rest of blood bank test

How could a potential alloimmunizaton due to Anti-K be prevented

Matching of donor and recipient red blood cell phenotype

What is the most common cause of clerical errors in transfusion therapy?

Misidentification of the patient

Which of the following mother/infant blood types would be considered at risk for ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

Mother is group O; baby is group B.

Which of the following regarding blood issued on an emergency basis without patient testing is true

Units are tagged for emergency release and segments are pulled for later testing

Which of the following should be collected immediately from a patient exhibiting signs of a septic reaction to blood products

blood cultures

The most important test to run first in an immediate hemolytic reaction that may be occurring is the

DAT

R2 means which three Rh genes are present

DcE

What does the "R" represent in Rh-Hr terminology

Presence of D antigen

Which of the following red blood cells is appropriate for neonatal transfusions

. Group O -, CMV-negative

A male patient of average size has a hemoglobin count of 8.1 g/dl. The surgeon wants a hemoglobin count of 10 g/dl before doing surgery. How many units of RBCs need to be given before the surgeon will accept the patient into surgery

2

The results of a Kleihauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal bleed of 40 ml of whole blood. How many vials of Rh-immune globulin would be required

2

A patient with anti-K and anti-Jka needs two units of RBCs for surgery. How many group-specific units would need to be screened to find two that are compatible? 91% of the population lacks K, 23% of the population lacks Jka

20

When is the antenatal dose of Rh-immune globulin given?

28 weeks

A proper blood bank specimen is good for how many days after it is drawn from a patient that has had a prior transfusion within 90 day

3 days

A 300-µg dose of Rh-immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood?

30 mL

In each shot of RhIG there is ____ ug of anti-D.

300

Rh-immune globulin should be given within how many hours after delivery

72

The Rh antibody agglutinates what percentage of RBCs?

85%

Which of the following is consistent with International Society of Blood Transfusion (ISBT) terminology

A six-digit number specifies each blood group antigen

A 39-year-old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB Rh-negative. Eight units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which is most preferable for crossmatch

A, Rh-neg

An immediate spin crossmatch was performed using recipient serum and donor cells from a group AB unit. At immediate spin, the reaction was 4+. What is the reason for this positive reaction

ABO incompatibility

What test(s) are involved when a physician orders a 4-unit crossmatch on a patient

ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch

Which statement is true concerning the Rh and weak D test?

According to AABB the weak D test does not have to be run on recipients

A negative direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is found in all of the following transfusion reactions except:

Acute immune hemolytic transfusion reaction

Why is determination of Rh status crucial for obstetric patients

All Rh-negative mothers are possible candidates for Rh immune globulin

Which of the following best describes a transfusion reaction?

Any unfavorable transfusion-related event occurring in a patient during or after transfusion of blood components

A phlebotomist enters a patient room to draw blood for a 2-unit crossmatch. The patient is not wearing a wristband. How can the patient be identified

Ask patient to state their full name, address, and Social Security number and match responses to information on requisition form

What is an "electronic" crossmatch

Comparison of donor and patient ABO groups and serologic data from a computer file

What is the cause of HDFN?

Destruction of the fetus's RBCs by antibody produced by the mother

Which of the following best describes the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test

Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid (alkali) and appears pink, whereas maternal red blood cells appear as ghost cells

The compatibility test guarantees

Generally verifies type

A type and screen is done on a 49-year-old woman who is scheduled for a hysterectomy in 1 week. Her blood type is A-positive, and her antibody screen was positive. What must be done before her surgery date?

Identify antibody and phenotype units

Most Rh antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class

IgG

What immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta

IgG

What would be the result of group B blood given to a group O patient

Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction

A postpartum woman was crossmatched for 2 units of packed red blood cells. The first unit was issued at 3:15 a.m. At 3:45 a.m., the nurse called the blood bank and stated the patient was developing red hives and pruritus (itching). The transfusion was stopped and a post-transfusion specimen was drawn. The unit and identification tags were returned to the blood bank. The DAT on the specimen was negative, and hemolysis was absent. All visual and clerical checks were satisfactory. The pathologist ordered the treatment of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for all subsequent transfusions. What type of transfusion reaction has occurred in this patient?

Immediate non-hemolytic

Why is reverse grouping omitted in neonate ABO grouping?

Newborns do not produce antibodies of their own

Ten days after the transfusion of 2 units, a patient had a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and was slightly jaundiced. No evidence of bleeding was found. What tests would be helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?

Perform an antibody screen on the posttransfusion sample

A STAT type and screen comes from surgery. Your institution uses a blood bank band ID bracelet system. The nurse who obtained specimens did not label them with the blood bank number before she handed them to transport to take to the laboratory. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

Reject the specimen and have it re-collected

If an emergency exists and there is not enough time to perform a crossmatch for red cells, what is the correct procedure?

Release group O, D-negative red blood cells.

What physiological phenomenon associates erythroblastosis fetalis with HDFN

Release of nucleated RBCs into circulation of neonate inflicted with HDFN

Active immunization induced by Rh(D) antigen can be prevented by the concurrent administration of

Rh immunoglobin

A person who lacks Dd, Cc and Ee when phenotyped ( - - - / - - - )is termed:

Rh null

In order for the mother to be considered for Rh-immune globulin, her Rh type must be _________, and her newborn must be __________.

Rh-neg/Rh-pos

The Rh testing on a blood donor was negative at immediate spin. The tube was incubated at 37°C for 15 minutes. The tube was centrifuged and read macroscopically. The test was negative at 37°C. The tube was washed three times with saline, and two drops of AHG were added. After centrifugation, the tube yielded a 2+ reaction. How is this Rh type reported on the donor unit?

Rh-positive

What protocol is put in place to validate Rh testing when high-protein reagents are used, especially when the patient types as an AB-positive?

Run a control with Rh test

HcG

Secreted by trophoblast of the developing blastocyst , chorion and placenta

What should be done in the transfusion process when the patient temperature spikes from 37.5°C to 38.5°C within 30 minutes of transfusion?

Stop the transfusion and keep the intravenous line open

Why is the Rh-positive firstborn of an Rh-negative mother unaffected by Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (Rh HDFN)?

The mother has not been immunized to the D antigen before placental separation.

What is the purpose of performing serial hemoglobin and hematocrit after a blood transfusion

To monitor the therapeutic or nontherapeutic response

What is the most frequent cause of circulatory overload

Transfusion of a unit at too fast a rate

Febrile transfusion reactions are most often caused by the presence of:

WBC and plasma proteins

Which of the following organisms have been implicated in bacterial contamination reactions?

Yersinia enterocolitica

Four units of packed RBCs were used in the operating room at 3 p.m. Can the remaining 2 units be returned to the blood bank at 5 p.m.?

Yes, if the 2 units have been kept under the proper storage conditions

tumor marker

a substance that can be detected in the blood and aid in the diagnosis or staging of certain cancers/tumors

Rh-immune globulin is effective is preventing which type of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

anti-D

Which blood group is frequently implicated in DHTR.

anti-jka

A 35-year-old woman was transfused with 1 unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse monitoring the transfusion noticed hives on the patient's arm and an increase in body temperature. What is the choice of treatment for this patient

antihistamines

Coombs reagent is the same as

check cells

Alloimmunization is categorized as what type of transfusion reaction

delayed nonhemolytic

In an emergency the _____ is responsible for the unit of blood given to the patient if testing is not complete?

doctor

Tje Rh antigen that is also the compoud anitgen ce is antigen ___:

f

Which of the following is the most common transfusion reaction reported to blood banks

febrile reaction

The immediate spin or abbreviated crossmatch is an acceptable procedure if the recipient

has no prior or existing clinically significant antibodies.

What life-threatening disorder is characterized by a severe anemia, effusions, and ascites from hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

hydrops fetalis

A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility?

immediate spin

In what circumstance would it be feasible to transfuse Rh-positive blood to an Rh-negative individual?

in an elderly woman

Which severe outcome can be caused by elevated bilirubin levels in the newborn, The patient has servere jaudice

kernicterus

A patient with two or more documented febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs) should receive __________ blood components

leukopoor

This graph will allow a physician to decide how to treat a fetus with HDN

liley

What organ of the recipient's body is involved in a transfusion-related acute lung injury transfusion reaction

lung

Check cells are added to all ____ tubes after the ____ phase:

negative, AHG

Which of the following treatments uses ultraviolet light to treat hyperbilirubinemia after the infant is delivered

phototherapy

The most important initial step in evaluating a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction is to:

reconfirm the patient's identity and reexamine all pre-transfusion testing.

Where are the donor red blood cells usually acquired from when performing a major crossmatch?

segments from donor unit

All of the following are characteristic of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) except

the antibody IgM