse for care c. Disabled family coping related to inadequate understanding by patient's spouse d. Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to hemiplegia and aphasia
C The information supports the diagnosis of disabled family coping because the wife does not understand the rehabilitation program. There are no data supporting low self-esteem, and the patient is attempting independence. The data do not support an interruption in family processes because this may be a typical pattern for the couple. There is no indication that the patient has impaired nutrition.
A 47-year-old patient will attempt oral feedings for the first time since having a stroke. The nurse should assess the gag reflex and then a. order a varied pureed diet. b. assess the patient's appetite. c. assist the patient into a chair. d. offer the patient a sip of juice.
C The patient should be as upright as possible before attempting feeding to make swallowing easier and decrease aspiration risk. To assess swallowing ability, the nurse should initially offer water or ice to the patient. Pureed diets are not recommended because the texture is too smooth. The patient may have a poor appetite, but the oral feeding should be attempted regardless.
A patient has an incomplete left spinal cord lesion at the level of T7, resulting in Brown-Séquard syndrome. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care? a. Assessment of the patient for right arm weakness b. Assessment of the patient for increased right leg pain c. Positioning the patient's left leg when turning the patient d. Teaching the patient to look at the right leg to verify its position
C The patient with Brown-Séquard syndrome has loss of motor function on the ipsilateral side and will require the nurse to move the left leg. Pain sensation will be lost on the patient's right leg. Arm weakness will not be a problem for a patient with a T7 injury. The patient will retain position sense for the right leg.
A 41-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.
C The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP.
After a patient experienced a brief episode of tinnitus, diplopia, and dysarthria with no residual effects, the nurse anticipates teaching the patient about a. cerebral aneurysm clipping. b. heparin intravenous infusion. c. oral low-dose aspirin therapy. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).
C The patient's symptoms are consistent with transient ischemic attack (TIA), and drugs that inhibit platelet aggregation are prescribed after a TIA to prevent stroke. Continuous heparin infusion is not routinely used after TIA or with acute ischemic stroke. The patient's symptoms are not consistent with a cerebral aneurysm. tPA is used only for acute ischemic stroke, not for TIA.
During the change of shift report a nurse is told that a patient has an occluded left posterior cerebral artery. The nurse will anticipate that the patient may have a. dysphasia. b. confusion. c. visual deficits. d. poor judgment.
C Visual disturbances are expected with posterior cerebral artery occlusion. Aphasia occurs with middle cerebral artery involvement. Cognitive deficits and changes in judgment are more typical of anterior cerebral artery occlusion.
The charge nurse is observing a new staff nurse who is assessing a patient with a traumatic spinal cord injury for sensation. Which action indicates a need for further teaching of the new nurse about neurologic assessment? a. The new nurse tests for light touch before testing for pain. b. The new nurse has the patient close the eyes during testing. c. The new nurse asks the patient if the instrument feels sharp. d. The new nurse uses an irregular pattern to test for intact touch.
C When performing a sensory assessment, the nurse should not provide verbal clues. The other actions by the new nurse are appropriate.
A 68-year-old patient hospitalized with a new diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome has numbness and weakness of both feet. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. intubation and mechanical ventilation. b. administration of corticosteroid drugs. c. insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube. d. infusion of immunoglobulin (Sandoglobulin)
D Because the Guillain-Barré syndrome is in the earliest stages (as evidenced by the symptoms), use of high-dose immunoglobulin is appropriate to reduce the extent and length of symptoms. Mechanical ventilation and tube feedings may be used later in the progression of the syndrome but are not needed now. Corticosteroid use is not helpful in reducing the duration or symptoms of the syndrome.
When teaching about clopidogrel (Plavix), the nurse will tell the patient with cerebral atherosclerosis a. to monitor and record the blood pressure daily. b. that Plavix will dissolve clots in the cerebral arteries. c. that Plavix will reduce cerebral artery plaque formation. d. to call the health care provider if stools are bloody or tarry.
D Clopidogrel (Plavix) inhibits platelet function and increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding, so patients should be advised to notify the health care provider about any signs of bleeding. The medication does not lower blood pressure, decrease plaque formation, or dissolve clots.
A patient with suspected meningitis is scheduled for a lumbar puncture. Before the procedure, the nurse will plan to a. enforce NPO status for 4 hours. b. transfer the patient to radiology. c. administer a sedative medication. d. help the patient to a lateral position.
D For a lumbar puncture, the patient lies in the lateral recumbent position. The procedure does not usually require a sedative, is done in the patient room, and has no risk for aspiration.
A patient has been admitted with meningococcal meningitis. Which observation by the nurse requires action? a. The bedrails at the head and foot of the bed are both elevated. b. The patient receives a regular diet from the dietary department. c. The lights in the patient's room are turned off and the blinds are shut. d. Unlicensed assistive personnel enter the patient's room without a mask.
D Meningococcal meningitis is spread by respiratory secretions, so it is important to maintain respiratory isolation as well as standard precautions. Because the patient may be confused and weak, bedrails should be elevated at both the foot and head of the bed. Low light levels in the room decrease pain caused by photophobia. Nutrition is an important aspect of care in a patient with meningitis.
The nurse identifies a patient with type 1 diabetes and a history of herpes simplex infection as being at risk for Bell's palsy. Which information should the nurse include in teaching the patient? a. "You may be able to prevent Bell's palsy by doing facial exercises regularly." b. "Prophylactic treatment of herpes with antiviral agents prevents Bell's palsy." c. "Medications to treat Bell's palsy work only if started before paralysis onset." d. "Call the doctor if you experience pain or develop herpes lesions near the ear."
D Pain or herpes lesions near the ear may indicate the onset of Bell's palsy and rapid corticosteroid treatment may reduce the duration of Bell's palsy symptoms. Antiviral therapy for herpes simplex does not reduce the risk for Bell's palsy. Corticosteroid therapy will be most effective in reducing symptoms if started before paralysis is complete but will still be somewhat effective when started later. Facial exercises do not prevent Bell's palsy.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4° F (38.6° C)
D Patients who have basilar skull fractures are at risk for meningitis, so the elevated temperature should be reported to the health care provider. The other findings are typical of a patient with a basilar skull fracture.
A 58-year-old patient with a left-brain stroke suddenly bursts into tears when family members visit. The nurse should a. use a calm voice to ask the patient to stop the crying behavior. b. explain to the family that depression is normal following a stroke. c. have the family members leave the patient alone for a few minutes. d. teach the family that emotional outbursts are common after strokes.
D Patients who have left-sided brain stroke are prone to emotional outbursts that are not necessarily related to the emotional state of the patient. Depression after a stroke is common, but the suddenness of the patient's outburst suggests that depression is not the major cause of the behavior. The family should stay with the patient. The crying is not within the patient's control and asking the patient to stop will lead to embarrassment.
Nurses in change-of-shift report are discussing the care of a patient with a stroke who has progressively increasing weakness and decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). Which nursing diagnosis do they determine has thehighest priority for the patient? a. Impaired physical mobility related to weakness b. Disturbed sensory perception related to brain injury c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility d. Risk for aspiration related to inability to protect airway
D Protection of the airway is the priority of nursing care for a patient having an acute stroke. The other diagnoses are also appropriate, but interventions to prevent aspiration are the priority at this time.
After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-year-old patient has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours.
D ROM exercises will help prevent the complications of immobility. Patients with anterior craniotomies are positioned with the head elevated. The patient with a craniectomy should not be turned to the operative side. When the patient is weak, clustering nursing activities may lead to more fatigue and weakness.
A patient with left-sided weakness that started 60 minutes earlier is admitted to the emergency department and diagnostic tests are ordered. Which test should be done first? a. Complete blood count (CBC) b. Chest radiograph (Chest x-ray) c. 12-Lead electrocardiogram (ECG) d. Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan
D Rapid screening with a noncontrast CT scan is needed before administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which must be given within 4.5 hours of the onset of clinical manifestations of the stroke. The sooner the tPA is given, the less brain injury. The other diagnostic tests give information about possible causes of the stroke and do not need to be completed as urgently as the CT scan.
A 73-year-old patient with a stroke experiences facial drooping on the right side and right-sided arm and leg paralysis. When admitting the patient, which clinical manifestation will the nurse expect to find? a. Impulsive behavior b. Right-sided neglect c. Hyperactive left-sided tendon reflexes d. Difficulty comprehending instructions
D Right-sided paralysis indicates a left-brain stroke, which will lead to difficulty with comprehension and use of language. The left-side reflexes are likely to be intact. Impulsive behavior and neglect are more likely with a right-side stroke.
The nurse will anticipate teaching a patient with a possible seizure disorder about which test? a. Cerebral angiography b. Evoked potential studies c. Electromyography (EMG) d. Electroencephalography (EEG)
D Seizure disorders are usually assessed using EEG testing. Evoked potential is used for diagnosing problems with the visual or auditory systems. Cerebral angiography is used to diagnose vascular problems. EMG is used to evaluate electrical innervation to skeletal muscle.
When assessing a 53-year-old patient with bacterial meningitis, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient exhibits nuchal rigidity. b. The patient has a positive Kernig's sign. c. The patient's temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). d. The patient's blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg.
D Shock is a serious complication of meningitis, and the patient's low blood pressure indicates the need for interventions such as fluids or vasopressors. Nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernig's sign are expected with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should intervene to lower the temperature, but this is not as life threatening as the hypotension.
After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-year-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 30-year-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 40-year-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 50-year-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light
D The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation.
In which order will the nurse perform the following actions when caring for a patient with possible C5 spinal cord trauma who is admitted to the emergency department? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Infuse normal saline at 150 mL/hr. b. Monitor cardiac rhythm and blood pressure. c. Administer O2 using a non-rebreather mask. d. Immobilize the patient's head, neck, and spine. e. Transfer the patient to radiology for spinal computed tomography (CT).
D, C, B, A, E The first action should be to prevent further injury by stabilizing the patient's spinal cord if the patient does not have penetrating trauma. Maintenance of oxygenation by administration of 100% O2 is the second priority. Because neurogenic shock is a possible complication, monitoring of heart rhythm and BP are indicated, followed by infusing normal saline for volume replacement. A CT scan to determine the extent and level of injury is needed once initial assessment and stabilization are accomplished.
A client is hospitalized with head trauma. Which imaging test should the nurse anticipate being prescribed by the primary healthcare provider to rule out a cervical spine fracture? 1 Plain x-ray 2 Cerebral angiography 3 Computed tomography (CT) 4 Positron emission tomography (PET)
1 A plain x-ray is used to identify the fracture. Cerebral angiography is used to visualize blockages in arteries or veins present in the brain. Computed tomography (CT) is used to generate three-dimensional detailed anatomical pictures of the brain and spinal cord. Positron emission tomography (PET) shows the type and location of brain dysfunction by measuring metabolic activity.
A client arrives in the emergency department unconscious and exhibiting decerebrate posturing. When assessing the client, what does the nurse expect to observe? 1 Hyperextension of both the upper and lower extremities 2 Spastic paralysis of both the upper and lower extremities 3 Hyperflexion of the upper extremities and hyperextension of the lower extremities 4 Flaccid paralysis of the upper extremities and spastic paralysis of the lower extremities
1 Limbs hyperextended and arms hyperpronated (extension posturing, decerebrate posturing [1] [2] [3]) indicate upper brainstem damage; this is a grave sign. Spastic paralysis of both the upper and lower extremities is associated with an upper motor neuron disease or lesion. Hyperflexion of the upper extremities and hyperextension of the lower extremities is associated with flexion posturing (decorticate posturing), which indicates damage to the pyramidal motor tract above the brainstem. Flaccid paralysis of the upper extremities and spastic paralysis of the lower extremities is associated with a lower motor neuron disease or lesion.
A nurse expects a client with a herniated intervertebral disk to report a sudden increase in pain with which activities? Select all that apply. 1 Coughing or sneezing 2 Sitting on cold surfaces 3 Standing for extended periods 4 Lying supine while flexing the knees 5 Straining when having a bowel movement
1, 5 Coughing or sneezing, as well as lifting and straining, cause an increase in the intraspinal pressure, resulting in pain. Straining when having a bowel movement increases intraspinal pressure, causing pain. Sitting on cold surfaces does not affect the intraspinal pressure and should not cause pain. Although pain with prolonged standing may increase as a result of compression of the vertebrae, the increase is gradual, not sudden. Flexing the knees and hips relieves intraspinal pressure and pain.
A nurse is precepting an orientee (newly hired nurse). The nurse observes the orientee caring for an unconscious client with increasing intracranial pressure. The nurse should question which intervention that the orientee performs? 1 Lubricating the skin with baby oil 2 Suctioning the oropharynx routinely 3 Elevating the head of the bed 20 degrees 4 Cleansing the eyes every four hours with normal saline
2 Although suctioning is done to maintain an airway, it is not done routinely because it increases intracranial pressure. The nurse should intervene to correct this behavior. All the rest are correct behaviors. Lubricating the skin keeps the skin from drying, which helps prevent skin breakdown. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return to the heart and is used to limit increased intracranial pressure. Instilling artificial tears every two hours is the appropriate intervention. The corneal reflex may be absent in the unconscious client; a dry cornea is prone to injury.
The nurse is conducting a neurologic assessment on a client brought to the emergency room after a motor vehicle accident. While assessing the client's response to pain, the client pulls his arms upward and inward. The nurse recognizes that this response represents an injury to what part of the brain? 1 Frontal lobe 2 Midbrain 3 Pons 4 Brainstem
2 Decorticate posturing [1] [2] [3] is a sign of significant deterioration in a client's neurologic status and is manifested by rigid flexing of elbows and wrists. This can represent an injury to the midbrain. Damage to the frontal lobe would affect motor function, problem solving, spontaneity, memory, language, initiation, judgment, impulse control, and social and sexual behavior. The pons (which is part of the brainstem) and brainstem help control breathing and heart rate, vision, hearing, sweating, blood pressure, digestion, alertness, sleep, and sense of balance. Damage to this area would manifest itself as abnormal responses in the above listed areas.
A client is admitted to the hospital with a head injury sustained while playing soccer. For which early sign of increased intracranial pressure should the nurse monitor this client? 1 Nausea 2 Lethargy 3 Sunset eyes 4 Hyperthermia
2 Lethargy is an early sign of a changing level of consciousness; changing level of consciousness is one of the first signs of increased intracranial pressure. Nausea is a subjective symptom, not a sign, that may be present with increased intracranial pressure. Sunset eyes are a late sign of increased intracranial pressure that occur in children with hydrocephalus. Hyperthermia is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure that occurs as compression of the brainstem increases.
A client is admitted to the hospital with numbness of the hands and feet, which has progressed upward and now involves the arms, legs, and lower trunk. The client tells the nurse that approximately two weeks ago, the client experienced 48 hours of chills, fever, and upper respiratory congestion. A tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome is made. The nurse assesses for what major clinical manifestations of the syndrome? 1 Ptosis and dysphagia 2 Paresthesias and paralysis 3 Atrophy and fasciculations 4 Muscle weakness and drooling
2 Paresthesias and paralysis result from patchy demyelinization of the peripheral nerves, nerve roots, root ganglia, and spinal cord and are related to a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Ptosis and dysphagia are related to myasthenia gravis. Atrophy and fasciculations are related to amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Muscle weakness and drooling are related to Parkinson disease.
The family member of a client with newly diagnosed Guillain-Barré syndrome comes out to the nurse's station and informs the nurse that the client is having difficulty breathing. What is the first action the nurse should do? 1 Notify the healthcare provider. 2 Go with the family member to assess the client. 3 Send the nursing assistive personnel to take vital signs. 4 Assure the family member this is a normal response for this disease
2 The initial response for the nurse is to assess the client to ensure a patent airway. Guillain-Barré syndrome will exhibit ascending paralysis and can impede respiratory function. The healthcare provider will be notified after the nurse has assessed the client. The nurse needs to personally assess the client since this is a change in condition; the nurse should not send the nursing assistive personnel to assess the client. This is not a normal response to this disease, so it is not correct to assure the family member of this.
During a seizure, a client had sudden loss of muscle tone that lasted for a few seconds followed by confusion. Which statement about this type of seizures is true? Select all that apply. 1 These seizures are associated with amnesia. 2 These seizures increase the risk of injuries due to fall. 3 These seizures are most resistant to drug therapy. 4 These seizures are preceded by perception of an offensive smell. 5 These seizures cause one sided movement of extremities in the client
2, 3 Atonic (akinetic) seizures are characterized by a sudden loss of muscle tone lasting for seconds followed by postictal confusion. These seizures cause the client to fall because of the decreased muscle tone, which may result in injury. This type of seizure tends to be most resistant to drug therapy. Amnesia is associated with complex partial seizures. In simple partial seizures, the client reports an aura and perception of unusual sensations, such as an offensive smell and sudden onset of pain. Simple partial seizures are also associated with one-sided movement of the extremities.
A client with a traumatic brain injury is demonstrating signs of increasing intracranial pressure, which may exert pressure on the medulla. What should the nurse assess to determine involvement of the medulla? Select all that apply. 1 Taste 2 Breathing 3 Heart rate 4 Fluid balance 5 Voluntary movement
2, 3 The medulla, part of the brainstem just above the foramen magnum, is concerned with vital functions such as breathing. The medulla is concerned with vital functions [1] [2] such as heart rate. The opercular-insular area of the parietal cerebral lobe is concerned with taste sensations. The medulla is not concerned with fluid balance. Osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus cause increased or decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion depending on serum osmolarity. Voluntary movements are mediated through the somatomotor area of the cerebral cortex.
A nurse uses the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess a client's status after a head injury. When the nurse applies pressure to the nail bed of a finger, which movement of the client's upper arm should cause the most concern? 1 Flexing 2 Localizing 3 Extending 4 Withdrawing
3 Abnormal upper arm extension receives a rate of 2 because it is characteristic of decerebrate (extension) posturing. Greater injury leads to less purposeful movement. Decerebrate posturing indicates severe brain injury; the only more serious response is total lack of response. Flexing, characteristic of decorticate (flexion) posturing associated with severe brain injury, receives a rate of 3. Localizing receives a rate of 5. The inability to withdraw from a painful stimulus indicates the greatest neurologic impairment. Withdrawing receives a rate of 4.
A nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury during the immediate postinjury period. Which is the priority focus of nursing care during this immediate phase? 1 Inhibiting urinary tract infections 2 Preventing contractures and atrophy 3 Avoiding flexion or hyperextension of the spine 4 Preparing the client for vocational rehabilitation
3 The priority of care at this time is to protect the spine from additional damage to the traumatized area while it heals. Infection can result from prolonged immobility; although important, it is not the immediate priority. Although important, preventing contractures and atrophy is not the priority in the immediate postinjury period. Vocational rehabilitation will assume greater importance after the client's condition stabilizes.
A client experiences a traumatic brain injury. Which finding identified by the nurse indicates damage to the upper motor neurons? 1 Absent reflexes 2 Flaccid muscles 3 Trousseau sign 4 Babinski response
4 A Babinski response [1] [2] [3] (dorsiflexion of the first toe and fanning of the other toes) is a reaction to stroking the lateral sole of the foot with a blunt object; it is indicative of damage to the corticospinal tract when seen in adults. Hyperreflexia is associated with upper motor neuron damage. Increased muscle tone (spasticity) is associated with upper motor neuron damage. The Trousseau sign is indicative of hypocalcemia.
A client who sustained a severe head injury remains unconscious. During the client's assessment, the nurse observes bleeding from the left ear and rhinorrhea. What injury does the nurse conclude that drainage from the ear and nose indicates? 1 Contusion 2 Concussion 3 Nose fracture 4 Basilar fracture
4 A fracture at the base of the cranium can tear meninges, causing nasal leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (rhinorrhea) and bleeding from the ear. A bruise will not cause these responses. A severe jarring of the brain will not cause these responses. A nose fracture will not produce a clear drainage, and the ears will not be draining.
After an anterior fossa craniotomy, a client is placed on controlled mechanical ventilation. To ensure adequate cerebral blood flow, which action should the nurse take? 1 Clear the ear of draining fluid. 2 Discontinue anticonvulsant therapy. 3 Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. 4 Monitor serum carbon dioxide levels routinely
4 Carbon dioxide levels must be maintained since carbon dioxide can cause vasodilation, increasing intracranial pressure, and decreasing blood flow. The fluid may be cerebrospinal fluid; clearing the ear may cause further damage. Because of manipulation during a craniotomy, anticonvulsants are given prophylactically to prevent seizures. Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees will not increase cerebral blood flow.
A client who was a passenger in an automobile collision is admitted to the emergency department with rhinorrhea and bleeding from the ear. The healthcare provider determines that the client has a basilar head injury. What should the nurse anticipate is the initial focus of care for this client? 1 Physical therapy 2 Psychosocial support 3 Nutritional management 4 Antimicrobial administration
4 Preventing infection through the use of prophylactic antibiotics is the priority. Tearing the meninges may have introduced infectious organisms. Physical therapy is premature; physical therapy begun too early can increase intracranial pressure. Although psychosocial support is important, it is not the priority. Nutrition is not the priority at this time.
Which responses should alert the nurse that a client with a spinal cord injury is developing autonomic dysreflexia? 1 Flaccid paralysis and numbness 2 Absence of sweating and pyrexia 3 Escalating tachycardia and shock 4 Paroxysmal hypertension and bradycardia
4 When autonomic dysreflexia [1] [2] is identified, immediate intervention is necessary to prevent serious complications. Paralysis is related to transection, not to dysreflexia; the client will have no sensation below the injury. Profuse diaphoresis occurs. Bradycardia occurs. These clinical findings occur as a result of exaggerated autonomic responses.
A 68-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor by his spouse. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Check oxygen saturation. b. Assess pupil reaction to light. c. Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. d. Palpate the head for hematoma or bony irregularities.
A Airway patency and breathing are the most vital functions, and should be assessed first. The neurologic assessments should be accomplished next and additional assessment after that.
A 45-year-old patient has a dysfunction of the cerebellum. The nurse will plan interventions to a. prevent falls. b. stabilize mood. c. avoid aspiration. d. improve memory.
A Because functions of the cerebellum include coordination and balance, the patient with dysfunction is at risk for falls. The cerebellum does not affect memory, mood, or swallowing ability.
A nurse who works on the neurology unit just received change-of-shift report. Which patient will the nurse assess first? a. Patient with botulism who is experiencing difficulty swallowing b. Patient with Bell's palsy who has herpes vesicles in front of the ear c. Patient with neurosyphilis who has tabes dorsalis and decreased deep tendon reflexes d. Patient with an abscess caused by injectable drug use who needs tetanus immune globulin
A The patient's diagnosis and difficulty swallowing indicate that the nurse should rapidly assess for respiratory distress. The information about the other patients is consistent with their diagnoses and does not indicate any immediate need for assessment or intervention.
A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.
A The patient's low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurse's first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly.
To assess the functioning of the trigeminal and facial nerves (CNs V and VII), the nurse should a. shine a light into the patient's pupil. b. check for unilateral eyelid drooping. c. touch a cotton wisp strand to the cornea. d. have the patient read a magazine or book.
A The trigeminal and facial nerves are responsible for the corneal reflex. The optic nerve is tested by having the patient read a Snellen chart or a newspaper. Assessment of pupil response to light and ptosis are used to check function of the oculomotor nerve.
When caring for a patient who experienced a T2 spinal cord transection 24 hours ago, which collaborative and nursing actions will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Urinary catheter care b. Nasogastric (NG) tube feeding c. Continuous cardiac monitoring d. Maintain a warm room temperature e. Administration of H2 receptor blockers
A, C, D, E The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. Gastrointestinal (GI) motility is decreased initially and NG suctioning is indicated. To avoid bladder distention, a urinary retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication, but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers such as famotidine.
A 68-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor by his spouse. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Check oxygen saturation. b. Assess pupil reaction to light. c. Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. d. Palpate the head for hematoma or bony irregularities.
ANS: A Airway patency and breathing are the most vital functions, and should be assessed first. The neurologic assessments should be accomplished next and additional assessment after that
Which patient is most appropriate for the intensive care unit (ICU) charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the medical unit? a. A 45-year-old receiving IV antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis b. A 25-year-old admitted with a skull fracture and craniotomy the previous day c. A 55-year-old who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is receiving hyperventilation therapy d. A 35-year-old with ICP monitoring after a head injury last week
ANS: A An RN who works on a medical unit will be familiar with administration of IV antibiotics and with meningitis. The postcraniotomy patient, patient with an ICP monitor, and the patient on a ventilator should be assigned to an RN familiar with the care of critically ill patients
A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether a patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory b. Muscle coordination c. Glasgow Coma Scale d. Pupil reaction to light
ANS: A Decreased short-term memory is one indication of postconcussion syndrome. The other data may be assessed but are not indications of postconcussion syndrome.
Which action will the public health nurse take to reduce the incidence of epidemic encephalitis in a community? a. Encourage the use of effective insect repellents during mosquito season. b. Remind patients that most cases of viral encephalitis can be cared for at home. c. Teach about the importance of prophylactic antibiotics after exposure to encephalitis. d. Arrange for screening of school-age children for West Nile virus during the school year.
ANS: A Epidemic encephalitis is usually spread by mosquitoes and ticks. Use of insect repellent is effective in reducing risk. Encephalitis frequently requires that the patient be hospitalized in an intensive care unit during the initial stages. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not used to prevent encephalitis because most encephalitis is viral. West Nile virus is most common in adults over age 50 during the summer and early fall.
A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.
ANS: A The patient's low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurse's first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly
When admitting a 42-year-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.
ANS: A The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED.
The nurse admitting a patient who has a right frontal lobe tumor would expect the patient may have a. expressive aphasia. b. impaired judgment. c. right-sided weakness. d. difficulty swallowing.
ANS: B The frontal lobe controls intellectual activities such as judgment. Speech is controlled in the parietal lobe. Weakness and hemiplegia occur on the contralateral side from the tumor. Swallowing is controlled by the brainstem.
Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation.
ANS: B A patient with a minor head trauma is usually discharged with instructions about neurologic monitoring and the need to return if neurologic status deteriorates. MRI, hospital admission, or surgery are not usually indicated in a patient with a concussion
Which finding for a patient who has a head injury should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Intracranial pressure is 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. b. Pale yellow urine output is 1200 mL over the last 2 hours. c. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg. d. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the last 2 hours.
ANS: B The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy.
After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
ANS: B Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in intracranial pressure, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in intracranial pressure.
An unconscious 39-year-old male patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a head injury. The patient's spouse and teenage children stay at the patient's side and ask many questions about the treatment being given. What action is best for the nurse to take? a. Ask the family to stay in the waiting room until the initial assessment is completed. b. Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them. c. Refer the family members to the hospital counseling service to deal with their anxiety. d. Call the family's pastor or spiritual advisor to take them to the chapel while care is given.
ANS: B The need for information about the diagnosis and care is very high in family members of acutely ill patients. The nurse should allow the family to observe care and explain the procedures unless they interfere with emergent care needs. A pastor or counseling service can offer some support, but research supports information as being more effective. Asking the family to stay in the waiting room will increase their anxiety.
A 46-year-old patient with a head injury opens the eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15.
ANS: B The patient has a score of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response.
A patient with possible viral meningitis is admitted to the nursing unit after lumbar puncture was performed in the emergency department. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees. b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily. c. Administer ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV every 12 hours. d. Give ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for headache.
ANS: B The patient with meningitis has increased fluid needs, so oral fluids should be encouraged. The other actions are appropriate. Slight elevation of the head of the bed will decrease headache without causing leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the lumbar puncture site. Antibiotics should be administered until bacterial meningitis is ruled out by the cerebrospinal fluid analysis.
A 23-year-old patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.
ANS: B The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure (ICP) is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary.
A patient has increased intracranial pressure and a ventriculostomy after a head injury. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who regularly work in the intensive care unit? a. Document intracranial pressure every hour. b. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. c. Check capillary blood glucose level every 6 hours. d. Monitor cerebrospinal fluid color and volume hourly.
ANS: C Experienced UAP can obtain capillary blood glucose levels when they have been trained and evaluated in the skill. Monitoring and documentation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) color and intracranial pressure (ICP) require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice. Although repositioning patients is frequently delegated to UAP, repositioning a patient with a ventriculostomy is complex and should be supervised by the RN.
When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing.
ANS: C Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.
The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication's effectiveness? a. Blood pressure b. Oxygen saturation c. Intracranial pressure d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
ANS: C Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. Oxygen saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration.
A 41-year-old patient who is unconscious has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion related to cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.
ANS: C The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP.
A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5° F (39.2° C) and a severe headache. Which order for collaborative intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO. c. Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature. d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures
ANS: D Antibiotic therapy should be instituted rapidly in bacterial meningitis, but cultures must be done before antibiotics are started. As soon as the cultures are done, the antibiotic should be started. Hypothermia therapy and acetaminophen administration are appropriate but can be started after the other actions are implemented.
A patient has been admitted with meningococcal meningitis. Which observation by the nurse requires action? a. The bedrails at the head and foot of the bed are both elevated. b. The patient receives a regular diet from the dietary department. c. The lights in the patient's room are turned off and the blinds are shut. d. Unlicensed assistive personnel enter the patient's room without a mask.
ANS: D Meningococcal meningitis is spread by respiratory secretions, so it is important to maintain respiratory isolation as well as standard precautions. Because the patient may be confused and weak, bedrails should be elevated at both the foot and head of the bed. Low light levels in the room decrease pain caused by photophobia. Nutrition is an important aspect of care in a patient with meningitis.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4° F (38.6° C)
ANS: D Patients who have basilar skull fractures are at risk for meningitis, so the elevated temperature should be reported to the health care provider. The other findings are typical of a patient with a basilar skull fracture.
After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-year-old patient has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours
ANS: D ROM exercises will help prevent the complications of immobility. Patients with anterior craniotomies are positioned with the head elevated. The patient with a craniectomy should not be turned to the operative side. When the patient is weak, clustering nursing activities may lead to more fatigue and weakness.
When assessing a 53-year-old patient with bacterial meningitis, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient exhibits nuchal rigidity. b. The patient has a positive Kernig's sign. c. The patient's temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). d. The patient's blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg.
ANS: D Shock is a serious complication of meningitis, and the patient's low blood pressure indicates the need for interventions such as fluids or vasopressors. Nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernig's sign are expected with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should intervene to lower the temperature, but this is not as life threatening as the hypotension
After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-year-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 30-year-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 40-year-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 50-year-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light
ANS: D The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation
Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation.
B A patient with a minor head trauma is usually discharged with instructions about neurologic monitoring and the need to return if neurologic status deteriorates. MRI, hospital admission, or surgery are not usually indicated in a patient with a concussion.
Which nursing diagnosis is expected to be appropriate for a patient who has a positive Romberg test? a. Acute pain b. Risk for falls c. Acute confusion d. Ineffective thermoregulation
B A positive Romberg test indicates that the patient has difficulty maintaining balance with the eyes closed. The Romberg does not test for orientation, thermoregulation, or discomfort.
When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. b. localization of pain. c. decorticate posturing. d. decerebrate posturing.
C Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal.
An unconscious male patient has just arrived in the emergency department after a head injury caused by a motorcycle crash. Which order should the nurse question? a. Obtain x-rays of the skull and spine. b. Prepare the patient for lumbar puncture. c. Send for computed tomography (CT) scan. d. Perform neurologic checks every 15 minutes.
B After a head injury, the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding and increased intracranial pressure, which could lead to herniation of the brain if a lumbar puncture is performed. The other orders are appropriate.
Which information about a 76-year-old patient is most important for the admitting nurse to report to the patient's health care provider? a. Triceps reflex response graded at 1/5 b. Unintended weight loss of 20 pounds c. 10 mm Hg orthostatic drop in systolic blood pressure d. Patient complaint of chronic difficulty in falling asleep
B Although changes in appetite are normal with aging, a 20-pound weight loss requires further investigation. Orthostatic drops in blood pressure, changes in sleep patterns, and slowing of reflexes are normal changes in aging.
A patient with possible viral meningitis is admitted to the nursing unit after lumbar puncture was performed in the emergency department. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees. b. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL daily. c. Administer ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV every 12 hours. d. Give ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for headache.
B The patient with meningitis has increased fluid needs, so oral fluids should be encouraged. The other actions are appropriate. Slight elevation of the head of the bed will decrease headache without causing leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the lumbar puncture site. Antibiotics should be administered until bacterial meningitis is ruled out by the cerebrospinal fluid analysis.
A 23-year-old patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.
B The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure (ICP) is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary.
Which cerebrospinal fluid analysis result will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Specific gravity 1.007 b. Protein 65 mg/dL (0.65 g/L) c. Glucose 45 mg/dL (1.7 mmol/L) d. White blood cell (WBC) count 4 cells/mL
B The protein level is high. The specific gravity, WBCs, and glucose values are normal.
Before administering botulinum antitoxin to a patient in the emergency department, it is most important for the nurse to a. obtain the patient's temperature. b. administer an intradermal test dose. c. document the neurologic symptoms. d. ask the patient about an allergy to eggs.
B To assess for possible allergic reactions, an intradermal test dose of the antitoxin should be administered. Although temperature, allergy history, and symptom assessment and documentation are appropriate, these assessments will not affect the decision to administer the antitoxin.
Which assessments will the nurse make to monitor a patient's cerebellar function (select all that apply)? a. Assess for graphesthesia. b. Observe arm swing with gait. c. Perform the finger-to-nose test. d. Check ability to push against resistance. e. Determine ability to sense heat and cold.
B, C The cerebellum is responsible for coordination and is assessed by looking at the patient's gait and the finger-to-nose test. The other assessments will be used for other parts of the neurologic assessment.
A 68-year-old patient is being admitted with a possible stroke. Which information from the assessment indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed aspirin? a. The patient has dysphasia. b. The patient has atrial fibrillation. c. The patient reports that symptoms began with a severe headache. d. The patient has a history of brief episodes of right-sided hemiplegia.
C A sudden onset headache is typical of a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and aspirin is contraindicated. Atrial fibrillation, dysphasia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA) are not contraindications to aspirin use, so the nurse can administer the aspirin.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing stroke symptoms for 60 minutes. Which action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assess the patient's gag and cough reflexes. b. Determine when the stroke symptoms began. c. Administer the prescribed short-acting insulin. d. Infuse the prescribed IV metoprolol (Lopressor).
C Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. The other actions require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).
A 70-year-old female patient with left-sided hemiparesis arrives by ambulance to the emergency department. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the blood pressure. b. Send the patient for a computed tomography (CT) scan. c. Check the respiratory rate and effort. d. Assess the Glasgow Coma Scale score.
C The initial nursing action should be to assess the airway and take any needed actions to ensure a patent airway. The other activities should take place quickly after the ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation) are completed.
A 27-year-old patient is hospitalized with new onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out is a. determining level of consciousness. b. checking strength of the extremities. c. observing respiratory rate and effort. d. monitoring the cardiac rate and rhythm
C The most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure, and the nurse should monitor respiratory function continuously. The other assessments will also be included in nursing care, but they are not as important as respiratory assessment.
A 63-year-old patient who began experiencing right arm and leg weakness is admitted to the emergency department. In which order will the nurse implement these actions included in the stroke protocol? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast. b. Infuse tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). c. Administer oxygen to keep O2 saturation >95%. d. Use National Institute of Health Stroke Scale to assess patient.
C, D, A, B The initial actions should be those that help with airway, breathing, and circulation. Baseline neurologic assessments should be done next. A CT scan will be needed to rule out hemorrhagic stroke before tPA can be administered.
A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5° F (39.2° C) and a severe headache. Which order for collaborative intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO. c. Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature. d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures.
D Antibiotic therapy should be instituted rapidly in bacterial meningitis, but cultures must be done before antibiotics are started. As soon as the cultures are done, the antibiotic should be started. Hypothermia therapy and acetaminophen administration are appropriate but can be started after the other actions are implemented.
Which of these nursing actions for a 64-year-old patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Nasogastric tube feeding q4hr b. Artificial tear administration q2hr c. Assessment for bladder distention q2hr d. Passive range of motion to extremities q4hr
D Assisting a patient with movement is included in UAP education and scope of practice. Administration of tube feedings, administration of ordered medications, and assessment are skills requiring more education and scope of practice, and the RN should perform these skills.
A patient admitted with possible stroke has been aphasic for 3 hours and his current blood pressure (BP) is 174/94 mm Hg. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Keep head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr. c. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) per protocol. d. Administer a labetalol (Normodyne) drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg.
D Because elevated BP may be a protective response to maintain cerebral perfusion, antihypertensive therapy is recommended only if mean arterial pressure (MAP) is >130 mm Hg or systolic pressure is >220 mm Hg. Fluid intake should be 1500 to 2000 mL daily to maintain cerebral blood flow. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees, unless the patient has symptoms of poor tissue perfusion. tPA may be administered if the patient meets the other criteria for tPA use.
A 56-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department with hemiparesis and dysarthria that started 2 hours previously, and health records show a history of several transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). The nurse anticipates preparing the patient for a. surgical endarterectomy. b. transluminal angioplasty. c. intravenous heparin administration. d. tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) infusion.
D The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest an acute ischemic stroke and a patient who is seen within 4.5 hours of stroke onset is likely to receive tPA (after screening with a CT scan). Heparin administration in the emergency phase is not indicated. Emergent carotid transluminal angioplasty or endarterectomy is not indicated for the patient who is having an acute ischemic stroke.
The nurse performing a focused assessment of left posterior temporal lobe functions will assess the patient for a. sensation on the left side of the body. b. voluntary movements on the right side. c. reasoning and problem-solving abilities. d. understanding written and oral language.
D The posterior temporal lobe integrates the visual and auditory input for language comprehension. Reasoning and problem solving are functions of the anterior frontal lobe. Sensation on the left side of the body is located in the right postcentral gyrus. Voluntary movement on the right side is controlled in the left precentral gyrus.
A patient in the emergency department with sudden-onset right-sided weakness is diagnosed with an intracerebral hemorrhage. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's speech is difficult to understand. b. The patient's blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg. c. The patient takes a diuretic because of a history of hypertension. d. The patient has atrial fibrillation and takes warfarin (Coumadin).
D The use of warfarin probably contributed to the intracerebral bleeding and remains a risk factor for further bleeding. Administration of vitamin K is needed to reverse the effects of the warfarin, especially if the patient is to have surgery to correct the bleeding. The history of hypertension is a risk factor for the patient but has no immediate effect on the patient's care. The BP of 144/90 indicates the need for ongoing monitoring but not for any immediate change in therapy. Slurred speech is consistent with a left-sided stroke, and no change in therapy is indicated.
The priority nursing assessment for a 72-year-old patient being admitted with a brainstem infarction is a. reflex reaction time. b. pupil reaction to light. c. level of consciousness. d. respiratory rate and rhythm.
D Vital centers that control respiration are located in the medulla, and these are the priority assessments because changes in respiratory function may be life threatening. The other information will also be collected by the nurse, but it is not as urgent.
