Practice Test 1

What BMI score is considered within normal limits? Select one: a. 18.5 to 24.9 b. 35 to 39.9 c. 30 to 34.9 d. 25 to 29.9

a. 18.5 to 24.9

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Family b. Exercise group c. Exercise leader d. The community

a. Family

What is the definition of kinesiophobia? Select one: a. Fear of movement b. Fear of heights c. Fear of stairs d. Fear of standing

a. Fear of movement

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Femur parallel to ground b. Butt to heels c. Full-depth squat d. Knees to 45 degrees

a. Femur parallel to ground

What are ground reaction forces? Select one: a. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping b. The force of gravity c. Deceleration forces in the muscles d. Forces used by the muscles during a jump

a. Forces imparted on the body when it contacts the ground after jumping

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Gluconeogenesis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. Glycolysis

a. Gluconeogenesis

An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear is a common injury to what part of the body? Select one: a. Knee b. Shoulder c. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex d. Ankle

a. Knee

What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as? Select one: a. Mastering basic movement patterns b. Utilizing supersets during training c. Focusing on improving muscular growth d. Improving the rate of force production

a. Mastering basic movement patterns

What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the midline of the body? Select one: a. Medial b. Lateral c. Posterior d. Anterior

a. Medial

What area of the chest contains the heart? Select one: a. Mediastinum b. Atrium c. Myofibril d. Ventricle

a. Mediastinum

When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client's self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Set specific tasks b. Verbal persuasion c. Experience mastery d. Provide instructions

a. Set specific tasks

Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining foot position while standing on an unstable surface. Select one: a. Somatosensation b. Vision c. Sensorimotor function d. Vestibular

a. Somatosensation

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness b. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions c. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity d. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

a. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I b. Type IIa c. Type IIc d. Type IIb

a. Type I

How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential? Select one: a. 0.2 b. 0.1 c. 1 d. 0.5

b. 0.1

What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure? Select one: a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypertension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypotension

b. Hypertension

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Create a plan for overcoming barriers. b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. c. Start establishing an emotional support system. d. Establish short- and long-term goals.

b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training? Select one: a. Marching on a stable surface b. Instability training using a stability ball c. Planking on a stable surface d. Prone dead bugs on floor

b. Instability training using a stability ball

With type 1 diabetes, what hormone does the pancreas fall short in making? Select one: a. Progesterone b. Insulin c. Estrogen d. Testosterone

b. Insulin

What two factors define any form or type of exercise? Select one: a. Speed and complexity b. Intensity and duration c. Duration and time d. Intensity and speed

b. Intensity and duration

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Concentric

b. Isometric

What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Davis's law and Wolf's law b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response c. Pain response and muscle spasm d. Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) and increased strength

b. Mechanical and neurophysiological response

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Middle and lower trapezius c. Pectoralis major d. Teres major

b. Middle and lower trapezius

Which of the macronutrients has the highest thermic effect of food (TEF)? Select one: a. Carbohydrates b. Protein c. Glucose d. Lipids

b. Protein

Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise? Select one: a. Stage 5 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4

b. Stage 2

In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 4 training b. Stage 2 training c. Stage 1 training d. Stage 3 training

b. Stage 2 training

Which of the following would not be an example of core musculature to stabilize the trunk and pelvis? Select one: a. Obliques b. Quadratus lumborum c. Pectoral group d. Gluteal complex

c. Pectoral group

What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ATP and oxygen b. ADP and water c. ADP and hydrogen ions d. ATP and water

d. ATP and water

When attempting to increase muscular size and strength in the lower body, which of the following exercise is least likely to be beneficial? Select one: a. Sandbag squat b. Barbell squats c. Machine leg press d. BOSU squat

d. BOSU squat

How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise? Select one: a. Anterior pelvic tilt b. Excessive lordotic position c. Kyphotic positioning d. In a neutral position

d. In a neutral position

Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers? Select one: a. Ambivalence b. Convenience c. Unrealistic goals d. Lack of time

d. Lack of time

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Neuromuscular specificity b. Metabolic specificity c. Posture specificity d. Mechanical specificity

d. Mechanical specificity

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed? Select one: a. 2 seconds b. 1 second c. 3 seconds d. 4 seconds

a. 2 seconds

What statement best describes a nonprofit health club? Select one: a. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment c. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services

a. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion b. Stabilization, strength, and power c. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain d. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth

a. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion

What are essential amino acids? Select one: a. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body b. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body d. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis

a. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics? Select one: a. Anterior cruciate ligament injury b. Foot injury c. Patellar fracture d. Shoulder injury

a. Anterior cruciate ligament injury

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion? Select one: a. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms b. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg c. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion d. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg

a. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system? Select one: a. Axial and appendicular b. Upper and lower c. Anterior and posterior d. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts

a. Axial and appendicular

When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct? Select one: a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active. b. All individuals have "lack of time" as a barrier. c. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers. d. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives.

a. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.

Which of the following is not a tracked component on an athlete's macrocycle annual training plan? Select one: a. Cardio training b. Off-season training c. Preseason training d. In-season training

a. Cardio training

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Select one: a. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. b. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization. c. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients. d. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency.

a. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

What must be maintained when performing exercises in a proprioceptively enriched environment? Select one: a. Correct technique b. The absence of perturbations c. Both feet on the floor d. A stable floor

a. Correct technique

A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following? Select one: a. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails b. Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants c. Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center d. Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open

a. Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Dairy foods b. Grains c. Beans d. Legumes

a. Dairy foods

Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Deconditioning b. Adequate core stability c. Adequate joint stability d. Power exercise familiarity

a. Deconditioning

Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training? Select one: a. Exercises with free weights b. Exercises using selectorized machines c. Seated exercises d. Standing exercises on a gym floor

a. Exercises with free weights

Rather than simply designing workout programs to change appearance, the modern personal trainer has evolved to a professional responsible for producing which of the following? Select one: a. Improving overall health and movement quality for their clients b. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts c. Designing meal plans that can help clients shed unwanted fat d. Helping clients get shredded to stand out and gain more followers on social media

a. Improving overall health and movement quality for their clients

Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down? Select one: a. Increase breathing rate b. Reduce body temperature c. Provide a transition period d. Reduce heart rate

a. Increase breathing rate

What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Increased heart rate b. Increased end-systolic volume c. Decreased stroke volume d. Decreased heart rate

a. Increased heart rate

Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine. Select one: a. Increased lordosis b. Decreased lordosis c. Increased kyphosis d. Decreased kyphosis

a. Increased lordosis

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support? Select one: a. Instrumental support b. Informational support c. Emotional support d. Companionship support

a. Instrumental support

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training? Select one: a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) b. Calcitonin c. Glucagon d. Cortisol

a. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? Select one: a. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. b. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work. c. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work

a. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate? Select one: a. It is not a curable disease. b. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms. c. It is typically a stress-induced condition. d. It is an acute disease.

a. It is not a curable disease.

Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions? Select one: a. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance. b. It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training. c. It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training. d. It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise.

a. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.

What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Jump b. Land c. Stabilize d. Gait

a. Jump

What is the concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement? Select one: a. Kinetic chain b. Proprioception c. Golgi tendon organ d. Nervous system

a. Kinetic chain

Which of the following movements trains a client in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Multiplanar lunge b. BOSU squat c. Dumbbell renegade row d. Barbell squat

a. Multiplanar lunge

What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Muscular endurance b. Stabilization c. Rate of force production d. Muscular hypertrophy

a. Muscular endurance

What is credible nutrition information? Select one: a. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science b. Nutrition information that is supported by news and media c. Nutrition information that is believable d. Nutrition information that is reported to be true

a. Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science

In which BMI category would you classify Vincent if he has a BMI of 27? Select one: a. Overweight b. Obese c. Class II obesity d. Healthy weight

a. Overweight

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Oxidative phosphorylation b. Beta-oxidation c. The ATP-PC system d. Glycolysis

a. Oxidative phosphorylation

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phase 1 b. Phase 5 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

a. Phase 1

Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 4 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 5

a. Phase 4

Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Select one: a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Lateral d. Superior

a. Posterior

What is the best choice of attire to an interview at a health club? Select one: a. Professional business attire b. Business casual c. Jeans and a polo shirt d. Brand-new workout clothes

a. Professional business attire

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Select one: a. Proprioception b. Force velocity c. External feedback d. Stretch-shortening cycle

a. Proprioception

Selectorized machines provide all the following benefits except for which one? Select one: a. Provide an increased range of motion b. Are often accompanied by instructional diagrams or pictures c. Offer users the ability to change resistance easily d. Are often less intimidating than free weights for novice exercisers

a. Provide an increased range of motion

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? Select one: a. Providing information on the health benefits b. Helping make the exercises fun c. Helping them make a plan d. Improving their confidence for their technique

a. Providing information on the health benefits

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? Select one: a. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions b. Voluntary contractions c. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training. d. Preplanned voluntary contractions

a. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Sports competition c. Rowing d. Jogging/running

a. Resistance training

What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down? Select one: a. Restore optimal length-tension relationships b. Increase maximal strength c. Correct muscle imbalances d. Improve sports skills

a. Restore optimal length-tension relationships

Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation? Select one: a. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture b. Adducted and internally rotated knees c. Anterior pelvic tilt and pronated feet d. Posterior pelvic tilt with small low-back arch

a. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture

What is defined as the body's ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Strength c. Muscular hypertrophy d. Muscular endurance

a. Stabilization

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point? Select one: a. Superior b. Posterior c. Inferior d. Anterior

a. Superior

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? Select one: a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

a. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

Which concept should be used to describe the functioning of the serratus anterior as it assists the anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion? Select one: a. Synergist b. Agonist c. Antagonist d. Stabilizer

a. Synergist

What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel b. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise c. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise d. The point at which it is still possible to talk during exercise

a. The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel

If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate? Select one: a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate. b. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation. c. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle. d. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.

a. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.

Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee. b. The stretch is too complicated for the new client. c. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. d. The stretch is too advanced for the average person.

a. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

What is bioenergetics? Select one: a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy b. The study of weight loss c. The study of metabolism during exercise d. The study of aerobic metabolism

a. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy

Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Select one: a. Tissue overload b. Motor unit recruitment c. Force production d. Functional movement

a. Tissue overload

What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver? Select one: a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine. b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core. c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core. d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.

a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.

What is defined as an individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage? Select one: a. Training intensity b. Training volume c. Training duration d. Training frequency

a. Training intensity

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase? Select one: a. Transverse b. Axial c. Sagittal d. Frontal

a. Transverse

What is a characteristic of type I muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type I fibers are "slow twitch." b. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of capillaries than type II fibers. c. Type I fibers have a lower concentration of mitochondria than type II fibers. d. Type I fibers are "fast twitch."

a. Type I fibers are "slow twitch."

Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT? Select one: a. Walking b. Structured exercise c. Eating d. Sleeping

a. Walking

Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification. Select one: a. 4.5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1.5

b. 2

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed? Select one: a. 1 second b. 4 seconds c. 2 seconds d. 3 seconds

b. 4 seconds

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed? Select one: a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) b. 40-yard dash c. Pro shuttle d. Overhead squat

b. 40-yard dash

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet? Select one: a. 20 to 35% of total calories b. 45 to 65% of total calories c. 30 to 50% of total calories d. 10 to 35% of total calories

b. 45 to 65% of total calories

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Use of heavy weights b. A faster tempo, similar to daily life c. Slow and controlled movements d. Stabilization of the LPHC

b. A faster tempo, similar to daily life

What most correctly identifies the purpose of a resume? Select one: a. A resume allows a job candidate to identify athletic accomplishments. b. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer. c. A resume allows a job candidate to highlight their expertise in a particular field. d. A resume allows a job candidate to express a personal statement about their passion.

b. A resume allows a job candidate to present their job skills to a potential employer.

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Select one: a. Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power b. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power c. Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed d. Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed

b. Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

How is steady-state aerobic exercise best defined? Select one: a. An exercise training method where the client performs a maximal effort interval lasting 20 seconds, followed by only 10 seconds of rest for a total of 4 minutes b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption c. An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity, broken up by relatively short rest periods d. An exercise training method that is unstructured and combines low-, moderate-, and high-intensity efforts into one workout

b. Aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Trachea b. Alveolar sacs c. Pulmonary arteries d. Bronchioles

b. Alveolar sacs

What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg c. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion d. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg

b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg

How is lower crossed syndrome characterized? Select one: a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive kyphosis of the lumbar spine d. Posterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

b. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine

What principle is hydrostatic underwater weighing based upon? Select one: a. All-or-nothing principle b. Archimedes' principle c. Principle of specificity d. Davis's principle

b. Archimedes' principle

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way? Select one: a. Posterior b. Arthrokinematic c. Osteokinematic d. Anterior

b. Arthrokinematic

Which exercise primarily strengthens the gastrocnemius and soleus? Select one: a. Single-leg dumbbell scaption b. Calf raise c. Ball cobra d. Standing dumbbell lateral raise

b. Calf raise

Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and thoracic b. Cervical and lumbar c. Cervical and sacral d. Thoracic and lumbar

b. Cervical and lumbar

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)? Select one: a. Running for 5 miles b. Cleaning the house c. Doing 20 minutes of resistance training d. Sleeping

b. Cleaning the house

Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy? Select one: a. Activation b. Client's choice c. Resistance d. Cool-down

b. Client's choice

Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions? Select one: a. Increasing bone density b. Collagen synthesis and immunity c. Immunity only d. Collagen synthesis only

b. Collagen synthesis and immunity

Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model? Select one: a. Powerlifter b. Cross-country runner c. Avid resistance trainer d. Olympic weightlifter

b. Cross-country runner

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Overload principle b. Davis's law c. Archimedes' principle d. Wolff's law

b. Davis's law

What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Select one: a. Balance exercises b. Flexibility exercises c. Plyometric exercises d. Strengthening exercises

b. Flexibility exercises

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip internal rotation b. Hip extension c. Hip adduction d. Hip flexion

b. Hip extension

Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland? Select one: a. Liver b. Hypothalamus c. Pancreas d. Stomach

b. Hypothalamus

Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased venous return b. Increased ventricular filling c. Venous pooling d. Decreased ventricular filling

b. Increased ventricular filling

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Select one: a. Wolff's law b. Motor function c. Neuroplasticity d. Muscle function

b. Motor function

What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement? Select one: a. Eccentric control b. Neuromuscular efficiency c. All-or-nothing principle d. Concentric control

b. Neuromuscular efficiency

Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk? Select one: a. Patellar tendonitis b. Plantar fasciitis c. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear d. A sprain

b. Plantar fasciitis

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Transverse plane b. Posterior chain c. Anterior chain d. Sagittal plane

b. Posterior chain

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Power Training c. Strength Endurance Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

b. Power Training

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Select one: a. Action b. Precontemplation c. Maintenance d. Contemplation

b. Precontemplation

Which of the following is considered a closed-chain exercise? Select one: a. Biceps curls b. Push-ups c. Lat pulldown d. Machine leg extension

b. Push-ups

Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? Select one: a. Biceps brachii b. Quadriceps c. Gluteus medius d. Adductor longus

b. Quadriceps

What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible? Select one: a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Rate of force production c. Core stabilization d. Integrated performance paradigm

b. Rate of force production

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results? Select one: a. Relevance b. Reliability c. Appropriateness d. Validity

b. Reliability

Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Remodeling c. Neuroplasticity d. Lengthening

b. Remodeling

What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults? Select one: a. Cardio b. Resistance training c. Aerobics d. Walking

b. Resistance training

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Right ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle

b. Right atrium

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left atrium d. Right ventricle

b. Right atrium

Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance? Select one: a. Dynamic stretching of the quadriceps b. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps c. SMR and static stretching of the hamstrings d. Active stretching of the hamstrings

b. SMR and static stretching of the quadriceps

Which of the following modalities was designed to be carried, lifted, thrown, and pulled as a functional training tool? Select one: a. Battle ropes b. Sandbags c. TRX Rip Trainer d. Kettlebells

b. Sandbags

What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ? Select one: a. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse b. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change c. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening d. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion

b. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change

Which of the following hydration options would be most appropriate for exercise lasting over 90 minutes, or shorter-duration exercise in warm temperatures with heavy perspiration? Select one: a. Fruit juice b. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water c. Water mixed with fruit juice d. Plain water

b. Sports drink or electrolyte tablets mixed with water

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Squat c. Lunge d. Overhead squat

b. Squat

Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Strength b. Stability c. Power d. Endurance

b. Stability

Which client position during exercise has been shown to lead to the highest core muscle activity during breathing exercises? Select one: a. Lying down on back b. Standing c. Kneeling d. Sitting

b. Standing

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Step-ups c. Barbell clean d. Depth jump

b. Step-ups

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength? Select one: a. Stabilization Endurance b. Strength Endurance c. Maximal Strength d. Power

b. Strength Endurance

What is defined as the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance? Select one: a. Agility b. Stride rate c. Power d. Stride length

b. Stride rate

Which of the following is a major nutritional contributor to muscle protein synthesis? Select one: a. Caffeine b. The essential amino acids c. Vitamins d. Minerals

b. The essential amino acids

Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch is too complicated for the older client. b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. c. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. d. This stretch is too advanced for the average person.

b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. c. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles. d. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.

b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? Select one: a. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body b. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body c. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron d. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons

b. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body

What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols c. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s d. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol

b. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Which condition is an example of a chronic disease? Select one: a. Strep throat b. Type 2 diabetes c. Flu d. Appendicitis

b. Type 2 diabetes

Which of the following is a question that may promote change? Select one: a. Why can't you make this change to your schedule? b. What might you want to change? c. Why don't you just do this? d. What makes you think that you're not at risk?

b. What might you want to change?

When is a muscle considered overactive? Select one: a. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity b. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction c. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment d. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation

b. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 3 c. Zone 2 d. Zone 4

b. Zone 3

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 3 or 4 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 6 to 8 sets

c. 1 or 2 sets

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein? Select one: a. 9 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6

c. 4

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 7 to 9 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 4 to 6 drills d. 1 or 2 drills

c. 4 to 6 drills

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. 6 months b. Indefinitely c. 4 years d. 1 year

c. 4 years

What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success? Select one: a. A unique selling proposition (USP) b. Building rapport c. A SWOT analysis d. Forecasting

c. A SWOT analysis

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature b. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle c. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise d. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed

c. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men? Select one: a. Age and overall health do not affect testosterone levels. b. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health does not contribute to the change. c. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change. d. Testosterone levels are not affected by age, as overall health is the primary reason for a decline.

c. A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? Select one: a. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover b. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining c. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. d. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations

c. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Contemplation c. Action d. Precontemplation

c. Action

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? Select one: a. Quickness b. Power c. Agility d. Speed

c. Agility

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? Select one: a. An RPE of 7 to 8 b. An RPE of 9 to 10 c. An RPE of 5 to 6 d. An RPE of 3 to 4

c. An RPE of 5 to 6

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action? Select one: a. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases. b. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant. c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases. d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.

c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.

How can fitness professionals earn CEUs? Select one: a. Reading scholarly research journals b. Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club c. Attending fitness industry conferences d. Reading exercise-science textbooks

c. Attending fitness industry conferences

Which exercise is categorized as a total-body movement? Select one: a. Romanian deadlift b. Standing cable chest press c. Ball squat, curl to press d. Push-up

c. Ball squat, curl to press

Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity? Select one: a. Central to the right and anterior to the spine b. Central to the left and posterior to the spine c. Central to the left and anterior to the spine d. Central to the right and posterior to the spine

c. Central to the left and anterior to the spine

Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. Isometric

c. Concentric

Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations? Select one: a. Hosting boot camps in a local park b. Working in a nonprofit facility c. Conducting online coaching and personal training d. Working as an in-home independent personal trainer

c. Conducting online coaching and personal training

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? Select one: a. Only a few words can be produced between breaths b. Inability to speak at all c. Continuous talking becomes challenging d. Normal conversation is maintained.

c. Continuous talking becomes challenging

From the list of items provided, which of the following are not considered benefits of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Increased cardiac output and oxygen transport b. Improved respiratory efficiency and metabolism c. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness d. Reduced blood pressure and cholesterol levels

c. Decreased tolerance for stress and reduced mental alertness

What is the superior boundary of the core? Select one: a. Pelvic floor and hip musculature b. Abdominal muscles c. Diaphragm d. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles

c. Diaphragm

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Concentric c. Eccentric d. Isometric

c. Eccentric

Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening? Select one: a. Isokinetic action b. Concentric action c. Eccentric action d. Isometric action

c. Eccentric action

What does EMG stand for? Select one: a. Elektrokardiogramm b. Electrocardiogram c. Electromyography d. Electromagnetic spectrum

c. Electromyography

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Latissimus dorsi c. Erector spinae d. Rectus abdominis

c. Erector spinae

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction b. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction

c. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

What is a common cause of chronic hypertension? Select one: a. A low-fat diet b. Vigorous exercise c. Excess weight d. 1,500 mg of sodium per day

c. Excess weight

When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Taking longer for heart rate to return to normal after vigorous exercise is a good indicator of a healthy heart. b. Heart rate monitors provide the user with positive motivation and 100% accuracy. c. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. d. Wrist-worn heart rate monitors are as accurate as chest strap monitors.

c. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort.

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United States? Select one: a. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) b. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) d. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Lack of pyruvate b. Lack of fatty acids c. Free hydrogen ions d. Depletion of phosphocreatine

c. Free hydrogen ions

Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? Select one: a. Free weights are less intimidating than machines for those new to exercise. b. Training with free weights always requires the fitness professional to be a spotter. c. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception. d. Free-weight training is often safer for a new user when compared to machines.

c. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having more fat stored on their body b. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle

c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle

The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following? Select one: a. Endocrine health b. Bone health c. Heart health d. Athletic performance

c. Heart health

Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional's accumulated education, experience, and practical skills? Select one: a. Number of continuing education units earned b. Best external evidence c. Individual professional expertise d. Client values and expectations

c. Individual professional expertise

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise? Select one: a. Informational support b. Companionship support c. Instrumental support d. Emotional support

c. Instrumental support

Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training? Select one: a. Hypertrophy training b. Isolated training c. Integrated training d. Circuit training

c. Integrated training

What is the most important reason not to allow the knee to cave inward during a lunge jump exercise? Select one: a. It reduces force too much. b. It makes the next jump too easy to execute. c. It causes stress to the connective tissues. d. It creates too powerful a jump.

c. It causes stress to the connective tissues.

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Pro shuttle c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) d. Vertical jump

c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining? Select one: a. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment b. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment c. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment d. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic

c. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment

In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following? Select one: a. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension b. Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension c. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension d. Reduce the resistance so it is less than it was in the concentric phase, and lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

c. Lower the weight more slowly to increase time under tension

Calcium is of principal importance for what? Select one: a. Maintaining a strong immune system b. Nutrient absorption c. Maintaining strong bones d. Clearing toxins

c. Maintaining strong bones

The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Ambition b. Aspiration c. Motivation d. Initiative

c. Motivation

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence? Select one: a. Collecting summaries b. Affirming c. Motivational interviewing d. Reflective listening

c. Motivational interviewing

For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects? Select one: a. Movement speed b. Movement intensity c. Movement quality d. Movement quantity

c. Movement quality

At her first visit to her new fitness trainer, Alisha's BMI was 26. According to this information, how would Alisha be classified? Select one: a. Healthy weight b. Underweight c. Overweight d. Obese

c. Overweight

What must older adults complete prior to initiating an exercise program with a Certified Personal Trainer? Select one: a. An annual physical b. Overhead squat assessment c. PAR-Q+ d. Dietary assessment

c. PAR-Q+

What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow? Select one: a. Biometric data b. Movement assessments c. Performance assessments d. Body composition

c. Performance assessments

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms? Select one: a. White blood cells b. Plasma c. Platelets d. Red blood cells

c. Platelets

What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement? Select one: a. Stabilization-focused exercise b. Strength-focused exercise c. Plyometric exercise d. Balance exercise

c. Plyometric exercise

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Select one: a. Rate of force production b. Core strength c. Postural alignment d. Maximal muscular strength

c. Postural alignment

Which component of a monthly training plan should always be performed before moving to the next month's mesocycle? Select one: a. SAQ b. Cardio c. Reassessment d. Resistance

c. Reassessment

Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism? Select one: a. Warm-up b. Activation c. Resistance training d. Skill development

c. Resistance training

What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager? Select one: a. Reading the reviews of the company and its programs on ratings websites b. Following the most popular instructors from the club on social media c. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered d. Visiting the club to ask members what they think about their experience at the club

c. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered

Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues? Select one: a. Unrealistic goals b. Lack of social support c. Social physique anxiety d. Ambivalence

c. Social physique anxiety

Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation? Select one: a. Emotional health b. Behavioral health c. Socioeconomic status d. Global state of health

c. Socioeconomic status

What is the ability to move the body in one direction as fast as possible? Select one: a. Quickness b. Agility c. Speed d. Power

c. Speed

Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance? Select one: a. Maximal Strength Training b. Strength Endurance Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Power Training

c. Stabilization Endurance Training

What are the three levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength b. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power d. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power

c. Stabilization, Strength, and Power

What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Select one: a. Ball bridge b. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver c. Standing cable hip extension d. Floor bridge

c. Standing cable hip extension

Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Motion balance

c. Static balance

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Venous return b. Resting heart rate c. Stroke volume d. Cardiac output

c. Stroke volume

Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements? Select one: a. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site. b. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results. c. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site. d. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise.

c. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.

What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction d. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction

c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. b. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.

c. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

Which of the following defines the center of gravity of the body? Select one: a. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface b. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support c. The approximate midpoint of the body d. The highest elevation of the body in space when walking

c. The approximate midpoint of the body

Which of the following is true regarding steroids and other banned substances? Select one: a. They should never be discussed with clients in any capacity. b. They have overexaggerated side effects that typically do not occur. c. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal. d. They should always be recommended to clients to help them get results quickly.

c. They should never be recommended to clients, as they pose undue risk and are often illegal.

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Select one: a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Rectus abdominis c. Transverse abdominis d. Diaphragm

c. Transverse abdominis

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Sagittal plane box jump-down b. Sagittal plane box jump-up c. Transverse plane box jump-down d. Frontal plane box jump-up

c. Transverse plane box jump-down

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Soccer throw b. Medicine ball chest pass c. Two-arm push press d. Front medicine ball oblique throw

c. Two-arm push press

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities? Select one: a. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients. b. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective. c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous. d. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.

c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Relevance c. Validity d. Reliability

c. Validity

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness? Select one: a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. YMCA 3-minute step test c. V̇O2max d. Rockport walk test

c. V̇O2max

Which of the following is an open-ended question? Select one: a. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals? b. What do you currently weigh? c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past? d. Did you exercise this week?

c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? Select one: a. When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" b. When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity c. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" d. When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity

c. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?"

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance? Select one: a. If you decided to make a change, what might you do? b. What might you want to change? c. Why don't you want to change? d. What might work for you?

c. Why don't you want to change?

What are the recommended training variables for static stretching? Select one: a. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds b. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 2 minutes d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

d. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds

Which answer best represents the timeframe when delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) occurs after strenuous exercise? Select one: a. 36 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise b. 4 to 12 hours after strenuous exercise c. 2 to 4 hours after strenuous exercise d. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

d. 24 to 72 hours after strenuous exercise

What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy? Select one: a. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8 b. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills c. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

d. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills

Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall? Select one: a. 55 cm b. 65 cm c. 75 cm d. 45 cm

d. 45 cm

What is osteoporosis? Select one: a. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults b. Chronic inflammation of the joints c. Lower than normal bone density d. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

d. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile

What statement best describes a premium health club? Select one: a. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment b. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

d. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

What is a drop set? Select one: a. A system that consists of a series of exercises that an individual performs one after the other, with minimal rest between each exercise b. A system that alternates a heavy resistance exercise with an explosive power exercise that is biomechanically similar in movement c. A progressive or regressive step approach that either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set d. An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

d. An approach that involves performing a set to failure, then removing a small percentage of the load and continuing with the set

Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate? Select one: a. Greater muscle mass accumulated through exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. b. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. c. Cardiorespiratory fitness training does not provide many health benefits, and it should not be top priority when designing a program. d. An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

d. An individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality.

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion b. Thighs parallel to the ground c. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

d. As far as can be controlled without compensating

Which option is a common strength-focused resistance training exercise? Select one: a. Medicine ball soccer throw b. Box jumps c. Single-leg cable row d. Barbell bench press

d. Barbell bench press

Which of the following is true about body image? Select one: a. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves. b. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting. c. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual. d. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

d. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Brachialis b. Biceps brachii c. Triceps brachii d. Brachioradialis

d. Brachioradialis

When a person is thinking about implementing change but has not yet taken any steps to get started, what stage of change are they likely in? Select one: a. Maintenance b. Action c. Precontemplation d. Contemplation

d. Contemplation

For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders? Select one: a. Elevated and slightly protracted b. Depressed and slightly protracted c. Elevated and slightly retracted d. Depressed and slightly retracted

d. Depressed and slightly retracted

Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States? Select one: a. Caffeine b. Creatine c. Hordenine d. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

d. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Pneumonia b. Hypoxia c. Pulmonary hypoplasia d. Dyspnea

d. Dyspnea

What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial? Select one: a. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium b. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium c. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium d. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

d. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags b. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls c. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls d. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

d. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls

Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Vitamin C b. Niacin c. Pantothenic acid d. Folate

d. Folate

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. General cardiovascular exercise b. Deep soft-tissue massage c. Pilates d. Gentle static stretching

d. Gentle static stretching

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Gastrocnemius and soleus c. Hip flexor complex d. Gluteus maximus

d. Gluteus maximus

The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum c. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

Vitamin and mineral supplements are which kind of supplements? Select one: a. Performance supplements b. Stimulants c. Anabolic steroids d. Health supplements

d. Health supplements

A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional? Select one: a. Refund the remaining sessions and actively search for a new client. b. Let the client know that cancelling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits. c. Politely let the client know that you are transferring them to another trainer. d. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

d. Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Select one: a. Knee extension b. Hip extension c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Hip abduction

d. Hip abduction

What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Hyperglycemia d. Hypoglycemia

d. Hypoglycemia

When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users? Select one: a. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements b. Decreased challenges to balance and stability c. Increased user safety d. Increased multiplanar movement

d. Increased multiplanar movement

What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node? Select one: a. Right bundle branch b. Left bundle branch c. Intercalated discs d. Internodal pathway

d. Internodal pathway

Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Pectoralis major b. Gluteus maximus c. Anterior deltoid d. Latissimus dorsi

d. Latissimus dorsi

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Posterior deltoid b. Rhomboids c. Middle and lower trapezius d. Latissimus dorsi

d. Latissimus dorsi

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Serratus anterior c. Cervical extensors d. Lower trapezius

d. Lower trapezius

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Hip flexors c. Upper trapezius d. Lower trapezius

d. Lower trapezius

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities b. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness c. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise d. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going

d. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going

What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress? Select one: a. Attainable b. Specific c. Timely d. Measurable

d. Measurable

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. b. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods. c. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. d. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

d. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target? Select one: a. Medial gastrocnemius b. Lateral triceps brachii c. Lateral hamstrings d. Middle deltoid

d. Middle deltoid

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Core stability b. Balance c. Overall base strength d. Motor unit recruitment

d. Motor unit recruitment

Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Power step-up b. Tuck jump c. Butt kick d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization? Select one: a. Squat jump with stabilization b. Tuck jump with stabilization c. Box jump-up with stabilization d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization

Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system? Select one: a. Digestive b. Coronary c. Vascular d. Muscular

d. Muscular

What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition? Select one: a. Another word for macronutrients b. Needed to build muscle c. Contained within healthy food items d. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own

d. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own

Which term specifically describes motor function of muscles in the lower extremity? Select one: a. Vestibular function b. Sensory function c. Afferent nerve function d. Neuromuscular function

d. Neuromuscular function

Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Pulling assessment c. Pushing assessment d. Overhead squat

d. Overhead squat

What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise? Select one: a. Palms facing outward away from each other b. Palms facing up c. Palms facing down d. Palms facing inward toward each other

d. Palms facing inward toward each other

A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in? Select one: a. Action b. Preparation c. Maintenance d. Precontemplation

d. Precontemplation

Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends? Select one: a. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients. b. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients. c. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements. d. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.

d. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.

What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Select one: a. Tell them to exercise with a friend b. Encourage them to make plans to exercise c. Help them identify barriers to exercise d. Provide them with education and knowledge

d. Provide them with education and knowledge

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? Select one: a. Agility b. Strength c. Speed d. Quickness

d. Quickness

Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food service, and nutrition education? Select one: a. Certified dietitian nutritionist b. Licensed dietitian c. Certified nutrition specialist d. Registered dietitian nutritionist

d. Registered dietitian nutritionist

What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs? Select one: a. Osteoporosis b. Peripheral arterial disease c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Restrictive lung disease

d. Restrictive lung disease

What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise? Select one: a. Upward rotation b. Protraction c. Elevation d. Retraction

d. Retraction

During an interview with the hiring manager at a large health club, Sarah, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is asked how she can contribute as a personal trainer even though she has no formal experience working in the field. What would be the most appropriate response? Select one: a. Sarah discusses her experience as a high school athlete. Because she was a good athlete, she thinks she will be a good personal trainer. b. Sarah mentions her experience training for figure competitions. She thinks that experience means that she can help clients train for their competitions. c. Sarah mentions her experience as a cashier at a snack bar. She thinks this demonstrates her ability to run a cash register and complete daily cash reports. d. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.

d. Sarah discusses her previous work experience in a busy day care, where she had to multitask multiple times a day to perform her job duties. She thinks the multitasking helped prepare her for the demands of a busy fitness floor.

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Select one: a. Intention b. Outcome expectations c. Attitudes d. Self-efficacy

d. Self-efficacy

When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility? Select one: a. Active stretches b. Dynamic stretches c. Sports drills d. Self-myofascial techniques

d. Self-myofascial techniques

Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Multiplanar hop with stabilization b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Single-leg balance d. Single-leg squat

d. Single-leg squat

What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? Select one: a. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. b. Sit with an increased kyphosis and slowly breathe in through your nose while minimizing abdominal movement. c. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your mouth while allowing your chest to expand. d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

d. Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand.

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term? Select one: a. Net worth b. Income status c. Social influence d. Socioeconomic status

d. Socioeconomic status

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Select one: a. Vestibular b. Digestive c. Vision d. Somatosensory

d. Somatosensory

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Select one: a. Social psychology b. Developmental psychology c. Health psychology d. Sport and exercise psychology

d. Sport and exercise psychology

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex? Select one: a. Strains and heel spurs b. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints c. Achilles tendonitis and athlete's foot d. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

d. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control in a stationary position? Select one: a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Low-level balance c. Dynamic balance d. Static balance

d. Static balance

What is a proper regression if a client cannot perform the lunge exercise correctly? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Depth jump c. Barbell clean d. Step-ups

d. Step-ups

What plyometric term relates to a rapid eccentric motion followed by an explosive concentric motion? Select one: a. Stretching phase b. Explosive-shortening phase c. Muscular-power phase d. Stretch-shortening cycle

d. Stretch-shortening cycle

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Transitioning of forces b. Stretching of the antagonist muscle c. Shortening of the agonist muscle d. Stretching of the agonist muscle

d. Stretching of the agonist muscle

Which test would you select as the most appropriate when attempting to measure the overall fitness level of a fit college-aged athlete who competes on the school's rugby team? Select one: a. YMCA 3-minute step test b. The talk test c. Rockport 1-mile walk test d. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

d. The 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test

A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? Select one: a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists. b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows. c. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. d. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

d. The fitness professional should spot underneath the client's armpits.

What is atherosclerosis? Select one: a. The state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream. b. A normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable c. The state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream d. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

d. The processes by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow

What is explained by the sliding filament theory? Select one: a. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction b. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere c. The Z-lines moving farther apart d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

d. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? Select one: a. The arms falling forward b. The trunk leaning forward c. The scapula protruding excessively from the back d. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

d. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears

What are triglycerides? Select one: a. The stored form of carbohydrate b. A substrate for high-intensity exercise c. A substrate for anaerobic exercise d. The stored form of fat

d. The stored form of fat

What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body? Select one: a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) d. Thermoregulation

d. Thermoregulation

What is the purpose of the intervertebral discs? Select one: a. They minimize movement of the spine. b. They support most of the body's weight and are attached to many back muscles. c. They provide support for the head. d. They act as shock absorbers.

d. They act as shock absorbers.

The posterior oblique system includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Hamstrings and erector spinae b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

d. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus

Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost? Select one: a. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis b. Type 2 diabetes c. Type 1 diabetes d. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

d. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis

In which BMI category would you classify Mary if she has a BMI of 17.5? Select one: a. Class II obesity b. Obese c. Healthy weight d. Underweight

d. Underweight

Which of the following terms can be defined as relating to one side of the body? Select one: a. Ipsilateral b. Bilateral c. Contralateral d. Unilateral

d. Unilateral

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Select one: a. Arterioles b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Veins

d. Veins

Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? Select one: a. YMCA 3-minute step test b. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test c. Rockport walk test d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test

Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager? Select one: a. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club and hiring managers b. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant, and asking for a free workout c. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining he is perfect for the job d. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person

d. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person

What is the definition of energy balance? Select one: a. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout b. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown c. When daily food intake is consistent d. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

d. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option? Select one: a. Working for a low-cost health club company b. Creating online coaching programs c. Offering in-home training services d. Working for a premium health club company

d. Working for a premium health club company