RAD Review Question Bank

Which of the following is another name for an intermittent injection port? A. Hypodermic needle B. Butterfly needle C. Heparin lock D. Intravenous (IV) infusion

Heparin lock

What does the term RIS stand for in a Radiology department? A. Radiography image system B. Radiography information system C. Radiology information system D. Radiology image system

Radiology information system

The manubrial notch is at approximately the same level as the A. fifth thoracic vertebra. B. T2-3 interspace. C. T4-5 interspace. D. costal margin.

B. T2-3 interspace

Radiographic contrast is the result of A. transmitted electrons B. differential absorption C. absorbed photons D. milliampere-seconds selection

B. differential absorption

If extravasation occurs during an IV injection of contrast media, correct treatment includes which of the following? 1. Remove the needle. 2. Apply pressure to the vein. 3. Lower arm below heart level. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

1 and 2 only

The radiographer must perform which of the following procedures prior to entering a contact isolation room with a mobile x-ray unit?1. Put on gown and gloves only. 2. Put on gown, gloves, mask, and cap. 3. Clean the mobile x-ray unit. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

1. Put on gown and gloves only

Sort the steps of image formation if an indirect DR system is used: A. Technologist selects body part and projection from the control console's APR menu. B. TFT array sorts and transmits electronic signal to the image processing software. C. Processing software applies body part/projection-specific LUT to incoming data stream. D. Remnant beam exits the patient and interacts with the cesium iodide layer of the image receptor. E. Exposure switch is fully pressed, generating and broadcasting an x-ray beam that exits the tube. F. Light emission from the scintillation layer is converted to electric charge at the photodetector. G. Adjusted data set is sent to console display.

1. Technologist selects body part and projection from the control console's APR menu. 2. Exposure switch is fully pressed, generating and broadcasting an x-ray beam that exits the tube. 3. Remnant beam exits the patient and interacts with the cesium iodide layer of the image receptor. 4. Light emission from the scintillation layer is converted to electric charge at the photodetector. 5. TFT array sorts and transmits electronic signal to the image processing software. 6. Processing software applies body part/projection-specific LUT to incoming data stream. 7. Adjusted data set is sent to console display.

Collimators must be accurate to within ____ % of the SID?

2 %

Organize the events leading to characteristic x-ray production so that they appear in correct sequence. 1. Characteristic x-ray is produced 2. A filament electron interacts with an anode target tungsten electron 3. Electron from a higher energy-level shell drops into the electron void (vacancy) in the lower energy-level shell 4. Tungsten atom is ionized

2. A filament electron interacts with an anode target tungsten electron 3. Electron from a higher energy-level shell drops into the electron void (vacancy) in the lower energy-level shell 4. Tungsten atom is ionized 1. Characteristic x-ray is produced

Place the following areas of the scapula in order from superior/uppermost margin to inferior: 1. Lateral border 2. Coracoid 3. Glenoid 4. Acromion 5.Inferior angle

4. Acromion 2. Coracoid 3. Glenoid 4. Lateral border 5. Inferior angle

Which of the following focal-spot sizes should be employed for magnification radiography? A. 0.2 mm B. 0.6 mm C. 1.2 mm D. 2.0 mm

A. 0.2 mm

Ring badges, often issued to nuclear medicine and interventional technologists to monitor dose to the hands, are typically which type of dosimeter? A. OSL B. TLD C. Film D. Ion chamber

B. TLD

Which of the following are aspects of informed consent: (choose 3) A. The provider must discuss the procedure/treatment with the patient and describe what it will entail B. Alternative procedures and treatments are presented and discussed C. Information on informed consent documents can be filled out after the patient has provided a signature D. The patient must be informed of any risks associated with the procedure or treatment

A, B, D

Positive contrast agents are associated with (select the five that apply): A. iodine B. negative contrast C. high atomic number D. radiopacity E. positive contrast F. air G. radiolucency H. barium

A. , C. , D. , E. , H.

Which of the following is an acceptable approximate entrance skin exposure (ESE) for a PA chest radiograph? A. 0.1 mGy B. 0.5 mGy C. 1.5 mGy D. 3 mGy

A. 0.1 mGy

If an individual receives an exposure of 4 mGy/hr at a distance of 2 feet from a radiation source, what will be their dose after 20 minutes at a distance of 5 feet from the source? A. 0.21 mGy B. 0.53 mGy C. 0.64 mGy D 1.6 mGy

A. 0.21 mGy

Which of the following combinations would pose the most hazard to a particular anode? A. 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs B. 0.6 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs C. 1.2 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs D. 1.2 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

A. 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs

Sternal compressions during CPR are made with the heels of the hands located about A. 1 1/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip B. 1 1/2 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip C. 3 in. superior to the xiphoid tip D. 3 in. inferior to the xiphoid tip

A. 1 1/2 in. superior to the xiphoid tip

Higher kVp settings can provide which of the following benefits? 1. Improved penetration 2. Patient dose reduction 3. Increased spatial resolution A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a 1. torn meniscus. 2. Baker's cyst. 3. torn rotator cuff. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

Under what circumstances might a radiographer be required to wear two dosimeters? 1. During pregnancy 2. While performing vascular procedures 3. While performing mobile radiography A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following factor(s) affect the position of an x-ray emission spectrum curve on the x-axis? 1. Tube voltage 2. Target material 3. Tube current A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following projections can be used to demonstrate pathology of the zygomatic arch? 1. Submentovertical (SMV) projection 2. Oblique inferosuperior tangential projection 3. PA axial caldwell projection A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 only

A. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following radiation protection measures is (are) appropriate for mobile radiography? 1. The radiographer must be at least 6 ft. from the patient and the x-ray tube during the exposure. 2. The radiographer must announce in a loud voice that an exposure is about to be made and wait for personnel, visitors, and patients to temporarily leave the area. 3. The radiographer must try to use the shortest SID. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following sites are commonly used for an intravenous injection? 1.Antecubital vein 2.Basilic vein 3.Popliteal vein A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following situations warrant the use of a nasoenteric tube rather than a nasogastric tube? 1. Reduced gastric peristalsis with normal intestinal peristalsis 2. Removal of gas or fluid from bowel obstruction 3. Overactive gastric emptying, preventing adequate nutrient absorption A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a two-member team performing mobile radiography on a patient with MRSA precautions? 1. One radiographer remains "clean"—that is, he or she has no physical contact with the patient. 2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure. 3. The radiographer who positions the cassette also retrieves the cassette and removes it from its plastic protective cover. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only

A positive contrast agent 1. absorbs x-ray photons 2. results in a dark area on the radiograph 3. is composed of elements having low atomic number A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

A star pattern is used to measure 1. focal spot resolution. 2. scatter resolution. 3. SID resolution. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

All of the following device(s) can be used to reduce patient dose, except 1. grid 2. collimator 3. gonad shield A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Any images obtained using dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) bone densitometry 1. are used to evaluate accuracy of the region of interest (ROI) 2. are used as evaluation for various bone/joint disorders 3. reflect the similar attenuation properties of soft tissue and bone A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Chest drainage systems should always be kept 1. below the level of the patient's chest. 2. above the patient's chest. 3. at the level of the patient's diaphragm. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Compared to oral temperature, which of the following temperature sites would result in slightly higher values: (1) Rectal (2) Axillary (3) Forehead A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1 and 2 only

A. 1 only

Deposition of vaporized tungsten on the inner surface of the x-ray tube glass window 1. acts as additional filtration 2. results in increased tube output 3. results in anode pitting A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include 1.loss of bone calcium. 2.loss of hearing. 3.loss of mental alertness. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Protective devices such as lead aprons function to protect the occupationally exposed from 1. scattered radiation 2. the primary beam 3. remnant radiation A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Spatial resolution is directly related to 1.source-image distance (SID). 2.tube current. 3.focal spot size. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

The benefits of shadow gonad shields include 1. Useful during surgery due to easier manipulation around sterile field 2. Increased positioning accuracy and ease 3. More beneficial for pediatric applications A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

The late effects of radiation, carcinogenesis and genetic effects, are considered to have no threshold dose.be indirectly related to dose occur within hours of exposure. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

The patient usually is required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures? 1. Descending duodenum 2. Ilium 3. Splenic flexure A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only

A. 1 only

The sharpness of image details depends on all the following except 1. quantity of filtration. 2. anode angle. 3. OIDs. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

What are the effects of scattered radiation on a radiographic image? 1. It produces fog. 2. It increases contrast. 3. It increases grid cutoff. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

What is used to account for the differences in ionizing characteristics of various radiations, when determining their effect on biologic material? 1. Radiation weighting factors ( W r ) 2. Tissue weighting factors ( W t ) 3. Absorbed dose A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

What is used to account for the differences in tissue sensitivity to ionizing radiation when determining effective dose E? 1. Tissue weighting factors (W t ) 2. Radiation weighting factors (W r ) 3. Absorbed dose A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

What should you do if you discover while taking patient history that the patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) takes metformin hydrochloride daily but has no evidence of AKI and with eGFR ≥30 mL/l.732 ? 1.Proceed with the examination if kidney function is normal. 2.Instruct the patient to withhold the metformin for 48 hours after the examination. 3.Reschedule the examination until the patient has been off metformin for 48 hours. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following are demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following articulations is/are well visualized in the extension lateral position of the hand? 1. Radiocarpal 2. 1st carpometacarpal 3. Proximal interphalangeal A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the AP projection of the thoracic spine? 1. Intervertebral spaces 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following is (are) directly related to photon energy?1. Kilovoltage 2. Milliamperes 3. Wavelength A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following is (are) likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose? 1. Beam restriction 2. Low kilovolt and high milliampere- second factors 3. Grids A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the oblique position of the cervical vertebrae? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Disk spaces 3. Zygapophyseal joints A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following is/are components of the secondary, or high voltage, side of the x-ray circuit? 1. Rectification system 2. Autotransformer 3. kV meter A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following projections require(s) that the shoulder be placed in external rotation? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Lateral humerus A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true? 1.The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female. 2.The pelvic outlet is wider than that of the female. 3.The ischial tuberosities are further apart. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following tissues is (are) considered to be particularly radiosensitive? 1. Intestinal mucous membrane 2. Epidermis of extremities 3. Optic nerves A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by single-phase equipment 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following would be useful for an examination of a patient suffering from Parkinson disease? 1. Short exposure time 2. High ratio grid 3. Compensating filtration A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

n radiography of a large abdomen, which of the following is (are) effective way(s) to minimize the amount of scattered radiation reaching the image receptor (IR)? 1. Use of optimal collimation 2. Use of low mAs 3. Use of a low-ratio rather than high-ratio grid A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated? A. AP oblique foot, lateral rotation B. AP oblique foot, medial rotation C. Lateral foot D. Weight-bearing foot

A. AP oblique foot, lateral rotation

Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode? A. 1.2-mm focal spot, 92 kVp, 1.5 mAs B. 0.6-mm focal spot, 80 kVp, 3 mAs C. 1.2-mm focal spot, 70 kVp, 6 mAs D. 0.6-mm focal spot, 60 kVp, 12 mAs

A. 1.2-mm focal spot, 92kVp, 1.5 mAs

For newborns (0-3 months of age), which range is normal for measures pulse rate: A. 100-150 BPM B. 70-130 BPM C. 40-60 BPM D. 60-100 BPM

A. 100-150 BPM

The right anterior oblique position of the cervical spine requires which of the following combinations of tube angle and direction? A. 15° to 20° caudad B. 15° to 20° cephalad C. 25° to 30° caudad D. 25° to 30° cephalad

A. 15° to 20° caudad

When caring for a patient with an IV line, the radiographer should keep the medication A. 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein. B. 18 to 20 inches below the level of the vein. C. 28 to 30 inches above the level of the vein. D. 28 to 30 inches below the level of the vein.

A. 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein

Which of the following is (are) composed of non-dividing differentiated cells? 1. Lymphocytes 2. Neurons and neuroglia 3. Epithelial tissue A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 2 only

The collimator light and actual irradiated area must be accurate to within what percentage of the SID? A. 2% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15%

A. 2%

For the lateral thoracic spine breathing technique, how long of an exposure is needed to adequately blur out overlying ribs and lung markings? A. 2-3 seconds B. 4-5 seconds C. 6-8 seconds D. 9-10 seconds

A. 2-3 seconds

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would deliver the lowest patient dose? A. 2.5 mAs, 100 kVp B. 5 mAs, 90 kVp C. 10 mAs, 80 kVp D. 20 mAs, 70 kVp

A. 2.5 mAs, 100 kVp

If the required technique is 10 mAs, 70 kVp, and the mA station is 500 mA, which of the following exposure times would be needed? A. 20 ms B. 33 ms C. 50 ms D. 100 ms

A. 20 ms

Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the shortest scale of contrast? A. 200 mA, 0.25 s, 70 kVp, 12:1 grid B. 500 mA, 0.10 s, 90 kVp, 8:1 grid C. 400 mA, 0.125 s, 80 kVp, 12:1 grid D. 300 mA, 0.16 s, 70 kVp, 8:1 grid

A. 200 mA, 0.25 s, 70 kVp, 12:1 grid

When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed A. 20° to 25° caudad. B. 20° to 25° cephalad. C. 30° to 35° caudad. D. 30° to 35° cephalad.

A. 20° to 25° caudad.

What is the cumulative effective dose limit for a 37-year-old radiographer? A. 370 mSv B. 150 mSv C. 50 mSv D. 5 mSv

A. 270 mSv

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible that the individual's annual dose might exceed A. 5 mSv B. 10 mSv C. 20 mSv D. 50 mSv

A. 5 mSv

The dose required to cause erythema in 50% of those exposed is roughly A. 5 Gy B. 10 Gy C. 15 Gy D. 20 Gy

A. 5Gy

Before performing a CT exam using an intravenous iodinated contrast agent, the radiographer should check the patient's blood chemistry levels. Which of the following is a normal blood urea nitrogen (BUN) range in an adult patient? A. 8‒25 mg/100mL B. 0.6‒1.5 mg/100dL C. 70‒100 mg/dL D. 170‒199 mg/mL

A. 8-25 mg/100mL

What is the needle angle usually recommended for intramuscular drug injection? A. 90° B. 75° C. 45° D. 15°

A. 90°

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue? A. A postpubertal adolescent B. A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy C. A menopausal woman D. A postmenopausal 65-year-old

A. A postpubertal adolescent

Developmental dysplasia of hip (DDH) utilizes which radiographic view for diagnosis: A. AP Bilateral frog-leg projection of the pelvis B. AP axial outlet projection of the pelvis C. Posterior oblique pelvis: Judet method D. AP axial inlet projection of the pelvis

A. AP Bilateral frog-leg projection of the pelvis

Which of the following projections will visualize a trimalleolar fracture? (select the four that apply) A. AP ankle B. AP foot C. 15° oblique ankle D. 45° oblique foot E. Lateral ankle F. Lateral foot

A. AP ankle C. 15° oblique ankle E. Lateral ankle F. Lateral foot

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition? A. AP oblique, medial rotation B. AP oblique, lateral rotation C. Mediolateral D. Lateral weight-bearing

A. AP oblique, medial rotation

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated? A. AP or PA through the foramen magnum B. AP oblique with right and left head rotation C. Horizontal beam lateral D. AP axial

A. AP or PA through the foramen magnum

Varus and Valgus deformities of the knee joint are best evaluated with: A. AP weight bearing projection B. Lateromedial cross-table lateral projection C. Holmblad method D. Medial oblique projection, patient recumbent

A. AP weight bearing projection

Which situations may result in a lower than average resting heart rate: (choose 3) A. Age over 65 years B. Low temperatures C. Decreased fitness conditioning D. High temperatures E. Emotional stress F. Increased fitness conditioning G. Age younger than 10 years

A. Age over 65 years B. Low temperatures F. Increased fitness conditioning

Which of the following factors may result in an increased respiratory rate: (choose 3) A. Age younger than 3 years B. Exercise C. Decreased emotional distress D. Age over 65 years E. Lower altitudes

A. Age younger than 3 years B. Exercise D. Age over 65 years

Which of the following are included in the 6 main routes of infection transmission? (select the four that apply) A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Mechanical D. Vector E. Prion F. Fomite

A. Airborne B. Droplet D. Vector F. Fomite

What is the relationship between LET and RBE? A. As LET increases, RBE increases. B. As LET increases, RBE decreases. C. As LET decreases, RBE increases. D. There is no direct relationship between LET and RBE.

A. As LET increases, RBE increases.

From the following list, select 4 appropriate choices for safe lifting of a heavy object from the floor to a table. A. Bend your knees and keep your back straight. B. Walk toward the table as you lift, to save time. C. Lift the object to a standing position, and then walk the object to the table. D. Hold your breath as you brace to lift. E. Bend at the waist. F. Keep your feet apart, slightly wider than your shoulders. G. Bring the object in close to your body. H. Stand slightly to the left or the right of the object and twist as you reach for it.

A. Bend your knees and keep your back straight. C. Lift the object to a standing position, and then walk the object to the table. F. Keep your feet apart, slightly wider than your shoulders. G. Bring the object in close to your body.

As health care professionals aspire to design their actions to always benefit their patients, to only bring about good for their patients, they are aspiring to what moral principle? A. Beneficence B. Nonmaleficence C. Autonomy D. Veracity

A. Beneficence

A technologist brings the portable machine to the ED, preparing to take a portable chest x-ray on the patient in critical bay 4. As you approach, the nursing assistant is already in the room with a sphygmomanometer at the bedside. What is she about to measure? A. Blood pressure B. Oxygen concentration in the blood C. Respiration exhalation force D. Cerebral spinal fluid pressure

A. Blood pressure

Which of the following items are categorized as vital signs? (select the four that apply) A. Blood pressure B. Electrocardiograph (ECG or EKG) C. Respiratory rate D. Pulse rate D. Complete blood count (CBC) E. Temperature

A. Blood pressure C. Respiratory rate D. Pulse rate E. Temperature

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR. B. CR is directed cephalad to the IR. C. skull is obliqued away from the affected side. D. skull is obliqued toward the affected side.

A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR.

A device used to restrict the free movement of a patient or a body part during the performance of a medical imaging exam is: A. Classified as immobilization, is meant to be temporary, and does not require a separate physician's order. B. Classified as a restraint, can remain in place after the exam is over, and does not require a physician's order. C. Not recommended for use with pediatric patients. D. Can be utilized in place of effective communication with the patient to reduce total exam time.

A. Classified as immobilization, is meant to be temporary, and does not require a separate physician's order.

Which of the following devices is used to overcome severe variation in patient anatomy or tissue density, providing more uniform radiographic density? A. Compensating filter B. Grid C. Collimator D> Protective filter

A. Compensating filter

Occupational exposure received by the radiographer is mostly from A. Compton scatter B. the photoelectric effect C. coherent scatter D. pair production

A. Compton scatter

When all of the following exams are necessary, in which order should they be scheduled: A. Cystogram, upper GI with SBFT, esophagogram B. Upper GI with SBFT, esophagogram, cystogram C. Esophagogram, upper GI with SBFT, cystogram D. Cystogram, esophagogram, upper GI with SBFT

A. Cystogram, upper GI with SBFT, esophagogram

Quality control testing of digital display monitors should be conducted A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Annually

A. Daily

Which of the following are advantages of increased collimation? (select the two that apply) A. Decreased patient dose B. Increased scatter production C. Decreased scatter fog D. Increased scatter radiation

A. Decreased patient dose C. Decreased scatter fog

If a lateral projection of the chest is being performed on an asthenic patient and the outer photocells are selected, what is likely to be the outcome? A. Decreased receptor exposure B. Increased receptor exposure C. Scattered radiation fog D. Motion blur

A. Decreased receptor exposure

Thickness of protective barriers depends on the following (select the four that apply): A. Distance between radiation source and barrier B. Beam alignment C. Time of occupancy factor D. Source-to-skin distance E. Automatic exposure control F. Occupational dose limit G. Public dose limit

A. Distance between radiation source and barrier C. Time of occupancy factor F. Occupational dose limit G. Public dose limit

What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis? A. Dome of the acetabulum B. Femoral neck C. Greater trochanter D. Iliac crest

A. Dome of the acetabulum

All of the following are potential digital pre-processing problems, except: A. Edge enhancement B. Defective pixel C. Image lag D. Line noise

A. Edge enhancement

The safe approach to avoid an exposure field recognition error when using CR is to: A. Expose one image on the smallest IP available with collimation margins aligned parallel to the edges of the IP B. Expose multiple images on one IP, but make sure all collimation margins overlap C. Expose one image on the IP, but do not collimate D. Expose multiple images on one IP, but make sure all collimation margins are parallel to each other and do not overlap

A. Expose one image on the smallest IP available with collimation margins aligned parallel to the edges of the IP

In order to prevent glass fragments from entering a drug, which type of needle is necessary to draw injectables from a glass ampule? A. Filtration B. Subcutaneous C. Intramuscular D. Intradermal

A. Filtration

Which of the following techniques is used to evaluate the dynamics of a part? A. Fluoroscopy B. Stereoscopy C. Tomography D. Phototiming

A. Fluoroscopy

Which of the following defines the gonadal dose that, if received by every member of the population, would be expected to produce the same total genetic effect on that population as the actual doses received by each of the individuals? A. Genetically significant dose B. Somatically significant dose C. Maximum permissible dose D. Lethal dose

A. Genetically significant dose

Incomplete erasure of CR plates can contribute to a A. Ghost artifact B. Moiré artifact C. Static artifact D. Grid cutoff artifact

A. Ghost artifact

Which of the following anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position, in a positive-contrast exam? A. Hepatic flexure B. Splenic flexure C. Sigmoid colon D. Ileocecal valve

A. Hepatic flexure

Which of the following is most likely to produce a radiograph with a long scale of contrast? A. Increased photon energy B. Increased OID C. Increased mAs D. Increased SID

A. Increased photon energy

Which three of the following are physiologic changes associated with advanced age: A. Increased skin tears B. Decreased balance C. Increased bone density D. Increased cognitive capacity E. Decreased muscle mass F. Increased connective tissue elasticity

A. Increased skin tears B. Decreased balance E. Decreased muscle mass

Which of the following should be avoided during patient transfers: (choose 3) A. Jerking movements B. Twisting C. Tightening of the core D. Use of short lever upper extremities E. Bending of the lower back

A. Jerking movements B. Twisting E. Bending of the lower back

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the left zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae? A. LPO B. RPO C. Left lateral D. PA

A. LPO

With the patient supine, the left side of the pelvis elevated 25 degrees, and the CR entering 1 in. medial to the left anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS), which of the following is demonstrated? A. Left sacroiliac joint B. Left ilium C. Right sacroiliac joint D. Right ilium

A. Left sacroiliac joint

Centering for the posterior oblique positions of the lumbar spine is: A. Lower costal margin B. 1 inch distal to iliac crest C. L2 D. 2 inches medial to downside ASIS

A. Lower costal margin

Which of the following factors are considered geometric factors that affect radiographic image quality? (select the three that apply) A. Magnification B. Kilovoltage C. Contrast resolution D. Distortion E. Focal-spot blur F. Exposure time

A. Magnification D. Distortion E. Focal-spot blur

Benefits of proper body mechanics include: (select 3) A. Maintenance of balance B. Reduction of stress on joints and soft tissue C. Increased use of energy D. Decreased risk of injury E. Decreased safety during transfers

A. Maintenance of balance B. Reduction of stress on joints and soft tissue D. Decreased risk of injury

The pre-contrast image used to subtract pixel values from the post-contrast image showing contrast-filled blood vessels in digital subtraction angiography is called the: A. Mask image B. Ghost (phantom) image C. Moiré image D. Latent image

A. Mask image

Which of the following devices converts electrical energy to mechanical energy? A. Motor B. Generator C. Stator D. Rotor

A. Motor

The production of scattered radiation is dependent on which of the following factors? (select the five that apply) A. Muscle mass B. Bone density C. Adipose tissue D. Pathology E. Breathing technique D. Fluid accumulation

A. Muscle mass B. Bone density C. Adipose tissue D. Pathology F. Fluid accumulation

Hirschsprung disease, or congenital megacolon, is related to which of the following age groups? A. Neonate B. Toddler C. Adolescent D. Adult

A. Neonate

Which of the following cell types has the lowest radio sensitivity? A. Nerve cells B. Muscle cells C. Spermatids D. Lymphocytes

A. Nerve cells

Which of the following is the term used to describe any infection that is acquired in a hospital? A. Nosocomial B. Iatrogenic C. Idiopathic D. Purulent

A. Nosocomial

In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated? A. Occipital bone B. Frontal bone C. Facial bones D. Basal foramina

A. Occipital bone

Which of the following will provide an AP axial projection of the L5-S1 interspace? A. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad B. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle caudad C. Patient AP with 0-degree angle D. Patient lateral, coned to L5

A. Patient AP with 30- to 35-degree angle cephalad

Which of the following apply to informed consent? (select the three that apply) A. Patients who sign their own informed consent must be competent to do so B. Parents and legal guardians can sign informed consent for minors C. Consent is transferrable between providers (i.e., if a patient signs consent and the provider of the procedure changes, they can still use the signed consent form) D. All areas of the consent form must be filled out prior to patient and/or guardian signing E. Patients cannot refuse care after signing informed consent

A. Patients who sign their own informed consent must be competent to do so B. Parents and legal guardians can sign informed consent for minors D. All areas of the consent form must be filled out prior to patient and/or guardian signing

Backscatter on a digital image can cause an artifact called a A. Phantom image artifact B. Moiré artifact C. Static artifact D. Grid cutoff artifact

A. Phantom image artifact

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter results in total absorption of the incident photon? A. Photoelectric effect B. Compton scattering C. Coherent scattering D. Pair production

A. Photoelectric effect

Pixel size and spacing determine the spatial resolution of the digital image. This is known as: A. Pixel pitch B. Focal resolution C. Nyquist resolution D. Frequency modulation

A. Pixel pitch

Which of the following devices is used to determine blood oxygenation levels? A. Pulse oximeter B. Sphygmomanometer C. Stethoscope D. Cardiac telemeter

A. Pulse oximeter

The term used to describe an individual with a core temperature higher than 100°F: A. Pyrexic B. Hypoexemic C. Anemic D. Anaerobic

A. Pyrexic

Filtration in the x-ray tube, housing, and collimator provides which of the following? A. Reduced patient skin dose B. Increased patient skin dose C. Decreased average primary beam energy D. Increased primary beam intensity

A. Reduced patient dose

What is the single-most important way to reduce patient exposure? A. Restriction of the useful beam B. Opening up the collimation C. Double exposure D. AP vs. PA

A. Restriction of the useful beam

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following abdominal regions? A. Right iliac B. Left iliac C. Right lumbar D. Hypogastric

A. Right iliac

A radiograph exposed using a 12:1 ratio focused grid may exhibit a loss of receptor exposure at its lateral edges because the A. SID was too great. B. grid failed to move during the exposure. C. x-ray tube was angled in the direction of the lead strips. D. CR was off-center.

A. SID was too great

The movement of the IP through the transport system of a CR reader is referred to as the: A. Slow-scan direction B. Charge-coupled direction C. Nyquist direction D. Fast-scan direction

A. Slow-scan direction

SID affects spatial resolution in which of the following way A. Spatial resolution is directly related to SID. B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to SID. C. As SID increases, spatial resolution decreases. D. SID is not a spatial resolution factor.

A. Spatial resolution is directly related to SID

An autoclave provides which method of pathogenic removal? A. Surgical asepsis B. Microbial dilution C. Disinfection D. Chemical sterilization

A. Surgical asepsis

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock? A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg B. Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg C. Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg D. Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg

In digital imaging, the maximum spatial resolution is equal to: A. The Nyquist frequency, which is 1/2X the pixel pitch (mm) B. The wavelength of the detector system's analog-to-digital convertor's electrical signal C. The distance between the silver halide crystals in the image receptor D. The detective quantum efficiency of the imaging system; this should be at least 2X the frequency of the analog-to-digital convertor electrical signal

A. The Nyquist frequency, which is 1/2X the pixel pitch (mm)

According to the AHA's Patient Care Partnership, a patient considering options for treatment should be provided which 3 of the following 6 pieces of information: A. The benefits and risks of each treatment. B. Details regarding outcomes of other patients who have had the same treatments. C. The institution's liability insurance policy. D. Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E. Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option. F. A record of recent medical errors at the facility that involved the treatments being considered.

A. The benefits and risks of each treatment. D. Whether the treatment is part of a research study. E. Financial obligations for utilizing an uncovered treatment option.

When considering blood return from the lungs via the pulmonary veins, which of the following statements are true? (select the two that apply) A. The blood is well oxygenated B. The blood is deoxygenated C. The blood enters the right atrium D. The blood enters the left atrium

A. The blood is well oxygenated D. The blood enters the left atrium

To position a patient for a Danelius-Miller axiolateral cross-table projection of the hip: A. The knee and the hip of the unaffected leg is flexed and elevated. B. The knee and the hip of the affected leg is flexed and elevated. C. Both legs are left extended, and the central ray is directed 15 degrees posterior from the horizontal plane. D. The knee of the affected leg is flexed, the thigh is drawn up to a near right angle and abducted, and the tube is angled cephalad 20 to 25 degrees.

A. The knee and the hip of the unaffected leg is flexed and elevated.

The following are disadvantages of a capacitor-discharge mobile unit, except: A. The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep" B. The capacitor may continue to discharge after the exposure C. The actual kilovoltage achieved during an exposure is significantly lower than the set kVp D. At lower kVp settings, the capacitors discharge more slowly and, therefore, a considerable residual kV may exist after the desired exposure time

A. The mAs increases during the exposure, called "mAs creep"

Which of the following contributes most to patient dose? A. The photoelectric effect B. Compton scatter C. Classic scatter D. Thompson scatter

A. The photoelectric effect

Which of the following contributes most to patient dose? A. The photoelectric effect B. Compton scatter C. Classical scatter D. Thompson scatter

A. The photoelectric effect

A technologist is performing an assisted transfer from wheelchair to radiographic exam table with adjustable height. The patient has previously suffered a CVA and presents with left-side weakness. Which four of the following six options will best achieve a successful transfer with reduced chance of injury for both patient and technologist? A. The technologist should discuss the steps of the transfer with the patient beforehand to make sure the patient understands. B. The wheelchair seat should be parallel to the exam table and the table should be elevated to a height 5 inches taller than the seat of the chair. C. The wheelchair should be turned toward the table at a 45 degree angle, with the patient's weak side closest to the table. D. The technologist should squat at the knee and the hip, keeping the back straight offering support and standing with the patient. E. The wheelchair should be turned toward the table at a 45 degree angle with the patient's strong side closest to the table. F. The footrests of the wheelchair should be pivoted out of the way or removed before beginning.

A. The technologist should discuss the steps of the transfer with the patient beforehand to make sure the patient understands. D. The technologist should squat at the knee and the hip, keeping the back straight offering support and standing with the patient. E. The wheelchair should be turned toward the table at a 45 degree angle with the patient's strong side closest to the table. F. The footrests of the wheelchair should be pivoted out of the way or removed before beginning.

During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position? A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Ascending colon D. Left and right colic flexures

A. Transverse colon

A patient in a recumbent position with the head lower than the feet is said to be in which of the following positions? A. Trendelenburg B. Fowler C. Sims D. Stenver

A. Trendelenburg

Which of the following techniques can help prevent falls during patient transfers? A. Utilize a gait belt to help grasp onto the patient while assisting them to a standing position B. To move the patient's trunk, hold onto their upper arm to support them C. Bring the patient's weaker side closest to the table before having them stand for a transfer D. Position yourself behind the wheelchair as the patient stands

A. Utilize a gait belt to help grasp onto the patient while assisting them to a standing position

What does the "V" in VOI stand for in digital imaging? A. Values B. Variables C. View D. Visible

A. Values

The following are components of the electromagnetic spectrum (select the four that apply): A. Visible light B. Alpha particles C. Ultraviolet light D. Gamma radiation E. Beta rays F. Radio waves G. Protons

A. Visible light C. Ultraviolet light D. Gamma radiation F. Radio waves

Which of the following are the principle components of the x-ray imaging system? (select the three that apply) A. X-ray tube B. Patient table C. Operating console D. High voltage generator E. Printer/CD burner

A. X-ray tube C. Operating console D. High voltage generator

The Gray is the unit of A. absorbed dose. B exposure. C. effective dose. D. ionization in air.

A. absorbed dose

Which of the following is considered the unit of exposure in air? A. air kerma B. Gy C. Sv D. ergs/gm

A. air kerma

A small glass container containing a single medication dose is called a(n) A. ampule B. vial C. vacutainer D. medicine bottle

A. ampule

Perhaps the simplest of beam restriction devices, a sheet of lead with a single fenestration, is also known as A. an aperture diaphragm. B. a fenestrated drape. C. a cylinder. D. a variable-aperture collimator.

A. an aperture diaphragm

The condition that results from a persistent fetal foramen ovale is A. an atrial septal defect B. a ventricular septal defect C. a patent ductus arteriosus D. coarctation of the aorta

A. an atrial septal defect

A vasodilator would most likely be used for A. angina. B. cardiac arrest. C. bradycardia. D. antihistamine.

A. angina

A radiographer who tells the patient that he or she will have to repeat this uncomfortable examination if the patient does not try harder to cooperate can be accused of A. assault. B. battery. C. false imprisonment. D. defamation.

A. assault.

Difficulty in breathing precipitated by stress and causing bronchospasm best describes A. asthma. B. anaphylaxis. C. myocardial infarct. D. rhinitis.

A. asthma

The term used to describe the gradual decrease in exposure rate as an x-ray beam passes through matter is A. attenuation B. absorption C. scattered radiation D. secondary radiation

A. attenuation

Imaging the incorrect patient qualifies as A. battery B. assault C. false imprisonment D. slander

A. battery

Digital fluoroscopy units use which of the following devices in lieu of a television camera tube? A. charge-coupled device (CCD) B. photometer C. photomultiplier tube D. light gate

A. charge-coupled device (CCD)

Decreasing field size from 14 × 17 in. to 8 × 10 in., with no other changes, will A. decrease receptor exposure and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part B. decrease receptor exposure and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part C. increase receptor exposure and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part D. increase receptor exposure and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part

A. decrease receptor exposure and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part

If a radiograph, made using AEC, is overexposed because an exposure shorter than the minimum response time was required, the radiographer generally should A. decrease the milliamperage B. increase the milliamperage C. increase the kilovoltage D. decrease the kilovoltage

A. decrease the milliamperage

The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a A. defibrillator. B. cardiac monitor. C. crash cart. D. resuscitation bag.

A. defibrillator

In her studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as A. denial. B. anger. C. bargaining. D. depression.

A. denial.

Although they are both classified as synovial joints, the hip joint is ______ while sacroiliac joints are ______. A. diarthrotic; amphiarthrotic B. amphiarthrotic; synarthrotic C. synarthrotic; diarthrotic D. synarthrotic; amphiarthrotic

A. diarthrotic; amphiarthrotic

In the production of characteristic radiation at the tungsten target, the incident electron A. ejects an inner-shell tungsten electron B. ejects an outer-shell tungsten electron C. is deflected, with resulting energy loss D. is deflected, with resulting energy gain

A. ejects an inner-shell tungsten electron

Abnormal accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in overdistention of the alveolar spaces, is A. emphysema. B. empyema. C. pneumothorax. D. pneumoconiosis.

A. emphysema

Accidental injection of medication or contrast medium into tissues around a vein is termed A. extravasation. B. hematoma. C. venipuncture. D. collateral circulation.

A. extravasation

A drug's chemical name is most closely related to its A. generic name. B. trade name. C. brand name. D. proprietary name.

A. generic name

The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is A. hemoptysis B. hematemesis C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D. bronchitis

A. hemoptysis

Better resolution is obtained with A. high SNR. B. low SNR. C. windowing. D. smaller matrix.

A. high SNR

A patient whose systolic blood pressure is consistently greater than 140 mm Hg usually is considered A. hypertensive. B. hypotensive. C. average/normal. D. baseline.

A. hypertensive

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the A. intervertebral foramina nearest the IR B. intervertebral foramina furthest from the IR C. interarticular joints D. intervertebral joints

A. intervertebral foramina nearest the IR

A radiographer who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals may be found guilty of A. invasion of privacy. B. slander. C. libel. D. defamation.

A. invasion of privacy

The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the A. ionization chamber B. scintillation camera C. photomultiplier D. photocathode

A. ionization chamber

The image intensifier's input phosphor differs from the output phosphor in that the input phosphor A. is much larger than the output phosphor B. emits electrons, whereas the output phosphor emits light photons C. absorbs electrons, whereas the output phosphor absorbs light photons D. is a fixed size, and the size of the output phosphor can vary

A. is much larger than the output phosphor

X-ray energy is directly controlled by which of the following factors? A. kVp B. mAs C. SID D. OID

A. kVp

All the following rules regarding proper hand washing technique are correct except A. keep hands and forearms higher than elbows. B. use paper towels to turn water off. C. wash to 1 inch above the wrists D. carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers

A. keep hands and forearms higher than elbows.

To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, the patient's A. left side is elevated 40°. B. right side is elevated 40°. C. left side is elevated 15°. D. right side is elevated 15°.

A. left side is elevated 40°.

With an adult patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the IR, a 15- to 20-degree caudal angulation places the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result a small child, the CR is directed A. perpendicular to the nasion B. 25 to 30 degrees caudal C. 15 to 20 degrees cephalic D. 3 to 5 degrees caudal

A. perpendicular to the nasion

An iatrogenic infection is one caused by A. physician intervention. B. blood-borne pathogens. C. chemotherapy. D. infected droplets

A. physician intervention

An increase in kilovoltage in analog imaging is most likely to A. produce a longer scale of contrast B. produce a shorter scale of contrast C. decrease the receptor exposure D. decrease the production of scattered radiation

A. produce a longer scale of contrast

A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing A. profuse sweating. B. hot, dry skin. C. dilated pupils. D. warm, moist skin.

A. profuse sweating.

During a grand mal seizure, the patient should be A. protected from injury. B. placed in a semiupright position to prevent aspiration of vomitus. C. allowed to thrash freely. D. given a sedative to reduce jerky body movements and reduce the possibility of injury.

A. protected from injury

Significant over- or underexposure of the digital receptor is likely to result in (select the three that apply) A. quantum mottle B. increased brightness C. information loss D. saturation E. magnification F. structural blur

A. quantum mottle C. information loss D. saturation

Tracheotomy is an effective technique most commonly used to restore breathing when there is A. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx B. crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma. C. respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling D. all the above

A. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the A. right main stem bronchus B. left main stem bronchus C. esophagus D. proximal stomach

A. right main stem bronchus

Linear energy transfer (LET) may be best described as A. the amount of energy delivered per distance traveled in tissue. B. the unit of absorbed dose. C. radiation equivalent man. D. radiation absorbed dose.

A. the amount of energy delivered per distance traveled in tissue.

All the following are palpable bony landmarks that may be used in radiography of the pelvis except A. the femoral neck B. the pubic symphysis C. the greater trochanter D. the iliac crest

A. the femoral neck

The interaction between x-ray photons and tissue that contributes to radiographic contrast and contributes significantly to patient dose is A. the photoelectric effect B. Compton scatter C. coherent scatter D. pair production

A. the photoelectric effect

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in A. the recumbent position. B. the erect position. C. the anatomic position. D. Fowler's position.

A. the recumbent position

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except A. the right lung has two lobes. B. the uppermost portion of the lung is the apex. C. each lung is enclosed in pleura. D. the trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi.

A. the right lung has two lobes

Droplet precautions protect against all of the following EXCEPT A. tuberculosis B. whooping cough C. bacterial meningitis D. influenza

A. tuberculosis

The most frequent site of hospital-acquired infection is the A. urinary tract. B. blood. C. respiratory tract. D. digestive tract.

A. urinary tract

All the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except A. weight-bearing B. RAO C. LAO D. PA

A. weight-bearing

The term effective dose refers to A. whole-body dose B. localized organ dose C. genetic effects D. somatic and genetic effects

A. whole body dose

To prevent disease transmission, linens used for patients should 1. Be only used once per patient 2. Be folded inward after use before removing from a surface 3. Be shaken to remove any loose debris before placing in the hamper A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A> 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS? A. Left sacroiliac joint B. Right sacroiliac joint C. Left ilium D. Right ilium

A> Left sacroiliac joint

The medical abbreviation meaning "three times a day" is A. tid. B. qid. C. qh. D. pc.

A> tid.

From the following list of 6 choices, which 3 are potential benefits to performing a PA projection of the Lumbar spine, with the patient prone, as an alternative to an AP supine projection? A. Decreased OID yields greater spatial resolution. B. Intervertebral spaces are better aligned to the divergence of the beam. C. Contrast resolution is improved with soft tissue compression. D. Zygapophyseal joint spaces are opened on the PA projection. E. Intervertebral foramina are visualized on the PA projection. F. Gonadal dose for female patients will be reduced.

B, C, F

If prosecuted by the US Department of Justice, what is the criminal penalty for knowingly disclosing a patient's protected health information (PHI)? A. $100,000 fine B. $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment C. $100,000 fine and up to 5 years imprisonment D. $250,000 fine and up to 10 years imprisonment

B. $50,000 fine and up to 1 year imprisonment

An exposure was made at 40-in. SID using 5 mAs and 105 kVp with an 8:1 grid. In an effort to improve image contrast, the image is repeated using a 12:1 grid and 90 kVp. Which of the following exposure times will be most appropriate, using 400 mA, to maintain the original receptor exposure? A. 0.01 s B. 0.03 s C. 0.1 s D. 0.3 s

B. 0.03 s

What is the intensity of scattered radiation perpendicular to and 1 m from a patient compared with the useful beam at the patient's surface? A. 0.01% B. 0.1% C. 1.0% D. 10.0%

B. 0.1%

1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa 2. Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine principally to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of scatter reaching the IR A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? 1. Bell-Thompson scale 2. Bucky tray 3. Cannula A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Advantages of battery-powered mobile x-ray units include their 1. ability to store a large quantity of energy 2. ability to store energy for extended periods of time 3. lightweight quality A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Adverse reactions to high osmolality water-soluble contrast media that are classified as mild, include 1. nausea. 2. pallor. 3. dyspnea. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

An analog x-ray exposure of a particular part is made and restricted to a 14 × 17 in. field size. The same exposure is repeated, but the x-ray beam is restricted to a 4 × 4 in. field. Compared with the first image, the second image will demonstrate 1. less receptor exposure 2. more contrast 3. more receptor exposure A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

Before bringing each patient into the radiographic room throughout the day, the radiographer should 1. clean the x-ray table and change the pillowcase. 2. assemble the accessories needed for the examination. 3. warm the x-ray tube anode. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Bone densitometry is often performed to 1. measure degree of bone (de) mineralization 2. evaluate the results of osteoporosis treatment/therapy 3. evaluate the condition of soft tissue adjacent to bone A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Characteristics of x-ray photons include 1. a penetrating effect on all matter 2. an ionizing effect on air 3. travelling at the speed of sound A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Chemical substances that are used to kill or deactivate pathogenic bacteria are called 1.antiseptics. 2.disinfectants. 3.toxins. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Demonstration of which anatomic structures require(s) ingestion of barium sulfate suspension? 1. Duodenum 2. Pylorus 3. Ilium A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Electronic imaging terms used to indicate the intensity of radiation reaching the IR include 1. deviation index 2. sensitivity (S) number 3. field of view (FOV) A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Examples of means by which infectious microorganisms can be transmitted via indirect contact include 1. a fomite 2. a vector 3. nasal or oral secretions A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Fluids and medications are administered to patients intravenously for which of the following reasons? 1. To promote rapid response 2. To administer parenteral nutrition 3. To achieve a local effect A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Maslow's hierarchy of basic human needs includes which of the following? 1. Self-esteem 2. Love and belongingness 3. Death with dignity A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Patients' rights include which of the following? 1.The right to refuse treatment 2.The right to confidentiality 3.The right to possess his or her radiographs A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Pulse is commonly measured at: (1) Radial artery (2) Carotid artery (3) Mandibular artery A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

Radiation dose to personnel is reduced by which of the following guidelines? 1. Exposure cords on fixed equipment must be very short. 2. Exposure cords on mobile equipment should be long. 3. Exposure cords on fixed and mobile equipment should be of the coiled, expandable type. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Skin discoloration owing to cyanosis may be observed in the 1. gums. 2. earlobes. 3. corneas. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Sources of natural background radiation exposure include 1.the food we eat. 2.air travel. 3.medical and dental x-rays. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. temporal bone A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The advantages of capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray equipment include 1. compact size 2. light weight 3. high kilovoltage capability A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The effect that differential absorption has on radiographic contrast of a high-subject-contrast part can be minimized by using a 1. compensating filter. 2. using high-kilovoltage exposure factors. 3. increased collimation. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The output phosphor can be coupled with the Vidicon TV camera or charge-coupled device (CCD) via 1. fiber optics 2. an image distributor or lens 3. closed-circuit TV. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The right posterior oblique (RPO) position of the left acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. posterior rim of the left acetabulum. 2. left anterior iliopubic column. 3. left iliac wing. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The risk of inoculation with HIV is considered high for which of the following entry sites? 1. Broken skin 2. Perinatal exposure 3. Accidental needle stick A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The risk of inoculation with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is considered high for the following: 1. Broken skin 2. Shared needles 3. Conjunctiva A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the 1. transverse arch. 2. longitudinal arch. 3. oblique arch. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, in the lateral projection, which of the following is (are) recommended? 1. Close collimation 2. Lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. Decreased SID A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Types of moving grid mechanisms include 1.oscillating. 2.reciprocating. 3.synchronous. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

When caring for the elderly, it is important to remember that, as one ages, there is often a decrease in:1.reaction time2.strength3.long-term memory A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

As recommended by the NCRP, the occupational dose limit for extremities is ___ the limit for non-radiation workers/the public. A. 5 times B. 10 times C. 15 times D. 25 times

B. 10 times

Which among the following components is (are) part of the gantry of a CT imaging system? 1. X-ray tube 2. Detector array 3. Control panel A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following are benefits of providing waist support for the recumbent lateral thoracic spine: (1) The support helps bring the lower and upper thoracic vertebrae to the same distance from the table (2) Using a support reduces vertebral tilt (3) Scatter reduction A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following are visible on the mortise view of the ankle? 1. Talotibial joint 2. Talofibular joint 3. Talocalcaneal joint A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following body parts is (are) included in whole-body dose? 1. Gonads 2. Blood-forming organs 3. Extremities A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam? 1. HVL 2. kV 3. mA A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) acceptable way(s) to monitor the radiation exposure of those who are occupationally employed?1. TLD 2. OSL dosimeter 3. Quarterly blood cell count A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) associated with Compton scattering? 1. High-energy incident photons 2. Outer-shell electrons 3. Characteristic radiation A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of anemia? 1. Decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. Decreased hemoglobin 3. Hematuria A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral disk spaces 2. C3-7 cervical bodies 3. Zygapophyseal joints A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral joints 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following may be used as localizer(s) for an AP projection of the hip? 1. the ASIS 2. Prominence of the greater trochanter 3. Midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following medication routes refers to the term parenteral? 1. Subcutaneous 2. Intramuscular 3. Oral A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following projections of the abdomen may be used to demonstrate air or fluid levels? 1. Dorsal decubitus 2. Lateral decubitus 3. AP Trendelenburg A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? A. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders. B. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm. C. The esophagus is visible in the midline. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively insensitive to radiation exposure? 1.Muscle tissue 2.Nerve tissue 3.Epithelial tissue A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following types of radiation is (are) considered electromagnetic? 1. X-ray 2. Gamma 3. Beta A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following units is (are) used to express resolution? A. Line-spread function B. Line pairs per millimeter C. Line-focus principle A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

If the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 200 turns, and the secondary coil has 100,000 turns, what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil? A. 40 kV B. 110 kV C. 40 V D. 110 V

B. 110 kV

Syncope is a result of 1. A drop in blood pressure 2. A narrowing of blood vessels 3. A decrease in heart rate 4. Increased oxygen to brain tissue A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 2, 3, and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

The average energy of the x-ray beam is increased by which of the following? 1. Increased added filtration 2. Increased generator voltage ripple 3. Increased kilovoltage A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

The dose-response curve that appears to be valid for genetic and some somatic effects is the 1. linear 2. nonlinear 3. nonthreshold A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

To compensate for gerontological body changes, reducing exposure factors would help to compensate for 1. Decreased muscle mass 2. Increased bone density 3. Weight loss 4. Reduced alertness A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2, and 4 only D. 2, 3, and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following factors can cause an increase in blood pressure: (1) Anxiety (2) Younger age (3) Exercise A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of a 16:1 grid? It absorbs more useful radiation than an 8:1 grid. It has more centering latitude than an 8:1 grid. It is used with higher-kilovoltage exposures than an 8:1 grid. A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? 1. When a fracture is suspected, any required manipulation of the affected extremity must be performed by a physician. 2. The axiolateral projection should be avoided. 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination. A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding shadow shields? 1. They attach to the collimator box 2. Shadow shields are more effective than contact shields 3. Positioning is determined by adjusting the shield within the light field A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to 1. elevate the head slightly with a pillow. 2. perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position. 3. place a support under the knees. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

Which three (3) of the following statements are true regarding image manipulation? 1. Window level controls brightness and darkness 2. The wider the window width, the lower the contrast 3. Window level controls contrast (i.e., white and black ratio) 4. The higher the window level, the darker the image 5. Window width controls brightness and darkness A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct B. 1, 2, and 4 are correct C. 2, 3, and 5 are correct D. 1, 4, and 5 are correct

B. 1, 2, and 4 are correct

The following diseases are characterized by vector mode transmission 1. Malaria 2. Measles 3. TB 4. Lyme disease 5. Mumps A. 1, 2, 5 B. 1, 4 C. 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 5

B. 1, 4

A properly positioned PA axial (Caldwell) projection of the skull directs the central ray: A. 15 - 20 degrees cephalad, exiting the acanthion. B. 10 - 15 degrees caudal, exiting the nasion. C. 10 - 15 degrees caudal, exiting the glabella. D. 30 degrees caudal, entering the nasion.

B. 10 - 15 degrees caudal, exiting the nasion.

To determine the half-value layer of an x-ray machine, if a 2-mm thick aluminum reduces the intensity of an exposure by one-fourth, what additional thickness of aluminum is required to reduce the intensity by one-half? A. 1 mm B. 2 mm C. 3 mm D. 4 mm

B. 2 mm

Compared to a high-ratio grid, what benefit(s) would be gained from using a low-ratio grid? 1. Increased amount of scatter radiation produced within the patient 2. Decreased patient dose 3. Reduced scatter fog seen on the radiographic image A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

In the blood pressure reading 140/75 mmHg, what does 140 represent? 1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue 2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue 3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

Spatial resolution is inversely related to 1. SID 2. OID 3. grid ratio A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 2 only

The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. at a level 1 inch medial to the ASIS A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography? 1. High-ratio grid 2. Fractional focal spot 3. Direct exposure technique A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 2 only

When performing a mobile AP chest radiograph on an unconscious trauma patient who is supine with their head and upper thorax angled lower than their lower thorax, what should the radiographer do to ensure a true AP projection? 1. Direct the CR perpendicular to the IR 2. Use a caudal CR angle perpendicular to the anterior surface of the sternum 3. Delay the procedure until the patient can sit upright 4. Use a cephalic CR angle perpendicular to the anterior surface of the sternum A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 4 only E. 1, 2, and 3

B. 2 only

Which of the following patient rights is violated by discussing privileged patient information with an individual who is not involved with the patient's care? 1.The right to considerate and respectful care 2.The right to privacy 3.The right to continuity of care A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 only

What quantity of radiation exposure to the reproductive organs is required to cause temporary infertility? A. 1000 mGy B. 2000 mGy C. 3000 mGy D. 4000 mGy

B. 2000 mGy

Of the three modes that can be used in a trifield image intensifier, which would result in the least amount of image magnification? A. 17-cm mode B. 25-cm mode C. 12-cm mode D. 5-cm mode

B. 25-cm mode

The left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the IR when the patient is positioned in a A. left lateral position. B. 25° to 30° LAO position. C. 25° to 30° LPO position. D. 30° to 40° LPO position.

B. 25° to 30° LAO position.

Possible side effects of an iodinated contrast medium that is administered intravenously include all the following except 1. a warm, flushed feeling. 2. altered taste. 3. rash and hives. A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 3 only

At exposures utilizing 75 kVp, the attenuation percentage difference between shielding with 0.25 mm Pb equivalent versus 1.0 mm Pb equivalent is A. 15% B. 33% C. 52% D. 78%

B. 33%

The needle angle usually used for subcutaneous injection is A. 15 degrees B. 45 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 180 degrees

B. 45 degrees

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned A. 45 degrees oblique, affected side away from IR. B. 45 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR. C. 25 degrees oblique, affected side away from IR. D. 25 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

B. 45 degrees oblique, affected side adjacent to IR.

The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) has recommended what total gestational equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus? A. 0.5 mSv B. 5.0 mSv C. 50 mSv D. 500 mSv

B. 5.0 mSv

According to the NCRP, the annual occupational whole-body dose-equivalent limit is A. 1 mSv B. 50 mSv C. 150 mSv D. 500 mSv

B. 50 mSv

If the distance from the focal spot to the center of the collimator's mirror is 6 in., what distance should the illuminator's light bulb be from the center of the mirror? A. 3 in. B. 6 in. C. 9 in. D. 12 in.

B. 6 in

In an AP abdomen radiograph taken at 105-cm SID during an IVU series, one renal shadow measures 9 cm in width. If the OID is 18 cm, what is the actual width of the kidney? A. 5 cm B. 7.5 cm C. 11 cm D. 18 cm

B. 7.5 cm

To eject a K-shell electron from a tungsten atom, the incoming electron must have an energy of at least A. 60 keV. B. 70 keV. C. 80 keV. D. 90 keV.

B. 70 keV

The exposure rate to a body 4 ft from a source of radiation is 140 mGy/h. What distance from the source would best serve to decrease the exposure to 53 mGy/h? A. 5 ft B. 7 ft C. 9 ft D. 14 ft

B. 7ft

What type of precautions prevent the spread of infectious diseases such as tuberculosis and chickenpox? A. Contact precautions B. Airborne precautions C. Protective isolation D. Strict isolation

B. Airborne precautions

An optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter contains which of the following detectors? A. Gadolinium B. Aluminum oxide C. Lithium fluoride D. Photographic film

B. Aluminum oxide

A patient developed hives several minutes after injection of an iodinated contrast agent. What type of drug should be readily available? A. Analgesic B. Antihistamine C. Anti-inflammatory D. Antibiotic

B. Antihistamine

When the radiographer selects kilovoltage on the control panel, which device is adjusted? A. Step-up transformer B. Autotransformer C. Filament circuit D. Rectifier circuit

B. Autotransformer

The frequency of cardiac ventricular contractions is reported in which value: A. BPH B. BPM C. BPS D. BPI

B. BPM

In which of the following examinations is exposure on full expiration required? A. PA chest B. Below diaphragm ribs C. AP lordotic chest D. Lateral thoracic spine

B. Below diaphragm ribs

When considering various types of radiation in regard to linear energy transfer, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Electromagnetic waves have low LETs compared to alpha particles. B. Beta particles have a higher LET than alpha particles. C. Gamma and x-radiation have similar LETs. D. All types of radiation can potentially deposit energy into living tissue.

B. Beta particles have a higher LET than alpha particles.

"Saturation" of an image in CR means that: A. The CR reader has difficulty converting insufficient exposure signals to produce a diagnostic image; all electronic enhancement mechanisms are maximized B. Beyond a certain exposure level, a large number of pixels will be at maximum digital value (black), resulting in loss of visibility of anatomical structures in that region. C. There is a large amount of scatter radiation that is contributing to loss of anatomical image detail due to loss of contrast, thus decreasing diagnostic quality of the image D. The CR image reader has adequately, and completely, read all the exposure intensities from the pixels resulting from the exposure

B. Beyond a certain exposure level, a large number of pixels will be at maximum digital value (black), resulting in loss of visibility of anatomical structures in that region.

Which of the following could be a side effect from antiarrhythmic medications? A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Diarrhea D. Constipation

B. Bradycardia

The esophagus commences at about the level of A. C3. B. C6. C. T1. D. T11.

B. C6.

An axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture that is not visualized using a perpendicular CR. When examining the clavicle in the PA axial projection, how should the Central Ray directed? A. Cephalad B. Caudad C. Medially D. Laterally

B. Caudad

Which interaction between x-ray photons and matter involves partial transfer of the incident photon energy to the involved atom? A. Photoelectric effect B. Compton scattering C. Coherent scattering D. Pair production

B. Compton scattering

What type of x-ray imaging uses an area beam and a photostimulable phosphor as the IR? A. Film radiography B. Computed radiography C. Digital radiography D. Cineradiography

B. Computed radiography

Which corrective action should be taken when receiving a requisition for a right knee study when the patient is complaining of pain in the mid tibial shaft? A. Take the x-ray examination ordered; the referring physician knows what they are looking for B. Contact the referring physician to clarify the order C. Take the exam of the body part the patient is complaining about, then call the referring physician to amend the order D. Send the patient home and tell them to return with a clarified order

B. Contact the referring physician to clarify the order

Which of the following legal phrases defines a circumstance in which both the health care provider's and the patient's actions contributed to an injurious outcome? A. Intentional misconduct B. Contributory negligence C. Gross negligence D. Corporate negligence

B. Contributory negligence

Which of the following terms describes the amount of electric charge flowing per second? A. Voltage B. Current C. Resistance D. Capacitance

B. Current

The standard developed to establish a universal, standardized public format and protocol for communicating biomedical imaging files is A. PACS B. DICOM C. RIS D. HIS

B. DICOM

The cross-table view of the hip and proximal femur is known as the: A. Modified Cleaves method B. Danelius-Miller method C. Teufel method D. Judet method

B. Danelius-Miller method

Which of the following will produce the most significant increase in patient dose? A. Decreased mAs B. Decreased SID C. Increased filtration D. Increased kVp

B. Decreased SID

Emphysema is a destructive pathology, requiring an adjustment in radiographic technique for adequate exposure. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of emphysema? A. Barrel-like diameter of chest B. Depression of shoulders C. Retraction of neck muscles D. Wheezing

B. Depression of shoulders

To ensure proper operation of the digital image display monitor, all of the following are important in order to develop a quality control (QC) program, except: A. Routine quality control tests by the QC technologist B. Disassembly and cleaning of the internal monitor control devices by the QC technologist C. Periodic review of the QC program by a qualified medical physicist D. Annual and post-repair medical physics performance evaluations

B. Disassembly and cleaning of the internal monitor control devices by the QC technologist

Which of the following medications would most likely be prescribed for a patient suffering from congestive heart failure or hypertension? A. Cathartic B. Diuretic C. Antihistamine D. Anticholinergic

B. Diuretic

Gas-producing powder or crystals usually are ingested for which of the following examinations? A. Double-contrast barium enema (BE) B. Double-contrast gastrointestinal (GI) series C. Oral cholecystogram D. IV urogram (IVU)

B. Double-contrast gastrointestinal (GI) series

Which of the following can impede verbal communication effectiveness: (choose 3) A. Decreased distance between the sender and receiver B. Excessive background noise C. Cultural differences D. Increased eye contact E. Increased message complexity

B. Excessive background noise C. Cultural differences E. Increased message complexity

Histogram data that is skewed relative to the values of interest (VOI) of the histogram analysis used for a particular exam may be caused by all of the following, except: A. Anatomical structures not centered to the IP B. Excessive windowing C. The X-ray beam is not correctly aligned to the edges of the IP D. The beam edge is irregular because of overlap of a radiopaque shadow, such as a gonadal shield

B. Excessive windowing

Patient dose increases as fluoroscopic A. FOV increases B. FOV decreases C. FSS increases D. FSS decreases

B. FOV decreases

Which of the following is a device that can be used in lieu of an image intensifier/charge-coupled device combination in digital fluoroscopy? A. Charge-coupled device B. Flat panel image receptor C. photometer D. photomultiplier tube

B. Flat panel image receptor

The radiographer must consider focal range when using which of the following accessory devices? A. Collimator B. Grid C. Immobilization device D. Lead marker

B. Grid

Which of the following is often a cause of gastroesophageal reflux? A. Volvulus B. Hiatal hernia C. Esophageal varices D. Intussusception

B. Hiatal hernia

Which of the following best makes up the graphic representation of the amount of exposure and the frequency of pixels for each exposure? A. Image graph B. Histogram C. Image sampling D. Values of images

B. Histogram

What does HIS stand for under hospital organizations? A. Healthcare information system B. Health information system C. Hospital information system D. Housing information system

B. Hospital information system

Before a flat-panel detector can be used for a radiographic exposure, it must be prepared. This preparation is referred to as: A. Propagation B. Initialization C. Augmentation D. Instrumentation

B. Initialization

For the modified bilateral Cleaves method, what movements of the patient's lower extremities are necessary? (select the four that apply) A. Knees extended B. Knees flexed C. Thighs abducted D. Thighs adducted E. Hips flexed F. Hips extended G. Plantar surfaces adjacent to each other H. Plantar surfaces in contact with table

B. Knees flexed C. Thighs abducted E. Hips flexed G. Plantar surfaces adjacent to each other

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? A. AP B. Lateral C. Acute flexion D. AP partial flexion

B. Lateral

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity? A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up B. Lateral decubitus, affected side down C. AP Trendelenburg D. AP supine

B. Lateral decubitus, affected side down

Which of the following is the formula used to determine magnification factor (MF)? A. MF = source-image-distance / object-image-distance B. MF = source-image-distance / source-object-distance C. MF = source-object-distance / source-image-distance D. MF = object-image-distance / source-image-distance

B. MF = source-image-distance / source-object-distance

A focal-spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for which of the following procedures? A. Bone radiography B. Magnification radiography C. Tomography D. Fluoroscopy

B. Magnification radiography

The smallest digital detectors (approximately 100 microns) provide the best spatial resolution and, therefore, are best-suited for use in: A. Fluoroscopy procedures B. Mammography C. Pediatric radiography D. Long bone measurement to ensure measurement accuracy

B. Mammography

Carpal tunnel syndrome shows impingement of what nerve? A. Radial B. Median C. Ulnar D. Transverse

B. Median

Which of the following is not considered a somatic effect of radiation exposure? A. Cataracts B. Mutation effects in offspring C. Thyroid cancer D. Leukemia

B. Mutation effects in offspring

Which of the following radiographic procedures requires an intrathecal injection? A. IV pyelogram B. Myelogram C. Lymphangiogram D. Computed tomography (CT)

B. Myelogram

Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive? A. Myelocytes B. Myocytes C. Megakaryocytes D. Erythroblasts

B. Myocytes

Which of the following exposures would most likely deliver the least dose to the ovaries? A. AP pelvis radiograph B. PA thoracolumbar scoliosis radiograph C. AP thoracolumbar scoliosis radiograph D. AP bilateral (Cleaves) hips radiograph

B. PA thoracolumbar scoliosis radiograph

Which nonverbal communication term refers to "the demonstration of a movement or gesture": A. Touch B. Pantomime C. Posture D. Appearance

B. Pantomime

Some patients, such as infants and children, are unable to maintain the necessary radiographic position without assistance. If mechanical restraining devices cannot be used, which of the following should be requested or permitted to hold the patient? A. Transporter B. Patient's father C. Patient's mother D. Student radiographer

B. Patient's father

A device contained within many CR readers that functions to convert light energy released by the PSP into electrical energy, is called a: A. Transilluminator B. Photomultiplier tube C. Light gate D. Penetrometer

B. Photomultiplier tube

Which of the following pathologies would justify a decrease in technique? A. Ascites B. Pneumothorax C. Hydrocephalus D. Atelectasis

B. Pneumothorax

Which of the following is a vessel that does not carry oxygenated blood? A. Pulmonary vein B. Pulmonary artery C. Coronary artery D. Chordae tendineae

B. Pulmonary artery

The hypothesis that small amounts of ionizing radiation can actually be beneficial is called A. ALARA B. Radiation hormesis C. Action limits D. No threshold

B. Radiation hormesis

When referencing respiration, which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of air exchanged: A. Rhythm B. Rate C. Depth D. Character

B. Rate

Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of using a 30-in. SID with a 14 × 17 in. IR to radiograph a fairly homogeneous structure? A. Production of quantum mottle B. Receptor exposure variation between opposite ends of the IR C. Production of scatter radiation fog D. Excessively short-scale contrast

B. Receptor exposure variation between opposite ends of the IR

During a dual contrast UGI on a patient with sthenic habitus, the radiologist visualizes a lesion suspicious for ulcer on the AP projection, midway between the fundus and the pylorus of the stomach. Which comparison view will best determine whether the lesion is on the anterior or posterior lining of the stomach? A. Left lateral B. Right lateral C. PA projection D. LPO position

B. Right lateral

What is the term used to describe x-ray photon interaction with matter and the transference of part of the photon's energy to matter? A. Absorption B. Scattering C. Attenuation D. Divergence

B. Scattering

Which of the following is the term used to describe a skin dose that exceeds 15 Gy? A. Genetically significant dose B. Sentinel event C. Threshold dose D. Relative risk

B. Sentinel event

Which of the following requires two exposures to evaluate focal-spot accuracy? A. Pinhole camera B. Slit camera C. Star pattern D. Bar pattern

B. Slit camera

OID is related to spatial resolution in which of the following ways? A. Spatial resolution is directly related to OID. B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID. C. As OID increases, so does spatial resolution. D. OID is unrelated to spatial resolution.

B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID.

For a true AP of the clavicle, the midclavicle is superimposed over which portion of the scapula? A. Scapular notch B. Superior angle C. Acromion D. Coracoid process

B. Superior angle

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges? A. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes B. Tangential metatarsals/toes C. 30-degree medial oblique foot D. 30-degree lateral oblique foot

B. Tangential metatarsals/ toes

During measurement of blood pressure, which of the following occurs as the radiographer controls arterial tension with the sphygmomanometer? A. The brachial vein is collapsed. B. The brachial artery is temporarily collapsed. C. The antecubital vein is monitored. D. Oxygen saturation of arterial blood is monitored.

B. The brachial artery s temporarily collapsed

Select the factors that lead to the production of a high-energy bremsstrahlung (brems) x-ray when a filament (projectile) electron interacts with an anode tungsten atom (select the four that apply) A. The filament electron passes far away from the nucleus of a tungsten atom. B. The filament electron travels close to the nucleus of a tungsten atom. C. The nuclear electrostatic field creates a strong force of attraction on the passing filament electron. D. The nuclear electrostatic field creates a weak force of attraction on the passing filament electron. E. The filament electron arrives at the anode with high kinetic energy. F. The filament electron arrives at the anode with low kinetic energy. G. The atomic number of the tungsten atom is high. H. The atomic number of the tungsten atom is low.

B. The filament electron travels close to the nucleus of a tungsten atom. C. The nuclear electrostatic field creates a strong force of attraction on the passing filament electron. F. The filament electron arrives at the anode with low kinetic energy. G. The atomic number of the tungsten atom is high.

Which of the following would be the safest interval of time for a fertile woman to undergo abdominal radiography without significant concern for irradiating a recently fertilized ovum? A. The first 10 days following the cessation of menstruation B. The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation C. The 10 days preceding the onset of menstruation D. About 14 days before menstruation

B. The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation

Which of the following is an advantage of imaging the lumbar spine using the PA projection? A. Reduction of lordotic curvature B. The intervertebral spaces are positioned more parallel to the divergent rays C. Reduced OID D. Reduced rotation

B. The intervertebral spaces are positioned more parallel to the divergent rays

In a routine (mediolateral) lateral projection of the knee, if the fibular head is seen to be completely free from superimposition of the proximal tibia, what positioning error likely occurred? A. The patient extended their knee too much. B. The patient was rotated posteriorly. C. The patient flexed their knee too much. D. The patient was rotated anteriorly.

B. The patient was rotated posteriorly

An Advanced Health Care Directive, or living will, is in effect when: A. One physician has verified that the patient cannot make medical decisions on their own B. The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law C. Physical conditions have improved but were previously such that the patient could not make health care decisions D. The patient is of sound mind but refuses treatment

B. The patient's condition complies with the state's living will law

When performing the lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension lumbar series, which of the following is true: A. The SID is increased to 72 inches to account for air gap B. The pelvis should act as a fulcrum during the series C. Images are taken on suspended inspiration for consistent density D. The bottom of the IR should reach the coccyx

B. The pelvis should act as a fulcrum during the series

Consider a step-up transformer that increases the voltage induced on the secondary side of the transformer. What is the relationship of the primary side current to the secondary side current? A. The secondary current is stepped up. B. The secondary current is decreased. C. There is no change in the current through the step-up transformer. D. The secondary current is increased.

B. The secondary current is decreased

The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following? A. Let the master answer. B. The thing speaks for itself. C. A thing or matter settled by justice. D. A matter settled by precedent.

B. The thing speaks for itself.

The part of a CT imaging system made of thousands of solid-state photodiodes is the A. gantry. B. detector array. C. collimator assembly. D. x-ray tube.

B. detector array

With milliamperage adjusted to produce equal exposures, all the following statements are true except A. a single-phase examination done at 10 mAs can be duplicated with three-phase, 12-pulse at 5 mAs. B. There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment. C. Three-phase equipment can produce comparable radiographs with less heat unit (HU) buildup. D. Three-phase equipment produces lower-contrast radiographs than single-phase equipment.

B. There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment.

One reason why only one image is preferred per image plate is: A. To ensure that the anatomical part is properly centered to avoid undercutting of the image B. To allow the radiologist to split the PACS monitor and display the current image and a prior image side-by-side for comparison C. To ensure optimal radiation safety, since only one image is exposed on one image plate D. To reduce the chances of grid cutoff artifacts

B. To allow the radiologist to split the PACS monitor and display the current image and a prior image side-by-side for comparison

In digital radiography, patient information is displayed in the corners of the monitor for an exam. The 3 steps a technologist must take to ensure that the information is accurate are: A. Verify the patient's Identity by confirming their name and date of birth after the exam is complete. B. Verify the patient's Identity by confirming their name and date of birth before beginning the exam. C. Match the exam images to the Technologist Image number. D. Match the exam images to the exam accession number, either via query of the RIS worklist or manual entry. E. Verify the exam details with the patient. Confirm type of exam, body part to be examined, and side of the body are correct.

B. Verify the patient's Identity by confirming their name and date of birth before beginning the exam. D. Match the exam images to the exam accession number, either via query of the RIS worklist or manual entry. E. Verify the exam details with the patient. Confirm type of exam, body part to be examined, and side of the body are correct.

Which of the following is a type of television camera tube that converts a visible image on the output phosphor of the image intensifier into an electronic signal? A. Ionization chamber B. Vidicon C. Charge-coupled device D. Cathode ray tube

B. Vidicon

An AP axial projection of the cervical spine is performed with a central ray angle directed 15 to 20 degrees cephalad. This will result in: A. Visualization of intervertebral foramina on the resulting radiograph. B. Visualization of intervertebral disk spaces on the resulting radiograph. C. A non-diagnostic image, as the central ray should be directed caudal for the AP axial projection. D. Visualization of the zygapophyseal joint spaces on the resulting radiograph.

B. Visualization of intervertebral disk spaces on the resulting radiograph.

Which of the following terms refers to the number of x-ray examinations performed weekly? A. Use factor B. Workload C. Time of occupancy factor D. Controlled area

B. Workload

During the production of a bremsstrahlung x-ray A. a filament projectile electron is completely absorbed B. a filament projectile electron is slowed down C. a tungsten electron is ejected from its orbit D. the tungsten atom is ionized

B. a filament projectile electron is slowed down

Each of the following is an example of a fomite except A. a doorknob. B. a tick. C. a spoon. D. an x-ray table

B. a tick

The term dysplasia refers to A. difficulty speaking. B. abnormal development of tissue. C. malposition. D. difficult or painful breathing.

B. abnormal development of tissue

The x-ray unit of exposure defines which of the following? A. Sievert B. air kerma C. Gyt D. Becqueral

B. air kerma

A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed A. an IV push. B. an infusion. C. a bolus. D. a hypodermic.

B. an infusion

An acute reaction caused by ingestion or injection of a sensitizing agent describes A. asthma B. anaphylaxis C. myocardial infarction D. rhinitis

B. anaphylaxis

Rapid onset of severe respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms after ingestion or injection of a drug, vaccine, contrast agent, or food, or after an insect bite, best describes A. asthma. B. anaphylaxis. C. myocardial infarction. D. rhinitis

B. anaphylaxis

A MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient who has A. a herniated disk. B. aneurysm clips. C. dental fillings. D. subdural bleeding.

B. aneurysm clips

The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to A. permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position B. avoid superimposition on the apices C. assist in maintaining an upright position D. keep the MSP parallel

B. avoid superimposition on the apices

Disinfecting agents that function to stop bacterial growth are classified as A. bactericidal B. bacteriostatic C. antiseptics D. sterilizers

B. bacteriostatic

Unlawful touching of a person without his or her consent is termed A. assault B. battery C. false imprisonment D. invasion of privacy

B. battery

All the following statements regarding beam restriction are true except A. beam restriction improves contrast resolution B. beam restriction improves spatial resolution C. field size should never exceed IR dimensions D. beam restriction reduces patient dose

B. beam restriction improves spatial resolution

An RT (ARRT) is the supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a State having legislation that requires professional certification. A job applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of A. breaking the ARRT Code of Ethics. B. breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics. C. malpractice. D. nothing, because position responsibilities are limited.

B. breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics

The radiographic accessory used to measure the thickness of body parts in order to determine optimum selection of exposure factors is the A. gantry. B. caliper. C. collimator. D. ruler.

B. caliper

The Heimlich maneuver is used if a patient is A. in cardiac arrest. B. choking. C. having a seizure. D. suffering from hiccups.

B. choking

Somatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested A. in the descendants of the exposed individual B. during the life of the exposed individual C. in the exposed individual and his or her descendants D. in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual

B. during the life of the exposed individual

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the A. diaphysis B. epiphysis C. metaphysis D. apophysis

B. epiphysis

The medical term for nosebleed is A. vertigo. B. epistaxis. C. urticaria. D. aura.

B. epistaxis

All the following statements regarding mobile radiographic equipment are true except A. the exposure cord must permit the operator to stand at least 6 ft from the patient, x-ray tube, and useful beam B. exposure switches must be the two-stage type C. a lead apron should be carried with the unit and worn by the radiographer during exposure D. the radiographer must alert individuals in the area before making the exposure

B. exposure switches must be the two-stage type

The principle stochastic effect of radiation, of those listed below, is A. blood changes B. genetic alterations C. cataractogenesis D. reduced fertility

B. genetic alterations

At which dose range does gastrointestinal syndrome from excess radiation exposure peak? A. 5 Gy B. greater than 10 Gy C. greater than 50 Gy D. 75-150 Gy

B. greater than 10 Gy

The type of x-ray tube designed to turn on and off rapidly, providing multiple short, precise exposures, is A. high speed B. grid-controlled C. diode D. electrode

B. grid-controlled

The condition of below-normal blood pressure is termed A. hyperthermia. B. hypotension. C. hypoxia. D. bradycardia.

B. hypotension

When involuntary motion must be considered, the exposure time may be cut in half if the kilovoltage is A. doubled B. increased by 15% C. increased by 25% D. increased by 35%

B. increased by 15%

A radiographer who discloses confidential patient information to unauthorized individuals can be found guilty of A. libel. B. invasion of privacy. C. slander. D. defamation.

B. invasion of privacy

The lateral aspect of the obturator foramen is formed by the A. ilium. B. ischium. C. pubis. D. sacrum.

B. ischium

Posterior displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the A. AP projection. B. lateral projection. C. medial oblique projection. D. lateral oblique projection.

B. lateral projection

Compared with that of the hypersthenic and sthenic body types, the gallbladder of an asthenic patient is most likely to be located A. higher and more medial B. lower and more medial C. higher and more lateral D. lower and more lateral

B. lower and more medial

Techniques that function to reduce the spread of microbes are termed A. surgical asepsis. B. medical asepsis. C. sterilization. D. disinfection.

B. medical asepsis

The auditory, or eustachian, tube extends from the nasopharynx to the A. external ear. B. middle ear. C. inner ear. D. oropharynx.

B. middle ear

The most commonly used method of low-flow oxygen delivery is the A. oxygen mask. B. nasal cannula. C. respirator. D. oxyhood.

B. nasal cannula

_____ is a mild allergic reaction symptom, while _____ is considered a moderate allergic reaction symptom. A. warmth; flushing B. nausea; urticaria C. bronchospasm; dysphagia D. bronchial edema; metallic taste

B. nausea; urticaria

The moral principle of preventing harm to a patient is called A. negligence B. nonmaleficence C. veracity D. fidelity

B. nonmaleficence

The moral principle that describes the radiographer's aspiration to do no harm or to allow no act that might cause harm to the patient is termed A. beneficence. B. nonmaleficence. C. autonomy. D. veracity.

B. nonmaleficence.

The average energy of a Bremsstrahlung x-ray photon in the x-ray emission spectrum is ______ the kilovoltage-peak (kVp) selected by the radiographer. A. one-half of B. one-third of C. two-thirds of D. equal to

B. one-third of

The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed A. mechanical B. paralytic C. asymptomatic D. sterile

B. paralytic

The continued emission of light by a phosphor after the activating source has ceased is termed A. fluorescence B. phosphorescence C. image intensification D. quantum mottle

B. phosphorescence

A lesion with a stalk projecting from the intestinal mucosa into the lumen is a(n) A. fistula B. polyp C. diverticulum D. abscess

B. polyp

Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a A. secondary barrier B. primary barrier C. leakage barrier D. scattered barrier

B. primary barrier

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis? A. Ischial tuberosity B. Prominence of the greater trochanter C. Anterosuperior iliac spine D. Anteroinferior iliac spine

B. prominence of the greater trochanter

The person responsible for ascertaining that all radiation guidelines are adhered to and that personnel understand and employ radiation safety measures is the A. radiology department manager B. radiation safety officer C. chief radiologist D. chief technologist

B. radiation safety officer

The x-ray tube is a DC electrical device, while the transformers that power it are AC devices. An arrangement of diodes between the two converts the AC voltage waveform into a pulsed DC output. The process of converting an electrical signal from AC into DC is called A. electrification B. rectification C. amplification D. ionization

B. rectification

Post exposure cropping or masking of a radiographic image is performed to A. take the place of collimation before exposure B. reduce veiling glare C. reduce the appearance of scatter within the image D. change the matrix size

B. reduce veiling glare

When a patient with an arm injury needs help in undressing, the radiographer should A. remove clothing from the injured arm first. B. remove clothing from the uninjured arm first. C. always remove clothing from the left arm first. D. always cut clothing away from the injured extremity.

B. remove clothing from the uninjured arm first.

A dose of 250 mGy to the fetus during the fourth or fifth week of pregnancy is more likely to cause which of the following: A. Spontaneous abortion B. skeletal anomalies C. neurologic anomalies D. organogenesis

B. skeletal anomalies

Verbal disclosure of confidential information that is detrimental to the patient is referred to as A. battery B. slander C. libel D. assault

B. slander

Continuous rotation of the CT x-ray tube and detector array, with simultaneous movement of the CT couch, has been accomplished through implementation of A. additional cables. B. slip rings. C. multiple rows of detectors. D. electron beam CT.

B. slip rings.

Logrolling is a method of moving patients having suspected A. head injury. B. spinal injury. C. bowel obstruction. D. extremity fracture.

B. spinal injury

While measuring blood pressure, the first pulse that is heard is recorded as the A. diastolic pressure. B. systolic pressure. C. venous pressure. D. valvular pressure.

B. systolic pressure

Radiation spreads from a source in an expanding sphere, the area given by 4/3πr34/3πr3. So long as the rate of emission is constant, the intensity of the radiation will reduce by a factor squared as an observer moves away from the source. This describes A. ALARA B. the inverse square law C. the line focus principle D. the half value layer

B. the inverse square law

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except A. the temporal bones B. the occipital bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the sphenoid bone

B. the occipital bone

For medicolegal reasons, radiographic images are required to include all the following information except A. the patient's name and/or identification number. B. the patient's birth date. C. a right- or left-side marker. D. the date of the examination.

B. the patient's birth date

The expansion and recoil of an artery describes a vital sign measurement called A. auscultation B. the pulse C. a bruit D. stroke volume

B. the pulse

The source of electrons within the x-ray tube is via A. electrolysis. B. thermionic emission. C. rectification. D. induction.

B. thermionic emission

Compensating filters are radiographically useful in that A. they prevent unnecessary characteristic radiation from being produced. B. they provide more uniform exposure to anatomical parts having unequal thicknesses. C. they eliminate the need for internal and external filtration in the x-ray tube housing and collimator. D. they eliminate scatter production in the patient, thereby reducing image noise.

B. they provide more uniform exposure to anatomical parts having unequal thicknesses.

Graves disease is associated with A. thyroid underactivity B. thyroid overactivity C. adrenal underactivity D. adrenal overactivity

B. thyroid overactivity

Hemovac or Penrose drains are used for A. bile duct drainage. B. tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage. C. decompression of the gastrointestinal tract. D. feeding patients who are unable to swallow food.

B. tissue drainage of wounds or postoperative drainage.

Focal-spot blur is greatest A. toward the anode end of the x-ray beam B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam C. directly along the course of the CR D. as the SID is increased

B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam

TV camera tubes used in image intensification, such as the Plumbicon and Vidicon, function to A. increase the brightness of the input-phosphor image. B. transfer the output-phosphor image to the TV monitor. C. focus and accelerate electrons toward the output phosphor. D. record the output-phosphor image on the IR.

B. transfer the output-phosphor image to the TV monitor.

The effects of radiation on biologic material depend on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect A. will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time B. will be less than if it were delivered all at one time C. has no relation to how it is delivered in time D. depends solely on the radiation quality

B. will be less than if it were delivered all at one time

The complete killing of all microorganisms is termed A. surgical asepsis. B. medical asepsis. C. sterilization. D. disinfection.

C. sterilization

Select the 3 correct completions. To reduce the back strain that can result from moving heavy objects, the radiographer should A. Hold the object away from his/her body B. Bend at the waist to lift C. Lift with bent knees and straight back D. Push or roll a heavy object E Provide a broad base of support

C, D, E

Which of the following is an inappropriate manner of speaking to a patient? A. "Are you warm enough?" B. "Do you have any questions about this examination?" C. "I have several other patients, so please change quickly." D. "Can I help you out of the chair?"

C. "I have several other patients, so please change quickly."

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1.shaking and nervousness. 2.cold, clammy skin. 3.cyanosis. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

A grid is usually employed 1.when radiographing a large or dense body part. 2.when using high kilovoltage. 3.when less patient dose is required. A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

Benefits of filtration on the primary beam include 1. Increased penetrability 2. Increased quality 3. Decreased HVL A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

Forms of intentional misconduct include 1. slander 2. invasion of privacy 3. negligence. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

From the following protocols for infection prevention, which apply to airborne precautions? 1. Have the patient wear a surgical mask 2. Personnel must wear an N95 filtered mask 3. Personnel must wear gowns for all interactions with infected patients A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

In comparison with 60 kV, 80 kV will 1. permit greater exposure latitude 2. produce more scattered radiation 3. produce shorter-scale contrast A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements regarding the human gonadal cells is (are) true? The female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life. The male spermatogonia reproduce continuously .Both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal life. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

When positioning for the PA projection of the wrist, arching the hand by slightly curling the fingers works to 1. Reduce OID 2. Demonstrate the carpal tunnel 3. Better visualize intercarpal joint spaces 4. Project the scaphoid free of superimposition A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4

C. 1 and 3

A diabetic patient who has taken insulin while preparing for a fasting radiologic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. fatigue 2. cyanosis 3. restlessness A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

A site where an infectious organism can remain viable and from which transmission can occur is called 1. a reservoir 2. an autoclave 3. a carrier A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

All of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true, except 1.radiation dose is considerable. 2.two x-ray photon energies are used. 3.photon attenuation by bone is calculated. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

An anatomical part calls for a kilovoltage (kVp) setting necessary to penetrate the part. If a lower than acceptable kVp were selected using a fixed milliampere-seconds (mAs) setting, this would result in which of the following? 1. Increased patient dose 2. Increased exposure to the image receptor 3. Decreased penetration of the anatomical part A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What does 95 represent? 1. The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue 2. The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue 3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

Characteristics of an effective grid interspace material include 1. Low atomic number 2. Absorbs moisture 3. Radiolucent A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Guidelines for cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces include which of the following? 1. Clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated areas. 2. Clean in a circular motion, starting from the center and working outward. 3. Clean from the top down. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Hair loss caused by ionizing radiation exposure is called 1. epilation 2. desquamation 3. alopecia A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

If a radiograph exhibits insufficient receptor exposure, this might be attributed to 1.insufficient kV 2.insufficient SID. 3.grid cutoff. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

The law of Bergonié and Tribondeau states that cells are more radiosensitive if they are 1. highly proliferative 2. highly differentiated 3. immature A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Types of x-ray beam filtration can function to 1. Reduce patient skin dose 2. Decrease average beam energy 3. Provide uniform exposure of an anatomical part having different thicknesses A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

When an individual will receive more than 1/10 of the radiation dose limit, which steps must be taken? 1. They are issued a radiation dosimeter 2. They must wear a lead apron during work hours to reduce dose 3. Their annual dose will be monitored A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine? 1. Intervertebral spaces 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following is a medication included in an emergency cart that increases heart rate? 1. Atropine 2. Diphenhydramine 3. Epinephrine A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following positions may be used to effectively demonstrate the hepatic flexure during radiographic examination of the large bowel? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. LPO A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal. 2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits. 3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the lateral projection of the lumbar spine? 1. The MSP is parallel to the tabletop. 2. The vertebral foramina are well visualized. 3. The pedicles are well visualized. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true? 1. Radiation dose is low. 2. Only low-energy photons are used. 3. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position. 2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation. 3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients? 1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking. 2. A routine chest x-ray requires the tracheostomy tubing to be rotated out of view. 3. Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

What are the requirements of a hospital or imaging center regarding patient demographic information that appears on a digital image? 1. Workstations that display images with patient demographic information should be located in controlled access areas of the facility. 2. Technologists should be able to alter information contained in the image file sent to PACS to correct errors without documenting the change. 3. Technologists should be able to change patient information as an error prevention step post processing before sending images to PACS. 4. At a minimum, demographic information should include the following: patient name or ID number, exam date, side marker, and facility name where the exam was performed. A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, and 4

C. 1, 3, and 4

The dose equivalent limit for a radiography student under the age of 18 years is A. 50 mSv B. 150 mSv C. 1.0 mSv D. 500 mSv

C. 1.0 mSv

If the entrance dose for a particular exam is 1200 mGy, the radiation exposure at 1 m from the patient will be approximately A. 120 mGy B. 12.0 mGy C. 1.20 mGy D. 0.12 mGy

C. 1.20 mGy

Exposure factors of 110 kVp and 12 mAs are used with an 8:1 grid for a particular exposure. What should be the new mAs if a 12:1 grid is substituted? A. 3 B. 9 C. 15 D. 18

C. 15

What is the annual dose limit (DL) for the lens of the eye? A. 50 mSv/yr B. 100 mSv/yr C. 150 mSv/yr D. 500 mSv/yr

C. 150 mSv/ yr

The AP projection of the sacrum requires the central ray to be directed A. perpendicular to the midline midway between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubis. B. to the midline approximately 2 inches superior to the pubis. C. 15° cephalad to a point approximately 2 inches superior to the pubis. D. 15° caudad to a point approximately 2 inches superior to the pubis.

C. 15° cephalad to a point approximately 2 inches superior to the pubis.

The frequency of an x-ray photon is 1. Directly proportional to its wavelength 2. Directly proportional to its energy 3. Inversely proportional to its wavelength 4. Inversely proportional to its energy A. 3 only B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

A decrease from 80 mAs to 40 mAs will result in a decrease in which of the following? 1. Wavelength 2. Exposure rate 3. Beam intensity A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

All women of childbearing age should be assessed for pregnancy before an examination. Risks to the fetus are 1. Minimal during first 2 weeks of pregnancy 2. Proportional to time and dose 3. Highest during the 2nd to 10th weeks A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Facsimile transmission of health information is 1. not permitted. 2. permitted for urgently needed patient care. 3. permitted for third-party payer hospitalization certification. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements? 1. Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees. 2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles. 3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Honor Code violations that can prevent a radiography student from meeting ARRT certification requirements include 1. failing one or more courses in the radiography program 2. being suspended from the radiography program 3. being dismissed/expelled from a radiography program A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. only the joint closest to the injured site must be supported during movement. 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies. 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Intervertebral foramina will be demonstrated in which of the following projections? 1. Lateral cervical spine 2. Lateral thoracic spine 3. Lateral lumbar spine A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Shoulder arthrography is performed to 1. evaluate humeral luxation 2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Spatial resolution can be improved by decreasing 1. the SID 2. the OID 3. patient/part motion A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

The ARRT Rules of Ethics are 1. aspirational. 2. mandatory. 3. minimally acceptable standards. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

The functions of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) include 1. storage of analog images 2. retrieval of digital images 3. storage of digital images A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

The hard palate is formed by the 1. ethmoid bone. 2. maxillary bone. 3. palatine bone. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following way(s)? 1. The male pelvis has a larger pelvic inlet 2. The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees 3. The male ilium is more vertical. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

The primary parts of the cathode include the 1. focal track. 2. filament. 3. focusing cup. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

The term differential absorption is closely related to 1. beam intensity 2. subject contrast 3. pathology A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? 1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Use of a portion of the input phosphor during fluoroscopy, rather than the entire input phosphor, will result in 1. a larger field of view (FOV). 2. a magnified image. 3. improved spatial resolution. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

What will cause the electrons from the photocathode to be focused on the output phosphor? 1. Light from the input phosphor 2. Electrostatic lenses 3. Concave curvature of the cathode end of the image intensifier A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 Explanation

C. 2 and 3 only

When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to 1. move quickly 2. address them by their full name 3. give straightforward instructions. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following are required for the AP axial projection of L5-S1: (1) 25° cephalic tilt for females (2) Centering at the ASIS (3) Support under the knees for comfort and reduction of pelvic tilt A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts. 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient. 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure? 1. Pulse oximeter 2. Stethoscope 3. Sphygmomanometer A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following radiographic examinations require(s) the patient to be NPO 8-10 hours prior to examination for proper patient preparation? 1. Abdominal survey 2. Upper GI series 3. BE A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following will occur as a result of a decrease in the anode target angle? 1.Less pronounced anode heel effect 2.Decreased effective focal spot size 3.Greater photon intensity toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned A. 30 to 40 degrees LPO B. 30 to 40 degrees RPO C. 25 to 30 degrees LPO D. 25 to 30 degrees RPO

C. 25 to 30 degrees LPO

An increase in X-ray beam filtration has the following effect(s) 1. Increase in patient skin dose 2. Increase in beam intensity 3. Increase in average energy of the beam A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 3 only

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is A. coxa plana. B. osteochondritis. C. talipes. D. muscular dystrophy.

C. talipes

High-kilovoltage exposure factors are usually required for radiographic examinations using1.water-soluble, iodinated media.2.a negative contrast agent.3.barium sulfate. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

If 82 kVp, 300 mA, and 0.05 second were used for a particular exposure using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment, what mAs would be required, using single-phase equipment, to produce a similar radiograph? A. 7.5 B. 20 C. 30 D. 50

C. 30

For the AP axial projection of the sigmoid during a barium enema, which CR angulation is recommended: A. 15-25° cephalic B. 20-30° caudad C. 30-40° cephalic D. 10-15° caudad

C. 30-40° cephalic

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation? A. AP B. Lateral C. 30-degree RPO D. 45-degree LPO

C. 30-degree RPO

Which of the following positions/projections of the skull will result in the most shape distortion? A. 0° PA B. 23° Caldwell C. 37° Towne D. 25° Haas

C. 37° Caldwell

According to NCRP Report No.116, the annual occupational equivalent dose limit to localized areas of the hands is A. 50 mSv B. 15 mSv C. 500 mSv D. 150 mSv

C. 500 mSv

What is the annual dose-equivalent limit for the skin and hands of an occupationally exposed individual? A. 30 mSv B. 150 mSv C. 500 mSv D. 650 mSv

C. 500 mSv

Which of the following groups of exposure factors would be most appropriate to control involuntary motion? A. 400 mA, 0.03 second B. 200 mA, 0.06 second C. 600 mA, 0.02 second D. 100 mA, 0.12 second

C. 600 mA, 0.02 second

In reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is considered normal? A. 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL B. 4.5 to 6 mg/100 mL C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL D. Up to 50 mg/100 mL

C. 8 to 25 mg/100 mL

How much protection is provided from a 75-kVp x-ray beam when using a 0.50-mm lead equivalent apron? A. 51% B. 66% C. 88% D. 99%

C. 88%

A particular radiograph was produced using 6 mAs and 110 kVp with an 8:1 ratio grid. The radiograph is to be repeated using a 16:1 ratio grid. What should be the new mAs? A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12

C. 9

The luminescent light emitted by the PSP is converted to a digital image by the A. DAC B. scanner-reader C. ADC D. helium-neon laser

C. ADC

To monitor radiation dose, pocket dosimeters utilize chambers filled with which of the following? A. Lithium fluoride crystals B. Light C. Air D. Processing chemicals

C. Air

What is the first treatment for extravasation of contrast media during an IV injection? A. Apply a hot compress. B. Apply a cold compress. C. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops. D. Remove the needle and locate a sturdier vein immediately.

C. Apply pressure to the vein until bleeding stops

Where is the "sterile corridor" located? A. Just outside the surgical suite B. Immediately inside each operating room door C. Between the draped patient and the instrument table D. At the foot end of the draped patient

C. Between the draped patient and the instrument table

For the AP projection of the humerus, a true AP position is identified by: A. Lesser tubercle is seen in profile laterally B. Humeral head is partially in profile laterally C. Bilateral epicondyles seen in profile D. Greater tubercle is seen in profile medially

C. Bilateral epicondyles seen in profile

Which of the following terms is used to describe unsharp edges of tiny radiographic details? A. Diffusion B. Mottle C. Blur D. Umbra

C. Blur

The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view? A. Eye B. Nose C. Body D. Neck

C. Body

Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter involves a high-energy photon and the ejection of an outer shell electron? A. Photoelectric effect B. Coherent scatter C. Compton scatter D. Pair production

C. Compton scatter

Early symptoms of anaphylaxis include all EXCEPT which of the following? A. Itching of palms and soles B. Dysphagia C. Cool skin D. Tingling

C. Cool skin

The largest dose to the male gonads is most likely to result from which of the following exposures? A. Lateral thoracic spine B. Oblique lumbar spine C. Cross-table lateral hip D. AP axial skull

C. Cross-table lateral hip

Which of the following combinations is most likely to be associated with quantum mottle? A. Decreased milliampere-seconds, decreased SID B. Increased milliampere-seconds, decreased kilovoltage C. Decreased milliampere-seconds, increased kilovoltage D. Increased milliampere-seconds, increased SID

C. Decreased milliampere-seconds, increased kilovoltage

Cyanosis is blueish hue to the skin due to which of the following? A. Decreased blood flow B. Increased oxygenation C. Decreased oxygenation D. Increased blood flow

C. Decreased oxygenation

Of the four stages of infection, which is the stage during which the infection is most communicable? A. Latent period B. Incubation period C. Disease phase D. Convalescent phase

C. Disease phase

Quality Control (QC) testing is used to evaluate digital display monitors in all of the following ways, except A. Display luminance response B. Display resolution C. Display matrix size D. Display noise

C. Display matrix size

The mode of pathogenic transmission associated with sneezing and coughing is: A. Vector B. Fomite C. Droplet D. Direct contact

C. Droplet

Which of the following methods is used to focus the electrons on the anode target of the x-ray tube? A. Emitting them separately B. Focusing them through a narrow port C. Electrostatic repulsion D. Using a lens system

C. Electrostatic repulsion

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require a decrease in exposure factors? A. Congestive heart failure B. Pneumonia C. Emphysema D. Pleural effusion

C. Emphysema

Which of the following situations would be considered an act of health care fraud? A. Sharing information about a patient's condition with an individual not involved in the patient's care B. Performing a radiographic procedure without the patient's permission C. Erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part D. Restraining a patient against their will

C. Erasing a CR image plate to cover up a mistake of performing an x-ray procedure on the wrong body part

All of the following are factors that cause low contrast in CR images, except: A. High kVp B. Inadequate grid efficiency or no grid C. Excessive beam limiting (collimation) D. Incomplete erasure of the image plate

C. Excessive beam limiting (collimation)

A patient undergoing a routine radiographic exam of the shoulder has a few questions for the technologist post exam. The patient's orthopedic surgeon has scheduled them for a contrast MR study of the shoulder joint, post arthrogram. The patient is nervous about the MR procedure and wants to know what it's like, having never had one before. The technologist should do which of the following? A. Tell the patient about their cousin who suffers from claustrophobia and how her MR exam was a nightmare B. Explain how the MR scanner will use high frequency sound waves and capture the echo created by the tissues of the shoulder to create an image C. Explain that while there is a strong magnetic field in the MR exam, the staff carefully screens patients as part of a strict safety protocol and that the most troubling part is typically the noise, as the machine makes a jackhammer sound during imaging D. Explain that the patient will be injected with a small dose of radioactive isotope and gamma emissions will be captured by a scintillator and an array of photomultiplier tubes

C. Explain that while there is a strong magnetic field in the MR exam, the staff carefully screens patients as part of a strict safety protocol and that the most troubling part is typically the noise, as the machine makes a jackhammer sound during imaging

Which of the following may occur if the X-ray exposure field is not properly collimated, positioned, and sized? A. Modulation transfer function failure B. Moiré artifact C. Exposure field recognition errors may occur D. Ghost artifact

C. Exposure field recognition errors may occur

What is the component of personal dosimeters that can help evaluate radiation quality? A. Control panel B. Look-up table C. Filters D. kVp

C. Filters

Muscle tissue absorbs more radiation than fat tissue because muscle tissue has which of the following? A. Vastly higher average atomic number B. Vastly lower average atomic number C. Higher tissue density (mass/volume) D. Lower tissue density (mass/volume)

C. Higher tissue density (mass/volume)

Which of the following is not a sign of extravasation? A. Site redness B. Pain C. Hives around the injection site D. Cooling of the skin surrounding the fluid

C. Hives around the injection site

How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries? A. Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position B. Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained C. Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position D. Perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID

C. Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position

In which position of the shoulder is the lesser tubercle demonstrated in profile on the medial aspect of the humeral head? A. AP B. External rotation C. Internal rotation D. Neutral position

C. Internal rotation

For exposure to 1 mGy of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result in the greatest dose to the individual? A. External source of 1-MeV x-rays B. External source of diagnostic x-rays C. Internal source of alpha particles D. External source of beta particles

C. Internal source of alpha particles

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral joints and foramina? A. LPO B. RPO C. Lateral D. PA

C. Lateral

Which projection would best demonstrate the intervertebral foramina of the thoracic vertebrae? A. 70° oblique B. AP C. Lateral D. 45° oblique

C. Lateral

Which type of dose-response relationship represents radiation-induced leukemia and genetic effects? A. Linear, threshold B. Nonlinear, threshold C. Linear, nonthreshold D. Nonlinear, nonthreshold

C. Linear, nonthreshold

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint? A. Medial oblique 15° to 20° B. Lateral oblique 15° to 20° C. Medial oblique 45° D. Lateral oblique 45°

C. Medial oblique 45°

All the following x-ray circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer except A. the timer B the kilovoltage meter C. the milliamperage meter D. the autotransformer

C. the milliamperage meter

Which of the following patient identifiers is not considered protected information: A. Address B. Date of Birth C. Medical Record Number D. Social Security Number

C. Medical Record Number

Radiation-induced abnormalities to the fetus during the seventh or eighth week of pregnancy is likely to cause which of the following? A. Spontaneous abortion B. Skeletal anomalies C. Neurological anomalies D. Organogenesis

C. Neurological anomalies

The condition of low neutrophils is termed: A. Neutrogenic B. Neutropathic C. Neutropenic D. Neutroemic

C. Neutropenic

Hand gestures, pantomime, and facial expressions are all forms of which type of communication: A. Verbal B. Audible C. Nonverbal D. Attentive listening

C. Nonverbal

Which of the following personnel monitoring devices is commonly used in diagnostic radiography and considered to be most sensitive and accurate? A. TLD B. Film badge C. OSL dosimeter D. Pocket dosimeter

C. OSL dosimeter

When interviewing a patient, what is it that the health care professional can observe? A. Symptoms B. History C. Objective signs D. Chief complaint

C. Objective signs

What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image receptor? A. Coracoid B. Coronoid C. Olecranon D. Glenoid

C. Olecranon

Which of the following conditions describes a patient who is unable to breathe easily while in the recumbent position? A. Dyspnea B. Apnea C. Orthopnea D. Oligopnea

C. Orthopnea

Biologic material is most sensitive to radiation exposure under which of the following conditions? A. Anoxic B. Hypoxic C. Oxygenated D. Deoxygenated

C. Oxygenated

Consider an upright right lateral humerus projection of a patient who has been injured and insists on supporting their affected side with their contralateral hand to alleviate the pain. Which of the following methods would be best for the radiographer to use? A. Patient standing with the posterior surface of the shoulder of the affected side against the wall Bucky and rotating the affected arm medially to place the humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR B. Patient standing with the lateral surface of the shoulder of the affected side against the wall Bucky and rotating the body medially so as to place the affected humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR C. Patient standing with the anterior surface of the shoulder of the unaffected arm against the wall Bucky and rotating the body laterally so as to place the affected humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR D. Patient standing with their body in the lateral position against the wall Bucky with the affected humerus closest to the IR but with no manipulation of the arm

C. Patient standing with the lateral surface of the shoulder of the affected side against the wall Bucky and rotating the body medially so as to place the affected humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR

Which of the following is a violation of correct sterile technique? A. Gowns are considered sterile in the front down to the waist, including the arms. B. Sterile gloves must be kept above the waist level. C. Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face. D. A sterile field should not be left unattended.

C. Persons in sterile dress should pass each other face to face.

For a radiographic exposure of the femur, how should the anode heel effect be properly applied? A. Place the anode end of the x-ray tube over the proximal femur. B. Place the cathode end of the x-ray tube over the distal femur. C. Place the cathode end of the x-ray tube over the proximal femur. D. Either the anode or cathode end of the x-ray tube could be placed over either end of the femur.

C. Place the cathode end of the x-ray tube over the proximal femur.

The term "health care proxy" is synonymous with: A. Living will B. DNR C. Power of Attorney D. AHA

C. Power of Attorney

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs? A. Pneumothorax B. Atelectasis C. Pulmonary embolism D. Hypoxia

C. Pulmonary ebmolism

A near-frontal (AP/PA) view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions? A.AP B. PA C. RAO D. LAO

C. RAO

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae? A. PA B. Left lateral C. RPO D. LPO

C. RPO

What is the primary purpose of filtration of the useful x-ray beam for patient skin dose? A. Increase B. Double C. Reduce D. Scatter

C. Reduce

What portion of the x-ray tube is used by an induction motor? A. Filament B. Focusing cup C. Rotor D. Housing

C. Rotor

Which of the following is a measurement of EfD and EqD? A. air kerma B. Gray C. Sievert D. Becquerel

C. Sievert

All the following x-ray circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer except A. the circuit breaker. B. the kilovoltage selector. C. the rectifiers. D. the autotransformer.

C. the rectifiers

Recently, dual-sided reading technology has become available in more modern CR readers, in which two sets of photodetectors are used to capture light released from the front and back sides of the phosphor storage plate, or PSP (photostimulable phosphor). This technology enables improved: A. Slow-scan direction speed B. Modulation transfer function C. Signal-to-noise ratio D. Fast-scan direction speed

C. Signal-to-noise ratio

Which of the following digital post-processing methods remove high-frequency noise from the image? A. Edge enhancement B. Windowing C. Smoothing D. Aliasing

C. Smoothing

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it? A. Spondylitis B. Spondylolysis C. Spondylolisthesis D. Spondylosis

C. Spondylolisthesis

Which part of an induction motor is located outside the x-ray tube glass envelope? A. Filament B. Focusing cup C. Stator D. Rotor

C. Stator

The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is the A. kerma B. Gy C. Sv D. RBE

C. Sv

Cassetteless digital systems have a fixed spatial resolution determined by: A. The image plate laser divergence B. The focal spot size used C. The thin film transistor (TFT) detector element (DEL) size D. The proximity of the phosphor screen crystals

C. The thin film transistor (TFT) detector element (DEL) size

Which of the following equipment is mandatory for performance of a myelogram? A. Cine camera B. Transducer C. Tilting x-ray table D. Endoscopy

C. Tilting x-ray table

Which ethical principle is related to sincerity and truthfulness? A. Beneficence B. Autonomy C. Veracity D. Fidelity

C. Veracity

Where should a urine drainage bag be in relationship to the patient's bladder? A. Above the level of the bladder B. Between the patient's legs C. Well below the level of the bladder, but not touching the floor D. On top of the patient's abdomen

C. Well below the level of the bladder, but not touching the floor

The primary x-ray beam consists of A. only bremsstrahlung x-rays B. only characteristic x-rays C. a combination of both bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays D. only high-frequency x-rays

C. a combination of both bremsstrahlung and characteristic x-rays

All the following function to reduce patient dose except A. beam restriction B. high kVp, low mAs factors C. a high-ratio grid D. gonadal shielding

C. a high-ratio grid

The focal spot-to-table distance, in mobile fluoroscopy, must be A. a minimum of 38 cm. B. a maximum of 38 cm. C. a minimum of 30 cm. D. a maximum of 30 cm.

C. a minimum of 30 cm

To determine how quickly an x-ray tube will disperse its accumulated heat, the radiographer uses a(n) A. technique chart. B. radiographic rating chart. C. anode cooling curve. D. spinning top test.

C. anode cooling curve

The reduction in the intensity of an x-ray beam as it passes through material is termed A. absorption B. scattering C. attenuation D. divergence

C. attenuation

Contrast agents that can be used during excretory urography include all of the following except A. omnipaque B. isovue C. barium sulfate D. visipaque

C. barium sulfate

The annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals is valid for A. alpha, beta, and x-radiations B. x- and gamma radiations only C. beta, x-, and gamma radiations D. all ionizing radiations

C. beta, x-, and gamma radiations

The annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals is valid for A. alpha, beta, and x-radiations. B. x- and gamma radiations only. C. beta, x-, and gamma radiations. D. all ionizing radiations.

C. beta, x-, and gamma radiations

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be A. iodinated contrast evening before examination; water only in the morning. B. NPO after midnight. C. cathartics and cleansing enemas. D. NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and filled bladder.

C. cathartics and cleansing enemas.

Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except A. the left lung has two lobes B. the lower portion of the lung is the base C. each lung is enclosed in peritoneum D. the main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum

C. each lung is enclosed in peritoneum

The Gray may be described as A. disintegrations per second. B. ions produced in air. C. energy deposited in an absorber. D. biologic effects.

C. energy deposited in an absorber

When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is that A. the patient appears to have a productive cough. B. the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg. C. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position. D. the patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast.

C. the patient states that she experiences extreme pain in the upright position.

Image quality in digital fluoroscopy is influenced by 1.pixel size. 2.contrast. 3.noise. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Radiographs are the property of the A. radiologist. B. patient. C. health-care institution. D. referring physician.

C. health-care institution

An illness of unknown or obscure cause is said to be A. systemic. B. epidemic. C. idiopathic. D. pathogenic.

C. idiopathic

During the various stages of infection, the host can be contagious during A. latency B. incubation C. illness D. all stages of the infection cycle

C. illness

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered A. rectally. B. orally. C. intrathecally. D. through a nasogastric tube.

C. intrathecally

At approximately what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? A. Foramen magnum B. Trachea C. laryngopharynx D. nasopharynx

C. laryngopharynx

Radiation that passes through the tube housing in directions other than that of the useful beam is termed A. scattered radiation B. secondary radiation C. leakage radiation D. remnant radiation

C. leakage radiation

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in A. sonography B. computed tomography (CT) C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. nuclear medicine

C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

The classifications of acute radiation syndrome include all the following except A. central nervous system B. gastrointestinal C. neonatal D. hematologic

C. neonatal

The ethical principle that aspires never to, above all, do harm describes A. fidelity. B. veracity. C. nonmalficence. D. beneficence.

C. nonmalficence

The focal spot-to-table distance in mobile fluoroscopy must A. be at least 38 cm B. not exceed 38 cm C. not be less than 30 cm D. not exceed 30 cm

C. not be less than 30 cm

To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made A. on normal inspiration B. on inspiration, second breath C. on expiration D. during shallow breathing

C. on expiration

Methods of parenteral drug administration include all the following, EXCEPT A. topical B. subcutaneous C. oral D. intramuscular E. intrathecal

C. oral

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the A. lateral projection B. PA axial (Caldwell method) projection C. parietoacanthal (Waters method) projection D. AP axial (Towne method) projection

C. parietoacanthal (Waters method).

According to the CDC, all the following precaution guidelines are true except A. airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask. B. gowns are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions. C. patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room. D. gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions.

C. patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room.

An acute infection of the lungs is called A. atelectasis. B. pneumothorax. C. pneumonia. D. COPD.

C. pneumonia

Filtration is added to the x-ray beam to A. decrease photoelectric interaction. B. remove the "hard" x-rays. C. produce a more heterogeneous x-ray beam. D. produce an x-ray beam with higher average energy.

C. produce a more heterogenous x-ray beam

Blood is returned to the left atrium, from the lungs, via the A. aorta. B. superior vena cava. C. pulmonary veins. D. pulmonary artery.

C. pulmonary veins

The medical abbreviation meaning "every hour" is A. tid. B. qid. C. qh. D. pc.

C. qh

Congruence of the x-ray beam with the light field is tested using A. a pinhole camera B. a star pattern C. radiopaque objects D. a slit camera

C. radiopaque objects

Nitroglycerin _____ blood vessels, resulting in _____ blood flow. A. relaxes; decreased B. constricts; decreased C. relaxes; increased D. constricts; increased

C. relaxes; increased

A radiographer has recently joined your staff. You are aware that this individual has had her ARRT certification revoked. Realizing that your state requires certification, you speak to a supervisor about the matter. Your supervisor replies that he knows but made an exception "because we are so short staffed." You should A. report this to the next supervisor in charge. B. report this to the facility administrator. C. report this directly to the ARRT. D. do and/or say nothing.

C. report this directly to the ARRT

Point lesions occur when there is disruption in A. double chemical bonds B. outer shell electrons C. single chemical bonds D. inner shell electrons

C. single chemical bonds

Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n) A. esophagram. B. upper GI series. C. small-bowel series. D. ERCP.

C. small bowel series

Filament size can have an effect on image (select the three that apply) A. contrast B. brightness C. spatial resolution D. detail E. gray scale F. unsharpness

C. spatial resolution D. detail F. unsharpness

All the following are part of the patient's bill of rights except A. the right to refuse treatment. B. the right to review one's records. C. the right to order an x-ray procedure. D. the right to have an advance directive.

C. the right to order an x-ray procedure

The higher the gauge number of an intravenous (IV) needle, A. the larger is its diameter. B. the greater is its length. C. the smaller is its diameter. D. the shorter its length

C. the smaller is its diameter

A lateral projection of the larynx and upper/proximal trachea is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed A. just below the EAM B. to the level of the mandibular angles C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence D. midway between laryngeal prominence and jugular notch

C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence

Glossitis refers to inflammation of the A. epiglottis B. salivary glands C. tongue D. ossicles

C. tongue

A consent form, signed by the patient and the physician, is necessary prior to performing all of the following procedures EXCEPT A. myelogram B. cardiac catheterization C. upper GI series D. interventional vascular procedure

C. upper GI series

A signed consent form is necessary prior to performing all the following procedures except A. myelogram. B. cardiac catheterization. C. upper GI series. D. interventional vascular procedure.

C. upper GI series

The medical term for hives is A. vertigo. B. epistaxis. C. urticaria. D. aura.

C. urticaria

While a radiographer is taking a patient's history, the patient states they have Lyme disease. The radiographer should assume the patient contracted this microbial infection from a A. fomite B. reservoir C. vector D. carrier

C. vector

Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum? 1.Ilium 2.Ischium 3.Pubis A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

With three-phase equipment, the voltage across the x-ray tube 1. drops to zero every 180 degrees 2. is 87% to 96% of the maximum value 3. is at nearly constant potential A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

D .2 and 3 only

When lifting a patient from a wheelchair: (1) Bend down and place your arms underneath their arms, then use your back to straighten out until they are in a standing position (2) Use your legs to push yourself up as you stand while maintaining normal lumbar lordosis and tightening of the core (3) When lifting with two or more persons, discuss the transfer before attempting it to reduce confusion and strain A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

D 2 and 3 only

Neck and thyroid lead shields used by radiologic technologists during fluoroscopic and interventional procedures should be of an equivalent thickness of A. 0.25 mm Al B. 0.25 mm Pb C. 0.5 mm Al D. 0.5 mm Pb

D. 0.5 mm Pb

Which of the following cassette-less digital image receptors uses a scintillator to produce visible light? 1. Indirect capture with charge-coupled device (CCD) 2. Indirect capture with amorphous silicon photodetector 3. Direct capture with amorphous selenium photoconductor A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 2 only

D. 1 and 2 only

During an intravenous urogram (IVU), the RPO position is used to demonstrate the 1. left kidney parallel to the IR 2. right kidney parallel to the IR 3. right kidney perpendicular to the IR A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following vertebral groups form(s) lordotic curve(s)?1. Cervical 2. Thoracic 3. Lumbar A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Moderate hypertension can produce damage to which of the following organ(s) 1. Lungs 2. Kidneys 3. Brain A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include 1. a few hives 2. nausea 3. a flushed face A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

A modified axiolateral inferosuperior projection of the femoral neck is particularly useful1.when the "cross-table" 1. axiolateral is contraindicated. 2. for patients with bilateral hip fractures. 3. for patients with limited movement of the unaffected leg. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? 1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation 2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination 3. Performing an examination on the wrong patient A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

A substance or method used to cleanse the large bowel prior to a barium enema is called 1. a cathartic 2. a cleansing enema 3. a purgative A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Acceptable method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is (are) 1. suspended respiration. 2. short exposure time. 3. patient instruction. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Air and gas can be used as contrast agents in which of the following studies? 1. Arthrography 2. Myelography 3. Fluoroscopy A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

All drug packages must provide certain information required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Some of the information that must be provided includes 1.the generic name. 2.contraindications. 3.the usual dose. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Angulation of the central ray may be required 1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures. 2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition. 3. to project through certain articulations. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Body substances and fluids that are considered infectious or potentially infectious include 1. sputum 2. synovial fluid 3. cerebrospinal fluid A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Characteristics of DR imaging include 1. solid-state detector receptor plates 2. a direct-capture imaging system 3. immediate image display A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Examples of stochastic effects of radiation exposure include 1. radiation-induced malignancy 2. genetic effects 3. leukemia A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

For a patient who has just had a fluoroscopic barium enema, which post-examination instructions should be given: 1) Drink plenty of fluids 2) Eat a high fiber diet 3) Limit caffeine A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Functions of the Swan-Ganz catheter include(s) evaluation of 1. Oxygen saturation 2. Medication effects 3. Ventricular failure A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Geometric unsharpness is influenced by which of the following? 1. Distance from object to image 2. Distance from source to object 3. Distance from source to image A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Gonadal shielding should be provided for male patients in which of the following examinations? 1. Femur 2. Abdomen 3. Pelvis A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

If a contrast agent is considered to have high viscosity, it can also 1. Require increased pressure during injections 2. Utilize smaller gauge needle sizes 3. Possess a thick, syrupy texture A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

If an inpatient experiences a syncopal episode during a radiographic procedure in the medical imaging department, how should the radiographer respond? 1. Assist the patient into a dorsal recumbent position and elevate their feet and legs above the level of their head 2. Loosen any tight clothing on the patient 3. Apply a moist compress to the patient's forehead and have them remain recumbent until they feel capable of undergoing the remainder of the procedure or returning to their room A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Improper support of a patient's fractured lower leg (tibia/fibula) while performing radiography could result in 1. movement of fracture fragments 2. tearing of soft tissue, nerves, and blood vessels. 3. initiation of muscle spasm. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

In which of the following ways might higher image contrast be obtained in abdominal radiography? 1. By using lower kilovoltage 2. By using a contrast medium 3. By limiting the field size A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Methods of reducing radiation exposure to patients and/or personnel include 1.beam restriction. 2.shielding. 3.high-kV, low-mAs factors. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the 1. subscapularis. 2. infraspinatus. 3. teres minor. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Patient preparation for an Upper GI with small bowel follow through includes: 1) NPO 8 hours before the exam 2) Low-residue diet 48 hours before the exam 3) Avoidance of tobacco products during NPO period A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Radiographers should wear gloves when they might come in contact with 1.wounds. 2.mucous membrane. 3.body fluids containing blood. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Reducing the number of repeat images is an important way to decrease patient exposure and can be accomplished by 1.good patient communication. 2.accurate positioning skills. 3.using AEC. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Some proteins in latex can produce mild to severe allergic reactions. Medical equipment that could contain latex includes 1. tourniquets. 2. enema tips. 3. catheters. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Symptoms associated with a mild to moderate allergic reaction to contrast media include 1. sneezing 2. hoarseness 3. wheezing A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of impending diabetic coma include 1. increased urination. 2. sweet-smelling breath. 3. extreme thirst. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include 1. dyspnea. 2. cyanosis. 3. retraction of intercostal spaces. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The basic (cardinal) principle(s) of radiation protection are 1. Time 2. Distance 3. Shielding A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The cycle of infection includes which of the following components? 1. Reservoir of infection 2. Susceptible host 3. Means of transmission A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast medium should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to patient age, history of respiratory disease, history of cardiac disease. A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The effect of ionizing radiation on tissue depends on which of the following? 1. Type of tissue interaction(s) 2. Amount of interactions 3. Biologic differences A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be transmitted by 1. sharing contaminated needles. 2. from mother to child during birth. 3. by intimate contact with body fluids. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The legal document or individual authorized to make an individual's health care decisions, should the individual be unable to make them for himself or herself, is the advance health care directive, living will, health care proxy. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The purpose of the x-ray tube housing is to 1. Shield radiation workers from leakage radiation 2. Support and protect the x-ray tube 3. Contain cooling and insulating oil A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The radiation dose to an individual depends on which of the following? 1. Type of tissue interaction(s) 2. Quantity of radiation 3. Biologic differences A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the 1.male pelvis is deeper. 2.female pubic arch is greater than 90°. 3.female ilium is more horizontal. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15-degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

When radiographing young children, it is helpful to 1.let them bring a toy. 2.keep explanations simple and honest. 3.be cheerful and unhurried. A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

When using the smaller field in a dual-field image intensifier, 1. a smaller patient area is viewed. 2. the image is magnified. 3. the image is less bright. A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured posterior tibia A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following are potential undesirable effect(s) of scattered radiation? 1. Image fog 2. Increased patient dose 3. Increased radiographer dose A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following can contribute to the image contrast? 1. Tissue density 2. Pathology 3. Muscle development A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following criteria are used to evaluate a PA projection of the chest? 1. Ten posterior ribs should be visualized. 2. Sternoclavicular joints should be symmetrical. 3. The scapulae should be lateral to the lung fields. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following drugs may be used as a vasoconstrictor for a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction? 1. Adrenalin 2. Vasopressin 3. Atropine A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following features of fluoroscopic equipment is (are) designed to minimize radiation exposure to the patient or personnel? 1. Bucky slot cover 2. Exposure switch/foot pedal 3. Cumulative exposure timer A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. Use of PA projection 2. Use of breast shields 3. Use of compensating filtration A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following is (are) tested as part of a quality control (QC) program? 1. Beam alignment 2. Reproducibility 3. Linearity A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following materials can be utilized for secondary barriers? 1. Gypsum board 2. Lead acrylic 3. Glass A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the scapulohumeral/glenohumeral relationship ? 1.Scapular Y projection 2.Inferosuperior axial 3.Transthoracic lateral A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following may be used to reduce the effect of scattered radiation on the radiographic image? 1. Grids 2. Collimators 3. Compression bands A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following medical devices and/or implants are visible on radiographic images? 1. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) 2. Inner ear prosthesis 3. Aneurysm clips A. 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following must be included in a patient's medical record or chart? 1. Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2. Medical history 3. Informed consent A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following must be included in the patient's medical record or chart? 1.Diagnostic and therapeutic orders 2.Medical history 3.Informed consent A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following radiographic factors will affect x-ray intensity at the IR? 1. Kilovoltage-peak (kVp) 2. Source-image-distance (SID) 3. Beam filtration A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to postoperative cholangiography? 1. A T-tube is in place in the common bile duct. 2. Water-soluble contrast material is injected. 3. The patency of biliary ducts is evaluated. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection (Caldwell) of the cranium?1.The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.2.The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.3.The frontal sinuses are visualized. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. OML forms a 15 degree angle with the horizontal beam 2. The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits 3. The frontal sinuses are visualized. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. 3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true? 1. It is a low-dose procedure. 2. Two x-ray photon energies are used. 3. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements regarding the pregnant radiographer is (are) true? 1. She should declare her pregnancy to her supervisor 2. She should be assigned a second personnel monitor. 3. Her radiation history should be reviewed. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

With which of the following does the femoral head articulate? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

X-ray photon beam attenuation is influenced by 1.tissue type. 2.subject thickness. 3.photon quality. A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

X-ray tubes used in CT differ from those used in x-ray, in that CT x-ray tubes must 1. have a very high short-exposure rating 2. be capable of tolerating several million heat units 3. have a small focal spot for optimal resolution A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest? A. Left lateral decubitus position B. Right lateral decubitus position C. Ventral decubitus position D. Dorsal decubitus position

D. Dorsal decubitus position

A radiographer is performing a radiographic procedure and notices that the patient has a labored and difficult breathing pattern. This respiratory pattern indicates which of the following conditions? A. Eupnea B. Apnea C. Hyperventilation D. Dyspnea

D. Dyspnea

Which of the following would be a reason for performing an orbits series? 1. Hemolytic anemia 2. Prior employment as a steel worker 3. Orthopedic implants A. 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3 only

D. 1, 2, and 3 only

Common blood vessels utilized for pulse detection are 1. Radial 2. Parietal 3. Dorsalis pedis 4. Temporal A. 2 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 1, 2, and 3 only D. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Differential absorption of the x-ray beam is dependent on 1. Atomic number of the irradiated tissues 2. Collimation 3. Beam quality 4. Part density A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 3, and 4 only

D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode? A. 0.6-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs B. 0.6-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs C. 1.2-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs D. 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

D. 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

Which of the following diastolic pressure readings can indicate hypertension? A. 40 mm Hg B. 60 mm Hg C. 80 mm Hg D. 100 mm Hg

D. 100 mm Hg

Which blood pressure range is typical for adolescents: A. 90-100/60-67 B. 130-139/80-89 C. 120-140/80-90 D. 100-120/65-75

D. 100-120/65-75

Which of the following is a normal BUN level: A. 0.25 mg/100mL B. 4 mg/100mL C. 6.5mg/100mL D. 10mg/100mL

D. 10mg/100mL

Using a multifield image intensifier tube, which of the following input phosphor diameters will provide the greatest magnification? A. 35 cm B. 25 cm C. 17 cm D. 12 cm

D. 12 cm

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed A. parallel to C4 B. perpendicular to C4 C. 15 degrees cephalad to C4 D. 15 degrees caudad to C4.

D. 15 degrees caudad to C4

For patients with a perforated bowel, which contrast media could be used for a barium enema: 1) Barium sulfate 2) Omnipaque 3) Isovue A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the toes, which of the following procedures may be employed? 1. Angle the CR 15 degrees caudad. 2. Angle the CR 15 degrees cephalad. 3. Place a sponge wedge under the foot with the toes elevated 15 degrees. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following examinations might require the use of 120 kVp? 1.AP abdomen 2.Chest radiograph 3.Barium-filled stomach A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

In the RPO position of the cervical spine, which anatomy is demonstrated: (1) Left intervertebral foramina (2) Right pedicles (3) Right intervertebral foramina (4) Left pedicles A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 2 and 4 only

D. 2 and 4 only

Positive beam limitation devices must be accurate to within A. 5% of the SID B. 2% of the OID C. 10% of the mAs D. 2% of the SID

D. 2% of the SID

In what order should the following contrast examinations be performed on the same patient? 1. Upper GI series 2. IVU 3. BE A. 3, 1, 2 B. 1, 3, 2 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 2, 3, 1

D. 2, 3, 1

Classify the following tissues in order of increasing radiosensitivity 1. Liver cells 2. Intestinal crypt cells 3. Muscle cells A. 1, 3, 2 B. 2, 3, 1 C. 2, 1, 3 D. 3, 1, 2

D. 3, 1, 2

If a patient received 0.2 Gy during a 5 minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate? A. 0.04 mGy/min B. 1.0 mGy/min C. 10.0 mGy/min D. 40.0 mGy/min

D. 40.0 mGy/min

Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to human-made radiation? A. 10% B. 50% C. 75% D. 90%

D. 90%

Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to human-made radiation? A. 10% B. 50% C. 80% D. 90%

D. 90%

Which projection of the pelvis is also referred to as the Modified Cleaves method: A. AP axial outlet B. Posterior oblique C. AP axial inlet D. AP bilateral frog-leg

D. AP bilateral frog-leg

The structures of the proximal radius, including the radial head and tuberosity, are either partially or completely superimposed on all projections of the elbow, EXCEPT: A. Coyle method, with flexion of 80 degrees at the elbow joint, and the tube angled 45 degrees away from the shoulder. B. AP projection of the elbow. C. AP oblique with medial rotation. D. AP oblique with lateral rotation.

D. AP oblique with lateral rotation

In order to avoid background radiation artifacts when using CR, it is important to: A. Erase all image plates that have not been used for 48 hours B. Erase all image plates if there is any question about how long it has been since the plate has been erased C. Erase an image plate if there is any doubt as to when it was last erased, especially in the case of pediatric radiography D. All of these are correct actions

D. All of these are correct actions

Of the following, which patient(s) would present an increased risk of barium aspiration during an upper GI series? A. Stroke patients B. Mentally challenged patients C. Patients with altered mental status D. All the above

D. All the above

Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in exposure factors? A. Pneumoperitoneum B. Obstructed bowel C. Renal colic D. Ascites

D. Ascites

The junction of articulation between the lambdoidal suture and the squamosal suture exists between what bones? A. At junction of the occipital, frontal, and parietal B. At junction of the frontal, parietal, and occipital C. At junction of the parietal, and just behind the coronal suture line D. At junction of the temporal, parietal, and occipital

D. At junction of the temporal, parietal, and occipital

Which of the following represents the image acquisition contrast resolution? A. Pixel B. Pixel size C. Pixel pitch D. Bit depth

D. Bit depth

Which of the following possesses the widest dynamic range? A. ALARA B. PBL C. AEC D. CR

D. CR

Which of the following will best demonstrate the lumbosacral junction in the AP recumbent position? A. CR perpendicular to L3 B. CR perpendicular to L5-S1 C. CR caudad 30-35 degrees D. CR cephalad 30-35 degrees

D. CR cephalad 30-35 degrees

Which of the following is most likely to result in the greatest increase in patient exposure? A. Changing from 100 mA to 200 mA B. Increasing kV 15% and cutting mAs in half C. Decreasing the kV 15% and doubling the mAs D. Changing from non grid technique to 8:1 grid technique

D. Changing from non grid technique to 8:1 grid technique

Electrons from the cathode filament that collide with K-shell electrons within the Tungsten target yield which of the following? A. Bremsstrahlung rays with an energy of 69.5 keV B. Characteristic rays with a heterogeneous spectrum of energies C. Bremsstrahlung rays with a heterogeneous spectrum of energies D. Characteristic rays with a discrete emission of energy

D. Characteristic rays with a discrete emission of energy

You are working in the outpatient department and receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the right hip joint; however, the requisition asks for a left femur examination. What should you do? A. Perform a right hip examination. B. Perform a left femur examination. C. Perform both a right hip and a left femur examination. D. Check with the referring physician.

D. Check with the referring physician

You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle examination. What should you do? A. Perform a left foot examination. B. Perform a left ankle examination. C. Perform both a left foot and a left ankle examination. D. Check with the referring physician.

D. Check with the referring physician.

Which of the following effects does an antibiotic have on the body? A. Decreases pain B. Helps delay clotting C. Increases urine output D. Combats bacterial growth

D. Combats bacterial growth

Which of the following is a concept of proper body mechanics: A. Reducing the base of support by bringing your feet closer together creates a more stable foundation when lifting objects over your head B. Increasing distance between your center of gravity and the center of gravity for the object you are moving will increase the leverage needed to perform the action C. Pulling objects is easier on the joints and expends less energy than pushing an object D. Decreased the distance between yourself and the patient you are transferring allows for better use of your upper extremities in the transfer

D. Decreased the distance between yourself and the patient you are transferring allows for better use of your upper extremities in the transfer

When disposing of contaminated needles, they are placed in a special container using what procedure? A. Recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle. B. Do not recap the needle, remove the syringe, and dispose of the needle. C. Recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe. D. Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe.

D. Do not recap the needle and dispose of the entire syringe.

On what principle does the stator located within the x-ray tube housing operate? A. Thermal conduction B. Line-focus C. Kinetic energy D. Electromagnetic induction

D. Electromagnetic induction

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations? A. Barium examinations B. Spine radiography C. Skull radiography D. Emergency and trauma radiography

D. Emergency and trauma radiography

Which of the following refers to infiltration of a contrast agent into soft tissues during an intravenous injection? A. Flocculation B. Attenuation C. Diaphoresis D. Extravasation

D. Extravasation

The optimal alignment of the anatomical part being imaged for all digital receptors should be: A. Field centered to IP with at least two collimation margins and parallel to the IP edges B. Centered anywhere on the IP, but having four distinct collimation margins, regardless of parallel orientation to the IP edges C. Centered to the IP with at least one collimation margin aligned to nearest edge of IP D. Field centered to IP with four collimation margins parallel to the IP edges

D. Field centered to IP with four collimation margins parallel to the IP edges

A technologist encountering a patient that experiences vertigo should: A. Administer oxygen at a rate of at least 3 liters/minute. B. Begin CPR. C. Bring the patient a cold compress to place against their forehead. D. Guide the patient to a sitting or recumbent position.

D. Guide the patient to a sitting or recumbent position

A patient arrives at the ED with a knife wound to the abdomen; the patient's shirt and pants are soaked with blood. The patient's blood pressure has dropped to 90/40 mm Hg and her pulse is 134 bpm. What type of shock is the patient experiencing? A. Cardiogenic B. Neurologic C. Iatrogenic D. Hypovolemic

D. Hypovolemic

What type of shock results from loss of blood? A. Septic B. Neurogenic C. Cardiogenic D. Hypovolemic

D. Hypovolemic

Which of the following procedures requires that the patient be placed in the lithotomy position? A. Myelography B. Venography C. T-tube cholangiography D. Hysterosalpingography

D. Hysterosalpingography

What is the appropriate action if a patient has signed consent for a procedure but, once on the radiographic table, refuses the procedure? A. Proceed—the consent form is signed. B. Send the patient back to his or her room. C. Honor the patient's request and proceed with the next patient. D. Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request.

D. Immediately stop the procedure and inform the radiologist and the referring physician of the patient's request.

A technologist is about to perform a trauma cross-table cervical spine on a hypersthenic patient who is short of breath. As the technologist is setting up for the projection, it becomes clear that the patient will not be able to hold their breath through the exposure. How should the technologist adjust technique to preserve image quality? A. Change to a grid with a lower grid ratio. B. Use a shorter SID. C. Increase kVp by 15% and divided mA by 2. D. Increase kVp by 15% and divide exposure time by 2.

D. Increase kVp by 15% and divide exposure time by 2.

Using direct and indirect active matrix flat panel imaging systems, increasing exposure time with no other changes will: A. Increase brightness of the displayed image. B. Decrease displayed image contrast. C. Decrease image receptor exposure. D. Increase patient dose.

D. Increase patient dose

What type of filtration is the x-ray tube glass envelope and its insulating oil? A. Added B. Oil C. Total D. Inherent

D. Inherent

How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the source-to-image distance (SID) is doubled? A. Its intensity increases two times. B. Its intensity increases four times. C. Its intensity decreases two times. D. Its intensity decreases four times.

D. It's intensity decreases four times

How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the SID is doubled? A. Its intensity increases two times. B. Its intensity increases four times. C. Its intensity decreases two times. D. Its intensity decreases four times.

D. Its intensity decreases four times

To radiographically demonstrate the lumbar spine and sacrum in an AP projection, the radiographer should center the spine at the level of the iliac crest, which corresponds with the level of which lumbar vertebra? A. L-1 B. L-2 C. L-3 D. L-4

D. L-4

Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? A. AP B. Lateral C. Medial oblique D. Lateral oblique

D. Lateral oblique

Which of the following cell types has the greatest radiosensitivity? A. Nerve cells B. Muscle cells C. Spermatids D. Lymphocytes

D. Lymphocytes

A variety of information is utilized to determine a patient's health status and to reach a diagnosis. Some are subjective, like the patient's narrative, their perception of pain, and the physician's bedside observations, as two physicians may come away with two distinct impressions from the same patient interview. Some data are objective, like blood pressure, heart rate, oxygen saturation, and blood glucose level. The use of the word objective here means which of the following? A. Predictable B. Having a "normal" range C. Latent/occult D. Measurable

D. Measurable

Which of the following routes of administration is NOT parenteral? A. Intradermal B. Subcutaneous C. Transdermal D. Nasogastric

D. Nasogastric

What is the single most important factor controlling size distortion? A. Tube, part, IR alignment B. IR dimensions C. SID D. OID

D. OID

When performing a scoliosis series, which projection will minimize dosage to the patient's breasts? A. LPO B. RPO C. AP axial D. PA

D. PA

An accurately positioned oblique projection of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae will demonstrate the classic "Scotty dog." What bony structure does the Scotty dog's neck represent? A. Superior articular process B. Pedicle C. Transverse process D. Pars interarticularis

D. Pars interarticularis

When an imaging department installs new radiographic equipment with higher DQE (Detective Quantum Efficiency) than previous equipment, the most important/valuable advantage is: A. Image quality improves. B. Repeat rates reduce. C. Exam throughput increases. D. Patient dose is reduced.

D. Patient dose is reduced

Sampling frequency in computed radiography (CR) is expressed as: A. The TFT array size B. An inverse relationship between focal spot size and matrix size C. The distance between the image plate and the light guide D. Pixels/mm or pixel density

D. Pixels/mm or pixel density

Which of the following denotes undesirable fluctuations in brightness, dependent on the number of x-ray photons reaching the IR? A. Grainy image B. Artifacts C. Degrades D. Quantum noise

D. Quantum noise

Which of the following positions would demonstrate the right lumbar zygapophyseal articulations closest to the IR? A. LAO B. RAO C. LPO D. RPO

D. RPO

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones? A. Distal interphalangeal joints B. Proximal interphalangeal joints D. Metacarpals D. Radial styloid process

D. Radial styloid process

The electron beam in a television cathode ray tube (CRT) is projected onto the output phosphor in a: A. Vertical pattern B. Fixed direct beam C. Broad field D. Raster pattern

D. Raster pattern

Streptococcus pyogenes, Candida albicans, Bordetella pertussis, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis are pathogens that cause disease in which body system? A. Blood B. Genitourinary tract C. Skin D. Respiratory tract

D. Respiratory tract

In thermoluminescence dosimeters (TLD), lithium fluoride (LiF) is the most commonly used material due to its atomic number and attenuation of x-rays. With an atomic number of 8.2, which of the following is lithium fluoride most similar to? A. Bone B. Fat C. Calcium D. Soft tissue

D. Soft tissue

Which of the following sinus groups is best demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth? A. Frontal B. Ethmoidal C. Maxillary D. Sphenoidal

D. Sphenoidal

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process? A. AP axial B. Lateral C. Parietoacanthial D. Submentovertical (SMV)

D. Submentovertical (SMV)

What is the purpose of the aluminum layer in a CR (photostimuable phosphor) cassette? A. The aluminum layer is used to filter low energy x-rays in the primary beam, saving patient dose. B. The aluminum layer reflects blue light toward the photomultiplier tube during image processing. C. The aluminum layer traps the electrons, which are later released via stimulation with red laser light. D. The aluminum layer absorbs backscatter radiation, preserving the signal-to-noise ratio for the image.

D. The aluminum layer absorbs backscatter radiation, preserving the signal-to-noise ratio for the image.

There are two types of automatic exposure control: photodiode and the more common parallel plate ionization chamber. How are they positioned? A. Both are between the image receptor and the patient B. Both are behind the image receptor C. The photodiode type is situated between the patient and the image receptor, while the ionization chamber is behind the image receptor D. The ionization chamber type is situated between the patient and the image receptor, while the photodiode is behind the image receptor

D. The ionization chamber type is situated between the patient and the image receptor, while the photodiode is behind the image receptor

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to assisting a patient from a wheelchair to an x-ray table? A. The wheelchair should be parallel with the x-ray table. B. The patient's weaker side should be closer to the x-ray table. C. The wheelchair should directly face the x-ray table. D. The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table.

D. The patient's stronger side should be closer to the x-ray table.

Which of the following does not apply to the posterior oblique pelvis, Judet method: A. To visualize the downside acetabulum, the CR is centered 2 inches distal and 2 inches medial to downside ASIS B. The patient is rotated 45°° in a posterior oblique position C. Downside demonstrates the anterior rim and posterior ischial column D. Upside shows the anterior rim and posterior ischial column

D. Upside shows the anterior rim and posterior ischial column

A patient presents with a potential intertrochanteric hip fracture. After the technologist has taken an initial AP projection, which of the following is the best way to proceed? A. Document in the exam notes that a lateral view is not possible B. Roll the patient toward the affected side slowly and cautiously, placing a 45°45° angle sponge under the unaffected hip to obtain an external oblique frog leg view to substitute for a conventional lateral C. Frog the leg, utilizing the Lauenstein or Hickey methods D. Use a cross-table lateral projection, with the central ray directed perpendicular to the femoral neck

D. Use a cross-table lateral projection, with the central ray directed perpendicular to the femoral neck

Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in grid cutoff? A. Using a parallel grid with a large SID B. Using a 48" focal length grid with a 50" SID C. Angling the beam in the same direction as the length of the grid strips D. Using a vertical beam with a grid that is not level

D. Using a vertical beam with a grid that is not level

All the following are central venous lines except A. a Port-a-Cath. B. a PICC. C. a Swan-Ganz catheter. D. a Salem-sump.

D. a Salem-sump

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP recumbent projection, the patient is positioned so that A. the glabellomeatal line is vertical. B. the acanthiomeatal line is vertical. C. a line between the mentum and the mastoid tip is vertical. D. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.

D. a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical.

Lyme disease is caused by bacteria carried by deer ticks. The tick bite may cause fever, fatigue, and other associated symptoms. This is an example of transmission of an infection by A. droplet contact. B. a vehicle. C. the airborne route. D. a vector.

D. a vector

The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh A. adducted 25 degrees from the horizontal B. abducted 25 degrees from the vertical C. adducted 40 degrees from the horizontal D. abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

D. abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

Anaphylaxis is the term used to describe A. an inflammatory reaction. B. bronchial asthma. C. acute chest pain. D. allergic shock.

D. allergic shock.

The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is the A. capacitor B. grid C. cathode D. anode

D. anode

Figure 5-7 illustrates the: A. inverse-square law B. line-focus principle C. reciprocity law D. anode heel effect

D. anode heel effect

Geometric unsharpness is most likely to be greater A. at long SIDs. B. at the anode end of the image. C. with small focal spots. D. at the cathode end of the image.

D. at the cathode end of the image.

You have encountered a person who is apparently unconscious. Although you open his airway, there is no rise and fall of the chest, no detectable pulse, and you can hear no breath sounds. You should A. begin mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing, giving two full breaths. B. proceed with the Heimlich maneuver. C. begin external chest compressions at a rate of 70-80 compressions/min. D. begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

D. begin external chest compressions at a rate of at least 100 compressions/min.

When medications are administered parenterally, they are given A. orally B. orally or intravenously C. intravenously or intramuscularly D. by a route other than via the GI tract

D. by a route other than via the GI tract

Radiation doses of 5 Gy to the ovaries A. have no effect on fertility B. delay menstruation C. cause temporary infertility D. cause sterility

D. causes sterility

Extravasation occurs when A. there is an absence of collateral circulation B. there is a multitude of vessels supplying one area C. excessive contrast medium is injected D. contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

D. contrast medium is injected into surrounding tissue

Decreasing field size from 14 × 17 into 8 × 10 inches will A. decrease receptor exposure and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part. B. increase receptor exposure and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part. C. increase receptor exposure and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part. D. decrease receptor exposure and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.

D. decrease receptor exposure and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part

All of the following have an effect on patient dose except A. inherent filtration. B. added filtration. C. SID. D. focal spot size.

D. focal spot size

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the A. costal margin B. umbilicus C. xiphoid tip D. fourth lumbar vertebra

D. fourth lumbar vertebra

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the A. position of the organ. B. size and shape of the organ. C. diverticula. D. gastric or bowel mucosa.

D. gastric or bowel mucosa

All the following are rules of good body mechanics except A. keep back straight, avoid twisting B. keep the load close to the body C. push, do not pull, the load D. keep a narrow base of support

D. keep a narrow base of support

Misrepresentation of the true size of an anatomical structure is called A. elongation B. foreshortening C. geometric unsharpness D. magnification

D. magnification

The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the A. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR B. midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR C. coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR D. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR.

D. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR.

For a given exposure, the amount of scatter radiation produced by a large patient compared to that of a smaller patient is A. less than a smaller patient B. approximately equal to a smaller patient C. slightly less than a smaller patient D. more than a smaller patient

D. more than a smaller patient

The major function of filtration is to reduce A. image noise. B. scattered radiation. C. operator dose. D. patient dose.

D. patient dose

The innominate bone is located in the A. middle cranial fossa B. posterior cranial fossa C. foot D. pelvis.

D. pelvis

Particulate matter entering the respiratory bronchi can cause A. emphysema. B. empyema. C. pneumothorax. D. pneumoconiosis.

D. pneumoconiosis

Biomedical repair technicians often perform repairs of diagnostic imaging equipment without a complaint of malfunction, but rather to test and replace parts of the machine known to experience wear and tear with normal operation. These types of repairs are called A. acceptance testing. B. quality assurance repairs. C. service call repairs. D. preventive maintenance.

D. preventative maintenance

All the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except A. for radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis. B. if a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection. C. chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position. D. radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

D. radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except the right to A. voluntary participation in proposed research studies. B. continuity of care. C. considerate and respectful care. D. review any hospital/institutional records.

D. review any hospital/institutional records.

Contact precautions are required when handling patients with all of the following except A. C. difficile B. adenovirus C. VRE D. rubeola

D. rubeola

Changes in milliampere-seconds can affect all the following except A. quantity of x-ray photons produced B. exposure rate C. receptor exposure D. spatial resolution

D. spatial resolution

An autoclave is used for A. dry heat sterilization. B. chemical sterilization. C. gas sterilization. D. steam sterilization.

D. steam sterilization

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the A. cisterna magna B. individual intervertebral disks C. subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

D. subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

An Indirect DR system will always have a lower detective quantum efficiency and a lower spatial resolution than an equivalent Direct DR system. This is because A. the indirect DR detector utilizes an electron trap to capture the signal. B. the direct DR system converts the remnant beam to visible light. C. the indirect DR system stores the image data as an analog signal. D. the indirect DR system converts the remnant beam to visible light.

D. the indirect DR system converts the remnant beam to visible light.

A metal added to the cathode filament of an x-ray tube to increase thermionic emission and extend filament life is A. aluminum. B. molybdenum. C. rhenium. D. thorium.

D. thorium

The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the A. distal radius. B. distal ulna. C. scaphoid. D. trapezium.

D. trapezium

A free radical is a/an _______ molecule with a single unpaired electron in the _______ shell: A. charged; outer B. uncharged; inner C. charged; inner D. uncharged; outer

D. uncharged; outer

The condition that allows blood to shunt between the right and left ventricles is called A. patent ductus arteriosus. B. coarctation of the aorta. C. atrial septal defect. D. ventricular septal defect.

D. ventricular septal defect