Practice Test1.293

291. "Which of the following are valid advantages or disadvantages of multitenancy in a public cloud datacenter? (Choose all that apply.) -Multitenancy presents a potential security risk because other tenants are utilizing the same hardware. -Multitenancy reduces the cost of utilities and other overhead. -Multitenancy introduces the possibility of competition for bandwidth with other tenants. -Multitenancy separates tenants by assigning each one its own virtual machine."

"A, B, C. Multitenancy is a software architecture in which multiple tenants share a single instance of an application running in the cloud. Because tenants share a single application, there is a chance that data could be compromised. Because a single application instance is running in the cloud, the operational overhead is reduced compared to the use of individual virtual machines. Tenants share a finite amount of bandwidth, so the possibility exists for competition to occur, such as when one tenant is the target of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack. Multitenancy does not call for tenants to have individual virtual machines."

270. which of the following protocols are included in an iSCSI packet "Ethernet IP TCP UDP None of the above"

"A, B, C. iSCSI runs on a standard IP network; therefore, iSCSI messages are encapsulated using Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) at the transport layer, Internet Protocol (IP) at the network layer, and Ethernet at the data link layer. iSCSI does not use the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)"

232. Which of the following message types are changed by DHCP clients and servers during a seccessful IP address allocation transaction DHCPDISCOVER DHCPOFFER DHCPINFORM "DHCPACK DHCPREQUEST DHCPNAK DHCPRENEW DHCPRELEASE"

"A, B, D, E. In a successful DHCP address allocation, the client issues DHCPDISCOVER broadcasts to locate servers, and the servers reply with DHCPOFFER messages containing addresses. Then, the client sends a DHCPREQUEST message to one server accepting an offered address, to which the server replies with a DHCPACK. DHCPNAK messages are only used in unsuccessful transactions, and DHCPRENEW, DHCPRELEASE, and DHCPINFORM messages are not used during the address allocation process."

265. which of the following statements specify advantages of FCoE over the original Fibre Channel standard "FCoE is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel. FCoE can share a network with standard IP traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot. FCoE is routable over IP networks, whereas Fibre Channel is not. FCoE uses standard Ethernet networking hardware."

"A, B, D. Because it uses standard Ethernet hardware, Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is far less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel, which requires a dedicated fiber-optic network. Because Fibre Channel requires a dedicated network, it cannot coexist with standard IP traffic, whereas FCoE can. Because it is encapsulated in Ethernet frames, FCoE is not routable on IP networks."

266. Which of the following are application layer protocols that NAS devices can use to serve shared files to clients on the network -CIFS -NFS -RDMA -HTTP"

"A, B, D. Common Internet File System (CIFS), Network File System (NFS), and Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) are all file sharing protocols supported by many NAS devices. Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) provides high-speed network data transfers, but it is not an application layer file sharing protocol."

257. "DHCP clients use broadcast messages to contact a DHCP server on the local subnet. Which of the following are mechanisms by which DHCP broadcast messages can be forwarded to a DHCP server on another subnet when there is none on the local subnet? (Choose all that apply.) -DHCP relay -UDP forwarding -Zone transfer -IP helper"

"A, B, D. DHCP relay, UDP forwarding, and IP helper are all router mechanisms that perform the same task, forwarding broadcast messages on one subnet to a specific IP address on another subnet as a unicast message. This enables DHCP clients to contact DHCP servers on another subnet to obtain IP addresses. Zone transfer is a DNS zone replication mechanism not used by DHCP clients or servers"

259. "Which of the following Storage Area Network (SAN) protocols are capable of sharing a network medium with standard Local Area Network (LAN) traffic? (Choose all that apply.) -iSCSI -Fibre Channel -FCoE -InfiniBand"

"A, C. iSCSI runs on a standard IP network, and Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) runs on a standard Ethernet network. Both of these protocols can share a network with LAN traffic, although the use of a Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism is usually recommended. Fibre Channel and InfiniBand both require a dedicated network medium that does not support LAN traffic. "

285. Alice has just created a new windows server 2016 virtual machine using remote controls provided by a cloud service provider on the internet. Which of the following cloud architecture is she using -IaaS -PaaS -SaaS -Public Cloud -Private Cloud -Hybrid Cloud -Community Cloud

"A, D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides consumers like Alice with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. In the public cloud model, one organization or user functions as the provider, and another organization or user—in this case, Alice—consumes the services of the provider. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider's servers. In a private cloud, the same organization that utilizes the cloud services is also the sole owner of the infrastructure that provides those services. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private infrastructure so that the consumer organization is only a partial owner of the infrastructure. A community cloud is a private cloud variant intended for specific business communities, such as the medical or legal fields"

264. which of the following statements about the differences between network attached storage NAS and storage area network SAN are true -NAS provides file-level storage access, whereas SAN provides block-level storage access. -NAS devices typically contain integrated iSCSI targets. -SAN devices have an operating system, whereas NAS devices do not. -NAS devices typically provide a filesystem, whereas SAN devices do not."

"A, D. NAS devices are self-contained file servers that connect directly to a standard IP network. A NAS device provides file-level access to its storage devices and includes an operating system and a filesystem. NAS devices are typically not iSCSI targets."

269. which of the following is the term for the client that accesses an iSCSI device on a storage area network

"A. The client side of an iSCSI implementation is called an initiator. The storage device to which the initiator connects is called a target. Controller and adapter are not terms used for iSCSI clients or servers."

229. Which of the following protocols are responsible for assigning IP addresses to hosts "Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Domain Name System (DNS) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)" .

"A, E. DHCP and BOOTP are both designed to allocate IP addresses to hosts. The primary difference between the two is that DHCP is capable of dynamic allocation and BOOTP is not. DNS resolves hostnames into IP addresses, and ARP resolves IP addresses into data link layer hardware (or MAC) addresses. FTP is designed to transfer files between systems and has no role in IP address allocation. "

231. Which of the following features is supported by DHCP by not by BOOTP and RARP

"A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) can dynamically allocate IP addresses to clients and reclaim them when their leases expire. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) and Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) can allocate addresses automatically or manually, but they cannot reclaim them. DHCP and BOOTP both support relay agents"

274. which of the following protocols uses jumbo frames to increase performance levels on storage area networks

"A. Ethernet uses jumbo frames to transfer large amounts of data more efficiently. On a packet-switched network, each packet requires header data, which adds to the network's transmission overhead. Splitting large files into a great many small packets can lead to so much overhead that network efficiency is impaired. Ethernet typically restricts frame size to 1500 bytes, but jumbo frames enable Ethernet systems to create frames up to 9000 bytes. Frames are data link layer protocol data units, so Internet Protocol (IP), operating at the network layer, is not involved in creating them. Fibre Channel and iSCSI are specialized storage area networking protocols that do not use jumbo frames."

273. which of the following protocols are included in an FCoE packet

"A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) uses Ethernet frames in place of the bottom two layers (FC0 and FC1) of the Fibre Channel protocol stack. The remaining layers (FC2, FC3, and FC4) use the standard Fibre Channel protocols. FCoE does not use Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), Internet Protocol (IP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), or any of the other TCP/IP protocols.

278. top of rack switches most commonly form which layer of the datacenter topology

"A. In a typical datacenter topology, racks contain servers that implement applications. A leaf switch at the top of the rack connects the servers in the rack together and also connects to a spine switch that links to the rest of the datacenter. The top-of-rack switches are not classified as backbone, spine, or core devices."

268. "Which of the following Storage Area Network (SAN) technologies is primarily used by supercomputers as a high-speed, low-latency connection between Central Processing Units (CPUs) and storage systems?"

"A. InfiniBand is a high-end storage infrastructure technology that provides data transfer rates of up to 2.5 Gbps and scalable support for up to 64,000 devices. It is primarily used in high performance computing environments to replace older bus technologies connecting CPUs to storage arrays. Fibre Channel, Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI), and Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) are all SAN technologies, but they are more commonly used in Local Area Network (LAN) environments. "

228. Which of the following devices would you most likely configure to function as a DHCP server

"A. Most wireless routers are designed to provide connecting workstations with IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration parameters. Switches and bridges are data link layer devices, and hubs are physical layer devices, none of which are capable of providing clients with network layer IP addresses. "

234. which of the following is not a protocol used to allocate IP address assignments clients on a network

"A. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP), Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP), and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) are all protocols that are designed to allocate IP addresses to clients. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP), on the other hand, resolves existing IP addresses into data link layer MAC (or hardware) addresses."

282. which of the following cloud service models enables you to perform a new installation of an operating system of your choice

"A. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server installed by the provider. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to specific applications running on the provider's servers. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides remote virtualization of the entire workstation desktop, instead of a single application."

284. which of the following cloud service models provides the consumer with he most control over the cloud resources

"A. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with the most control, as the provider furnishes processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider, but they have only limited control over the server and no control over the underlying resources. Software as a Service (SaaS) and Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provide consumers with access to a specific application or an entire desktop environment running on the provider's servers, but the consumers have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources."

245. Which of the following gDNS resource record types specifies the IP addresses of the authoritative DNS servers for a particular zone

"A. The Name Server (NS) resource record identifies the authoritative name servers for a particular DNS zone. Pointer Records (PTRs) are used to resolve IP addresses into hostnames. Mail Exchange (MX) records identify the mail servers for a particular domain. Service Records (SRVs) identify the designated servers for a particular application. The Start of Authority (SOA) record indicates the delegation of a domain's administrative control from its parent domain. A Text (TXT) record associates administrator-supplied text with a zone but performs no other function."

243. Which of the following options should you configure on a DHCP server to supply clients with a default gateway address

"A. The Router option specifies the addresses of routers on the local network, including the default gateway router. The Time Server option specifies the addresses of servers that provide time signals to the network. The Name Server option specifies the addresses of up to 10 name resolution servers (other than DNS servers) on the network. The LPR Server option specifies the addresses of line printer servers on the network"

235. Which of the following best describes what happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query

"A. When a DNS server receives an iterative query, it responds immediately with the best information that it has available, or with an error message. It does not send queries to other servers."

254. In designing a network for a client, Ed has decided to use both internal and external DNS servers. Which of the following resources should Ed register with the external DNS server "Company database servers Internet web servers Incoming email servers Domain controllers

"B, C. The external DNS server should contain records only for the resources that must be accessible from the Internet, such as web servers and public email servers. For security reasons, servers containing sensitive data, such as database servers and domain controllers, should be registered on the internal DNS server."

240. Why is it necessary to use a relay agent to enable a DHCP server to assign IP addresses to clients on other networks -Because DHCP requires a separate license for each subnet. -Because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting DHCP servers on other networks directly." -Because DHCP must use the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) to communicate with clients. -Because the DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions."

"B, D. DHCP clients cannot contact servers on different networks to initiate an address assignment. Clients locate DHCP servers by transmitting broadcast messages, and broadcasts are limited to the local network. Relay agents forward the broadcast messages to other networks, enabling the server to assign IP addresses to clients on other subnets. DHCP does not require special licenses. DHCP uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) transmissions, not TCP."

227. In which of the following gDNS transactions does the querying system generate a recursive query -A DNS client sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution. -A client's DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find the authoritative server for the com top-level domain. -A client's DNS server sends a request to the com top-level domain server to find the authoritative server for the adatum.com domain. -A client's DNS server, which has been configured to function as a forwarder, sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its ISP's DNS server for resolution" -"A client's DNS server sends a request to the adatum.com domain server to find the IP address associated with the server name www"

"B, D. When a client sends a name resolution query to its DNS server, it uses a recursive request so that the server will take on the responsibility for resolving the name. The only other use of recursive requests is in the case of a forwarder, which is configured to pass that responsibility on to another server. All of the other queries issued by the client's server to the various domain authorities are iterative queries. "

281. "Ralph is designing the datacenter for his company's new branch office. He is considering various options, including building a new datacenter at the branch office facility, using a colocated datacenter, and creating a virtual datacenter using a public cloud provider. Which of the following statements about the differences between these options are true? (Choose all that apply.) -A colocated datacenter would be less expensive to implement than a branch office or public cloud datacenter. -In a branch office or colocated datacenter, Ralph's company would own the hardware. -In all three datacenter options, the administrators in Ralph's company would be responsible for setting up and managing the hardware. -In a branch office or colocated datacenter, Ralph's company would be responsible for all utility costs, including heating, cooling, and power. -A public cloud datacenter would have greater physical security than the other two options. -A public cloud datacenter is easier to expand than a colocated or branch office datacenter"

"B, F. In a colocated datacenter, a client houses its own servers and other hardware in a shared third-party facility. Therefore, Ralph's company would own the hardware in a branch office or colocated datacenter. A datacenter in a public cloud is easier to expand than the other options because it is simply a matter of creating additional virtual devices. A colocated datacenter would be less expensive to implement than a branch office datacenter, but the public cloud option would require the smallest initial outlay. The administrators would set up and manage the hardware in a branch office or colocated datacenter, but not in a public cloud datacenter. In a colocated datacenter, Ralph's company would share utility costs with other tenants. A public cloud facility is not necessarily more secure"

263. In its primary functionality a network attached storage device is most closely associated with which of the following devices

"B. A NAS device is essentially a file server that connects to a network and provides users with access to shared files. A NAS is a single computer, so it cannot be associated with failover clustering. Just a Bunch of Disks (JBOD) is a simple storage array that provides block-level access to data, whereas NAS devices provide file-level access. Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is a fault tolerance technology that might be implemented in NAS devices, but it is not the device's primary function.

242. Ralph has configured a server called NE6 to function as a web server. He does not want to change the server's existing name, but he wants it to also be accessible to clients using the name www . What Domain Name System (DNS) modification can Ralph make to accomplish this?

"B. A canonical name (CNAME) resource record specifies an alternative host name (or alias) for a system already registered in the DNS. By creating a CNAME record specifying the www name, the server can be addressed using either NE6 or www. Creating an additional A resource record will cause the server to be recognized using one name or the other, but not both. Modifying the existing A record will change the hostname. PTR resource records are used only for reverse name resolution."

287. Ed is the overnight manager of his company's datacenter, and he is responsible for both private and public resources in the company's hybrid cloud. Due to a new TV commercial shown that night, the company's website experiences a massive upsurge in traffic. The web server farm on the private cloud is being overwhelmed, so Ed configures some virtual machines in the public cloud to take up the slack. Which of the following is a common term for what Ed has done?"

"B. Cloud bursting is a common term for the offloading of excess traffic from private to public cloud resources when necessary to maintain satisfactory performance levels."

244. DHCP clients rely on which of the following types of transmissions to locate and initiate contact with DHCP servers on the local network

"B. DHCP clients use broadcasts to transmit DHCPDISCOVER messages on the local network. DHCP servers are then required to respond to the broadcasts. DHCP clients cannot use unicast, multicast, or anycast messages to initiate contact with DHCP servers, because they have no way of learning their addresses."

256. "Alice is the administrator of a subnet for which she has been allotted 100 IP addresses. She has installed a DHCP server with a scope containing all 100 available addresses for lease. There are currently 99 clients configured to use the DHCP server, many of which are mobile devices, and Alice fears that systems frequently leaving and rejoining the network might cause the scope of available leases to be exhausted. Which of the following adjustments can help to prevent this from happening?"

"B. Decreasing the lease time for the scope will cause abandoned IP addresses to be returned to the scope for reallocation more quickly, which would lessen the chances of exhausting the scope. Increasing the lease time will make scope exhaustion more likely. Installing another DHCP server or creating another scope will have no effect, because the limitation is the number of addresses allocated for the subnet."

248. Which of the following technologies enables the IP addresses assigned to clients by DHCP server to be automatically added to the DNS namespace

"B. Dynamic DNS (DDNS) is an addition to the DNS standards that eliminates the need for administrators to manually create certain DNS resource records. For example, when a DHCP server allocates an address to a client, DDNS creates a host (A) record containing the hostname of the client and the newly allocated IP address. Reverse name resolution is the process of looking up hostnames based on IP addresses. Automatic allocation is a DHCP process by which IP addresses are permanently assigned to clients. HOSTS is a text-based name resolution method that predates DNS

247. Which of the following DHCP address allocation methods enables the server to reclaim IP addresses when they are no longer in use by clients

"B. Dynamic allocation enables a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server to lease IP addresses to clients for a specific time interval. When the lease period expires, the client can renew it, if it is still using the address. If the address is no longer in use when the lease expires, it is returned to the scope of available leases for reallocation. Automatic allocation permanently assigns an IP address from the scope to a client. Manual and static allocation are two terms that describe the allocation of a specific IP address to a specific client"

286. In which of the following cloud models can a single organization function as both the provider and the consumer of all cloud services

"B. In a private cloud, the same organization that utilizes the cloud services can also be the sole owner of the infrastructure that provides those services. A private cloud can also be owned by a third party, all or in part. In the public cloud model, one organization functions as the provider, and another organization consumes the services of the provider. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private infrastructure so that the consumer organization is only a partial owner of the infrastructure. There is no such thing as an ad hoc cloud model"

239. On DHCP server what is the name of the element you create to specify which IP addresses the server should assign to clients

"B. On a DHCP server, you create a scope that consists of a beginning and an ending IP address. Range, pool, and subnet are not technical terms for DHCP."

226. Which of the following security protocols for web servers or browsers was deprecated in 2015 in favor of TLS and DTLS

"B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is the original security protocol for web servers and browsers and the predecessor of TLS. It was deprecated in 2015. Secure Shell (SSH) is a character-based tool that enables users to execute commands on remote computers. It does not provide web server or browser security like TLS and DTLS. IPsec is a set of security protocols that provide digital signing, encryption, and other services for network transmissions. It is not specifically designed for web security. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a component of Remote Desktop Services, a Windows mechanism that enables a client program to connect to a server and control it remotely. RDP is not a web security protocol."

253. Which of the following DHCP options prevents the client from transmitting IP datagrams that circulate endlessly around the network

"B. The Default IP Time-to-Live (TTL) option specifies the maximum number of seconds or hops allowed to an IP datagram before a router removes it from the network. This prevents datagrams from circulating endlessly. The Interface Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) option specifies the maximum size of an IP datagram. The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache timeout specifies how long entries containing the IP address assigned by the server can remain in the cache maintained by a client's ARP implementation. The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) keepalive interval option specifies the number of seconds that the client should wait before transmitting a keepalive message over a TCP connection."

272. Which of the following protocol standards defines a layered implementation that does not correspond to the layers of the OSI model

"B. The Fibre Channel standard defines a five-layer networking stack, with layers numbered FC-0 to FC-4, that does not correspond to the layers of the OSI model. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI), Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), and Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) all function within the standard OSI model layers. "

290. "Ed has just created a new Windows application for his company, and he wants to deploy it in the public cloud. He is looking for a provider that will furnish his company with a fully installed and configured Windows server on which he can install and run his application. Which of the following service models is he seeking to use"

"B. The Platform as a Service (PaaS) model provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider's servers. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides remote virtualization of the entire workstation desktop, instead of a single application."

275. which of the following is not the name of one of the layers in the three tier datacenter architecture

"B. The three-tier hierarchical architecture for datacenters consists of core, distribution, and access layers. The access layer in a datacenter contains servers, the distribution layer contains redundant switch connections, and the core layer provides high-speed transport between the switches. There is no intermediate layer in the architecture"

255. Ralph is concerned that the IP address scope of available leases in his DHCP server is nearly exhausted. What happens to DHCP clients when there are no IP addresses left in the scope for assignment

"B. When there are no IP addresses available for lease in a DHCP scope, Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) takes over, and the system self-assigns an address on the 169.254.0.0/16 network. Clients are not assigned a 0.0.0.0 address, nor are their requests forwarded to another DHCP server. Sharing IP addresses is not possible on a TCP/IP network. "

293. "Ralph is designing a hybrid deployment for a corporate client that will require a connection between the client's private network and a public cloud provider. The client is concerned about this connection becoming a speed bottleneck at times of heavy user traffic. Which of the following options can Ralph offer the client that will best address this potential problem?"

"C. A cloud direct connection is a private link between the client's private network and the cloud service provider. This link is independent from any ISP connection used by the client organization for other traffic, so it ensures a consistent bandwidth for the hybrid cloud network. Using a different ISP or a leased line does not replace the entire connection; there are still potential bottlenecks. A VPN can provide better performance than a standard connection and greater security, but it is not as consistent (or as expensive) as a direct cloud connection."

289. Which of the following statements about cloud delivery models is true

"C. A hybrid cloud consists of both public and private resources. One of its main advantages is that administrators can move services from private to public cloud servers and back again as needed, depending on the current workload. Public cloud resources require authentication, so while they might be less secure than a private cloud, they are not inherently insecure. The term private cloud refers to hardware resources that are owned and operated either by a single organization or a third party, regardless of their location. The various cloud delivery models do not impose specific hardware resource requirements."

241. Which of the following DNS resource records is used to resolve a hostname into an IPv6 address

"C. An AAAA resource record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address for name resolution purposes. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Pointer Records (PTRs) also contain hostnames and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution—that is, resolving IP addresses into hostnames. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given hostname. "

277. which of the following best describes the difference between east west and north south traffic in a datacenter

"C. East-west traffic describes traffic flow within the datacenter, while north-south is traffic between devices inside the datacenter and outside devices. The terms east-west and north-south do not pertain to the OSI model layers or to specific devices used."

249. Which of the following is a tool that integrates DHCP and DNS so that each is aware of the changes made by the other?

"C. IP address management (IPAM) is a system for planning, managing, and monitoring the IP address space for an entire enterprise network. IPAM provides links between the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and the Domain Name System (DNS) so that each is aware of the naming and addressing changes made by the other. DHCPv6 is an IPv6 version of the DHCP service, which enables it to allocate IPv6 addresses to network clients. HOSTS is a text-based name resolution method for individual systems that predates DNS. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is the mechanism that enables a DHCP client to assign itself an address when no DHCP servers are accessible."

279. Which of the following layers in a software defined network architecture consists of hardware devices

"C. In an SDN architecture, the application layer is software, that is, the applications and services running on the network; the control layer is a centralized console through which administrators manage the applications; and the infrastructure layer consists of the switch and router hardware. Core is not one of the SDN layers."

246. Which of the following must you create on a DHCP server if you want it to always assign the same IP address to a particular computer

"C. On a DHCP server, a reservation is a permanent IP address assignment to a specific MAC address. A scope is a range of IP addresses to be allocated to clients. An exclusion is a range of IP addresses that is to be excluded from a scope. A relay is a component that routes DHCP traffic between networks."

288. "Microsoft's Outlook.com email service is an example of which of the following cloud service models?"

"C. Software as a Service (SaaS) provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider's servers (in this case, an email service). Consumers have control over some of their email functions, but they have no control over the operating system, the servers, or the underlying resources. The Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model provides the consumers with access to processing, storage, and networking resources that the consumer can use as needed. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server furnished by the provider. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides remote virtualization of the entire workstation desktop, instead of a single application."

238. Which IP address allocation method is not supported by DHCP

"C. Stable is not a DHCP allocation method. DHCP supports three allocation methods: manual, dynamic, and automatic. "

237. Which of the following TCP/IP parameters configured on an end system specifies the IP address of a device that performs domain name resolution services

"C. The DNS Server Addresses parameter contains the addresses of servers that resolve domain names into IP addresses. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) provides Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) name resolution. The Default Gateway parameter defines the local router to be used to access other networks. There is no such parameter as Subnet Gateway. "

283. When you contract with a provider to obtain email services for your company using their servers in the public cloud which of the following service models are you using

"C. The Software as a Service (SaaS) model provides consumers with access to a specific application running on the provider's servers. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the consumers with processing, storage, and networking resources that they can use to install and run operating systems and other software of their choice. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides consumers with the ability to install applications of their choice on a server installed by the provider. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides remote virtualization of the entire workstation desktop, instead of a single application. "

276. which of the following is not a reason why the leaf and spine datacenter topology is superior to the standard three tier topology

"C. The leaf and spine topology uses a full mesh topology in its two layers of switches. This is more expensive than the three-tier topology, but it reduces latency by requiring the same number of hops in the path between any two routers. The use of software-defined networking provides adaptive path determination without the use of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) for layer 2 port blocking."

260. Which of the following protocols is not used for SAN storage area networks

"C. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a technology for the transmission of voice communications over IP networks; it is not a SAN protocol. Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI), Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE), and Fibre Channel are all SAN protocols."

267. Which of the following is not one of the advantage of iSCSI over fibre channel -iSCSI is routable, whereas Fibre Channel is not. -iSCSI is less expensive to implement than Fibre Channel. -iSCSI includes its own internal flow control mechanism, whereas Fibre Channel does not. -iSCSI can share the same network as standard local area network traffic, whereas Fibre Channel cannot."

"C. iSCSI does not include its own flow control mechanism. It runs over a TCP connection, which is the protocol responsible for flow control. Because it runs on any IP network, iSCSI traffic is routable, and it is less expensive to implement. Fibre Channel requires a dedicated network using fiber-optic cable. iSCSI traffic can coexist with standard LAN traffic on a single network, although some type of Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism is frequently recommended."

233. which of the following message types are exchanged by DHCP clients and servers during a successful IP address lease renewal transaction

"D, E. In a successful DHCP address renewal transaction, the client issues a DHCPDREQUEST message, and the server replies with a DHCPACK. DHCPNAK messages are only used in unsuccessful transactions, and the other message types are not used during the address renewal process."

258. which of the following mechanisms enables administrators to maintain current DNS database information on multiple name servers for fault tolerance and load balancing purposes?

"D. A zone transfer is a client/server transaction between two DNS servers in which one server requests a copy of the other server's entire zone database, to update its own. None of the other options are used for DNS database replication. Multi-master replication is a technique that enables two systems to exchange database information as needed to update each other. UDP forwarding is a router mechanism used by DHCP to forward broadcast messages on one subnet to a specific IP address on another subnet. An iterative query is a type of DNS message that transfers responsibility for a name lookup to another server."

292. Which of the following is not one of the advantages of infrastructure as code deployment for cloud based virtual machine

"D. Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is a method of deploying and configuring cloud-based resources using script files. IaC deployment provides time and cost savings and improved elasticity and scalability by automating the virtual machine deployment process and also ensures a consistent deployment by using the same script for all newly deployed VMs. IaC does not encrypt the virtual machine configuration."

230. Which of the following DNS resource records is used only for reverse name resolution

"D. Like A and AAAA records, Pointer Records (PTRs) contain hostnames and IP addresses, but they are used for reverse name resolution—that is, resolving IP addresses into hostnames. A Mail Exchange (MX) record specifies the mail server that the domain should use. Canonical name (CNAME) records specify aliases for a given hostname. An AAAA resource record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address for name resolution purposes."

251. Which of the following protocols is used to synchronize computer clocks to a time signal provided by a server

"D. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize computer clocks. Time signals can be provided by internal servers or time servers on the Internet. The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is used to transfer files between systems without authentication. The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is used to exchange web traffic between clients and servers. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transmit email traffic between clients and servers. "

236. What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to DNS servers

"D. The client component of the Domain Name System (DNS) is called the resolver. Requestor is a generic term for any system issuing requests, and only DNS servers can be authorities or forwarders.

262. What is the highest possible data transfer rate on a SAN using fibre channel

"D. The current Fibre Channel standard calls for a maximum data transfer rate of 128 gigabits per second (Gbps), for a nominal throughput of 12,800 megabytes per second (MBps)." .

250. Which of the following is the term used to describe the logical distance of a NTP server from the time source to which it is synchronized

"D. The term stratum, plus an integer, describes the distance in time of an NTP server from its time source in terms of the NTP server hierarchy. Stratum 0 represents an atomic clock or other precision timekeeping device. Stratum 1 represents an NTP server synchronized to within a few milliseconds of its Stratum 0 time source. Stratum 2 is a server synchronized to a Stratum 1 server, and so on. Layer, path, and iteration are not technical terms used by the NTP. "

252. Which of the worlds in the fully qualified domain name FQDN www.paris.mydomain.org represents the topmost layer in the DNS namespace hierarchy?"

"D. The topmost layer in the DNS hierarchy is represented by org, which is a top-level domain. mydomain is a second-level domain registered by a particular organization, paris is a subdomain within mydomain, and www is the name of a particular host in the paris.mydomain.org domain."

271. which of the following protocols are included in a fibre channel packet

"E. The Fibre Channel standard defines a unique, five-layer protocol stack that does not correspond to the OSI model layers. Therefore, Fibre Channel does not use Ethernet, nor does it use Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), Internet Protocol (IP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), or any of the other TCP/IP protocols."

261. Which of the following technologies do iSCSI initiators use to locate iSCSI targets on the network

"E. The Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) is an application that provides iSCSI initiators with automated discovery of targets located on the network. iSNS can also function as a discovery service for Fibre Channel devices. Active Directory, Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), and Domain Name System (DNS) are not capable of registering iSCSI targets. iWINS does not exist. "

280. "In a Software Defined Network (SDN), as defined in the RFC 7426 specification, a plane is a set of resources related to a particular function. Which of the following is not one of the five planes defined in the SDN architecture?"

"E. The RFC 7426 document defines five planes in the SDN architecture: forwarding, operational, control, management, and application. Infrastructure is not one of the SDN planes."