RAD REVIEW: PC1: Ethical And Legal Aspects (40)

Q 38: Patients' rights include which of the following? 1.The right to refuse treatment 2.The right to confidentiality 3.The right to possess his or her radiographs A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(B) 1 and 2 only Radiographs are the property of the health-care institution and are a part of every patient's permanent medical record.

Q 21: The moral principle that describes the radiographer's aspiration to do no harm or to allow no act that might cause harm to the patient is termed A) beneficence. B) nonmaleficence. C) autonomy. D) veracity.

(B) nonmaleficence.

Q 10: The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is theadvance health care directive.living will.health care proxy. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q 12: A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination Performing an examination on the wrong patient A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q 16: Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart? 1.Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2.Medical history 3.Informed consent A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q 39: As health care professionals aspire to design their actions to always benefit their patients, to only bring about good for their patients, they are aspiring to what moral principle? A) Beneficence B) Nonmaleficence C) Autonomy D) Veracity

(A) Beneficence

Q 31: The legal doctrine respondeat superior relates to which of the following? A) Let the master answer. B) The thing speaks for itself. C) A thing or matter settled by justice. D) A matter settled by precedent.

(A) Let the master answer.

Q 29: If prosecuted by the US Department of Justice, what is the criminal penalty for knowingly disclosing a patient's protected health information (PHI)? A) $100,000 fine B) $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment C) $100,000 fine and up to 5 years imprisonment D) $250,000 fine and up to 10 years imprisonment

(B) $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment

Q 3: For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except A) the patient's name and/or identification number. B) the patient's birth date. C) a right- or left-side marker. D) the date of the examination.

(B) the patient's birth date. Reason: Additional information may be included: the patient's birth date or age, name of the attending physician, and the time of day.

Q 40: Radiographs are the property of the A) radiologist. B) patient. C) health-care institution. D) referring physician.

(C) health-care institution. Reason: The patient may also borrow the originals, which must be returned, or he or she may pay for copies.

Q 4: The ethical principle that aspires never to, above all, do harm describes A) fidelity. B) veracity. C) nonmalficence. D) beneficence.

(C) nonmalficence. Reason: Nonmalficence = prevention of harm. Beneficence = bringing about good or benefiting others. Fidelity refers to faithfulness Veracity refers to truthfulness.

Q 32: Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1) Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2) Medical history 3) Informed consent A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q 22: For which of the following can a radiographer be found liable for a negligent tort? Radiographer images the wrong forearm. Patient is injured while being positioned on the x-ray table. Radiographer fails to question patient about possible pregnancy before performing x-ray examination. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3 Reason: For negligent tort liability, four elements must be present—duty (what should have been done), breach (deviation from duty), injury sustained, and cause (as a result of breach).

Q 18: What is the appropriate action if a patient has signed consent for a procedure but, once on the radiographic table, refuses the procedure? A) Proceed—the consent form is signed. B) Send the patient back to his or her room. C) Honor the patient's request and proceed with the next patient. D) Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request.

(D) Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request.

Q 33: A radiographer who tells the patient that he or she will have to repeat this uncomfortable examination if the patient does not try harder to cooperate can be accused of A) assault. B) battery. C) false imprisonment. D) defamation.

(A) assault

Q 20:Imaging the incorrect patient qualifies as A) battery B) assault C) false imprisonment D) slander

(A) battery

Q 6: A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of A) invasion of privacy. B) slander. C) libel. D) defamation.

(A) invasion of privacy. Reason: If disclosure is in some way detrimental or otherwise harmful to the patient it is called defamation. Written (libel) or spoken (slander).

Q 30: Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care?: 1.The right to considerate and respectful care 2.The right to privacy 3.The right to continuity of care A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only

(B) 2 only Reason: The patient's right to privacy refers to his or her modesty and dignity being respected.

Q 35: Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? A) Intentional misconduct B) Contributory negligence C) Gross negligence D) Corporate negligence

(B) Contributory negligence Reason: Gross negligence occurs when there is willful or deliberate neglect of the patient. Assault, battery, invasion of privacy, false imprisonment, and defamation of character all fall under the category of intentional misconduct Corporate negligence occurs when a corporation (i.e. hospital) fails to meet its legal obligations to its clients

Q 15: The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following? A) Let the master answer. B) The thing speaks for itself. C) A thing or matter settled by justice. D) A matter settled by precedent.

(B) The thing speaks for itself.

Q 2: Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed A) assault B) battery C) false imprisonment D) invasion of privacy

(B) battery Reason: Assault is the threat of touching or laying hands on. If a patient feels threatened by a health care provider either because of the provider's tone or pitch of voice or because of words that are threatening, an assault charge may be made.False imprisonment may be considered if a patient states that he or she no longer wishes to continue with a procedure and is ignored or if restraining devices are used improperly or used without a physician's order. Invasion-of-privacy issues arise when there has been a disclosure of confidential information.

Q 8: An RT (ARRT) is the supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a State having legislation that requires professional certification. A job applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of A) breaking the ARRT Code of Ethics. B) breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics. C) malpractice. D) nothing, because position responsibilities are limited.

(B) breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics. Reason: The Standards consist of two parts: the Code of Ethics (aspirational) and the Rules of Ethics (mandatory).

Q 25: A radiographer who discloses confidential patient information to unauthorized individuals can be found guilty of A) libel. B) invasion of privacy. C) slander. D) defamation.

(B) invasion of privacy.

Q 23: Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as A) battery B) slander C) libel D) assault

(B) slander

Q 36: Forms of intentional misconduct includeslander.invasion of privacy.negligence. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 1 and 2 only

Q 17: Which of the following involve(s) intentional misconduct?: 1) Invasion of privacy 2) False imprisonment 3) Patient sustaining injury from a fall while left unattended A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only Reason: If a patient fell and sustained an injury, that would be considered unintentional misconduct or negligence.

Q 7:What are the requirements of a hospital or imaging center regarding patient demographic information that appears on a digital image? 1) Workstations that display images with patient demographic information should be located in controlled access areas of the facility. 2) Technologists should be able to alter information contained in the image file sent to PACS to correct errors without documenting the change. 3) Technologists should be able to change patient information as an error prevention step post processing before sending images to PACS. 4) At a minimum, demographic information should include the following: patient name, DOB, exam date and time, and facility name where the exam was performed. A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, and 4

(C) 1, 3, and 4 Reason: Have tools in place to preserve privacy. All errors should be corrected but the reason made to the document should be indicated.

Q 14: Facsimile transmission of health information isnot permitted.permitted for urgently needed patient care.permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only Reason: It should (and can) be used only with prior patient authorization, when urgently needed for patient care, or when required for third-party payer ongoing hospitalization certification.

Q 26: The ARRT Rules of Ethics are 1. aspirational. 2. mandatory. 3. minimally acceptable standards. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only Reason: The Code of Ethics is aspirational. The Rules of Ethics is mandatory, has minimally acceptable standards and enforceable standards required of all imaging professionals to ensure quality patient care.

Q 24: Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? A) Beneficence B) Autonomy C) Veracity D) Fidelity

(C) Veracity Reason: Fidelity is faithfulness and loyalty. Autonomy is the theory patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them. Beneficence is related to the idea of doing good and being kind.

Q 9: To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of A) battery. B) slander. C) libel. D) tort.

(C) libel.

Q 27: A radiographer has recently joined your staff. You are aware that this individual has had her ARRT certification revoked. Realizing that your state requires certification, you speak to a supervisor about the matter. Your supervisor replies that he knows but made an exception "because we are so short staffed." You should A) report this to the next supervisor in charge. B) report this to the facility administrator. C) report this directly to the ARRT. D) do and/or say nothing.

(C) report this directly to the ARRT. Reason: There are rules that refer to those who knowingly assist another without proper certification to engage in the practice of radiologic technology, and/or those who fail to promptly report such activity to the ARRT—as being subject to sanction.

Q 1: A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all the following procedures except A) myelogram. B) cardiac catheterization. C) upper GI series. D) interventional vascular procedure.

(C) upper GI series. Reason: Informed consent is necessary before performing any procedure that is considered invasive or that carries considerable risk.

Q 37: You are working in the outpatient department and receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the right hip joint; however, the requisition asks for a left femur examination. What should you do? A) Perform a right hip examination. B) Perform a left femur examination. C) Perform both a right hip and a left femur examination. D) Check with the referring physician.

(D) Check with the referring physician.

Q 19: You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle examination. What should you do? A) Perform a left foot examination. B) Perform a left ankle examination. C) Perform both a left foot and a left ankle examination. D) Check with the referring physician.

(D) Check with the referring physician. Reason: It is the radiographer's responsibility to check with the referring physician and report the patient's complaint. This is to ensure patient is not subject to unnecessary radiation or exams.

Q 11: Joseph Luckett Jr, is a competent second-year student. He has been imaging patients under indirect supervision for most of the day. All CR images are viewed at the workstation on the computer monitor, before being sent to the radiologist. After taking posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest projections on a patient with a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test, Joseph notices that he has "clipped" the apices on the PA projection. As per the policy of the department and program, he must consult with a technologist before repeating any images. The technologist takes a quick glance at his image and says, "It looks fine. Send it." "But what about the apices?" Joseph asks. He knows that imaging the apices is extremely important in suspected cases of TB. The technologist does not take a second look. "That's okay. It's just a routine. Send it." What is the most appropriate immediate action for Joseph to take? A) Ignore the technologist's advice and repeat the PA view. B) Send the images as suggested by the technologist. C) Send the images but, without informing the technologist, add the following comment: "Technologist advised against a repeat." D) Explain the clinical history to the technologist and stress that he is uncomfortable sending a suboptimal study.

(D) Explain the clinical history to the technologist and stress that he is uncomfortable sending a suboptimal study.

Q 5: The legal doctrine "respondeat superior" means which of the following? A) A matter settled by precedent. B) A thing or matter settled by justice. C) The thing speaks for itself. D) Let the master answer.

(D) Let the master answer Reason: "Res ipsa locquitur" relates to a thing or matter that speaks for itself. "Res judicata" means a thing or matter settled by justice. "Stare decisis" refers to a matter settled by precedent.

Q 13: All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except the right to A) participate in proposed research studies. B) continuity of care. C) considerate and respectful care. D) review any institutional records.

(D) review "any" institutional records. 1. The right to considerate and respectful care 2. The right to be informed completely and understandably 3. The right to refuse treatment 4. The right to have an advance directive (e.g., a living will or health care proxy) 5. The right to privacy 6. The right to confidentiality 7. The right to review one's records 8. The right to request appropriate and medically indicated care and services 9. The right to know about institutional business relationships that could influence treatment and care 10. The right to be informed of, consent to, or decline participation in proposed research studies 11. The right to continuity of care 12. The right to be informed of hospital policies and procedures relating to patient care, treatment, and responsibilities

Q 34: All the following are part of the patient's bill of rights except A) the right to refuse treatment. B) the right to review one's records. C) the right to order an x-ray procedure. D) the right to have an advance directive.

C the right to order an x-ray procedure. Reason: the physician and radiologist are the only ones that have the right to make orders

Q 28: Honor Code violations that can prevent a radiography student from meeting ARRT certification requirements include: 1) Failing one or more courses in the radiography program 2) Being suspended from the radiography program 3) Being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3 only Reason: The word honor implies regard for the standards of one's profession, a refusal to lie/deceive, an uprightness of character or action, a trustworthiness and incorruptibility.