Nutrition ATI

a nurs eis calcilating the protein needs of a young adult client who weight 132 lb. the RDA for protein for an adult who has no medical conditions is 0.8g/kg. how many grams of proteins per day should the nurse recommend for this client? (Fill in the blank)

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a nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a gastrectomy. Which of the following strategies should the nurse include to help prevent dumping syndrome.? A. have the client drink plenty of water with meals b. eliminate simple sugars and sugar alcohols from the client's diet C. limit the client's intake to 2 meals per day d. offer the client meals that are low in protein or protein-free

**B** rationale: sugar, honey, and sugar alcohols increase hypertonicity and propel food through the intestines faster than food without sweeteners. A. The client should drink beverages between meals only, about 1 hour after eating solid foods. mixing food and fluids propels the mixture through the gastrointestinal tract faster than solid food alone. C. the client should have several smaller meals that include only 1 or 2 foods throughout the day. D. The client should ingest protein at every meal to slow gastric emptying

A nurse is providing teaching to a client regarding protein intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse include as an example of an incomplete protein? a. eggs b. soybeans c. lentils d. yogurt

**C** Rationale: incomplete proteins are missing 1 or more of the essential amino acids necessary for the synthesis of protein in the body. Examples of incomplete proteins include lentils, veggies, grains, nuts, and seeds ABD. complete proteins such as eggs, soybeans, and yogurt contain all the essential amino acids necessary for the synthesis of the protein in the body

a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral feedings through an NG tube. the specific gravity of the client's urine is 1.035. which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. deliver the formula at a slower rate b. request a lower-fat formula c. provide more water with feedings d. instill a lactose-free formula

**C** rationale: the elevation in the client's specific gravity indicates dehydration. the nurse should provide more fluids either by adding free water to feedings or by instilling water between feedings. A. slowing the delivery rate is an intervention for diarrhea B. instilling a lower-fat formula is an intervention for abdominal distension and bloating D. instilling a lactose-free formula is an intervention for nausea and vomiting

A nurse is planning an in-service training session for a group of nurses regarding the role of enzyme in digestion. Which of the following enzymes plays a role in the digestion of protein? A. amylase B. Lipase C. Steapsin D. Pepsin

**D** Rationale: Pepsin is an enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa that breaks down protein into polypeptides. Other enzymes such as trypsin and aminospeptides into amino acids, which can be used by the body. A. Amylase is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas and intestine that breaks down starches into glucose B. lipase is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that breaks down glycerides into monoglycerides C. Steapsin is an enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa that breaks down triglycerides in monoglycerides

A nurse is caring for a client who has a defiency of VD. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend the client include in this diet? A. whole milk B. chicken C. orange D. dried peas

**A** Rationale: The fat-soluble vitamins (ADEK) requires fatty substances or tissues to be dissolved and also require the presence of bile in the small intestine for absorption. whole milk contains fortified with VD. B. the water-soluble vitamins (B complex and C) readily dissolve in water and are absorbed into the blood stream from the small intestine. Chicken contains many fo the B2, B3, B6, B12 and pantothenic acid C. The water-soluble vitamins (B and C) readily dissolve in water and are absorbed into the blood stream from the small intestine. Orange area good source of VC. D. The water-soluble vitamins readily dissolve in water and are absorbed into the blood stream from the small intestine. Dried peas are good source of many of the B complex, B1, folate and pantothenic acid.

A nurse is caring for a client who has protein malnutrition. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as a source of complete protein? A. eggs B. cereal C. peanut butter D. pasta

**A** Rationale: complete proteins contains all of the essential amino acids to support growth and homeostasis. examples of complete proteins including eggs, meat, poultry, seafood, milk, yogurt, cheese, soybeans, and soybean products. B. incomplete protein are missing one or more of the essential amino acids necessary to support growth and maintain homeostasis. cereal is an example of incomplete protein. however, it can be combined with skim milk to make a complete protein. C. peanut butter is an example of an incomplete protein. however, it can be combined with whole-wheat bread to make a complete protein D. pasta is an example of an incomplete protein. however, it can be combined with cheese to make complete protein.

a nurse is providing teaching to a female client who has a new prescription for pravastatin to treat hyperlipidemia. which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. pravastatin can be taken with grapefruit juice b. pravastatin can be continued during pregnancy c. pravastatin should be taken with the evening meal d. laboratory testing to monitor the client's WBC count is required

**A** Rationale: grapefruit juice increases the bioavailability of some medications, but it does not have this effect on pravastatin. it is safe for the client to take the medication with grapefruit juice if desired. B. pravastatin can cause fetal anomalies if taken during pregnancy. the nurse should instruct the client to notify her provider if pregnancy is planned or if she becomes pregnant C. taking pravastatin with food decreases absorption. the nurse should instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime D. clients who are taking statin medications should have laboratory testing to evaluate liver function prior to starting the medication and should undergo cholesterol and triglyceride testing periodically during treatment. pravastatin does not affect the WBC count

a nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has protein-calories malnutrition. which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. decreased albumin b. elevated hemoglobin c. elevated lymphocytes d. decreased cortisol

**A** rationale: a decrease in albumin level can be an indication of long-term protein depletion. Other potential conditions that results in decreased albumin levels include burns, wound drainage, and impaired hepatic function B. protein-calorie malnutrition can negatively impact the production of RBCs, resulting in a decrease in hemoglobin. C. nutritional deficiencies such as protein-calories malnutrition can result in low lymphocyte levels, which increases the client's risk of infection. D. cortisol is a glucocorticoid that plays in the metabolism of proteins, fats, and carbs. low levels are associated with Addison's disease. However, cortisol is not reflective of protein-calorie malnutrition.

a nurse is teaching a group of clients about the functions of the liver and gallbladder. which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching as the purpose of bile? a. digesting fats b. producing chyme c. stimulating gastric acid secretion d. providing energy

**A** rationale: bile is a product of the liver and aids in the digestion of fats B. chyme is a semi-solid mixture of food and gastric secretion that is formed in the stomach C. Gastrin is a hormone produced by the stomach mucosa that stimulates the release of gastric secretions during the process of digestion D. glycogen is stored in the liver and is released in the form of glucose to meet the body's energy needs.

a nurse is teaching the parent of a school-age child who has celiac disease. Which of the following foods selected by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. corn tortilla with black beans b. pizza c. canned soup d. hot dogs

**A** rationale: children who have celiac disease are placed on gluten-free diet. gluten is found in wheat, rye, and barley. selecting products made from corn indicates an understanding of the teaching, as corn and bean are gluten-free foods B. pizza often contains gluten. gluten is found in wheat, rye, and barley and should be avoided by a child who has celiac disease C. prepared soups often contain gluten D. hot dogs and hot dogs buns often contain gluten

a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has end-stage renal disease and reports fatigue. the client's hemoglobin level is 8 g/dL. the nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following medications? a. erythropoietin b. erythromycin c. filgrastim d. calcitriol

**A** rationale: erythropoietin stimulates the production of RBCs and is used to treat anemia associated with chronic renal failure Erythromycin is used to treat infections. there is no indication that this client is experiencing an infection C. filgrastim is used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. there is no indication that this client is experience neutropenia D. calcitriol is used to prevent hypocalcemia in clients who have chronic kidney disease. there is not indication that this client is experiencing hypocalcemia

a nurse is planning an in-service training session about nutrition. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Fats provides energy B. Carbs repair body tissues C. fats regulate fluid balance D. carbs prevent interstitial edema

**A** rationale: fat serves as a stored energy source for the body, providing 9 cal/g of energy B. protein plays a role in tissue repair C. protein primarily responsible for regulating fluid balance D. the presence of protein prevents interstitial edema. an appropriate amount of albumin in blood keeps interstitial edema from occurring.

a nurse is caring for a client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for calcium supplements. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to promote calcium absorption? a. fortified milk b. ripe bananas c. steamed broccoli d. green leafy veggies

**A** rationale: fortified milk provides 2.45 mcg of vitamin D, which promotes calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. Adults up to age 70 need 600 international units of vitamin D per day and 800 international units thereafter. Therefore, fortified milk is a good source of vitamin D. B. bananas are a good source of potassium and can reduce bone loss. however, bananas, do not promote calcium absorption. c. broccoli is a good source of vitamin c, which is important for bone matrix formation. however, steamed broccoli does not promote calcium absorption D. green leafy veggies are a good source of VK. however. green leafy veggies contain oxalic acid, which decreases calcium absorption

A nurse is presenting an in-service training session about nutrition. Which of the following simple sugars should the nurse identify as the carbohydrate found in milk? A. Lactose B. Sucrose C. Maltose D. Fructose

**A. Lactose** Rationale: The nurse should identify that lactose is a form of sugar that is found in milk. B. Sucrose is table sugar and is also found in fruits and veggies C. Maltose is found in germinating cereals, such as barley D. Fructose is found in honey and fruit

a nurse is providing nutritional counseling for a client who is pregnant. which of the following nutrients should the nurse instruct the client to increase in her daily diet? a. iron b. calcium c. VE d. VK

**A** rationale: iron supplements are recommended during pregnancy to promote adequate transfer of iron to the fetus and to support the expansion of the maternal RBC mass. B. calcium is essential for fetal bone and tooth development. however, the recommended daily calcium intake for women of childbearing age is sufficient for a client who is pregnant. C. VE is essential for protection against oxidative stress, so it is important for women who are pregnant to have an adequate supply of this nutrient. However, the recommended daily VE intake for women of childbearing age is sufficient for a client who is pregnant. D. VK can help prevent a rare bleeding disorder in newborns. However, the recommended daily VK intake for women of childbearing age in sufficient for a client who is pregnant.

a nurse is caring for a client who has peripheral edema. The nurse should identify that which of the following nutrients regulates extracellular fluid volume? a. sodium b. calcium c. potassium d. magnesium

**A** rationale: sodium regulates extracellular fluid balance, nerve impulse transmission, acid-based balance, and various other cellular activities B. calcium supports bone and tooth formation and facilitates nerve impulse transmission. However, it does not affect extracellular fluid volume C. potassium affects storage of glycogen, nerve impulse transmission, cardiac conduction, and smooth muscle contraction. However, it does not affect extracellular fluid volume D. Magnesium affects enzyme and neurochemical activities and the excitability of cardiac and skeletal muscle. However, it does not affect extracellular fluid volumes.

a nurse is teaching dietary- modification strategies to a client who has been newly diagnosed with cirrhosis. which of the following foods should the nurse recommend? a. grilled chicken b. potato soup c. fish sticks d. baked ham

**A** rationale: the nurse should identify that a client who has cirrhosis requires protein to compensate for disease-related weight loss. increasing protein intake from animal or plant sources will provide that client with more energy. B.A client who has cirrhosis should avoid foods that are high in sodium content, especially if ascities is present; therefore, the nurse should recommend another food choice. C. a client who has cirrhosis should avoid foods that are high fat, especially if the client is experiencing steatorrhea; therefore, the nurse should recommend another food choice D. a client who has cirrhosis should avoid foods that are high in sodium, especially if ascites is present; therefore, the nurse should recommend another food choice

A nurse is teaching about a low-cholesterol diet to a client who had a myocardial infarction. which of the following meal selections by the client indicates an understand of the teaching? a. chicken breast and corn on the cob b. shrimp and rice c. cheese omelet and turkey bacon d. liver and onions

**A** rationale: the nurse should identify that chicken breast is low in cholesterol, and all veggies, including corn, are cholesterol-free; therefore, this food selection by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching. B. shrimp are high in cholesterol and should be eaten in moderation; therefore, this food selection does not indicate an understanding of a low-cholesterol diet c. eggs and cheese are high in cholesterol; therefore, this food selection does not indicate an understanding of low-cholesterol diet d. liver and other organ meats are high in cholesterol; therefore, this food selection does not indicate an understanding of low-cholesterol diet.

a nurse is teaching a client with heart disease about a low-cholesterol diet. which of the following client statement indicates the teaching was effective? a. i should remove the skin from poultry before eating it b. i will eat seafood once per week c. i should use margarine when preparing meals d. i can use whole milk in my oatmeal

**A** rationale: the nurse should identify the client understands the teaching when he states he will remove the skin form poultry before eating, as the skin contains the greatest amount of fat b. a client who has heart disease and is on a low-cholesterol diet should eat seafood at least twice per week because it is high in omega-3 fatty acids c. a client who has heart disease and is on a low-cholesterol diet should use liquid oils such as canola oil instead of margarine, which is a solid fat d. a client who has heart disease and is on low-cholesterol diet should use nonfat or low-fat milk instead of whole milk in oatmeal or cereal

a nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with AIDS who has stomatitis of the mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. you can suck on a popsicle to numb your tongue b. season food with spices instead of salt c. avoid the use of a straw to drink liquids d. eat foods at hot temperatures

**A** rationale: the nurse should instruct the client to suck on popsicles or ice chips. which can numb the mouth B. the client should avoid spices, acidic foods, and salt, which can irritate and burn the mouth C. the client should instruct the client that using a straw can decrease the comfort when drinking liquids D. the client should consume foods that are cold or at room temperature. hot foods can be irritating or possibly burn the mouth

A nurse is teaching a group of parents of toddlers about measures to reduce the risk of choking. Which of the following foods increase the risk of choking in toddlers? (Select all that apply). A. Hot Dogs B. Grapes C. Bagels D. Marshmallows E. Graham Crackers

**A, B, C, D** Rationale: Foods that are shpaed in a tube, such as hot dogs and grapes, place toddlers at risk for choking becasue they can completely block the throat when swallowed whole due to their shape and solidity. Foods that are hard to chew, such as bagels and marshmallows, place toddlers at risk for choking; if swallowed before they are adequately chewed, they can block the airway. E. All foods and fluids can potentially cause choking. However, graham crackers become soft quickly when mixed with saliva. Their consistency when wet is more like cooked cereal or soft cookies soaked in milk. Therefore, graham crackers do not pose an increased choking hazard for toddlers.

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following disorders should the nurse identify as increasing the client's metabolic needs? (Select all that apply). A. COPD B. hypothyroidism C. cancer D. Parkinson's disease e. major burns

**A, C, D, E,** Rationale: client who have COPD develop hypermetabolic as a result of the increased amount of energy used to breathe. Cancer can cause a number of metabolic change, including hypermetabolic as a result of the tumor growth. clients who have Parkinson's disease develop hypermetabolic because they burn calories due to muscular rigidity. finally, clients who have major burns develop severe metabolic stress, which include hypermetabolic and hypercatabolic. B. insufficient thyroid hormone results in decreased metabolism.

A nurse is caring for a client during her first prenatal visit and notes that she is lactose-intolerant. Which of the following foods should the nurse include on the list of calcium sources for the client? A. collard greens B. Cottage Cheese C. Orange Juice D. Broccoli

**A.** Rationale: Collard greens are a good source of lactose-free calcium. One cup of collard greens provides approximately the same amount of calcium as the equivalent volume to 8ox of milk. Collard greens also contain folic acid, which is a nutrient women should consume during pregnancy to prevent birth defects. B. cottage cheese is a good source of calcium but contains lactose, which the client cannot tolerate C. orange juice is high in VC, but unless the orange juice is calcium-fortified, it is not a rich source of calcium D. broccoli is high in folic acid, but it is not a rich source of calcium

A nurse is teaching a client with chronic kidney disease about predialysis dietary recommendations. The nurse should recommend restricting the intake of which of the following nutrients? A. protein B. carbs C. calcium D. monounsaturated fats

**A.** Rationale: Dietary restrictions for clients who have chronic kidney disease vary based on the degree of the kidney function; however, most clients need protein limitations. Predialysis protein restriction can help preserves some kidney function B. Clients who have kidney disease require enough calories to avoid the use of muscle protein of energy. Carbohydrates are a good source of calories for these clients. C. many clients who have chronic kidney disease require calcium, VD, and iron supplements D. Clients who have chronic kidneys disease require enough calories to avoid the use of muscle protein from energy. Foods like canola oil and olive oil are monounsaturated fats that can supply additional calories in the client's meals.

a nurse is caring for an older adult client who has dementia, gets up frequently to pace during meals, and eats sparingly. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. provide finger foods for the client B. offer food at fewer times each day to promote hunger C. administer a benzodiazepine medication to a client before meals D. assist the client to sit still during meals using soft restraints

**A.** Rationale: Finger foods will provide nutrition and accommodate the client's behavior. B. offering food at fewer times each day is likely to decrease the client's intake and is inappropriate. instead, the nurse should provide snacks between meals and in the evenings if the client is at risk for under nutrition C. Administration of a benzodiazepine medication before meals is a form of restrains and should be used only for safety of the client or others. In addition, the medication can make the client drowsy. D. Use of the physical restraints should be reserved only for the safety of the client or others. In addition, restraining the client is likely to promote agitation.

A provider tells a client at 12 weeks gestation who practices Hinduism that she needs more protein in her diet and suggests eating more meet. After the provider leaves the examination room, the client tells the nurse that eating animal products will cause her to miscarry. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. Let's discuss other foods that are also high in protein that can substitute meat B. eating meat during pregnancy necessary protein and does not cause miscarriage C. why do you think that eating animal products will cause you to have a miscarriage? D. your doctor is recommending what is best for you and your baby

**A.** Rationale: Many cultures have beliefs about food that the nurse should respect. Discussing non-animal protein sources can help the client identify foods that do not conflict with her religious and cultural beliefs. B. this is a nontherapeutic response that contradicts the client's beliefs. C. asking a "why" question is nontherapeutic. The client might not know the answer and could become defensive. D. This a nontherapeutic response that dismisses the client's concerns.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a prescription for a low-sodium diet to manage HTN. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. " I can snake on fresh fruit" B. "I can continue to eat lunchmeat sandwiches" C. "I can have cottage cheese with my meals" D. "Canned soup is a good lunch option"

**A.** Rationale: The nurse should identify that fresh fruit contain little to no sodium and are a good snack for a client who has HTN. B. Lunchmeats are usually high in sodium and should be avoided. The nurse should recommend choosing lower-sodium option, such as fresh fish or poultry. C. Cottage cheese contains 390mg per 113 g( 1/2c) of sodium. the nurse should recommend choosing low-fat yogurt as a low-sodium snack D. Canned soups contain high amounts of sodium. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid convince and fast foods such as canned or dry-packaged soups.

A nurse in a pediatric clinic is talking with the parent of a toddler who states that her child will not sit at the table to eat with the family. She asks the nurse for recommendations for "finger food" for her child. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest? a. slices of ripe banana b. popcorn c. slices of hot dog d. raw carrots

**A.** Rationale: Toddlers should have about 1 cup of fruit every day. Bananas are nutritious and as long as they are soft, do not present a choking hazard for young children B. popcorn chunks of cheese and raisins present choking hazards for young children C. hot dogs, sausages, and tough meat present choking hazards for young children D. raw carrots, nuts, and seeds present choking hazards for young children

a nurse is providing teaching a client who has gout and urolithiasis. the client asks how to prevent future uric acid stones. which of the following suggestions should the nurse provide? Select all that apply. a. take allopurinol as prescribed b. exercise several times a week c. limit intake of foods high in purine d. decrease daily fluid intake e. avoid citrus juices

**ABC** rationale: the nurse should inform the client that allopurinol is an antigout medication that reduces uric acid, which helps prevent uric acid stone formation. immobility is a risk factor for stone formation; therefore, the client should maintain a healthy lifestyle, including regular exercise. purine increases the risk of uric acid stone formation; organ meats, poultry, fish, red wine, and gravy are high in purine. D. maintaining an adequate fluid intake of 2-3 L per day reduces the risk of stone formation E. citrus juices alkalinize the urine, which helps prevent uric acid stone formation

a nurse is caring for a client who has xerostomia with a lack of saliva. which of the following nutrients will be affected by the lack of salivary amylase? A. fat B. protein C. starch D. fiber

**C** Rationale: salivary amylase begins the process of digestion in the mouth of the initial breakdown of starches. The majority of starch breakdown occurs in the small intestine with pancreatic amylase A. lipase breaks down fats B. pepsin breaks down proteins D. fiber is not digestible, but fermentation occurs in the large intestine by intestinal microbes, which results in the release of methane, hydrogen, water, and fatty acids.

a nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a protein deficiency. which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (select all that apply). a. mix powdered skim milk into liquid milk b. add a raw egg to fruit smoothies c. add a slice of cheese to hot veggies d. add honey to hot tea e. mix yogurt into fresh fruit

**ACE** rationale: dairy products are good sources of protein. mixing powdered skin milk into liquid milk can provide the client with additional protein. adding cheese to a veggies can increase the client's protein intake. adding yogurt to fresh fruit will increase the client's protein intake B. clients who are immunocompromised should avoid food that contains raw eggs because they are a potential source of infection D. adding honey to hot tea can increase the client's caloric intake, but this will not increase the client's protein intake

A nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about dietary restrictions for a client who is taking phenelzine to treat depression. the AP's selection of which of the following foods for the client's lunch indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. bologna on wheat bread b. chicken salad c. cheddar cheese and crackers d. pizza with pepperoni

**B** Rationale: Phenelzine is an MAOIs. Clients taking MAOIs must avoid foods that contain tyramine due to the potential for a dangerous food-drug interaction. Food high in tyramine include those that are processed and aged, such as luncheon meats and cheeses. This menu selection does not contain food high in tyramine and indicates an understanding of the teaching. A. This menu selection includes a highly processed meat that contains tyramine; therefore, it is not an appropriate choice. C. This menu selection includes an aged cheese that contains tyramine; therefore, it is not a appropriate choice. D. This menu selection includes pizza, which typically includes age cheese (such as parmesan) and processed meat, both of which contain tyramine; therefore, it is not an appropriate choice.

A nurse is planning an in-service training session about nutrition. Which of following pieces of information should the nurse include? A. fat breaks down into amino acids B. protein serves as an energy source when other sources are inadequate C. glucose breaks down into ammonia D. carbohydrates provides 9 cal/g of energy

**B** Rationale: protein is used as an energy source for the body when carbs and fat stores are unavaliable or depleted A. protein breaks down into amino acids C. protein breaks down into ammonia. Glucose dose not produce any products of metabolism D. carbs provides 4 cal/g of energy. fat provides 9 cal/g of energy

a nurse is completing dietary teaching with a client who has heart failure and is prescribed a 2 g sodium diet. which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding teaching? A. i should use salt sparingly while cooking B. i can have yogurt as a dessert C. i should use baking soda when i bake D. i should use canned veggies instead of frozen

**B** Rationale: the client understands the teaching when he selects yogurt as a dessert. yogurt is low in fat and sodium and is a good source and is a good source of calcium and protein A. the client requires further teaching when he states he will use salt sparingly while use salt sparingly while cooking. salt should be eliminated from the client's diet. spices or vinegar, which are low in sodium, can be used to season the client's food C. the client requires further teaching when he states he will use baking soda when baking. baking soda is high in sodium and should be eliminated from the client's diet D. the client requires further teaching when he states he should select canned veggies instead of frozen . canned veggies are high in sodium and should be eliminated from the client's diet. frozen or fresh veggies, which are low in sodium, should be included.

a nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. the nurse determines the client's body mass index is 21.2. this finding is classified as which of the following? a. underweight b. healthy weight c. overweight d. obese

**B** rationale: body mass index (BMI) is a measure of an individual's weight relative to height. A BMI from 18.5 to 24.9 is in the healthy range. Therefore, this client's weight is considered healthy. A. BMI below 18.5 is considered underweight and a health risk C. BMI form 25 to29.9 is in the overweight range D. BMI greater than or equal to the 30 is in the obese range

A nurse is planning an in-service training session regarding nutrition. Which of the following minerals should the nurse identify as involved in oxygen transportation? A. zinc B. iron C. phosphorus d. magnesium

**B** rationale: iron transports oxygen by means of hemoglobin and myoglobin. It is also a component of enzyme systems A. zinc plays a role in tissue growth and wound healing and supports immune functions, but it does not affect oxygen transport. C. phosphorus playing a role in bone and teeth formation and energy metabolism, but it does not affect oxygen transport. D. magnesium affects enzymes and neurochemical activities and the excitability of cardiac and skeletal muscles, but it does not affect oxygen transport.

a nurse is planning an in-service training session about various dietary practices. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. ovo-vegetarian diets excludes eggs b. kosher diets have restrictions regarding how the food must be prepared c. macrobiotic diets are plant-based and exclude all animals and seafood. d. flexitarian diets exclude the consumption of dairy products.

**B** rationale: kosher diets are guided by a set of laws regarding the processing, preparation and eating of food A. ovo-vegetarian diets are primarily veggie-based diets that exclude meat and diary except for eggs C. macrobiotic diets are primarily plant-based but do include fish and seafood D. flexitarian diets are primarily plant-based with the occasional consumption of meat, fish and dairy products.

A nurse is presenting an in-service training session about nutrition. How many of the amino acids must be obtained from dietary intake? a. 6 b. 9 c. 11 d. 15

**B** rationale: proteins are made up of chains of amino acids, which are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. Nine amino acids are considered essential for the human body and must be obtained from diet. these histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan and valine. ACD. of the 20 amino acids identified, the body is able to manufacture 11. these are defined as nonessential amino acids.

a nurse is providing nutritional teaching to a group of clients. Which of the following definitions for the recommended dietary allowance (RDA) should the nurse include in the teaching? A. The RDA is a comprehensive includes various standards and scales. B. The RDA defines the level of nutrient intake that meets the needs of healthy people in various groups C. the RDA defines the levels of nutrients that should not be exceeded to prevent adverse health effects D. The RDA is the daily percentage of energy intake values for fat.

**B** rationale: the RDA represents daily requirements considered adequate for healthy people. RDAs are based on estimated amounts for each nutrient, including additional amounts for individuals such as women and infants. A. DRI include 4 nutrition-based standards that are used to plan dietary intake and evaluate a client's nutritional status. These dietary standards include RDAs, estimated average requirements, adequate intake and tolerable upper intake levels C. tolerable upper intake levels, not RDAs, are the levels of nutrients that should not be exceeded to prevent adverse effects D. acceptable macronutrient distribution ranges are the percentage of energy intake values for fat, carbohydrates, and protein.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has COPD about maintaining proper nutrition. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. i will increase my fluid intake when I eat a meal b. i will eat more cold foods at meals rather than hot foods c. i will avoid high-fat foods like butter and gravies d. i will cook my meals instead of eating convenience foods

**B** rationale: the client should prepare more cold foods to eat because they provide a decreased feeling of fullness compared to hot foods. A. drinking fluids with meals will contribute to early satiety. the client should consume as much food as possible prior to feeling full or tired. C. the nurse should encourage the client to add items such as butter, sauces, and gravy to foods to increase caloric intake. D. the nurse should recommend the client eat convenience foods, easy to prepare meals and ready-prepared meals because they take less energy to cook

a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. administer 0.9% sodium chloride until TPN is available for the pharmacy B. check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hr c. obtain the client's weight each week d. change the IV tubing every 3 days

**B** rationale: the nurse should check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hr or according to facility policy due to the client's risk of hyperglycemia while receiving TPN. the dextrose concentration in the TPN increases the risk of this complication. A. the nurse should administer 10% dextrose in water or 20% dextrose in water if TPN is temporarily unavailable from the pharmacy C. a client who is receiving TPN is a risk for fluid imbalance due to the fluid administration and hyperosmolarity of the TPN; therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's weight daily. D. The nurse should change the IV tubing used for TPN every 24 hours to decrease the client's risk of infection

a nurse is conducting dietary teaching for a client who has AIDS. which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. discard leftovers after 8 hours b. use a separate cutting board for poultry c. thaw frozen foods at room temperature d. store cold foods at 10 degrees Celcius or less.

**B** rationale: the nurse should instruct the client to use a separate cutting board for raw poultry. raw poultry can contain bacteria such as salmonella, which may contaminate other foods or work surfaces. using a separate cutting board prevents cross-contamination of work surfaces when preparing food. a. leftover foods should be discarded after 24 hrs to prevent the growth of bacteria that can cause a foodborne illness C. the client should taw frozen foods in the refrigerator to prevent the growth of bacteria that can cause a foodborne illness. D. the client should store cold foods at 4.4 degrees Celsius or less. this prevents the growth of bacteria that can cause a foodborne illness.

a nurse is conducting dietary teaching with client who has a history of renal calculi. Which of the following instructions should the nurse included in the teaching? a. consume foods containing VC b. drink 3.8 L of water throughout the day c. suggest almonds as a snack d. limit sodium intake to 3 g per day

**B** rationale: the nurse should instruct the client to drink 3.8 L of water per day to keep urine dilated and decrease the risk of kidney stone formation A. the nurse should instruct the client to avoid large amounts of VC, which can increase the risk of kidney stone formation C. the nurse should instruct the client to avoid high-oxalate foods like almonds or other types of nuts because they increase the risk of kidney stone formation D. the nurse should instruct the client to limit sodium intake to 2 g per day. a high-sodium diet increases the risk of kidney stone formation

A nurse is teaching a client who has lactose intolerance about dietary modifications. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend? a. bread b. soy cheese c. luncheons meats d. instant mashed potatoes

**B** rationale: the nurse should recommend lactose-free food items like soy cheese, soy yogurt, almond milk, and lactose-free milk A. foods that might contain lactose include bread and breakfast cereals. C. foods that might contain lactose includes luncheons meat, margarine, and salad dressings. D. foods that might contain lactose include instant mashed potatoes and instant soups

A nurse is providing teaching to a young adult client who has a history of calcium oxalate renal calculi. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Drink fruit punch or juice with every meal B. Consume 1000 mg of dietary calcium dietary C. Take 1 g of a VC supplement daily D. Increase your daily bran intake

**B.** Rationale: Client who are prone to the development of calcium oxalate stones should consume the recommended daily allowance of calcium for their age. The RDA for calcium for adults ages 19-50 is 1000mg daily.. Calcium should be obtained from dietary sources rather than supplements that can promote the development of renal calculi. A. Client who are prone to renal calculi should limit beverages with a high sugar content such as fruit punch or juice because these beverages can promote the development of renal calculi C. Clients who are prone to the development of calcium oxalate stones should avoid taking nutritional supplements, such as VC. Taking 1 g of VC daily can result in toxicity and promote the development of renal calculi. D. Clients who are prone to renal calculi should exclude bran from their diet because bran is high in oxalates, which can precipitate the formation of renal calculi.

a nurse is planning dietary teaching for a client who has DM. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first? A. obtain sample menus from the dietitian to give to the client B. ask the client to identify the types of foods she prefers C. identify the recommended range of the client's blood glucose level D. discuss long term complications that can result from non-adherence to the dietary plan

**B.** Rationale: The nurse should apply the nursing process priority-setting framework to plan client care and prioritize nursing actions. Each step of the nursing process builds on the previous step, beginning with an assessment or data collection. Before the nurse can formulate a plan of action, implement a nursing intervention, or notify the provider of a change in the client's status, the nurse must first collect adequate data from the client. Assessing or collecting additional data will provide the nurse with knowledge to make an appropriate decision. Therefore, the nurse should first ask the client about the individual food preferences to provide an opportunity for the nurse to include these foods in her diet. Involving the client in the planning will promote her adherence to the dietary plan. A. the nurse should work with a registered dietitian to provide the client with appropriate materials to use during dietary teaching. Sample menus can give the client ideas of new foods or exchanges; however, there is another action that the nurse should take first. C. The nurse should identify the recommended blood glucose range that the client should maintain through diet, medication, and lifestyle changes; however, there is another action that the nurse should take first D. The nurse should identify long-term complications so the client understands the importance of adherence to the dietary plan; however, there is another action the nurse should take first

A nurse is teaching a client who is beginning a vegan diet and is concerned about maintaining an adequate protein intake. Which of the following food servings should the nurse recommend due to the high amount of protein? a. 1/2 cup tomato soup b. 1/2 cup of hummus c. 2 TBSP of peanut butter d. 1 cup penne pasta

**B.** Rationale: hummus is the best food source to recommend of those provided because it contains 9.7 g of protein per 1/2 cup serving A. tomato soups contains 1.08 g of protein per 1/2 cup C. peanut butter contains 7.11 g of protein per 2 TBSP D. penne pasta contains5.81 g of protein per cup

a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic renal failure. which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. canned soup b.. grilled fish c. pastrami d. peanut butter

**B.** rationale: protein choice, such as fresh fish or poultry can minimize the risk of worsening chronic renal failure A. foods that are high in sodium, such as canned soup, should be avoided by clients who have chronic renal failure C. foods that are high in sodium, such as pastrami, should be avoided by clients who have chronic renal failure D. foods that are high in sodium, such as peanut butter, should be avoided by clients who has chronic renal failure

A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical records of a group of clients. Which of following clients is at risk for iron deficiency? Select all that apply. A. a client who is postmenopausal B. a client who is a vegetarian c. a middle adult male client d. a client who is pregnant e. a toddler who is overweight

**B.D.E.** Rationale: A client who is a vegetarian might require additional iron because the availability of iron in vegetable food sources is limited. During pregnancy, maternal blood volume increases, and the fetus requires additional iron. Therefore, the RDA of iron for clients who are pregnant is increased to 27 mg per day. Toddlers who are overweight may het most their calories from milk and foods that are not considered healthy, which increases their risk of iron-deficiency anemia. A. iron requirements are increased for women who have excessive blood loss due to menstruation. generally, postmenopausal women do not require additional iron. C. most adults male consume adequate iron in their diet and do not require supplementation.

a nurse is assessing a client. which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of protein-calorie malnourishment? (select all the apply). a. gingivitis b. dry, brittle hair c. edema d. spoon-shaped nails e. poor wound healing

**BCE** rationale: dry, brittle hair that falls out easily suggests inadequate protein intake and malnutrition. Edema can occur when albumin levels are lower than the expected reference range and indicates protein-calorie malnutrition. Adequate wound healing depends on the ingestion of sufficient protein, calories, water, vitamins (C and E), iron, zinc. A. gingivitis is a manifestation of vitamin C deficiency D. spoon-shaped nails are manifestation of iron deficiency

a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client states, "I eat pasta everyday. I can't imagine giving it up". Which of the following responses should the nurse provide? A. let's discuss this with your doctor; giving up daily pasta may not be necessary b. is there another favorite dish you can substitute? c. you dont have to give up pasta; just adjust the amount you eat d. you can use no-added-salt tomato products on your pasta

**C** Rationale: ADA recommends individualizing carbs restriction for each diet. a careful assessment of the client's usual dietary practices and modifications is an important part of teaching clients to manage this disorder. A. the nurse is capable of counseling clients about providing resources about appropriate dietary choices without consulting the providers. B. although this idea has soma merit, the client is expressing dismay about giving up pasta. often, there is a no substitute for what the client really enjoys D. whole reduced sodium intake is recommended for most clients, especially those who have HTN, this is not a solution for this client's concern about pasta. Additionally, it does not relate to glycemic control, which is critical issue for this client

a nurse is reviewing the dietary choices of a client who has chronic pancreatitis. which of the following food items should the nurse suggests removing from the client's menu for the following day? a. white rice b. broiled cod c. ice cream d. canned peaches

**C** Rationale: client who have chronic pancreatitis should limit their fat intake to no more 30-40% of total calories. Ice cream is high in fat, with 48 g of fat in 1- cup serving of vanilla ice cream. the client should choose healthier fat-containing options to support a balanced diet, such as avocados and nuts. A. foods high in fiber can reduce lipase activity, making a low-fiber diet helpful for clients who have chronic pancreatitis. White rice is low in fiber, with only 1 g of fiber in a 1-cup serving B. clients who have chronic pancreatitis need an adequate amount of protein, about 1.5g/kg/day. fish is a good source of protein wit 26 g of protein in 170g portion of cod D. foods high in fiber can reduce lipase activity, making a low fiber diet helpful for clients who have chronic pancreatitis. canned peaches are low in fiber, with only 3 g of fiber in a 1 cup serving.

a nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports of a client who is receiving enteral feedings. Which of the following values indicates a complication of enteral feeding that the nurse should reports to the provider? a. sodium 143 b. potassium 4.2 c. BUN 25 d. glucose 185

**C** rationale: BUN level of 25 is above the expected reference range of 10-20 and indicates dehydration, which is a complication of enteral feedings. The nurse should reports this laboratory value to the provider A. sodium level of 143 is within the expected reference range of 136-145 and does not indicate a complication of enteral feeding B. potassium level of 4.2 is within the expected reference range 3.5-5.0 and does not indicate a complication of enteral feeding D. a glucose level of 185 is within the expected reference range of <200 for casual blood glucose and does not indicate a complication of enteral feedings.

a nurse is caring for a client who has scurvy. which of the following vitamin deficiencies should the nurse identify as the cause of this disease? a. A B. B3 C. C D. D

**C** rationale: VC deficiency produces symptoms of scurvy such as delayed wound healing and capillary fragility A. A deficiency in VA produces manifestations of night blindness and immunodeficiency, it is not associated with scurvy. B. a deficiency in Vitamin B3 produces manifestations of pellagra, which includes a scaly rash on sun-exposed skin, confusion, paranoia, and diarrhea D. a deficiency in VD produces manifestations of rickets and osteomalacia, which includes bowed legs, fractures, and malformed teeth.

a nurse is talking with a parent of a preschool-aged child who tells the nurse, "my child has suddenly become disinterested in certain foods". which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. during this phase, feed your child anything that she will eat b. increase the amount of calories and water you child consumes c. keep a diary of the foods your child eats each day d. provide a large variety of fruit juices for your child to choose from

**C** rationale: the nurse should encourage the parent to keep a diary of the foods the child eats throughout the day for 1 week. this can help the parent realize that the child may be eating better than expected. evidence suggests that children can self-regulate their caloric intake. when they eat less at a meal, they are compensate by eating more at another meal or by having a snack. A. the nurse should inform the parent that children's dietary habits can change from day to day/ it is important to feed the children healthy foods and focus on the quality of food rather than the quantity of food during this time. B. the nurse should inform the client that calorie and fluid requirements decrease slightly in a preschool-aged child. the nurse should not promote an increase of calories and water in the child's diet. D. the nurse should inform the parent that excessive consumption of sweetened beverages, including fruit juices, can be associated with adverse health effects such as dental caries, obesity, and metabolic syndrome.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. the nurse should expect the client's provider to prescribe which of the following medication for this client? A. ferrous sulfate b. epoetin alfa c. vitamin b12 d. folic acid

**C** rationale: the nurse should expect the client's provider to prescribe vitamin b12 for pernicious anemia A. the nurse should expect a prescription for ferrous sulfate for a client who has iron-deficiency anemia B. the nurse should expect a prescription for epoetin alfa for a client who has anemia secondary to chemotherapy D. the nurse should expect a prescription for folic acid for a client who has anemia due to a folic acid deficiency

a nurse is providing teaching about nutrients to a client. which of the following statements should the nurse include? a. carbs transport nutrients throughout the body b. fats prevent ketosis c. protein builds and repairs body tissue d. carbs help regulate body temperature

**C** rationale: the primary function of protein involves building and repairing body tissues. the skin, hair, and nails are also made of protein structures. a diet that is low in protein can impair wound healing. A. proteins transport nutrients such as fats and fat-soluble vitamins throughout the body. protein in the form of hemoglobin transports oxygen; in the form of albumin, it transports many medications. B. ketosis develops when the body relies only on fats to meet energy needs. carbs prevent ketosis by allowing the body to use fat effectively as an energy source without the production of ketones. D. Fats help regulate body temperature by providing a protective later when the environmental temperature drops.

a nurse is assisting a client who has dysphagia with eating meals. which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. add water to soups for a thinner consistency b. encourage using water to clear the client's mouth c. ask the client to think of a food that produces salivation d. remind the client to rest after meals

**C** rationale: to prevent dryness in the mouth during meals, which can be risk factor for choking, the nurse should ask the client to think of the food that promotes salivation A. thick liquids are easier for clients who have dysphagia to manage when swallowing B. client who have dysphasia should only drink fluids after clearing the mouth of food. they should use coughing and dry swallowing the remove food particles from the mouth D. clients who have dysphagia should rest before meals to avoid fatigue when focusing on swallowing safely.

A nurse is providing teaching about nutritious diets to a group of adult women. Which of the following statements should the nurse include: A. "Include at least 3 g of sodium in your daily diet" B. "Limit wine consumption t0 230 mL daily" C. "Include 2.5 cups of veggies in your daily diet" D. "Limit water intake to 1.5 L each day"

**C. ** Rationale: Nutritious diets contain a variety of foods to ensure the required daily allowance of nutrients is ingested. The nurse should instruct the women to include 2.5 cups of veggies and 2 cups of fruit in their daily diets. Fruits and veggies should be a variety of colors to provide an assortment of nutrients. A. The nurse should instruct the moment to consume sodium in moderation. The AHA recommends consuming less than 2.5 g of sodium daily, and the adequate intake (AI) is 1.5 g. Excessive intake of sodium can lead to HTN. B. Although certain alcoholic beverages, such as red wine, contain phytochemicals that can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and offer anti-inflammatory properties, excessive intake can lead to a deficiency in other nutrients. The recommended amount of alcohol for women is a drink per day. which is equivalent to 350 mL (12 oz) of beer, 148 mL (5oz) of wine, or 44 mL (1.5oz) of hard alcohol that is over 80 proof D. Water is an important component of a nutritious diet because it is necessary for the digestion, absorption, and transport of nutrients. The nurse should instruct these women to drink between 2 and 3 L of water daily to maintain homeostasis, based on the client's commodities, the climate, and the client's activity level.

A nurse is caring for an infant who has gastroenteritis and is dehydrated. Which of the following characteristics places the infant at a higher risk of electrolyte imbalance compared to an adult client? A. less extracellular fluid B. reduced body surface area C. longer intestinal tract D. decreased rate of metabolism

**C.** Rationale: Compared to adults or older children, infants have a longer intestinal tract. This results in greater fluid losses, especially through diarrhea. A. Compared to adults or older children, infants have a large amount of extracellular fluid. This results in a larger fluid volume and more rapid water loss in this age group. C. compared to adults or older children, infants have a larger body surface area. This results in greater fluid losses through the intestines. D. compared to adults or older children, infants have an increased rate of metabolism. This results in the production of more metabolic waste, which must be excreted by the kidneys.

A nurse is providing teaching about calcium intake to a client who is breastfeeding. Which of the following is the recommended daily calcium intake for a client who is breastfeeding? A. 800mg B. 400mg C. 1000mg D. 2000mg

**C.** Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that 1000mg of calcium is recommended for women 19+, as well as those who are lactating. This amount of calcium is sufficient to meet the needs of the client and the infant because of additional calcium is absorbed from the intestine during this time. A. Although the calcium requirement for a client who is breastfeeding does not increase the nurse should instruct the client that 800mg of calcium is less than the daily recommended intake of 1000mg. The nurse should explore additional sources of calcium with the client if she does not consume milk products. B. Although the calcium requirement for a client who is breastfeeding does not increase, the nurse should instruct the client that 400 mg of calcium is less than the daily recommendation of 1000mg. The nurse should explore additional sources of calcium with the client if she does not consume milk products. D. The nurse should identify that 2000 mg of calcium is above the recommended daily intake of 1000 mg. A high calcium intake can result in the development of kidney stones and decrease the absorption of other nutrients, such as iron and zinc.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a BMI of 29 and expresses a desire to lose weight. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Refer the client to a nutritionist B. Discuss eating strategies with the client C. Determine the client's intentions to change current eating habits D. Instruct the client to perform 30 mins of vigorous exercise daily

**C.** Rationale: When using the nursing process, the nurse should first assess the client's readiness to commit to a change in behavior. A Effective weight management involves establishing and following healthy eating habits. The nurse should refer the client to a nutritionist for an evaluation of the client's dietary needs and dietary recommendations to promote weight loss. However, this is not the first action the nurse should take. B. The nurse should discuss various eating strategies, such as portion control and the reduction or elimination of sugar-sweetened beverages, as a means of reducing weight. However, this is not the first action the nurse should take. D. Although the nurse should recommend increasing physical activity to promote overall health and weight loss, this is not the first action the nurse should take.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has constipation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Use bismuth subsalicylate regularly B. Consume a low-fiber diet C. Eat yogurt with live cultures D. Use bisacodyl suppositories regularly

**C.** Rationale: Yogurt with live bacterial cultures provide dietary probiotics that help maintain and promote bowel function A. Bismuth subsalicylate is an antidiarrheal agent and will increase constipation B. Increasing fiber gradually can prevent constipation. A low-fiber diet is recommended for clients who have diarrhea. D. The regular use of stimulant laxatives can result in decreased defecation reflexes, causing a reliance on stimulant laxatives for bowel movements. This may eventually cause electrolyte imbalances and colitis.

A nurse is caring for a client from the Middle East who has celiac disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform regarding the client's diet? A. provide foods prepared according to Kosher dietary law B. ask the kitchen to prepare grits to meet the client's dietary need for grains C. determine the client's dietary preference D. prepare a diet tray that includes veggies and barley soup

**C.** Rationale: while generalization are often made regarding the traditional eating practice of client based on their cultural backgrounds, individual foods choices can deviate from these generalizations. The nurse should assess the client's dietary habits before planning to meet dietary needs. B. Although client who have celiac disease are unable to consume gains such as wheat, rye, and barley, it is not culturally sensitive to request the preparation of certain foods without consulting the client. D. Client who have celiac disease are unable to process certain gains, including wheat, rye, and barley. If consumed, these grains can result in diarrhea, abdominal pain and weight loss.

A nurse in a provider's office is teaching a client about foods that are high in fiber. Which of the following food choices made by the client indicate an understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply). A. Canned peaches B. White rice C. Black beans D. Whole-grain bread E. Tomato Juice

**C.D.** Rationale: dried peas and beans, including black beans, are high in fiber. Whole grains consist of the entire kernel are also high in fiber. A. Canned fruits, including peaches, are recommended for clients on a low-fiber diet. Fresh fruits contain more fiber. B. White rice recommended for clients on a low-fiber diet. Brown rice is higher in fiber E. canned juices, with the exception of prune juices, are recommended for clients on a low-fiber diet

A nurse is assessing a client's nutritional status. The nurse determines the client is consuming 500 calories more per day than his energy level requires. If his dietary habits do not change, how long will it take the client to gain 4.5 kg (10lb)? A. 10 months B. 5 months C. 5 weeks D. 10 weeks

**D** Rationale: because 1 lb of body fat is equivalent to 3500 calories, consuming 500 extra calories each day for 7 days would lead to a total 3500 calories and 1 lb grain per week. At the rate of 1 lb per week, the client would gain 10lb in 10 weeks. B.at the rate of 1 lb per week, the client would gain 20 to 25 lb in 5 months C. at the end of 1 lb per week, the client would gain 5 lb in 5 weeks.

A nurse is providing teaching about food choices to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. I will need to eliminate sweet desserts from my diet. B. I should avoid using sucralose in my coffee C. I should consume alcohol between meals in moderation. D. I should replace white bread with whole-grain bread

**D** Rationale: clients with diabetes mellitus have the same fiber requirements as the general population. Fiber content can be increased by substituting white bread, which is made with refined grains, with whole-grin bread, which retains the outer layer of the grain that is higher in fiber. A. sweet desserts are not prohibited for clients who have diabetes mellitus. Instead, they should be consumed in moderation ad substituted for other carbs in the client's meal plan B. sucralose is non-nutritive sweetener that has been approved by the Food and Drug Administration for this use. It is considered safe for clients who have diabetes mellitus. C. Although clients who have diabetes mellitus can consume alcohol in moderation, the nurse should instruct the client to consume alcohol with food to avoid hypoglycemia.

a nurse is caring for a client who has diverticulitis and a new prescription for a low-fiber diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove the client's meal tray? A. canned fruits b. white bread c. broiled hamburger d. coleslaw

**D** Rationale: coleslaw contains raw cabbage, which is high in fiber. Clients who are following a low-fiber diet should avoid most raw veggies. A. canned fruit is an appropriate low-fiber food for a client who is following a low-fiber diet. Fresh fruit contains more fibers B. white bread is an appropriate low-fiber food for a client who is following a low-fiber diet. Wholegrain bread contains more fibers. C. broiled hamburger is an appropriate low-fiber food for a client who is following a low-fiber diet. Fish and poultry are also low in fiber.

A nurse is updating the plan of care for a client who is has dumping syndrome. which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. consume beverages with meals b. eat 3 large meals per day c. include high-fiber foods in the diet d. eat a source of protein with each meals

**D** Rationale: the nurse should include in the client's plan of care the instruction to eat a source of protein with each meal because protein delays gastric emptying A. the nurse should recommend consuming beverages between meals, which delays gastric emptying B. the nurse should recommend consuming small, frequent meals each day to delay gastric emptying and assist with digestion. C. the nurse should recommend including low-fiber foods in the diet to delay gastric emptying

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for mouth cancer and reports a dry mouth. which of the following dietary recommendation should the nurse provide? a. offer graham crackers as a snack b. avoid foods containing citrus c. rinse the mouth with an alcohol-based mouthwash before eating d. using gravies or sauces to soften food

**D** Rationale: the nurse should instruct the client to use gravies or sauces to soften foods and make them easier to eat A. the client should avoid eating dry, coarse foods such as graham crackers. this type of food can make the client's mouth feel more dry and unpleasant. B. the client should consume foods containing situs to stimulate saliva C. the client should rinse the mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash before eating. alcohol-based mouthwash can make the client's mouth drier

a nurse is planning care for a client who has anorexia and nausea due to cancer treatment. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include? a. serve foods at warm or hot temperatures b. offer the client low-density foods c. make sure the client lies supine after meals d. limit drinking liquids with food

**D** rationale: drinking beverages with food leads to early satiety and bloating, which results in the client consuming fewer calories. A. the nurse should make sure the client receives cold or room-temperature b. to increase the nutritional value of the food and the client's caloric intake, the nurse should make sure that the client receives high-protein, high-calorie, nutrient-dense foods. the client should also eat nutrient-dense foods first during meals. C. the reduce nausea, the client should sit upright for 1 hr after meals. the client should also rest before meal to conserve energy for eating or digesting food.

a nurse is planning care for a client who has AIDS and has developed stomatitis. which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. rinse the mouth with chlorhexidine solution every 2 hr b. limit fluid intake with meals c. provide oral hygiene with a firm-bristled toothbrush after each meal d. avoid salty foods

**D** rationale: stomatitis is an inflammation o% sodium cha of the mouth, usually with ulcerations. Foods that are spicy, acidic, or salty, should be avoided to prevent further irritation and damage to the oral mucosa. A. Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic that could cause further irritation to the oral mucosa. the nurse should provide the client with 0.9% sodium chloride solution or baking soda to mix with water and use as a rinse aid B. the nurse should plan to provide moist foods and liquids with meals to decrease the client's discomfort and to promote nutritional intake C. the client's oral care should be provided with soft-bristled toothbrush to avoid further irritation and damage to the oral mucosa.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer and reports a metallic taste in the mouth. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse share with the client? A. eat with metal utensils B. limit coffee C. avoid citrus foods D. offer mints

**D** rationale: the nurse should encourage the client to suck on mints, which can overcome the metallic taste the client is experiencing as a results of the radiation therapy B. the nurse should encourage the client to add coffee to sweet beverages or milk, as the coffee overcomes the sweetness of the beverages C. the nurse should encourage the client to consume foods that contain citrus or that have a tart flavor. this overcomes the metallic taste.

a nurse is educating a client who is at 10 weeks gestation and reports frequent nausea and vomiting. which is of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? a. you should eat foods served at warm temperatures b. you should brush you teeth right after you eat c. you should try to eat sweet foods when you feel nauseated d. you should eat dry foods that are high in carbos when you wake up

**D** rationale: the nurse should instruct the client to eat foods that are high in carbs such as dry toast or crackers upon waking or when nausea occurs A. the nurse should instruct the client to eat foods served at cool temperatures to decrease nausea and vomiting B. the nurse should instruct the client to avoid brushing her teeth immediately after eating to decrease vomiting C. the nurse should instruct the client to eat salty and tart foods during periods of nausea

a nurse is providing postoperative teaching about the management of dumping syndrome to a client who had a partial gastrectomy. which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. consume at least 4 oz fluid with meals b. take a short walk after each meal c. use honey to flavor foods such as cereal d. eat protein with each meal

**D** rationale: the nurse should instruct the client to eat meals that are high in protein and dat with low to moderate carbs content. protein should be included in every meal because it delays digestion, which helps reduce the manifestation of dumping syndrome A. the client should avoid fluids at mealtimes to decrease gastric stimulation B. the client should lie down when experiencing early manifestations of dumping syndrome to slow the progress of food through the gastrointestinal tract. C. the client should avoid simple carbs such as honey, sugar, and syrup because they aggravates the stomach and worsen manifestations of dumping syndrome

a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has dumping syndrome following gastric bypass surgery 4 days ago. which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching? a. avoid foods containing protein b. drink liquids during each meals c. eat foods that contain simple sugars d. maintain a supine position after meals

**D** rationale: the nurse should instruct the client to lie supine after eating to help slow the rapid emptying of food into the small intestine. a clinet who has dumping syndrome should decrease the amount of food eaten at once. eat small meals more frequently, and eliminate fluids at mealtime. fluid shifts occur in the upper gastrointestinal tract when food contents and simple sugars exit to the stomach too rapidly, attracting fluid into the upper intestine and decreasing blood volume, which causes the client to experience nausea and vomiting, sweating, syncope, palpations, increased heart rate, and hypotension. A. the nurse should instruct the client to include foods containing protein at each meal and only to eat 1 or 2 foods from each food group at once. protein, fats, and complex carbs are better tolerated by client who recently had gastric bypass surgery B. the nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking liquids during meals and to wait 30 to 60 mins after eating solid foods to drink liquids. drinking liquids with meals increases the motility of the gastrointestinal tract C. the nurse should instruct the client to avoid eating foods that contain simple sugars. simple sugars increase the hypertonicity of the gastrointestinal tract, which increases the movement of the food bolus.

a nurse is providing teaching to the guardian of a child who has celiac disease. which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the guardian to omit from the child's diet? a. cornflakes b. reduced-fat milk c. canned fruits d. wheat bread

**D** rationale: client who have celiac disease should eliminate as much gluten and should be eliminated form the diet of a child who has celiac disease. A. cornflakes do not contain gluten and do not have to be omitted from the diet of a child who has celiac disease B. milk is gluten-free and does not have to be eliminated from the diet of a child who has celiac disease C. canned fruits without additives are gluten-free and do not have to be eliminated from the diet of a child who has celiac disease

a nurse is caring for a client who is recovering at home after inpatient treatment to burn injuries. to increase the protein density of the client's meals, which of the following recommendations should the nurse make to the client's caregiver? a. use sour cream instead of plain yogurt b. add honey to cooked cereals c. use salad dressing in place of mayonnaise d. add chopped hard-boiled eggs to soups and casseroles

**D** rationale: eggs are a good source of protein. adding them to combination food and coating meats with raw eggs before breaking and cooking increases the protein density of those foods A. to increase protein density, the caregiver should use plain yogurt in place of sour cream B. adding honey to cereal increases the caloric density, not the protein density. C. mayonnaise contains more proteins than most salad dressing

A nurse is providing teaching about nutrition to an older adult client. The client asks, "Don't I need the same amount of nutrients that I did when I was younger?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. "older adults need less protein" B. "older adults need an increased amount of carbohydrates" C. "older adults need an increased amount of iron" D. "older adults need an increased amount of calcium"

**D.** Rationale: Older adults require increased amounts of calcium as well as VD, B12, VA. A. Many older adults require increased amounts of protein because total body protein can decrease as the body ages. B. Older adults do not require an increased amount of carbs, although some older adults might require increased amounts of fiber. C. Older adults do not require increased amounts of iron. however, their intake of iron is often inadequate.

A nurse is reviewing a client's 24 hr dietary recall. The client reports eating a slice of toasted white bread with butter, a banana, a glass of milk, and a cup of coffee for breakfast; grilled chicken, a baked potato, and a glass of milk for lunch an apple and cheddar cheese for a snack; and 2 serving of chicken, 2 cups of steamed broccoli, and a glass of milk for dinner. This client's diet is deficient in which of the following groups? A. Dairy B. Veggies C. Fruits D. Grains

**D.** Rationale: This client only consumed 1 serving of grains on the day of the 24-hr dietary recall. USDA dietary guidelines recommend 3 or more ounce-equivalents of whole-grain products per day. Additionally, the choice of white bread is low in fiber, which can lead to constipation and an increased risk of developing hyperlipidemia. The USDA guideline recommend that at least half of the grains consumed should be whole grain. A. The client consumed 3 servings of daily throughout the day, which is recommended daily amount according to USDA dietary guidelines. B. The client consumed 2.5 cups or more veggies, which is the recommended daily amount according to USDA dietary guidelines C. The client consumed 2 serving of fruits, which of the recommended daily amount according USDA dietary guidelines.

A home health nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has neutropenia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? A. soft-boiled eggs B. brie cheese made with unpasteurized milk C. cold deli-meat sandwiches D. baked chicken

**D.** Rationale: well-cooked meats, including baked chicken, do not pose a threat to client who have neutropenia and may be included in the client's dietary plan. for optimal safety, poultry should be cooked to an internal temperature of 74 degrees celcius B. soft cheeses like brie, which are made with unpasteurized milk, can contain bacteria and should be avoided by cients who have neutropenia C. cold deli meats and lunch meats can contain Listeria monocytogenes. these bacteria remain viable at refrigerated and room temperatures and can make a client who is immunocompromised severely ill. as an alternative, the nurse should recommend heating all deli meats or lunch meats.

A nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who adheres to Kosher dietary laws. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend? A. baked pork chop B. cheeseburger C. ham and cheese omelet D. grilled salmon

**D.** Rationale: the nurse should recommend grilled salmon for a client who observes Kosher dietary laws. Grilled salmon is a fish with fins and scales, which can be consumed. Seafood with shells, such as lobster or crab is prohibited. A. a baked pork chop is a source of pork, which is prohibited by Kosher dietary laws B. a cheeseburger contains both meat and diary products, which may not be eaten at the same time and is prohibited by Kosher dietary laws C. a ham and cheese omelet contains pork, which is prohibited by Kosher dietary laws.