Section 5 Exam
5. A patient is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for treatment of hypertension. The nurse will teach the patient to report symptoms of adverse effects such as a. personality changes. b. frequent loose stools. c. facial muscle spasms. d. generalized weakness.
ANS: D Generalized weakness progressing to flaccidity is a manifestation of hypokalemia. Facial muscle spasms might occur with hypocalcemia. Loose stools are associated with hyperkalemia. Personality changes are not associated with electrolyte disturbances, although changes in mental status are common manifestations with sodium excess or deficit.
An elderly pt is at home after being diagnosed with fluid volume overload. Which of the following should the home care nurse instruct this pt to do? 1. Wear support hose. 2. Keep legs in a dependent position. 3. Avoid wearing shoes while in the home. 4. Try to sleep without extra pillows.
Answer: 1 Rationale 1: The home care nurse should instruct this pt about ways to decrease dependent edema, which include wearing support hose, elevating feet when in a sitting position, & resting in a recliner or bed with extra pillows. Rationale 2: The pt should elevate the legs. Rationale 3: As long as the shoes are well fitting, there is not reason to avoid wearing them. Rationale 4: It is appropriate for the pt to use extra pillows to keep the head up while sleeping.
The pt is receiving intravenous potassium (KCL). Which nursing actions are required? Select all that apply. 1. Administer the dose IV push over 3 minutes. 2. Monitor the injection site for redness. 3. Add the ordered dose to the IV hanging. 4. Use an infusion controller for the IV. 5. Monitor fluid intake & output.
Answer: 2,4,5
A 28-year-old male pt is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse realizes that this pt will have a need for which of the following electrolytes? 1. sodium 2. potassium 3. calcium 4. magnesium
Answer: 4 Rationale 4: One risk factor for hypomagnesaemia is an endocrine disorder, including diabetic ketoacidosis.
A client with COPD feels short of breath after walking to the bathroom on 2 liters of oxygen nasal cannula. The morning's ABGs were pH of 7.36, PaCO2 of 62, HCO3 of 35 mEq/L, O2 at 88% on 2 liters. Which of the following should be the nurse's first intervention? A. Call the physician and report the change in client's condition B. Turn the client's O2 up to 4 liters nasal cannula C. Encourage the client to sit down and to take deep breaths D. Encourage the client to rest and to use pursed-lip breathing technique
D
A client with chronic renal failure receiving dialysis complains of frequent constipation. When performing discharge teaching, which over-the-counter products should the nurse instruct the client to avoid at home? A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository B. Fiber supplements C. Docusate sodium D. Milk of magnesia
D
A nurse is planning an in-service for a group of staff nurses about spiritual care. Which of the following situations should the nurse identify as appropriate for consultation with the pastoral staff? Select all that apply a) ethical dilemma b) terminal illness c) financial arrangements d) hardship
a) ethical dilemma b) terminal illness d) hardship
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Nasogastric tube irrigations are prescribed to be performed once every shift. The client's serum electrolyte results indicate a potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L and a sodium level of 132 mEq/L. Based on these laboratory findings, the nurse selects which solution to use for the nasogastric tube irrigation? A. Tap water B. Sterile water C. Sodium chloride D. Distilled water
ans: c A potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L is within normal range. A sodium level of 132 mEq/L is low, indicating hyponatremia. In clients with hyponatremia, sodium chloride (isotonic) should be used rather than water for gastrointestinal irrigations.
A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value? A. ST depression B. Inverted T wave C. Prominent U wave D. Tall peaked T waves
ans: d A serum potassium level higher than 5.1 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Electrocardiographic changes include flat P waves, prolonged PR intervals, widened QRS complexes, and tall peaked T waves.
potassium is needed for neural, muscle, and: a. auditory function b. optic function c. skeletal function d. cardiac function
d. cardiac function
A client loses consciousness after strenuous exercise and needs to be admitted to a health care facility. The client is diagnosed with dehydration. The nurse knows that the client needs restoration of: a. interstitial fluid b. non-electrolytes c. colloid solution d. electrolytes
d. electrolytes
Arterial blood gases reveal that a client's pH is 7.20. What physiologic process will contribute to a restoration of correct acid-base balance? a. hypoventilation b. renal retention of H ions c. increased excretion of bicarbonate ions by the kidney d. increased respiratory rate
d. increased respiratory rate
A client is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis. The nurse develops a plan of care for this client based on the understanding that the body compensates for this condition by: a. increasing the excretion of H ion into the urine b. preventing excretion of acids into the urine c. increasing the excretion of HCO into the urine d. increasing ventilation through the lungs
d. increasing ventilation through the lungs
Hypocalcemia causes excitability of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle tissues. Evidence of this is seen in the Trousseau sign, a carpopedal spasm. The WBC count of a client is 18,000. the nurse attributes this value to which of the following health problems of this client? a. arthritis b. alcoholism c. viral infection d. wound dehisience
d. wound dehisience
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is experiencing dehydration. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors increases the risk for dehydration in older adult clients? (Select all that apply.) -Decreased kidney function -Decreased thirst response -Decreased total body fluid -Eating watermelon daily -Eating cucumbers with each meal
-Decreased kidney function -Decreased thirst response -Decreased total body fluid
A client is receiving an intravenous magnesium infusion to correct a serum level of 1.4 mEq/L. Which of the following assessments would alert the nurse to immediately stop the infusion? A. Absent patellar reflex B. Diarrhea C. Premature ventricular contractions D. Increase in blood pressure
A
A nurse instructs a client at risk for hypokalemia about the foods high in potassium that should be included in the daily diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the food sources of potassium if the client states that the food item lowest in potassium is: A. Apples B. Carrots C. Spinach D. Avocado
A
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to note in the client? A. Twitching B. Negative Trousseau's sign C. Hypoactive bowel sounds D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes
A
A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for deficient fluid volume? A. A client with a colostomy B. A client with congestive heart failure C. A client with decreased kidney function D. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations
A
A nurse is reading a physician's progress notes in the client's record and reads that the physician has documented "insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily." The nurse understands that this type of fluid loss can occur through: A. The skin B. Urinary output C. Wound drainage D. The gastrointestinal tract
A
A nurse reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value? A. U waves B. Absent P waves C. Elevated T waves D. Elevated ST segment
A
A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level? A. Alcoholism B. Renal insufficiency C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Tumor lysis syndrome
A
Many factors are intially controlled for the IV insertion procedure. This nurse understands this begins with: a. hand washing b. checking sterility of supplies c. 6 med rights d. checking IV order
A
Output recorded on an I/O sheet would be all of these: Urine Diarrhea Vomit Gastric suction Wound drainage Health promotion activities in the area of fluid and electrolyte imbalance focus primarily on: a. client teaching b. dietary intake c. medication d. physician involvement in care
A
The 65-year-old client with congestive heart failure is at the greatest risk for problems from fluid volume excess. Fluid overload in this client could quickly cause life-threatening problems. The 50-year-old client with second degree burns is at risk for fluid volume deficit. The nurse assesses four clients. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of hypocalcemia? A. 56-year-old client with acute renal failure B. 40-year-old client with systemic lupus erythematosus C. 28-year-old client who has just undergone a total thyroidectomy D. 65-year-old client with hypertension taking beta-adrenergic blockers
A
The nurse evaluates which of the following clients to be at risk for developing hypernatremia? A. 50-year-old with pneumonia, diaphoresis, and high fevers B. 62-year-old with congestive heart failure taking loop diuretics C. 39-year-old with diarrhea and vomiting D. 60-year-old with lung cancer and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
A
The nurse is admitting a client with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse reports this finding as a result of A. acute renal failure. B. malabsorption syndrome. C. nasogastric drainage. D. laxative abuse
A
The nurse is caring for a bedridden client admitted with multiple myeloma and a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Provide passive ROM exercises and encourage fluid intake B. Teach the client to increase intake of whole grains and nuts C. Place a tracheostomy tray at the bedside D. Administer calcium gluconate IM as ordered
A
The physician has ordered that a client with hypertension begin receiving a thiazide diuretic. The nurse will now closely monitor the client for: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypermagnesemia
A
The registered nurse is delegating client assignments to unlicensed assistive personnel. Which of the following clients does not require additional monitoring and assessment and may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel? A. A client who has been experiencing diarrhea and has a serum chloride level of 100 mEq/L B. A client with renal failure who has a serum magnesium level of 3.0 mEq/L C. A client who has experienced a fracture of the femur and has a serum phosphate of 5.0 mg/dl D. A client with dehydration who has a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L
A
Which of the following assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that a client's diabetic ketoacidosis is deteriorating? A. Deep tendon reflexes decreasing from +2 to +1 B. Bicarbonate rising from 20 mEq/L to 22 mEq/L C. Urine pH less than 6 D. Serum potassium decreasing from 6.0 mEq/L to 4.5 mEq/L
A
A nurse is participating in a blood drive and is taking a donation from a client who has type A- blood. The client asks the nurse what blood types can receive their donation. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? (Select all that apply.) A+ B+ o+ AB- AB+ A-
A+ AB- AB+ A-
The nurse provides instructions to a client with a low magnesium level about the foods that are high in magnesium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select all that apply. A. Peas B. Oranges C. Cauliflower D. Peanut butter E. Canned white tuna
A, C, E
The nurse assists a client with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L to make which of the following menu selections? Select all that apply. A. Baked cod B. Ham and cheese omelet C. Fried eggs D. Baked potato E. Spinach
A, D, E
The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate. B. Monitor blood glucose every six (6) hours. C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning. D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days. E. Monitor intake and output every shift.
A,B, E
The telemetry monitor technician notifies the nurse of the morning telemetry readings. Which client should the nurse assess first? A. The client in normal sinus rhythm with a peaked T wave. B. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation with a rate of 100. C. The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction who has occasional PVC. D. The client with a first-degree AV block and a rate of 92
A.
Implementation of nursing care for the patient with hyponatremia includes A. fluid restriction. B. administration of hypotonic IV fluids. C. administration of a cation exchange resin. D. increased water intake for patients on nasogastric suction
A. Fluid Restriction.
The nurse anticipates that the patient with hyperphosphatemia secondary to renal failure will require A. calcium supplements. B. potassium supplements. C. magnesium supplements. D. fluid replacement therapy.
A. calcium supplements.
The lungs act as an acid-base buffer by A. increasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are high, reducing acid load. B. increasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are low, reducing base load. C. decreasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are high, reducing acid load. D. decreasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are low, increasing acid load.
A. increasing respiratory rate and depth when CO2 levels in the blood are high, reducing acid load.
If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood cell, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is A. osmosis. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. facilitated diffusion.
A. osmosis.
An elderly woman was admitted to the medical unit with dehydration. A clinical indication of this problem is A. weight loss. B. full bounding pulse. C. engorged neck veins. D. Kussmaul respiration.
A. weight loss.
15. A patient has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis.
ANS: A The pH and HCO3 indicate that the patient has a metabolic acidosis. The ABGs are inconsistent with the other responses.
24. When assessing a patient with increased extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality, the priority assessment for the nurse to obtain is a. skin turgor. b. heart sounds. c. mental status. d. capillary refill.
ANS: C Changes in ECF osmolality lead to swelling or shrinking of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by ECF osmolality changes and resultant fluid shifts, these are signs that occur later and do not have as immediate an impact on patient outcomes.
10. A patient who has required prolonged mechanical ventilation has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.48, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory acidosis. d. respiratory alkalosis.
ANS: D The pH indicates that the patient has alkalosis and the low PaCO2 indicates a respiratory cause. The other responses are incorrect based on the pH and the normal HCO3.
The pt has a serum phosphate level of 4.7 mg/dL. Which interdisciplinary treatments would the nurse expect for this pt? Select all that apply. 1. IV normal saline 2. calcium containing antacids 3. IV potassium phosphate 4. encouraging milk intake 5. increasing vitamin D intake
Answer: 1,2 Rationale: Serum phosphate level of 4.7 mg/dL indicates hyperphosphatemia. IV normal saline promotes renal excretion of phosphate.
The pt, newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, is admitted to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, & abdominal pain. ABG results reveal a pH of 7.2 & a bicarbonate level of 20 mEq/L. Which other assessment findings would the nurse anticipate in this pt? Select all that apply. 1. tachycardia 2. weakness 3. dysrhythmias 4. Kussmaul's respirations 5. cold, clammy skin
Answer: 2,3,4 Rationale: Further assessment findings of this condition are weakness, bradycardia, dysrhythmias, general malaise, decreased level of consciousness, warm flushed skin, & Kussmaul's respirations. Rationale: These ABG results, coupled with the pt's recent diagnosis of diabetes mellitus & history of vomiting would lead the nurse to suspect metabolic acidosis. Further assessment findings of this condition are weakness, bradycardia, dysrhythmias, general malaise, decreased level of consciousness, warm flushed skin, & Kussmaul's respirations.
A client recently diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) complains of headache, weight gain, and nausea. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Deficient fluid volume related to decreased fluid intake B. Excess fluid volume related to increased water retention C. Deficient fluid volume related to excessive fluid loss D. Risk for injury related to fluid volume loss
B
A client who had a recent surgery has been vomiting and becomes dizzy while standing up to go to the bathroom. After assisting the client back to bed, the nurse notes that the blood pressure is 55/30 and the pulse is 140. The nurse hangs which of the following IV fluids to correct this condition? A. D5.45 NS at 50 ml/hr B. 0.9 NS at an open rate C. D5W at 125 ml/hr D. 0.45 NS at open rate
B
A client who is post-gallbladder surgery has a nasogastric tube, decreased reflexes, pulse of 110 weak and irregular, and blood pressure of 80/50 and is weak, mildly confused, and has a serum of potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Based on the assessment data, which of the following is the priority intervention? A. Withhold furosemide (Lasix) B. Notify the physician C. Administer the prescribed potassium supplement D. Instruct the client on foods high in potassium
B
A client with hypoparathyroidism complains of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around the mouth. The nurse would assess for what electrolyte imbalance? A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypermagnesemia
B
A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level? A. The client with renal failure B. The client who is taking diuretics C. The client with hyperaldosteronism D. The client who is taking corticosteroids
B
A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume? A. The client taking diuretics B. The client with renal failure C. The client with an ileostomy D. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning
B
A nurse is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The nurse reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client: A. Has renal failure. B. Requires nasogastric suction. C. Has a history of Addison's disease. D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.
B
One reason older adults experience fluid and electrolyte imbalance and acid-base imbalances, is they: a. Eat poor quality foods b. Have a decreased thirst sensation c. have more stress response d. have an overly active thirst response
B
The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Start a new IV in the right hand. B. Discontinue the intravenous line. C. Complete an incident record. D. Place a warm washrag over the site.
B
The client post-thyroidectomy complains of numbness and tingling around the mouth and the tips of the fingers. Which intervention should be implemented first? A. Notify the health care provider immediately. B. Tap the cheek about two (2) centimeters anterior to the ear lobe. C. Check the serum calcium and magnesium levels. D. Prepare to administer calcium gluconate IVP.
B
The nurse is caring for a client who has been in good health up to the present and is admitted with cellulitis of the hand. The client's serum potassium level was 4.5 mEq/L yesterday. Today the level is 7 mEq/L. Which of the following is the next appropriate nursing action? A. Call the physician and report results B. Question the results and redraw the specimen C. Encourage the client to increase the intake of bananas D. Initiate seizure precautions
B
The nurse should include which of the following instructions to assist in controlling phosphorus levels for a client in renal failure? A. Increase intake of dairy products and nuts B. Take aluminum-based antacids such as aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) with or after meals C. Reduce intake of chocolate, meats, and whole grains D. Avoid calcium supplements
B
The nurse should monitor for clinical manifestations of hypophosphatemia in which of the following clients? A. A client with osteoporosis taking vitamin D and calcium supplements B. A client who is alcoholic receiving total parenteral nutrition C. A client with chronic renal failure awaiting the first dialysis run D. A client with hypoparathyroidism secondary to thyroid surgery
B
The nurse writes the nursing problem of "fluid volume excess" (FVE). Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? A. Change the IV fluid from 0.9% NS to D5W. B. Restrict the client's sodium in the diet. C. Monitor blood glucose levels. D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
B
The typical fluid replacement for the patient with an ICF fluid volume deficit is A. isotonic. B. hypotonic. C. hypertonic. D. a plasma expander.
B
Thiazide diuretics cause the loss of water and potassium through the kidneys. Thus, if the client is not consuming sufficient potassium in the diet, a hypokalemic state could occur. Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness and dysrhythmias. Hyponatremia is not usually a problem because there is an abundance of sodium in the body and the additional regulation of sodium by aldosterone would compensate for sodium loss due to diuretics Calcium level would be unaffected by thiazide diuretics. If magnesium were to be affected by thiazide diuretics, it would be excreted along with potassium, but the imbalance would be hypomagnesemia, not hypermagnesemia. The nurse is assisting a physician in obtaining a sample for blood gas analysis from a client's left wrist. After drawing the sample into the syringe, the nurse: A. Adds a drop of heparin to the sample to prevent clotting B. Seals the end of the syringe and places it in a cup of crushed ice water C. Places the syringe of blood in a dark bag to protect the specimen from light D. Seals the syringe in a zip-lock bag and places the specimen in the out box for laboratory pickup
B
A client admitted with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dl. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods upon discharge? Select all that apply. A. Eggs B. Broccoli C. Organ meats D. Nuts E. Canned salmon
B, D
Which of the following should the nurse include in the diet teaching for a client with a sodium level of 158 mEq/L? A. Pretzels B. Baked chicken C. Chicken bouillon D. Baked potato E. Baked ham
B, D
Furosemide inhibits reabsorption of sodium, water, and K leading to diuresis. ** The most common electrolyte disturbance associated with furosemde admin is hypokalemia Nurse inserts a nasogastric tube, and it immediately drains 1000 mL of fluid. Which of the follwoing electrolyte level is of greatest concern at this time? a. Na b. K c. Cl d. CO2
B. K
Tissue injury can cause an increase in WBC The majority of the body's water is contained in which of the following fluid compartments? A. interstitial B. intracellular C. extracellular D. intravascular
B. intracellular
A client who is admitted with malnutrition and anorexia secondary to chemotherapy is also exhibiting generalized edema. The client asks the nurse for an explanation for the edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. "The fluid is an adverse reaction to chemotherapy." B. "A decrease in activity has allowed extra fluid to accumulate in the tissues." C. "Poor nutrition has caused decreased blood protein levels, and fluid has moved from the blood vessels into the tissues." D. "Chemotherapy has increased your blood pressure, and fluid was forced out into the tissues."
C
A client with a history of cardiac disease is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic (furosemide) and is seen in the emergency department for complaints of weakness. The nurse expects to evaluate which laboratory values? A. Albumin and protein levels B. Sodium and chloride levels C. Potassium and blood glucose levels D. Hemoglobin level and hematocrit
C
A client with a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is to receive sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) orally. After administering the drug, the priority nursing action is to monitor A. urine output. B. blood pressure. C. bowel movements. D. ECG for tall, peaked T waves.\
C
A client with a recent thyroidectomy complains of numbness and tingling around the mouth. Which of the following findings indicates the serum calcium is low? A. Bone pain B. Depressed deep tendon reflexes C. Positive Chvostek's sign D. Nausea
C
A client with a serum sodium of 115 mEq/L has been receiving 3% NS at 50 ml/hr for 16 hours. This morning the client feels tired and short of breath. Which of the following interventions is a priority? A. Turn down the infusion B. Check the latest sodium level C. Assess for signs of fluid overload D. Place a call to the physician
C
A client with a small bowel obstruction has had an NG tube connected to low intermittent suction for two days. The nurse should monitor for clinical manifestations of which acid-base disorder? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis
C
A client with pneumonia presents with the following arterial blood gases: pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 74, HCO3 of 28 mEq/L, and PO2 of 45, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Administer a sedative B. Place client in left lateral position C. Place client in high-Fowler's position D. Assist the client to breathe into a paper bag
C
A client with renal failure enters the emergency room after skipping three dialysis treatments to visit family out of town. Which set of ABGs would indicate to the nurse that the client is in a state of metabolic acidosis? A. pH of 7.43, PCO2 of 36, HCO3 of 26 B. pH of 7.41, PCO2 of 49, HCO3 of 30 C. pH of 7.33, PCO2 of 35, HCO3 of 17 D. pH of 7.25, PCO2 of 56, HCO3 of 28
C
A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram? A. Widened T wave B. Prominent U wave C. Prolonged QT interval D. Shortened ST segment
C
A nurse caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the nurse expect to note based on the magnesium level? A. Prominent U waves B. Prolonged PR interval C. Depressed ST segment D. Widened QRS complexes
C
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Nasogastric tube irrigations are prescribed to be performed once every shift. The client's serum electrolyte results indicate a potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L and a sodium level of 132 mEq/L. Based on these laboratory findings, the nurse selects which solution to use for the nasogastric tube irrigation? A. Tap water B. Sterile water C. Sodium chloride D. Distilled water
C
A nurse is caring for a client with acute congestive heart failure who is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. The nurse suspects hyponatremia. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this client if hyponatremia were present? A. Dry skin B. Decreased urinary output C. Hyperactive bowel sounds D. Increased specific gravity of the urine
C
An older adult client admitted with heart failure and a sodium level of 113 mEq/L is behaving aggressively toward staff and does not recognize family members. When the family expresses concern about the client's behavior, the nurse would respond most appropriately by stating A. "The client may be suffering from dementia, and the hospitalization has worsened the confusion." B. "Most older adults get confused in the hospital." C. "The sodium level is low, and the confusion will resolve as the levels normalize." D. "The sodium level is high and the behavior is a result of dehydration."
C
Individuals taking potassium-wasting diuretics are at risk for hypokalemia. Evaluating blood glucose level when the client reports weakness is important to ensure that low blood glucose level is not an issue. Levels of the other substances would not be affected by a potassium-wasting diuretic. The following four clients are all at risk for fluid volume excess. Which of the clients should the nurse see first? A. 88-year-old client with a fractured femur scheduled for surgery B. 20-year-old client with a 5-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus C. 65-year-old client recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure D. 50-year-old client with second-degree burns on the ankles and feet
C
The client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus weighed 180 pounds when the daily weight was taken yesterday. This morning's weight is 175.6 pounds. One liter of fluid weighs approximately 2.2 pounds. How much fluid has the client lost (in milliliters)? A. 500 mL B. 1000 mL C. 2000 mL D. 4400 mL
C
The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor? A. Serum calcium. B. Serum phosphorus. C. Serum potassium. D. Serum sodium.
C
The client is admitted to a nursing unit from a long-term care facility with a hematocrit of 56% and a serum sodium level of 152 mEq/L. Which condition would be a cause for these findings? A. Overhydration. B. Anemia. C. Dehydration. D. Renal failure.
C
The client who has undergone an exploratory laparotomy and subsequent removal of a large intestinal tumor has a nasogastric tube (NGT) in place and an IV running at 150 mL/hr via an IV pump. Which data should be reported to the health care provider? A. The pump keeps sounding an alarm that the high pressure has been reached. B. Intake is 1800 mL, NGT output is 550 mL, and Foley output 950 mL. C. On auscultation, crackles and rales in all lung fields are noted. D. Client has negative pedal edema and an increasing level of consciousness.
C
The client with acute renal failure is at the highest risk of hypocalcemia. While the patient who underwent a thyroidectomy is at risk, the client with acute renal failure is at a higher risk. Clinical assessment of dehydration would be confirmed if the nurse identified: A. 1-lb weight loss B. Engorged neck vessels C. Dry mucous membranes D. Full bounding radial pulse
C
The nurse and an unlicensed nursing assistant are caring for a group of clients. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform? A. Measure the client's output from the indwelling catheter. B. Record the client's intake and output on the I & O sheet. C. Instruct the client on appropriate fluid restrictions. D. Provide water for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus.
C
The nurse evaluates which of the following clients to have hypermagnesemia? A. A client who has chronic alcoholism and a magnesium level of 1.3 mEq/L B. A client who has hyperthyroidism and a magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L C. A client who has renal failure, takes antacids, and has a magnesium level of 2.9 mEq/L D. A client who has congestive heart disease, takes a diuretic, and has a magnesium level of 2.3 mEq/L
C
The nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is dyspneic and that crackles are audible on auscultation. The nurse suspects excess fluid volume. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present? A. Weight loss B. Flat neck and hand veins C. An increase in blood pressure D. A decreased central venous pressure (CVP)
C
The nurse is conducting an assessment of a client receiving intravenous (IV) fluids via a central line. Today is March 9. The tubing is dated March 5. The nurse determines that the tubing: A. Is good for 3 more days, for a total of 7 days B. Can remain in place as long as there is not a disconnection C. Needs changing because it is beyond the 3-day recommended limit D. Needs changing, along with the IV port, because they have been in place for 4 days
C
The registered nurse is delegating nursing tasks for the day. WHich of the following tasks may the nurse delegate to a licensed practical nurse? A. Assess a client for metabolic acidosis B. Evaluate the blood gases of a client with respiratory alkalosis C. Obtain a glucose level on a client admitted with diabetes mellitus D. Perform a neurological assessment on a client suspected of having hypocalcemia
C
Which statement best explains the scientific rationale for Kussmaul's respirations in the client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? A. The kidneys produce excess urine and the lungs try to compensate. B. The respirations increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C. The lungs speed up to release carbon dioxide and increase the pH. D. The shallow and slow respirations will increase the HCO3 in the serum.
C
A client with heart failure is complaining of nausea. The client has received IV furosemide (Lasix), and the urine output has been 2500 ml over the past 12 hours. The client's home drugs include metoprolol (Lopressor), digoxin (Lanoxin), furosemide, and multivitamins. Which of the following are the appropriate nursing actions before administering the digoxin? Select all that apply. A. Administer an antiemetic prior to giving the digoxin B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake C. Call the physician D. Report the urine output E. Report indications of nausea
C,D,E
Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for the potential development of hypermagnesemia? A. 83-year-old man with lung cancer and hypertension B. 65-year-old woman with hypertension taking -adrenergic blockers C. 42-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus and renal failure D. 50-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia and a urinary tract infection
C. 42-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus and renal failure
The nurse is caring for a client who had a parathyroidectomy. Upon evaluation of the clients laboratory studies, the nurse would expect to see imbalances in which electrolytes related to the removal of the parathyroid gland? A. Chloride and magnesium B. Potassium and chloride C. Calcium and phosphorus D. Potassium and sodium
C. Calcium and phosphorus
A client admitted with heart failure requires careful monitoring of his fluid status. Which method will provide the nurse with the best indication of the clients fluid status? A. Daily electrolyte monitoring B. Output measurements C. Daily weights D. Daily BUN and serum creatinine monitoring
C. Daily weights
Endurance athletes who exercise for long periods of time and consume only water may experience a sodium deficit in their extra cellular fluid. This electrolyte imbalance is known as: A. Hypokalemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hyponatremia D. Hypernatremia
C. Hyponatremia
It is especially important for the nurse to assess for which of the following in a patient who has just undergone a total thyroidectomy? A. weight gain B. depressed reflexes C. positive Chvostek's sign D. confusion and personality changes
C. positive Chvostek's sign
A patient is receiving a loop diuretic. The nurse should be alert to which of the following symptoms? A. restlessness and agitation B. paresthesias and irritability C. weak, irregular pulse and poor muscle tone D. increased blood pressure and muscle spasms
C. weak, irregular pulse and poor muscle tone
The nurse assesses a pt's weight loss as being 22 lbs. How many liters of fluid did this pt lose?
Correct Answer: 10 Rationale: Each liter of body fluid weighs 1 kg or 2.2 lbs. This pt has lost 10 liters of fluid.
A pt is admitted with burns over 50% of his body. The nurse realizes that this pt is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances? 1. hypercalcemia 2. hypophosphatemia 3. hypernatremia 4. hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Pts who experience burns are not at an increased risk for developing increased blood calcium levels. Rationale 2: Causes of hypophosphatemia include stress responses & extensive burns. Rationale 3: Pts who experience burns are not at an increased risk for developing increased blood sodium levels. Rationale 4: Pts who experience burns are not at an increased risk for developing increased blood magnesium levels.
A client is receiving intravenous potassium supplementation in addition to maintenance fluids. The urine output has been 120 ml every 8 hours for the past 16 hours and the next dose is due. Before administering the next potassium dose, which of the following is the priority nursing action? A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake B. Administer the dose as ordered C. Draw a potassium level and administer the dose if the level is low or normal D. Notify the physician of the urine output and hold the dose
D
A client who suffers from an anxiety disorder is very upset, has a respiratory rate of 32, and is complaining of lightheadedness and tingling in the fingers. ABG values are pH of 7.48, PaCO2 of 29, HCO3 of 24, and O2 is at 93% on room air. The nurse performs which of the following as a priority nursing intervention? A. Monitor intake and output B. Encourage client to increase activity C. Institute deep breathing exercises every hour D. Provide reassurance to the client and administer sedatives
D
A client with chronic renal failure reports a 10 pound weight loss over 3 months and has had difficulty taking calcium supplements. The total calcium is 6.9 mg/dl. Which of the following would be the first nursing action? A. Assess for depressed deep tendon reflexes B. Call the physician to report calcium level C. Place an intravenous catheter in anticipation of administering calcium gluconate D. Check to see if a serum albumin level is available
D
A client with pancreatitis has been receiving potassium supplementation for four days since being admitted with a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Today the potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse check before notifying the physician of the client's failure to respond to treatment? A. Sodium B. Phosphorus C. Calcium D. Magnesium
D
A nurse caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a deficient fluid volume. Which assessment finding would the nurse note in a client with this condition? A. Lung congestion B. Decreased hematocrit C. Increased blood pressure D. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)
D
A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a potassium value at this level? A. The client with colitis B. The client with Cushing's syndrome C. The client who has been overusing laxatives D. The client who has sustained a traumatic burn
D
A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value? A. ST depression B. Inverted T wave C. Prominent U wave D. Tall peaked T waves
D
A nursing student needs to administer potassium chloride intravenously as prescribed to a client with hypokalemia. The nursing instructor determines that the student is unprepared for this procedure if the student states that which of the following is part of the plan for preparation and administration of the potassium? A. Obtaining a controlled IV infusion pump B. Monitoring urine output during administration C. Diluting in appropriate amount of normal saline D. Preparing the medication for bolus administration
D
One of the most common electrolyte imbalances is: Hypokalemia The client most at risk for fluid volume defecit (FVD) is: a. Elder adult b. Adult c. Child d. Infant
D
The client is admitted with a serum sodium level of 110 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention should be implemented? A. Encourage fluids orally. B. Administer 10% saline solution IVPB. C. Administer antidiuretic hormone intranasally. D. Place on seizure precautions.
D
The nurse assesses a client to be experiencing muscle cramps, numbness, and tingling of the extremities, and twitching of the facial muscle and eyelid when the facial nerve is tapped. THe nurse reports this assessment as consistent with which of the following? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypocalcemia
D
The nurse is evaluating the serum laboratory results on the following four clients. Which of the following laboratory results is a priority for the nurse to report first? A. A client with osteoporosis and a calcium level of 10.6 mg/dl B. A client with renal failure and a magnesium level of 2.5 mEq/L C. A client with bulimia and a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L D. A client with dehydration and a sodium level of 149 mEq/L
D
Which of the following should the nurse include when preparing to teach a class on the regulation and functions of electrolytes? A. Sodium is essential to maintain intracellular fluid water balance B. Magnesium is essential to the function of muscle, red blood cells, and nervous system C. Less calcium is excreted with aging D. Chloride is lost in hydrochloride acid
D
Dry mucous membranes are a clinical sign of dehydration. Weight loss can be associated with dehydration but is not a confirming sign. Engorged neck vessels and bounding pulse are signs of fluid overload. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which intravenous (IV) fluid for a client who is dehydrated? A. Ringer's lactate B. 3% Sodium chloride C. 0.9% Sodium chloride D. 0.45% Sodium chloride
D. 0.45% Sodium chloride
A nurse is caring for a client who is emotionally distraught. Which of the following uses of touch should the nurse implement to convey caring? a) briefly holding the client's hand b) a lengthy front-facing hug c) rubbing the client's shoulders d) sitting beside the client and touching their thigh
a) briefly holding the client's hand
A nurse is caring for a client who states the health care provider recommends treatment to provide comfort because a cure is not possible. To which of the following concepts is the provider referring? a) palliative care b) medically futile care c) potentially inappropriate treatment d) quality of life
a) palliative care
A nurse is participating in a blood drive and is taking a donation from a client who has type O+ blood. The client asks the nurse what type of blood they can receive. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a. "You can receive a blood donation from donors with type O- and type O+ blood." b. "You can receive a blood donation from donors with type B- and type A+ blood." c. "You can receive a blood donation from donors with type B- and type AB+ blood." d. "You can receive a blood donation from donors with type AB- and type A- blood."
a. "You can receive a blood donation from donors with type O- and type O+ blood.
The nurse is assessing a newly admitted client and finds that he has edema of his right ankle that is 2 mm and just perceptible. The nurse documents that at which grade? a. 1+ b. 4+ c. 3+ d. 2+
a. 1+
A nurse is calculating a clients intake and output for the last 4 hr. The client consumed 480 mL of water and 240 mL of coffee. The client has also received IV fluids for 4 hr infusing at 100 mL/hr. Which of the following amounts represents the clients intake over the last 4 hr? a. 1,120ml b. 720ml c. 480ml d. 580ml
a. 1,120ml
A nurse is receiving report on four clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients might be experiencing hypomagnesemia? a. A client who has vomited four times during the last 8 hr. b. A client who requested a extra breakfast tray to eat. c. A client who can ambulate without assistance. d. A client who reports extreme thirst.
a. A client who has vomited four times during the last 8 hr.
A nurse is reviewing arterial blood gas (ABG) values for a client who is experiencing uncompensated metabolic acidosis. Which of the following ABG values should the nurse expect ? (select all that apply.) a. HCO3- 19 mEq/L b. pH 7.29 c. PaCO2 49 mm Hg d. pH 7.49 e. PaCO2 35 mm Hg
a. HCO3- 19 mEq/L b. pH 7.29 e. PaCO2 35 mm Hg
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which of the following actions should be the goal of treatment for the client? a. Increase the carbon dioxide level. b. Increase the respiratory rate. c. Increase the bicarbonate level. d. Increase the pH level.
a. Increase the carbon dioxide level.
A nurse on a pediatric floor is teaching a newly licensed nurse about iv therapy. Which of the following information should the nurse include? a. Perform range of motion exercises on the extremity containing the IV site. b. Shave the client's hair if the IV is to be placed in the scalp. c. IV sites can be placed in the lower extremities up to the age of 2 years. d. Monitor the IV site, tubing, and connections every 4 hr.
a. Perform range of motion exercises on the extremity containing the IV site.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving treatment for hyponatremia. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is an indication that the treatment has been effective? (select all that apply.) a. The client states their muscle spasms are absent. b. The client reports a headache. c.The client denies being confused. d. The client reports being nauseated. e. The client reports feeling tired.
a. The client states their muscle spasms are absent. c.The client denies being confused. e. The client reports feeling tired.
A nurse monitoring a client's IV infusion auscultates the client's lung sounds and finds crackles in the bases of lungs that were previously clear. What would be the appropriate intervention in this situation? a. notify the primary care provider immediately for possible fluid overload b. no intervention is necessary as this is a normal finding with IV infusion c. Check all clamps on the tubing and check tubing for any kidney d. notify the primary care provider immediately because these are signs of speed shock
a. notify the primary care provider immediately for possible fluid overload
Upon assessment of a client's peripheral intravenous site, the nurse notices the area is red and warm. The client complains of pain when the nurse gently palpates the ares. These signs and symptoms indicative of: a. phlebitis b. rapid fluid administration c. an infiltration d. a systemic blood infection
a. phlebitis
The nurse is monitoring a blood transfusion for a client with anemia. Five minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports feeling short of breathe and itchy. What is the priority nursing action? a. stop the transfusion b. assess for visible rash c. call for assistance d. assess oxygen levels
a. stop the transfusion
The nurse is preparing to administer fluid replacement to a client. Which action related to intravenous therapy should the nurse do first? a. verify the orders for type of solution and amount of infusion b. perform venipuncture c. prepare solution for administration d. regulate the rate of administration
a. verify the orders for type of solution and amount of infusion
The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Start a new IV in the right hand. B. Discontinue the intravenous line. C. Complete an incident record. D. Place a warm washrag over the site.
ans: B The client has signs of phlebitis and the IV must be removed to prevent further complications.
A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level? A. Alcoholism B. Renal insufficiency C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Tumor lysis syndrome
ans: a : THe normal serum phosphorus level is 2.7 to 4.5 mg/dL. The client is experiencing hypophosphatemia. Causative factors relate to malnutrition or starvation and the use of aluminum hydroxide-based or magnesium-based antacids. Malnutrition is associated with alcoholism. Hypoparathyroidism, tumor lysis syndrome, and renal insufficiency are causative factors of hyperphosphatemia.
The nurse is caring for a bedridden client admitted with multiple myeloma and a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? A. Provide passive ROM exercises and encourage fluid intake B. Teach the client to increase intake of whole grains and nuts C. Place a tracheostomy tray at the bedside D. Administer calcium gluconate IM as ordered
ans: a A client who has a serum calcium of 13 mg/dl has hypercalcemia. Normal serum calcium is 9 to 11 mg/dl. Fluid intake promotes renal excretion of excess calcium. ROM exercises promote reabsorption of calcium into bone. Placing a tracheostomy at the bedside is a nursing intervention for hypocalcemia. Although calcium gluconate may be administered in hypocalcemia, it is never administered IM.
The telemetry monitor technician notifies the nurse of the morning telemetry readings. Which client should the nurse assess first? A. The client in normal sinus rhythm with a peaked T wave. B. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation with a rate of 100. C. The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction who has occasional PVC. D. The client with a first-degree AV block and a rate of 92.
ans: a A client with a peaked wave could be experiencing hyperkalemia. Changes in potassium levels can initiate cardiac dysrhythmias and instability.
Which of the following assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that a client's diabetic ketoacidosis is deteriorating? A. Deep tendon reflexes decreasing from +2 to +1 B. Bicarbonate rising from 20 mEq/L to 22 mEq/L C. Urine pH less than 6 D. Serum potassium decreasing from 6.0 mEq/L to 4.5 mEq/L
ans: a A decrease in deep tendon reflexes is a sign that pH is dropping and that metabolic acidosis is worsening to diabetic ketoacidosis. An increase in bicarbonate would indicate that the acidosis is being corrected. A urine pH less than 6 indicates the kidneys are excreting acid. Serum potassium levels are expected to fall because acidosis is corrected and potassium moves back into the intracellular space.
A nurse instructs a client at risk for hypokalemia about the foods high in potassium that should be included in the daily diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the food sources of potassium if the client states that the food item lowest in potassium is: A. Apples B. Carrots C. Spinach D. Avocado
ans: a A medium apple provides about 159 mg of potassium. A large carrot provides 341 mg, spinach (3 1/2 oz) provides 470 mg, and a medium avocado provides 1097 mg of potassium.
A nurse reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value? A. U waves B. Absent P waves C. Elevated T waves D. Elevated ST segment
ans: a A serum potassium level lower than 3.5 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. Potassium deficit is a common electrolyte imbalance and is potentially life-threatening. Electrocardiographic changes include inverted T waves, ST segment depression, and prominent U waves. Absent P waves are not a characteristic of hypokalemia.
The nurse is admitting a client with a potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse reports this finding as a result of A. acute renal failure. B. malabsorption syndrome. C. nasogastric drainage. D. laxative abuse
ans: a A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is indicative of acute renal failure. Malabsorption syndrome, nasogastric drainage, and laxative abuse may result in a low serum potassium level, because output may be greater than input. Diarrhea results in malabsorption syndrome and can come from laxative abuse. Fluids and electrolytes may be lost in the nasogastric drainage. Normal serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L.
A client is receiving an intravenous magnesium infusion to correct a serum level of 1.4 mEq/L. Which of the following assessments would alert the nurse to immediately stop the infusion? A. Absent patellar reflex B. Diarrhea C. Premature ventricular contractions D. Increase in blood pressure
ans: a An intravenous magnesium infusion may be used to treat a low serum magnesium level. Normal serum magnesium is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L. Clinical manifestations of hypermagnesemia are the result of depressed neuromuscular transmission. Absent reflexes indicate a magnesium level around 7 mEq/L. Diarrhea and PVCs are not clinical manifestations of high magnesium levels. Hypermagnesemia causes hypotension.
A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for deficient fluid volume? A. A client with a colostomy B. A client with congestive heart failure C. A client with decreased kidney function D. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations
ans: a Causes of deficient fluid volume include vomiting, diarrhea, conditions that cause increased respirations or increased urinary output, insufficient IV fluid replacement, draining fistulas, and the presence of an ileostomy or colostomy. A client with congestive heart failure or decreased kidney function, or a client receiving frequent wound irrigations, is at risk for excess fluid volume.
The nurse evaluates which of the following clients to be at risk for developing hypernatremia? A. 50-year-old with pneumonia, diaphoresis, and high fevers B. 62-year-old with congestive heart failure taking loop diuretics C. 39-year-old with diarrhea and vomiting D. 60-year-old with lung cancer and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
ans: a Diaphoresis and a high fever can lead to free water loss through the skin, resulting in hypernatremia. Loop diuretics are more likely to result in a hypovolemic hyponatremia. Diarrhea and vomiting cause both sodium and water losses. Clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) have hyponatremia, due to increased water reabsorption in the renal tubules.
The registered nurse is delegating client assignments to unlicensed assistive personnel. Which of the following clients does not require additional monitoring and assessment and may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel? A. A client who has been experiencing diarrhea and has a serum chloride level of 100 mEq/L B. A client with renal failure who has a serum magnesium level of 3.0 mEq/L C. A client who has experienced a fracture of the femur and has a serum phosphate of 5.0 mg/dl D. A client with dehydration who has a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L
ans: a Normal serum chloride is 95 to 105 mEq/L. A client with diarrhea may experience a low chloride level, but 100 mEq/L is within the normal range and may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel. Normal serum magnesium is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L. A magnesium level of 3.0 mEq/L is elevated and may occur in renal failure. Phosphate levels may be elevated with healing fractures. A phosphate level of 5.0 mg/dl is elevated. Normal serum phosphate is 2.8 to 4.5 mg/dl. A sodium level of 128 mEq/L is decreased and may be found with dehydration. Normal serum sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L.
A nurse is reading a physician's progress notes in the client's record and reads that the physician has documented "insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily." The nurse understands that this type of fluid loss can occur through: A. The skin B. Urinary output C. Wound drainage D. The gastrointestinal tract
ans: a Sensible losses are those of which the person is aware, such as through wound drainage, gastrointestinal tract losses, and urination. Insensible losses may occur without the person's awareness. Insensible losses occur daily through the skin and the lungs.
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to note in the client? A. Twitching B. Negative Trousseau's sign C. Hypoactive bowel sounds D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes
ans: a Signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Trousseau's or Chvostek's sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and ansiety. Gastrointestinal symptoms include increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.
A nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The nurse understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level? A. Prolonged bed rest B. Renal insufficiency C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D
ans: a The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. A client with a serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is experiencing hypocalcemia. The excessive ingestion of vitamin D and hyperparathyroidism are causative factors associated with hypercalcemia. End-stage renal disease, rather than renal insufficiency, is a cause of hypocalcemia. Prolonged bed rest is a cause of hypocalcemia. Although immobilization initially can cause hypercalcemia, the long-term effect of prolonged bed rest is hypocalcemia.
The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate. B. Monitor blood glucose every six (6) hours. C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning. D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days. E. Monitor intake and output every shift.
ans: a, b, e A. (correct) TPN is a hypertonic solution that has enough calories, proteins, lipids, electrolytes, and trace elements to sustain life. It is administered via a pump to prevent too rapid infusion. B. (correct) TPN contains 50% dextrose solution; therefore, the client is monitored to ensure that the pancreas is adapting to the high glucose levels. E. (correct) Intake and output are monitored to observe for fluid balance.
The nurse provides instructions to a client with a low magnesium level about the foods that are high in magnesium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select all that apply. A. Peas B. Oranges C. Cauliflower D. Peanut butter E. Canned white tuna
ans: a, c, d, e The normal magnesium level is 1.6 to 2.6 mg/dL. Common food sources of magnesium include avocado, canned white tuna, cauliflower, green leafy vegetables such as spinach and broccoli, milk, oatmeal, peanut butter, peas, pork, beef, chicken, potatoes, raisins, and yogurt. Bacon is high in sodium. Oranges are high in potassium.
The nurse assists a client with a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L to make which of the following menu selections? Select all that apply. A. Baked cod B. Ham and cheese omelet C. Fried eggs D. Baked potato E. Spinach
ans: a, d, e Normal serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. A client who has a potassium of 3.2 mEq/L would benefit from a diet high in potassium. Baked cod, baked potato, and spinach are all food selections high in potassium. A ham and cheese omelet is high in sodium. Fried eggs are high in cholesterol. A whole grain muffin is high in grains.
A nurse is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The nurse reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client: A. Has renal failure. B. Requires nasogastric suction. C. Has a history of Addison's disease. D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.
ans: b : Potassium-rich gastrointestinal fluids are lost through gastrointestinal suction, placing the client at risk for hypokalemia. The client with renal failure or Addison's disease and the client taking a potassium-sparing diuretic are at risk for hyperkalemia.
The nurse is caring for a client who has been in good health up to the present and is admitted with cellulitis of the hand. The client's serum potassium level was 4.5 mEq/L yesterday. Today the level is 7 mEq/L. Which of the following is the next appropriate nursing action? A. Call the physician and report results B. Question the results and redraw the specimen C. Encourage the client to increase the intake of bananas D. Initiate seizure precautions
ans: b A client who has been in good health up to the present is admitted for cellulitis of the hands. When the serum potassium goes from 4.5 mEq/L to 7.0 mEq/L with no risk factors for hyperkalemia, false high results should be suspected because of hemolysis of the specimen. The physician would likely question results as well. Bananas are a food high in potassium. Seizures are not a clinical manifestation of hyperkalemia
A client who had a recent surgery has been vomiting and becomes dizzy while standing up to go to the bathroom. After assisting the client back to bed, the nurse notes that the blood pressure is 55/30 and the pulse is 140. The nurse hangs which of the following IV fluids to correct this condition? A. D5.45 NS at 50 ml/hr B. 0.9 NS at an open rate C. D5W at 125 ml/hr D. 0.45 NS at open rate
ans: b A client who recently had surgery, is vomiting, becomes dizzy when standing up, has a blood pressure of 55/30, and has a pulse of 140 is hypovolemic and requires plasma volume expansion. Isotonic fluids such as 0.9 NS will expand volume. Hypotonic fluids such as 0.45 NS will leave the intravascular space. D5W will metabolize into free water and leave the intravascular space. D5.45 NS is a good maintenance fluid but a rate of 50 ml per hour is not sufficient to expand the vascular volume quickly
The nurse should monitor for clinical manifestations of hypophosphatemia in which of the following clients? A. A client with osteoporosis taking vitamin D and calcium supplements B. A client who is alcoholic receiving total parenteral nutrition C. A client with chronic renal failure awaiting the first dialysis run D. A client with hypoparathyroidism secondary to thyroid surgery
ans: b A client with osteoporosis taking vitamin and calcium supplements, a client with chronic renal failure awaiting dialysis, and a client with hypoparathyroidism secondary to thyroid surgery are at risk for hyperphosphatemia. Alcoholics and clients receiving TPN are at risk for low phosphorus levels, due to poor intestinal absorption and shifting of phosphorus into cells along with insulin and glucose.
The nurse should include which of the following instructions to assist in controlling phosphorus levels for a client in renal failure? A. Increase intake of dairy products and nuts B. Take aluminum-based antacids such as aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) with or after meals C. Reduce intake of chocolate, meats, and whole grains D. Avoid calcium supplements
ans: b Aluminum-based antacids are often prescribed in the treatment of renal failure to bind with phosphate and increase elimination through the GI tract. Dairy products and nuts are foods high in phosphorus. Chocolate, meats, and whole grains are foods high in magnesium. Clients with renal failure often require calcium supplements as a result of poor vitamin D metabolism and in order to prevent hyperphosphatemia.
The nurse writes the nursing problem of "fluid volume excess" (FVE). Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? A. Change the IV fluid from 0.9% NS to D5W. B. Restrict the client's sodium in the diet. C. Monitor blood glucose levels. D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis
ans: b Fluid volume excess refers to an isotonic expansion of the extracellular fluid by an abnormal expansion of water and sodium. Therefore sodium is restricted to allow the body to excrete the extra volume.
A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a sodium value at this level? A. The client with renal failure B. The client who is taking diuretics C. The client with hyperaldosteronism D. The client who is taking corticosteroids
ans: b Hyponatremia is evidenced by a serum sodium level lower than 135 mEq/L. Hyponatremia can occur in the client taking diuretics. The client taking corticosteroids and the client with renal failure or hyperaldosteronism are at risk for hypernatremia.
A client with hypoparathyroidism complains of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around the mouth. The nurse would assess for what electrolyte imbalance? A. Hyponatremia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypermagnesemia
ans: b Hypoparathyroidism can cause low serum calcium levels. Numbness and tingling in extremities and in the circumoral area around the mouth are the hallmark signs of hypocalcemia. Normal calcium level is 9 to 11 mg/dl
A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis who, with treatment, has a normal blood glucose, pH, and serum osmolality. During assessment, the client complains of weakness in the legs. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention? A. Request a physical therapy consult from the physician B. Ensure the client is safe from falls and check the most recent potassium level C. Allow uninterrupted rest periods throughout the day D. Encourage the client to increase intake of dairy products and green leafy vegetables.
ans: b In the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis, the blood sugar is lowered, the pH is corrected, and potassium moves back into the cells, resulting in low serum potassium. Client safety and the correction of low potassium levels are a priority. The weakness in the legs is a clinical manifestation of the hypokalemia. Dairy products and green, leafy vegetables are a source of calcium.
A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume? A. The client taking diuretics B. The client with renal failure C. The client with an ileostomy D. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning
ans: b The causes of excess fluid volume include decreased kidney function, congestive heart failure, the use of hypotonic fluids to replace isotonic fluid losses, excessive irrigation of wounds and body cavities, and excessive ingestion of sodium. The client taking diuretics, the client with an ileostomy, and the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning are at risk for deficient fluid volume.
A client recently diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) complains of headache, weight gain, and nausea. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Deficient fluid volume related to decreased fluid intake B. Excess fluid volume related to increased water retention C. Deficient fluid volume related to excessive fluid loss D. Risk for injury related to fluid volume loss
ans: b The client exhibits signs of excess fluid volume. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is the release of excess ADH by the pituitary gland, which results in hypervolemic hyponatremia and clinical manifestations of headache, weight gain, and nausea
A client who is post-gallbladder surgery has a nasogastric tube, decreased reflexes, pulse of 110 weak and irregular, and blood pressure of 80/50 and is weak, mildly confused, and has a serum of potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Based on the assessment data, which of the following is the priority intervention? A. Withhold furosemide (Lasix) B. Notify the physician C. Administer the prescribed potassium supplement D. Instruct the client on foods high in potassium
ans: b The priority intervention for a client who had gallbladder surgery, has a nasogastric tube, decreased reflexes, pulse of 110 weak and irregular, and blood pressure of 80/50 and is weak, mildly confused, and has a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L would be to notify the physician that the potassium level is low. After notifying the physician, the furosemide (Lasix) may be withheld and potassium supplement should be administered as prescribed and may even be increased after talking with the physician. The client may also be instructed on foods high in potassium. These are all appropriate interventions but not the priority
The client post-thyroidectomy complains of numbness and tingling around the mouth and the tips of the fingers. Which intervention should be implemented first? A. Notify the health care provider immediately. B. Tap the cheek about two (2) centimeters anterior to the ear lobe. C. Check the serum calcium and magnesium levels. D. Prepare to administer calcium gluconate IVP.
ans: b These are signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia, and the nurse can confirm this by tapping the cheek to elicit the Chvostek's sign. If the muscles of the cheek begin to twitch, then the health care provider should be notified immediately because hypocalcemia is a medical emergency.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the diet teaching for a client with a sodium level of 158 mEq/L? A. Pretzels B. Baked chicken C. Chicken bouillon D. Baked potato E. Baked ham
ans: b, d Normal serum sodium is between 135 and 145 mEq/L. A sodium level of 158 mEq/L is elevated and a low sodium diet should be prescribed. A peanut butter sandwich, pretzels, chicken bouillon, and baked ham are all foods high in sodium content. Baked chicken and baked potato are low-sodium food choices.
A client admitted with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dl. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods upon discharge? Select all that apply. A. Eggs B. Broccoli C. Organ meats D. Nuts E. Canned salmon
ans: b, d, e Fish, eggs, and organ meats are high in phosphorus. Broccoli, nuts, and canned salmon are high in calcium. Clients with lung or breast cancer often have elevated calcium levels due to tumor-induced hyperparathyroidism.
A client with a serum sodium of 115 mEq/L has been receiving 3% NS at 50 ml/hr for 16 hours. This morning the client feels tired and short of breath. Which of the following interventions is a priority? A. Turn down the infusion B. Check the latest sodium level C. Assess for signs of fluid overload D. Place a call to the physician
ans: c A complication of hypertonic sodium solution administration is fluid overload. While turning down the infusion, checking the latest sodium level, and notifying the physician may all be reasonable, the priority intervention is to assess for manifestations of fluid overload. Assessment is always the priority to determine what action to take next.
The registered nurse is delegating nursing tasks for the day. WHich of the following tasks may the nurse delegate to a licensed practical nurse? A. Assess a client for metabolic acidosis B. Evaluate the blood gases of a client with respiratory alkalosis C. Obtain a glucose level on a client admitted with diabetes mellitus D. Perform a neurological assessment on a client suspected of having hypocalcemia
ans: c A licensed practical nurse may obtain a finger-stick glucose on a client with diabetes mellitus. A licensed practical nurse may not assess a client for metabolic acidosis, evaluate blood gases on a client with respiratory alkalosis, or perform a neurological assessment on a client suspected of hypocalcemia.
A client with renal failure enters the emergency room after skipping three dialysis treatments to visit family out of town. Which set of ABGs would indicate to the nurse that the client is in a state of metabolic acidosis? A. pH of 7.43, PCO2 of 36, HCO3 of 26 B. pH of 7.41, PCO2 of 49, HCO3 of 30 C. pH of 7.33, PCO2 of 35, HCO3 of 17 D. pH of 7.25, PCO2 of 56, HCO3 of 28
ans: c A pH of 7.33, PCO2 of 35, and HCO3 of 17 and a pH of 7.25, PCO2 of 56, and HCO3 of 28 both indicate acidosis. The pH of 7.25 is a respiratory acidosis. A pH of 7.41, PCO2 of 49, and HCO3 of 30 is a compensated metabolic alkalosis. A pH of 7.43, PCO2 of 36, and HCO3 of 26 is normal.
The nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is dyspneic and that crackles are audible on auscultation. The nurse suspects excess fluid volume. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present? A. Weight loss B. Flat neck and hand veins C. An increase in blood pressure D. A decreased central venous pressure (CVP)
ans: c Assessment findings associated with excess fluid volume include cough, dyspnea, crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, an elevated blood pressure and a bounding pulse, an elevated CVP, weight gain, edema, neck and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and a decreased hematocrit. Options A, B, and D identify signs noted in deficient fluid volume.
A client with a small bowel obstruction has had an NG tube connected to low intermittent suction for two days. The nurse should monitor for clinical manifestations of which acid-base disorder? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis
ans: c Clients with gastric suctioning can lose hydrogen ions resulting in a metabolic alkalosis.
The client who has undergone an exploratory laparotomy and subsequent removal of a large intestinal tumor has a nasogastric tube (NGT) in place and an IV running at 150 mL/hr via an IV pump. Which data should be reported to the health care provider? A. The pump keeps sounding an alarm that the high pressure has been reached. B. Intake is 1800 mL, NGT output is 550 mL, and Foley output 950 mL. C. On auscultation, crackles and rales in all lung fields are noted. D. Client has negative pedal edema and an increasing level of consciousness.
ans: c Crackles and rales in all lung fields indicate that the body is not able to process the amounts of fluids being infused. This should be brought to the health care provider's attention.
The client is admitted to a nursing unit from a long-term care facility with a hematocrit of 56% and a serum sodium level of 152 mEq/L. Which condition would be a cause for these findings? A. Overhydration. B. Anemia. C. Dehydration. D. Renal failure.
ans: c Dehydration results in concentrated serum that causes lab values to increase because the blood has normal constituents but not enough volume to dilute the values to within normal range or possibly lower.
A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram? A. Widened T wave B. Prominent U wave C. Prolonged QT interval D. Shortened ST segment
ans: c Electrocardiographic changes that occur in a client with hypocalcemia include a prolonged ST or QT interval. A shortened ST segment and a widened T wave occur with hypercalcemia. Prominent U waves occur with hypokalemia.
The client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus weighed 180 pounds when the daily weight was taken yesterday. This morning's weight is 175.6 pounds. One liter of fluid weighs approximately 2.2 pounds. How much fluid has the client lost (in milliliters)? A. 500 mL B. 1000 mL C. 2000 mL D. 4400 mL
ans: c First, determine how many pounds the client has lost: 180 - 175.6 = 4.4 pounds lost Then, based on the fact that 1 liter of fluid weighs 2.2 pounds, determine how many liters of fluid have been lost. 4.4 / 2.2 = 2 liters lost Then, because the question asks for the answer in milliliters, convert 2 liters into milliliters. 2 x 1000 = 2000 mL
A client who is admitted with malnutrition and anorexia secondary to chemotherapy is also exhibiting generalized edema. The client asks the nurse for an explanation for the edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. "The fluid is an adverse reaction to chemotherapy." B. "A decrease in activity has allowed extra fluid to accumulate in the tissues." C. "Poor nutrition has caused decreased blood protein levels, and fluid has moved from the blood vessels into the tissues." D. "Chemotherapy has increased your blood pressure, and fluid was forced out into the tissues."
ans: c Generalized edema, or anasarca, is often seen in clients with low albumin levels secondary to poor nutrition. Decreased oncotic pressure within the blood vessels allows fluid to move from the intravascular space to the interstitial space.
A nurse is caring for a client with acute congestive heart failure who is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. The nurse suspects hyponatremia. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this client if hyponatremia were present? A. Dry skin B. Decreased urinary output C. Hyperactive bowel sounds D. Increased specific gravity of the urine
ans: c Hyperactive bowel sounds indicate hyponatremia. Options A, B, and D are signs of hypernatremia. In hyponatremia, increased urinary output and decreased specific gravity of the urine would be noted. Dry skin occurs in deficient fluid volume.
A client with a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is to receive sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) orally. After administering the drug, the priority nursing action is to monitor: A. Urine output. B. Blood pressure. C. Bowel movements. D. ECG for tall, peaked T waves.
ans: c Kayexalate causes potassium to be exchanged for sodium in the intestines and excreted through bowel movements. If client does not have stools, the drug cannot work properly. Blood pressure and urine output are not of primary importance. The nurse would already expect changes in T waves with hyperkalemia. Normal serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L.
An older adult client admitted with heart failure and a sodium level of 113 mEq/L is behaving aggressively toward staff and does not recognize family members. When the family expresses concern about the client's behavior, the nurse would respond most appropriately by stating A. "The client may be suffering from dementia, and the hospitalization has worsened the confusion." B. "Most older adults get confused in the hospital." C. "The sodium level is low, and the confusion will resolve as the levels normalize." D. "The sodium level is high and the behavior is a result of dehydration."
ans: c Normal serum level is 135 to 145 mEq/L. Neurological symptoms occur when sodium levels fall below 120 mEq/L. The confusion is an acute condition that will go away as the sodium levels normalize. Dementia is an irreversible condition.
The nurse evaluates which of the following clients to have hypermagnesemia? A. A client who has chronic alcoholism and a magnesium level of 1.3 mEq/L B. A client who has hyperthyroidism and a magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L C. A client who has renal failure, takes antacids, and has a magnesium level of 2.9 mEq/L D. A client who has congestive heart disease, takes a diuretic, and has a magnesium level of 2.3 mEq/L
ans: c Normal serum magnesium is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L. Clients who have chronic alcoholism and hyperthyroidism are prone to hypomagnesemia. A client who has congestive heart failure, takes a diuretic, and has a magnesium level of 2.3 mEq/L falls within the normal magnesium range.
A client with a recent thyroidectomy complains of numbness and tingling around the mouth. Which of the following findings indicates the serum calcium is low? A. Bone pain B. Depressed deep tendon reflexes C. Positive Chvostek's sign D. Nausea
ans: c Numbness and tingling around the mouth indicate hypocalcemia, which results in neuromuscular irritability. A positive Chvostek's sign is the contraction of facial muscles when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped. Bone pain, nausea, and depressed deep tendon reflexes are signs of hypercalcemia
The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor? A. Serum calcium. B. Serum phosphorus. C. Serum potassium. D. Serum sodium
ans: c The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor? A. Serum calcium. B. Serum phosphorus. C. Serum potassium. D. Serum sodium
A client with pneumonia presents with the following arterial blood gases: pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 74, HCO3 of 28 mEq/L, and PO2 of 45, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Administer a sedative B. Place client in left lateral position C. Place client in high-Fowler's position D. Assist the client to breathe into a paper bag
ans: c The client with a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 74, HCO3 of 28 mEq/L, and PO2 of 45 is in a state of respiratory acidosis. Placing the client in high-Fowler's position will facilitate the expansion of the lungs and help the client blow off the excess CO2. Sedatives would impede respirations. The question does not indicate which is the affected lung, so left lateral position would not be a first choice. Breathing into a paper bag will cause the PCO2 to rise higher.
Which statement best explains the scientific rationale for Kussmaul's respirations in the client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? A. The kidneys produce excess urine and the lungs try to compensate. B. The respirations increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C. The lungs speed up to release carbon dioxide and increase the pH. D. The shallow and slow respirations will increase the HCO3 in the serum.
ans: c The lungs attempt to increase the blood pH level by blowing off the carbon dioxide (carbonic acid).
A nurse caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the nurse expect to note based on the magnesium level? A. Prominent U waves B. Prolonged PR interval C. Depressed ST segment D. Widened QRS complexes
ans: c The normal magnesium level is 1.6 to 2.6 mg/dL. A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL indicates hypomagnesemia. In hypomagnesemia, the nurse would note tall T waves and a depressed ST segment. Options B and D would be noted in a client experiencing hypermagnesemia. Prominent U waves occur with hypokalemia.
The nurse and an unlicensed nursing assistant are caring for a group of clients. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform? A. Measure the client's output from the indwelling catheter. B. Record the client's intake and output on the I & O sheet. C. Instruct the client on appropriate fluid restrictions. D. Provide water for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus
ans: c The nurse cannot delegate teaching.
A client with heart failure is complaining of nausea. The client has received IV furosemide (Lasix), and the urine output has been 2500 ml over the past 12 hours. The client's home drugs include metoprolol (Lopressor), digoxin (Lanoxin), furosemide, and multivitamins. Which of the following are the appropriate nursing actions before administering the digoxin? Select all that apply. A. Administer an antiemetic prior to giving the digoxin B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake C. Call the physician D. Report the urine output E. Report indications of nausea
ans: c, d, e Potassium is lost during diuresis with a loop diuretic such as furosemide (Lasix). Hypokalemia can cause digitalis toxicity, which often results in nausea. The physician should be notified, and digoxin should be held until potassium levels and digoxin levels are checked. Peaked T waves and widened QRS are manifestations of hyperkalemia.
A client who suffers from an anxiety disorder is very upset, has a respiratory rate of 32, and is complaining of lightheadedness and tingling in the fingers. ABG values are pH of 7.48, PaCO2 of 29, HCO3 of 24, and O2 is at 93% on room air. The nurse performs which of the following as a priority nursing intervention? A. Monitor intake and output B. Encourage client to increase activity C. Institute deep breathing exercises every hour D. Provide reassurance to the client and administer sedatives
ans: d A client who is anxious and upset, gets lightheaded, and has tingling in the fingers is in respiratory alkalosis. The arterial blood gases include a pH of 7.48, PaCO2 of 29, and HCO3 of 24. Administering sedatives will assist the client to slow breathe and retain more CO2, thus bringing the pH back into normal range. Deep breathing exercises may worsen the client's condition. Encouraging the client to increase activity is contraindicated because clients are often exhausted and require rest after expending so much energy breathing. Monitoring intake and output is not a priority.
A client with chronic renal failure reports a 10 pound weight loss over 3 months and has had difficulty taking calcium supplements. The total calcium is 6.9 mg/dl. Which of the following would be the first nursing action? A. Assess for depressed deep tendon reflexes B. Call the physician to report calcium level C. Place an intravenous catheter in anticipation of administering calcium gluconate D. Check to see if a serum albumin level is available
ans: d A client with chronic renal failure who reports a 10 pound weight loss over 3 months and has difficulty taking calcium supplements is poorly nourished and likely to have hypoalbuminemia. A drop in serum albumin will result in a false low total calcium level. Placing an IV is not a priority action. Depressed reflexes are a sign of hypercalcemia. Normal serum calcium is 9 to 11 mg/dl.
A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a potassium value at this level? A. The client with colitis B. The client with Cushing's syndrome C. The client who has been overusing laxatives D. The client who has sustained a traumatic burn
ans: d A serum potassium level higher than 5.1 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Clients who experience cellular shifting of potassium in the early stages of massive cell destruction, such as with trauma, burns, sepsis, or metabolic or respiratory acidosis, are at risk for hyperkalemia. The client with Cushing's syndrome or colitis and the client who has been overusing laxatives are at risk for hypokalemia.
The nurse is evaluating the serum laboratory results on the following four clients. Which of the following laboratory results is a priority for the nurse to report first? A. A client with osteoporosis and a calcium level of 10.6 mg/dl B. A client with renal failure and a magnesium level of 2.5 mEq/L C. A client with bulimia and a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L D. A client with dehydration and a sodium level of 149 mEq/L
ans: d Although a client with acute osteoporosis may have a high serum calcium, a level of 10.6 mg/dl is normal. Normal serum calcium is 9 to 11 mg/dl. Normal serum magnesium is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L. A client who has renal failure is prone to hypermagnesemia, but a level of 2.5 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal. A client who has bulimia generally vomits enough to result in a low potassium level, but a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is low normal. Normal serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. Normal serum sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L. The sodium level generally goes up with dehydration. A sodium level of 149 mEq/L is elevated.
A nurse caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a deficient fluid volume. Which assessment finding would the nurse note in a client with this condition? A. Lung congestion B. Decreased hematocrit C. Increased blood pressure (Your Answer) D. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)
ans: d Assessment findings in a client with a deficient fluid volume include increased respirations and heart rate, decreased central venous pressure (CVP), weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, decreased urine volume, increased specific gravity of the urine, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. The normal CVP is between 4 and 11 cm H2O. A client with dehydration has a low CVP. The assessment findings in options A, B, and C are seen in a client with excess fluid volume.
A client with COPD feels short of breath after walking to the bathroom on 2 liters of oxygen nasal cannula. The morning's ABGs were pH of 7.36, PaCO2 of 62, HCO3 of 35 mEq/L, O2 at 88% on 2 liters. Which of the following should be the nurse's first intervention? A. Call the physician and report the change in client's condition B. Turn the client's O2 up to 4 liters nasal cannula C. Encourage the client to sit down and to take deep breaths D. Encourage the client to rest and to use pursed-lip breathing technique
ans: d Clients with COPD, especially those who are in a chronic compensated respiratory acidosis, are very sensitive to changes in O2 flow, because hypoxemia rather than high CO2 levels stimulates respirations. Deep breaths are not helpful, because clients with COPD have difficulty with air trapping in alveoli. There is no need to call the physician, since this client is presently most likely at baseline.
The client is admitted with a serum sodium level of 110 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention should be implemented? A. Encourage fluids orally. B. Administer 10% saline solution IVPB. C. Administer antidiuretic hormone intranasally. D. Place on seizure precautions.
ans: d Clients with sodium levels less than 120 mEq/L are at risk for seizures as a complication. The lower the sodium level, the greater the risk of a seizure.
A client with pancreatitis has been receiving potassium supplementation for four days since being admitted with a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Today the potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse check before notifying the physician of the client's failure to respond to treatment? A. Sodium B. Phosphorus C. Calcium D. Magnesium
ans: d Low serum magnesium levels can inhibit potassium ions from crossing cell membranes, resulting in potassium loss through the urine. Generally, low magnesium levels must be corrected before potassium replacement is effective.
A client with chronic renal failure receiving dialysis complains of frequent constipation. When performing discharge teaching, which over-the-counter products should the nurse instruct the client to avoid at home? A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository B. Fiber supplements C. Docusate sodium D. Milk of magnesia
ans: d Milk of magnesia contains magnesium, an electrolyte that is excreted by kidneys. Clients with renal failure are at risk for hypermagnesemia, since their bodies cannot excrete the excess magnesium. The client should avoid magnesium-containing laxatives
The nurse assesses a client to be experiencing muscle cramps, numbness, and tingling of the extremities, and twitching of the facial muscle and eyelid when the facial nerve is tapped. THe nurse reports this assessment as consistent with which of the following? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypermagnesemia D. Hypocalcemia
ans: d Normal serum calcium is 9 to 11 mg/dl. A client who has hypocalcemia would experience muscle cramps, numbness, and twitching of the facial muscles and eyelid when the facial nerve is tapped. Hypocalcemia may result from renal failure, hypothyroidism, acute pancreatitis, liver disease, malabsorption syndrome, and vitamin D deficiency. Normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. Normal serum sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L. Normal serum magnesium is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L.
A nursing student needs to administer potassium chloride intravenously as prescribed to a client with hypokalemia. The nursing instructor determines that the student is unprepared for this procedure if the student states that which of the following is part of the plan for preparation and administration of the potassium? A. Obtaining a controlled IV infusion pump B. Monitoring urine output during administration C. Diluting in appropriate amount of normal saline D. Preparing the medication for bolus administration
ans: d Potassium chloride administered intravenously must always be diluted in IV fluid and infused via a pump or controller. The usual concentration of IV potassium chloride is 20 to 40 mEq/L. Potassium chloride is never given by bolus (IV push). Giving potassium chloride by IV push can result in cardiac arrest. Dilution in normal saline is recommended, but dextrose solution is avoided because this type of solution increases intracellular potassium shifting. The IV bag containing the potassium chloride is always gently agitated before hanging. The IV site is monitored closely because potassium chloride is irritating to the veins and the risk of phlebitis exists. The nurse monitors urinary output during administration and contacts the physician if the urinary output is less than 30 mL/hr.
Which of the following should the nurse include when preparing to teach a class on the regulation and functions of electrolytes? A. Sodium is essential to maintain intracellular fluid water balance B. Magnesium is essential to the function of muscle, red blood cells, and nervous system C. Less calcium is excreted with aging D. Chloride is lost in hydrochloride acid
ans: d Sodium is essential to maintain extracellular fluid water balance. Phosphate is the major anion in intracellular fluid water balance that is essential in the function of muscle, red blood cells, and nervous system. A person tends to excrete more calcium with age. Chloride is lost through hydrochloride acid
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A. Peas B. Cauliflower C. Low-fat yogurt D. Processed oat cereals
ans: d The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L. A serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L indicates hypernatremia. Based on this finding, the nurse would instruct the client to avoid foods high in sodium. Low-fat yogurt, cauliflower, and peas are good food sources of phosphorus. Processed foods are high in sodium content.
A client is receiving intravenous potassium supplementation in addition to maintenance fluids. The urine output has been 120 ml every 8 hours for the past 16 hours and the next dose is due. Before administering the next potassium dose, which of the following is the priority nursing action? A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake B. Administer the dose as ordered C. Draw a potassium level and administer the dose if the level is low or normal D. Notify the physician of the urine output and hold the dose
ans: d Urine output is an indication of renal function. Normal urine output is at least 30 ml/hour. Clients with impaired renal function are at risk for hyperkalemia. Initiating a lab draw requires a physician order
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and requests spiritual support. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? a) "I'm not trained in providing spiritual support, but you can call the chaplain." b) "Tell me what I can do to help fulfill your need for support." c) "Lets talk about this later and focus instead on your wound healing." d) "I'm not very spiritual so I will find another nurse who can help you."
b) "Tell me what I can do to help fulfill your need for support."
A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client crying. The nurse sits beside the bed in silence. Which of Swanson's five categories of caring behaviors is the nurse demonstrating? a) knowing b) being with c) doing for d) maintaining belief
b) being with
A nurse manager is planning an in-service about culturally competent care. Which of the following cultural competencies should the manager describe as enabling a nurse to interact with clients from other cultures? a) cultural awareness b) cultural encounters c) cultural knowledge d) cultural desire
b) cultural encounters
A nurse is providing information to a client who is from the baby boomer generation about a newly prescribed medication. Using information about generational preferences, which of the following methods of teaching should the nurse use? a) send a text message b) talk with the client in person c) provide a link to a teaching video or animation d) a formal face-to-face meeting with written notes
b) talk with the client in person
A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who needs intravenous fluid replacement therapy due to vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following fluid prescriptions should the nurse expect to initiate. a. 3% sodium chloride solution b. 0.9% sodium chloride solution c. 0.45% sodium chloride solution d. Dextrose 10% in water
b. 0.9% sodium chloride solution
A nurse is caring for a client who has an acid-base imbalance and is experiencing hypoxia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? a. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring. b. Elevate the head of the client's bed. c. Instruct the client to deep breathe and cough. d. Initiate continuous SpO2 monitoring.
b. Elevate the head of the client's bed.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor? a. The need for multiple IV sticks b. Infection at the access site c. Dehydration d. Infiltration
b. Infection at the access site
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client and notes the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH 7.31, PaCO2 49 mm hg, and HCO3 25 mEq/L. The nurse should interpret these findings as an indication of which of the following acid-base imbalances. a. Metabolic acidosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
A nurse is assessing a client who is exhibiting signs of a fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential cause for the client's fluid and electrolyte imbalance? a. The client reports working in a warehouse in 21.1° C (70° F) temperature. b. The client reports that they performed yard work for 8 hr in 35° C (95° F) temperature earlier that day. c. The client reports that their provider decreased their diuretic dose. d. The client reports they had a 24-hr intestinal virus 2 weeks ago.
b. The client reports that they performed yard work for 8 hr in 35° C (95° F) temperature earlier that day.
A home care nurse is visiting a client with renal failure who is on fluid restriction. The client tells the nurse, "I get thirsty very often. What might help?" What would the nurse include as a suggestion for this client? a. use regular gum and hard candy b. avoid salty or excessively sweet fluids c. use an alcohol-based mouthwash to moisten your mouth d. eat crackers and bread
b. avoid salty or excessively sweet fluids
A nurse is reviewing the dietary intake of a client prescribed a potassium-sparing diuretic. The client tells the nurse that he had a banana, yogurt, and a bran cereal for breakfast and a turkey sandwich with a glass of milk for lunch. The intake of which food would be a cause for concern? a. milk b. banana c. turkey d. yogurt
b. banana
The nurse is caring for a male client who has a diagnosis of heart failure. Today's laboratory results show a serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L (3, 2 mmol/L). For what complications should the nurse be aware, related to the potassium level? a. pulmonary embolus b. cardiac dysrhythmias c. tetany d. fluid volume excess
b. cardiac dysrhythmias
A client's most recent blood work indicates a K+ level of 7.2 mEq/L (7.2 mmol/L), a finding that constitutes hyperkalemia. For what signs and symptoms should the nurse vigilantly monitor? a. muscle weakness b. cardiac irregularities c. increased intracranial pressure (ICP) d. metabolic acidosis
b. cardiac irregularities
A client who is n.p.o prior to surgery reports feeling thirsty. What is the physiologic process that drives the thirst factor? a. increased blood volume and extracellular over-hydration b. decreased blood volume and intracellular dehydration c. decreased blood volume and extracellular over-hydration d. increased blood volume and intracellular dehydration
b. decreased blood volume and intracellular dehydration
The nurse reviews the laboratory test results of a client and notes that the client's potassium level is elevated. What would the nurse expect to find when assessing the client's gastrointestinal system? a. abdominal distention b. diarrhea c. paralytic ileus d. vomiting
b. diarrhea
A nurse is caring for a client whose religious belief prohibits them from receiving blood products. The client states, "my adult children don't agree with my beliefs and want me to receive a transfusion." Which of the following responses should the nurse make? a) "Your children's opinions do not matter." b) "You should receive blood products if it will save your life." c) "You have the right to choose what treatments are best for you." d) "Your health care provider will make the final choice on treatments that are in your best interest."
c) "You have the right to choose what treatments are best for you."
A nurse is caring for a client who requires a replacement peripheral iv. The client is dehydrated and requires a smaller gauge catheter than the #20-gauge being replaced. Which of the following gauge catheters should the nurse plan to use? a. #16-gauge b. #18-gauge c. #22-gauge d. #14-gauge
c. #22-gauge
What commonly used intravenous solution is hypotonic? a. lactated ringers b. 5% dextrose in 0.45% NaCl c. 0.45% NaCl d. 0.9% NaCl
c. 0.45% NaCl
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse should plan to infuse the blood over which of the following length's of time? a. 1 hr b. 2 hr c. 4 hr d. 6 hr
c. 4 hr
A client with a diagnosis of colon cancer has opted for a treatment plan that will include several rounds of chemotherapy. What vascular access device is most likely to meet this client's needs? a. A midline peripheral catheter b. a peripheral venous catheter inserted to the antecubital fossa c. an implanted central venous access device (CVAD) d. A peripheral venous catheter inserted to the cephalic vein
c. an implanted central venous access device (CVAD)
The nurse's morning assessment of a client who has a history of heart failure reveals the presence of 2+ pitting edema in the client's ankles and feet bilaterally. This assessment finding is suggestive of: a. metabolic acidosis b. hypovolemia c. fluid volume excess d. hyponatremia
c. fluid volume excess
A client age 80 years, who takes diuretics for management of hypertension, informs the nurse that she takes laxatives daily to promote bowel movements. The nurse assesses the client for possible symptoms of: a. hypothyroidism b. hypoglycemia c. hypokalemia d. hypocalcemia
c. hypokalemia
A women age 58 years is suffering from food poisoning after eating at a local restaurant. She has had nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for the past 12 hours. Her blood pressure is 88/50 and she is diaphoretic. She requires: a. an access route to replace fluids in combination with blood products b. an access route to administer medications intravenously c. replacement of fluids for those lost from vomiting and diarrhea d. intravenous fluids to be administered on an outpatient basis
c. replacement of fluids for those lost from vomiting and diarrhea
Which statement most accurately describes the process of osmosis? a. water shifts from high-solute to areas of lower solute concentration b. plasma proteins facilitate the reabsorption of fluids into the capillaries c. water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration d. solutes pass through semipermeable membranes to areas of lower concentration
c. water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration
which client is at a greater risk for fluid volume deficit related to the loss of total body fluid and extracellular fluid? a. A man age 50 years b. a women age 45 years c. an adolescent age 17 years d. An infant age 4 months
d. An infant age 4 months
A nurse is preparing to start an iv for a client who has a high risk for bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Apply a cold compress to the selected IV site. b. Ask the client to hold the extremity up prior to searching for an IV site. c. Ask the client to spread the fingers of the selected extremity. d. Apply a blood pressure cuff set to 30 mm Hg.
d. Apply a blood pressure cuff set to 30 mm Hg.
When caring for a client who is on intravenous therapy, the nurse observes that the client has developed redness, warmth, and discomfort along the vein. Which intervention should the nurse perform for this complication? a. position the client on the left side b. elevate the client's head c. apply antiseptic and a dressing d. Apply a warm compress
d. Apply a warm compress
A nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving IV therapy for several days and notes that the clients daily weight has increased. The Nurse should identify that the client is at increased risk for developing which of the following IV-related complications? a. Phlebitis b. Extravasation c. Air embolism d. Circulatory overload
d. Circulatory overload
Hypokalemia is almost universal complication of loss of gastric hydrochloric acid. Metabolic alkalosis results. Other electrolytes may be affected, but not to the degree of potassium homeostasis is altered. The nurse should observe for a Trousseau sign in the client with which of the following electrolyte abnormalities? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypochloremia d. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypocalcemia
Nurse would be most concerned about which lab values obtained fro ma client receiving furosemide (Lasix) therapy? a. BUN 20 b. K 3.4 c. Creatinine 1.1 d. K 3.2
d. K 3.2
A home care nurse is teaching a client and family about the importance of a balanced diet. The nurse determines that the education was successful when the client identifies which of the following as a rich source of potassium? a. dairy products b. processed meat c. bread products d. apricots
d. apricots
What food would the nurse provide for a client who has hypokalemia? a. bread b. canned vegetables c. cheese d. bananas
d. bananas
29. Following a thyroidectomy, a patient complains of "a tingling feeling around my mouth." The nurse will immediately check for a. an elevated serum potassium level. b. the presence of Chvostek's sign. c. a decreased thyroid hormone level. d. bleeding on the patient's dressing.
ANS: B The patient's symptoms indicate possible hypocalcemia, which can occur secondary to parathyroid injury/removal during thyroidectomy. There is no indication of a need to check the potassium level, the thyroid hormone level, or for bleeding.
An elderly pt with peripheral neuropathy has been taking magnesium supplements. The nurse realizes that which of the following symptoms can indicate hypomagnesaemia? 1. hypotension, warmth, & sweating 2. nausea & vomiting 3. hyperreflexia 4. excessive urination
Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Elevations in magnesium levels are accompanied by hypotension, warmth, & sweating. Rationale 2: Lower levels of magnesium are associated with nausea & vomiting. Rationale 3: Lower levels of magnesium are associated & hyperreflexia. Rationale 4: Urinary changes are not noted.
A nurse is reviewing a clients laboratory results. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider? a. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L b. Sodium 138 mEq/L c. Magnesium 3 mEq/L d. Calcium 10 mg/dL
c. Magnesium 3 mEq/L
A nurse is preparing to administer 1,950 mL of 0.45% sodium chloride IV to infuse over 13 hr. The Nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
150
A nurse is preparing to administer 4,200 ml of intravenous fluids to a client to infuse over 24 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
175
18. When teaching a patient with renal failure about a low phosphate diet, the nurse will include information to restrict a. ingestion of dairy products. b. the amount of high-fat foods. c. the quantity of fruits and juices. d. intake of green, leafy vegetables.
ANS: A Foods high in phosphate include milk and other dairy products, so these are restricted on low-phosphate diets. Green, leafy vegetables; high-fat foods; and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted.
28. Which assessment finding about a patient who has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor. b. The patient complains of generalized fatigue. c. The patient's bowels have not moved for 4 days. d. The patient has numbness and tingling of the lips.
ANS: A Laryngeal stridor may lead to respiratory arrest and requires rapid action to correct the patient's calcium level. The other data also are consistent with hypocalcemia, but do not indicate a need for immediate action.
A pt is prescribed 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The nurse realizes that the reason the pt is receiving this replacement is 1. to sustain respiratory function. 2. to help regulate acid-base balance. 3. to keep a vein open. 4. to encourage urine output.
Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Potassium does not sustain respiratory function. Rationale 2: Electrolytes have many functions. They assist in regulating water balance, help regulate & maintain acid-base balance, contribute to enzyme reactions, & are essential for neuromuscular activity. Rationale 3: Intravenous fluids are used to keep venous access not potassium. Rationale 4: Urinary output is impacted by fluid intake not potassium.
An elderly pt does not complain of thirst. What should the nurse do to assess that this pt is not dehydrated? 1. Ask the physician for an order to begin intravenous fluid replacement. 2. Ask the physician to order a chest x-ray. 3. Assess the urine for osmolality. 4. Ask the physician for an order for a brain scan.
Answer: 3 Rationale 1: It is inappropriate to seek an IV at this stage. Rationale 2: There is no indication the pt is experiencing pulmonary complications thus a cheat x-ray is not indicated. Rationale 3: The thirst mechanism declines with aging, which makes older adults more vulnerable to dehydration & hyperosmolality. The nurse should check the pt's urine for osmolality as a 1st step in determining hydration status before other detailed & invasive testing is done. Rationale 4: There is no data to support the need for a brain scan.
An elderly pt with a history of sodium retention arrives to the clinic with the complaints of "heart skipping beats" & leg tremors. Which of the following should the nurse ask this pt regarding these symptoms? 1. "Have you stopped taking your digoxin medication?" 2. "When was the last time you had a bowel movement?" 3. "Were you doing any unusual physical activity?" 4. "Are you using a salt substitute?"
Answer: 4 Rationale 1: Although this pt may be prescribed digoxin this is not the primary focus of this question. Rationale 2: The pt's bowel habits are not of concern at this time. Rationale 3: The cardiac & musculoskeletal discomforts being reported are not consistent with physical exertion. Rationale 4: The pt has a history of sodium retention & might think that a salt substitute can be used. Advise pts who are taking a potassium supplement or potassium-sparing diuretic to avoid salt substitutes, which usually contain potassium.
The pt has been placed on a 1200 mL daily fluid restriction. The pt's IV is infusing at a keep open rate of 10 mL/hr. The pt has no additional IV medications. How much fluid should the pt be allowed from 0700 until 1500 daily?
Answer: 540 Rationale: Fluid allowed is calculated by figuring the total daily IV intake (in this case 10 mL/hr × 24 hours = 240 mL/day), subtracting that total from the daily allowance (in this case 1200mL - 240 mL = 960mL). The amount calculated is then distributed as 50% for the traditional day shift, 25%-35% for the traditional evening shift, & the remainder for the traditional night shift. In this case, 50% of 960 is 540 mL.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the nursing process when caring for a client who has an acid-base imbalance. The nurse should include that the stages of the nursing process should be preformed in what order? (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.) Evaluation Implementation Analysis Planning Assessment
Assessment, Analysis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation.
Which pts are at risk for the development of hypercalcemia? Select all that apply. 1. the pt with a malignancy 2. the pt taking lithium 3. the pt who uses sunscreen to excess 4. the pt with hyperparathyroidism 5. the pt who overuses antacids
Correct Answer: 1,2,4,5 Rationale 1: Pts with malignancy are at risk for development of hypercalcemia due to destruction of bone or the production of hormone-like substances by the malignancy. Rationale 2: Lithium & overuse of antacids can result in hypercalcemia. Hypercalcemia can result from hyperparathyroidism which causes release of calcium from the bones, increased calcium absorption in the intestines & retention of calcium by the kidneys. Rationale 3: The pt who uses sunscreen to excess is more likely to have a vitamin D deficiency which would result in hypocalcemia. Rationale 4: Hypercalcemia can result from hyperparathyroidism which causes release of calcium from the bones, increased calcium absorption in the intestines & retention of calcium by the kidneys. Rationale 5: Lithium & overuse of antacids can result in hypercalcemia.
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. For which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse should the charge nurse intervene? a. The nurse selects 0.45% sodium chloride to use to prime the tubing. b. The nurse asks another nurse to check the blood unit label and client identification prior to beginning the transfusion. c. The nurse uses tubing with a filter for the blood transfusion. d. The nurse discards the tubing after the first unit of blood is completed.
a. The nurse selects 0.45% sodium chloride to use to prime the tubing.
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values: pH 7.44, PaCO2 37mm Hg, and HCO3 24mEq/L. The nurse should identify that these values are an indication of which of the following? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Acid-base balance d. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Acid-base balance
A nurse is reviewing the latest arterial blood gas (ABG) values for the client who is experiencing metabolic alkalosis. The nurse should identify that this action is part of the following steps of the nursing process? a. Planning b. Assessment c. Evaluation d. Implementation
c. Evaluation
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription to receive one unit of packed red blood cells. The clients blood type is AB+, and the nurse receives a unit of A- blood from the blood bank. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Return the blood unit as it is not compatible with the client's blood type. b. Stay with the client for 15 min prior to starting the blood transfusion. c. Verify the unit of blood with another nurse. d. Prime the blood tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride
c. Verify the unit of blood with another nurse.
A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) values for a client and notes the following results: pH 7.49, PaCO2 39mm Hg, and HCO3-35 mEq/L. The nurse should interpret this ABG reading as an indication of which of the following acid-base imbalances? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Respiratory acidosis c.Metabolic alkalosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
c.Metabolic alkalosis
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for opioid analgesia. The client tells the nurse, "I don't want to take that medication because it makes me sleepy." Which of the following responses should the nurse make? a) "You need to take the medication so that you will not be in pain." b) "This medication does not affect your reasoning ability/" c) "Controlling your pain is more important right now than your mental state." d) "I will speak to your provider to see if there is a different medication to treat your pain."
d) "I will speak to your provider to see if there is a different medication to treat your pain."
A nurse caring for a client who is experiencing hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider? a. Dry mucous membranes b. Decreased urine output c. Report of thirst d. Decrease in level of consciousness
d. Decrease in level of consciousness
A nurse is reviewing a clients latest arterial blood gas (AGB) report. Which of the following values should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider? a. pH 7.37 b. PaCO2 43 mm Hg c. HCO3- 27 mEq/L d. PaO2 76 mm Hg
d. PaO2 76 mm Hg
A nurse has completed assessing and analyzing data for the client who has an acid-base imbalance. Which of the following steps of the nursing process should the nurse take next? a. Implementation b. Reassessment c. Evaluation d. Planning
d. Planning
12. The home health nurse notes that an elderly patient has a low serum protein level. The nurse will plan to assess for a. pallor. b. edema. c. confusion. d. restlessness.
ANS: B Low serum protein levels cause a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure and allow fluid to remain in interstitial tissues, causing edema. Confusion, restlessness, and pallor are not associated with low serum protein levels.
21. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD)? a. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site. b. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications. c. Obtain an order from the health care provider to change CVAD dressing. d. Have the patient turn the head toward the CAVD during injection cap changes.
ANS: B The push-pause enhances the removal of debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. To decrease infection risk, friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site. The dressing should be changed whenever it becomes damp, loose, or visibly soiled and the patient should turn away from the CVAD during cap changes.
30. A patient with advanced lung cancer is admitted to the emergency department with urinary retention caused by renal calculi. Which of these laboratory values will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Arterial blood pH is 7.32. b. Serum calcium is 18 mEq/L. c. Serum potassium is 5.1 mEq/L. d. Arterial oxygen saturation is 91%.
ANS: B The serum calcium is well above the normal level and puts the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should initiate cardiac monitoring and notify the health care provider. The potassium, oxygen saturation, and pH also are abnormal, and the nurse should notify the health care provider about these values as well, but they are not immediately life-threatening.
An elderly pt comes into the clinic with the complaint of watery diarrhea for several days with abdominal & muscle cramping. The nurse realizes that this pt is demonstrating which of the following? 1. hypernatremia 2. hyponatremia 3. fluid volume excess 4. hyperkalemia
Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Hypernatremia is associated with fluid retention & overload. FVE is associated with hypernatremia. Rationale 2: This elderly pt has watery diarrhea, which contributes to the loss of sodium. The abdominal & muscle cramps are manifestations of a low serum sodium level. Rationale 3: This pt is more likely to develop clinical manifestations associated with fluid volume deficit. Rationale 4: Hyperkalemia is associated with cardiac dysrhythmias.
The nurse observes a pt's respirations & notes that the rate is 30 per minute & the respirations are very deep. The metabolic disorder this pt might be demonstrating is which of the following? 1. hypernatremia 2. increasing carbon dioxide in the blood 3. hypertension 4. pain
Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Hypernatremia is associated with profuse sweating & diarrhea. Rationale 2: Acute increases in either carbon dioxide or hydrogen ions in the blood stimulate the respiratory center in the brain. As a result, both the rate & depth of respiration increase. The increased rate & depth of lung ventilation eliminates carbon dioxide from the body, & carbonic acid levels fall, which brings the pH to a more normal range. Rationale 3: The respiratory rate in a pt exhibiting hypertension is not altered. Rationale 4: Pain may be manifested in rapid, shallow respirations.
19. The nurse in the outpatient clinic who notes that a patient has a decreased magnesium level should ask the patient about a. daily alcohol intake. b. intake of dietary protein. c. multivitamin/mineral use. d. use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives.
ANS: A Hypomagnesemia is associated with alcoholism. Protein intake would not have a significant effect on magnesium level. OTC laxatives (such as milk of magnesia) and use of multivitamin/mineral supplements would tend to increase magnesium level.
A 35-year-old female pt comes into the clinic postoperative parathyroidectomy. Which of the following should the nurse instruct this pt? 1. Drink one glass of red wine per day. 2. Avoid the sun. 3. Milk & milk-based products will ensure an adequate calcium intake. 4. Red meat is the protein source of choice.
Answer: 3 Rationale 1: This pt should avoid alcohol. Rationale 2: This pt can benefit from sun exposure. Rationale 3: This pt is at risk for developing hypocalcemia. This risk can be avoided if instructed to ingest milk & milk-based products. Rationale 4: Protein monitoring is not indicated.
13. A patient is receiving 3% NaCl solution for correction of hyponatremia. During administration of the solution, the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor is a. lung sounds. b. urinary output. c. peripheral pulses. d. peripheral edema.
ANS: A Hypertonic solutions cause water retention, so the patient should be monitored for symptoms of fluid excess. Crackles in the lungs may indicate the onset of pulmonary edema and are the most serious of the symptoms of fluid excess listed. Bounding peripheral pulses, peripheral edema, or changes in urine output also are important to monitor when administering hypertonic solutions, but they do not indicate acute respiratory or cardiac decompensation.
11. The nurse notes that a patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis has rapid, deep respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Give the prescribed PRN lorazepam (Ativan) c. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 2 to 4 L/min. d. Encourage the patient to take deep, slow breaths.
ANS: A The rapid, deep (Kussmaul) respirations indicate a metabolic acidosis and the need for actions such as administration of sodium bicarbonate, which will require a prescription by the health care provider. Oxygen therapy is not indicated because there is no indication that the increased respiratory rate is related to hypoxemia. The respiratory pattern is compensatory, and the patient will not be able to slow the respiratory rate. Ativan administration will slow the respiratory rate and increase the level of acidosis.
7. When caring for a patient admitted with hyponatremia, which actions will the nurse anticipate taking? a. Restrict patient's oral free water intake. b. Avoid use of electrolyte-containing drinks. c. Infuse a solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline. d. Administer vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, [ADH]).
ANS: A To help improve serum sodium levels, water intake is restricted. Electrolyte-containing beverages will improve the patient's sodium level. Administration of vasopressin or hypotonic IV solutions will decrease the serum sodium level further.
9. A postoperative patient who has been receiving nasogastric suction for 3 days has a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L (125 mmol/L). Which of these prescribed therapies that the patient has been receiving should the nurse question? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in water at 125 ml/hr. b. Administer IV morphine sulfate 4 mg every 2 hours PRN. c. Give IV metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg every 6 hours PRN for nausea. d. Administer 3% saline if serum sodium drops to less than 128 mEq/L.
ANS: A Because the patient's gastric suction has been depleting electrolytes, the IV solution should include electrolyte replacement. Solutions such as lactated Ringer's solution would usually be ordered for this patient. The other orders are appropriate for a postoperative patient with gastric suction.
16. A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Of the following medications that the patient has been taking at home, the nurse will be most concerned about a. oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. b. ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours. c. metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily. d. lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening.
ANS: A Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can cause serious dysrhythmias. The nurse also will need to do more assessment regarding the other medications, but there is not as much concern with the potassium level.
1. The nurse obtains all of the following assessment data about a patient with deficient fluid volume caused by a massive burn injury. Which of the following assessment data will be of greatest concern? a. The blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg. b. Urine output is 30 ml over the last hour. c. Oral fluid intake is 100 ml for the last 8 hours. d. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.
ANS: A The blood pressure indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock as a result of fluid loss. This will require immediate intervention to prevent the complications associated with systemic hypoperfusion. The poor oral intake, decreased urine output, and skin tenting all indicate the need for increasing the patient's fluid intake but not as urgently as the hypotension.
8. Intravenous potassium chloride (KCl) 60 mEq is prescribed for treatment of a patient with severe hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administer the KCl as a rapid IV bolus. b. Infuse the KCl at a rate of 20 mEq/hour. c. Give the KCl only through a central venous line. d. Add no more than 40 mEq/L to a liter of IV fluid.
ANS: B Intravenous KCl is administered at a maximal rate of 20 mEq/hr. Rapid IV infusion of KCl can cause cardiac arrest. Although the preferred concentration for KCl is no more than 40 mEq/L, concentrations up to 80 mEq/L may be used for some patients. KCl can cause inflammation of peripheral veins, but it can be administered by this route.
23. A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 ml/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding by the nurse is the priority to report to the health care provider? a. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) b. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) c. Oral temperature of 100.1° F with bibasilar lung crackles d. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) above the admission weight
ANS: B The patient's history and change in LOC could be indicative of several fluid and electrolyte disturbances: extracellular fluid (ECF) excess, ECF deficit, hyponatremia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia, or metabolic alkalosis. Further diagnostic information will be ordered by the health care provider to determine the cause of the change in LOC and the appropriate interventions. The weight gain, elevated temperature, crackles, and serum sodium level also will be reported, but do not indicate a need for rapid action to avoid complications.
27. Which of these actions can the nurse who is caring for a critically ill patient with multiple intravenous (IV) lines delegate to an experienced LPN? a. Administer IV antibiotics through the implantable port. b. Monitor the IV sites for redness, swelling, or tenderness. c. Remove the patient's nontunneled subclavian central venous catheter. d. Adjust the flow rate of the 0.9% normal saline in the peripheral IV line.
ANS: B An experienced LPN has the education, experience, and scope of practice to monitor IV sites for signs of infection. Administration of medications, adjustment of infusion rates, and removal of central catheters in critically ill patients require RN level education and scope of practice.
31. The following data are obtained by the nurse when assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider immediately? a. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased. b. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent. c. The patient has been sleeping most of the day. d. The patient reports feeling "sick to my stomach."
ANS: B The loss of the deep tendon reflexes indicates that the patient's magnesium level may be reaching toxic levels. Nausea and lethargy also are side effects associated with magnesium elevation and should be reported, but they are not as significant as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. The decreased breath sounds suggest that the patient needs to cough and deep breathe to prevent atelectasis.
4. When caring for an alert and oriented elderly patient with a history of dehydration, the home health nurse will teach the patient to increase fluid intake a. in the late evening hours. b. if the oral mucosa feels dry. c. when the patient feels thirsty. d. as soon as changes in level of consciousness (LOC) occur.
ANS: B An alert, elderly patient will be able to self-assess for signs of oral dryness such as thick oral secretions or dry-appearing mucosa. The thirst mechanism decreases with age and is not an accurate indicator of volume depletion. Many older patients prefer to restrict fluids slightly in the evening to improve sleep quality. The patient will not be likely to notice
3. When the nurse is evaluating the fluid balance for a patient admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds, the most accurate assessment to include is a. skin turgor b. daily weight. c. presence of edema. d. hourly urine output.
ANS: B. Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age. Considerable excess fluid volume may be present before fluid moves into the interstitial space and causes edema. Hourly urine outputs do not take account of fluid intake or of fluid loss through insensible loss, sweating, or loss from the gastrointestinal tract or wounds.
14. The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements on a patient who has low serum total protein level. Which of these data indicate that the patient's condition has improved? a. Hematocrit 28% b. Good skin turgor c. Absence of peripheral edema d. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg
ANS: C Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels; the absence of edema indicates an improvement in the patient's protein status. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.
22. A patient receiving isoosmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. K+ 3.4 mEq/L (3.4 mmol/L) b. Ca+2 7.8 mg/dl (1.95 mmol/L) c. Na+ 154 mEq/L (154 mmol/L) d. PO4-3 4.8 mg/dl (1.55 mmol/L)
ANS: C The elevated serum sodium level is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms and indicates a need for immediate action to prevent further serious complications such as seizures. The potassium and calcium levels vary slightly from the normal but do not require any immediate action by the nurse. The phosphate level is within the normal parameters.
25. A patient with renal failure who has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion is somnolent and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Withhold the next scheduled dose of Maalox. c. Review the magnesium level on the patient's chart. d. Check the chart for the most recent potassium level.
ANS: C The patient has a history and symptoms consistent with hypermagnesemia; the nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level. Notification of the health care provider will be done after the nurse knows the magnesium level. The Maalox should be held, but more immediate action is needed to correct the patient's decreased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and somnolence. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient's current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.
20. A patient who has an infusion of 50% dextrose prescribed asks the nurse why a peripherally inserted central catheter must be inserted. Which explanation by the nurse is correct? a. The prescribed infusion can be given much more rapidly when the patient has a central line. b. There is a decreased risk for infection when 50% dextrose is infused through a central line. c. The 50% dextrose is hypertonic and will be more rapidly diluted when given through a central line. d. The required blood glucose monitoring is more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line.
ANS: C Shrinkage of red blood cells can occur when solutions with dextrose concentrations greater than 10% are administered intravenously. Blood glucose testing is not more accurate when samples are obtained from a central line. The infection risk is higher with a central catheter than with peripheral IV lines. Hypertonic or concentrated IV solutions are not given rapidly.
6. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient as a diuretic. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective? a. "I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day." b. "I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake." c. "I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods." d. "I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast."
ANS: D Since spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, patients should be taught to choose low potassium foods such as apple juice rather than foods that have higher levels of potassium, such as citrus fruits. Because the patient is using spironolactone as a diuretic, the nurse would not encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. Teach patients to avoid salt substitutes, which are high in potassium.
26. A postoperative patient who is receiving nasogastric suction is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discontinue the nasogastric suctions for a few hours. b. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results. c. Teach the patient about the need to take slow, deep breaths. d. Give the patient the PRN morphine sulfate 4 mg intravenously.
ANS: D The patient's respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse's first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.
32. The nurse has administered 3% saline to a patient with hyponatremia. Which one of these assessment data will require the most rapid response by the nurse? a. The patient's radial pulse is 105 beats/minute. b. There is sediment and blood in the patient's urine. c. The blood pressure increases from 120/80 to 142/94. d. There are crackles audible throughout both lung fields.
ANS: D Crackles throughout both lungs suggest that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary edema, a life-threatening adverse effect of hypertonic solutions. The increased pulse rate and blood pressure and the appearance of the urine also should be reported, but they are not as dangerous as the presence of fluid in the alveoli.
17. A patient with hypercalcemia is being cared for on the medical unit. Nursing actions included on the care plan will include a. maintaining the patient on bed rest. b. auscultating lung sounds every 4 hours. c. monitoring for Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs. d. encouraging fluid intake up to 4000 ml every day.
ANS: D To decrease the risk for renal calculi, the patient should have an intake of 3000 to 4000 ml daily. Ambulation helps decrease the loss of calcium from bone and is encouraged in patients with hypercalcemia. Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs are monitored when there is a possibility of hypocalcemia. There is no indication that the patient needs frequent assessment of lung sounds, although these would be assessed every shift.
An elderly postoperative pt is demonstrating lethargy, confusion, & a resp rate of 8 per minute. The nurse sees that the last dose of pain medication administered via a pt controlled anesthesia (PCA) pump was within 30 minutes. Which of the following acid-base disorders might this pt be experiencing? 1. respiratory acidosis 2. metabolic acidosis 3. respiratory alkalosis 4. metabolic alkalosis
Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Acute respiratory acidosis occurs due to a sudden failure of ventilation. Overdoses of narcotic or sedative medications can lead to this condition. Rationale 2: The pt condition being described is respiratory not metabolic in nature. Rationale 3: Acute respiratory acidosis occurs due to a sudden failure of ventilation. Overdoses of narcotic or sedative medications can lead to this condition. Rationale 4: Acute respiratory acidosis occurs due to a sudden failure of ventilation. Overdoses of narcotic or sedative medications can lead to this condition. The pt condition being described is respiratory not metabolic in nature.
A pt is diagnosed with hyperphosphatemia. The nurse realizes that this pt might also have an imbalance of which of the following electrolytes? 1. calcium 2. sodium 3. potassium 4. chloride
Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Excessive serum phosphate levels cause few specific symptoms. The effects of high serum phosphate levels on nerves & muscles are more likely the result of hypocalcemia that develops secondary to an elevated serum phosphorus level. The phosphate in the serum combines with ionized calcium, & the ionized serum calcium level falls.
A pt who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) is admitted with possible hypokalemia. Which of the following does the nurse realize might occur with this pt? 1. Digoxin toxicity may occur. 2. A higher dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) may be needed. 3. A diuretic may be needed. 4. Fluid volume deficit may occur.
Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digitalis toxicity in pts who receive this drug for heart failure. Rationale 2: More digoxin is not needed. Rationale 3: A diuretic may cause further fluid loss. Rationale 4: There is inadequate information to assess for concerns related to fluid volume deficits.
The pt who has a serum magnesium level of 1.4 mg/dL is being treated with dietary modification. Which foods should the nurse suggest for this pt? Select all that apply. 1. bananas 2. seafood 3. white rice 4. lean red meat 5. chocolate
Answer: 1,2,5 Rationale: Serum magnesium level of 1.4 mg/dL suggests mild hypomagnesaemia, so this pt should be counseled to eat foods high in magnesium. Foods high in magnesium include green leafy vegetables, seafood, milk, bananas, citrus fruits, & chocolate. White rice & lean red meat are not included.
The nurse is reviewing a pt's blood pH level. Which of the systems in the body regulate blood pH? Select all that apply. 1. renal 2. cardiac 3. buffers 4. respiratory
Answer: 1,3 Rationale 1: Three systems work together in the body to maintain the pH despite continuous acid production: buffers, the respiratory system, & the renal system. Rationale 2: The cardiac system is responsible for circulating blood to the body. It does not help maintain the body's pH. Rationale 3: Three systems work together in the body to maintain the pH despite continuous acid production: buffers, the respiratory system, & the renal system. Rationale 4: Three systems work together in the body to maintain the pH despite continuous acid production: buffers, the respiratory system, & the renal system.
A pt is prescribed 40 mEq potassium as a replacement. The nurse realizes that this replacement should be administered 1. directly into the venous access line. 2. mixed in the prescribed intravenous fluid. 3. via a rectal suppository. 4. via intramuscular injection.
Answer: 2 Rationale 1: Never administer undiluted potassium directly into a vein. Rationale 2: The intravenous route is the recommended route for diluted potassium. Rationale 3: The nurse should administer diluted potassium into the pt's intravenous line. Rationale 4: The nurse should administer diluted potassium into the pt's intravenous line.
A pt with fluid retention related to renal problems is admitted to the hospital. The nurse realizes that this pt could possibly have which of the following electrolyte imbalances? 1. hypokalemia 2. hypernatremia 3. carbon dioxide 4. magnesium
Answer: 2 Rationale 1: The kidneys are the principal organs involved in the elimination of potassium. Renal failure is often associated with elevations potassium levels. Rationale 2: The kidney is the primary regulator of sodium in the body. Fluid retention is associated with hypernatremia. Rationale 3: Carbon dioxide abnormalities are not normally seen in this type of pt. Rationale 4: Magnesium abnormalities are not normally seen in this type of pt.
The blood gases of a pt with an acid-base disorder show a blood pH outside of normal limits. The nurse realizes that this pt is 1. fully compensated. 2. demonstrating anaerobic metabolism. 3. partially compensated. 4. in need of intravenous fluids
Answer: 3 Rationale 1: If the pH is restored to within normal limits, the disorder is said to be fully compensated. Rationale 2: Anaerobic metabolism results when the body's cells become hypoxic. Rationale 3: If the pH is restored to within normal limits, the disorder is said to be fully compensated. When these changes are reflected in arterial blood gas (ABG) values but the pH remains outside normal limits, the disorder is said to be partially compensated. Rationale 4: Although the pt may be in need of intravenous fluids, this is not the most correct or definitive answer.
A postoperative pt is diagnosed with fluid volume overload. Which of the following should the nurse assess in this pt? 1. poor skin turgor 2. decreased urine output 3. distended neck veins 4. concentrated hemoglobin & hematocrit levels
Answer: 3 Rationale 1: Poor skin turgor is associated with fluid volume deficit. Rationale 2: Decreased urine output is associated with fluid volume deficit. Rationale 3: Circulatory overload causes manifestations such as a full, bounding pulse; distended neck & peripheral veins; increased central venous pressure; cough; dyspnea; orthopnea; rales in the lungs; pulmonary edema; polyuria; ascites; peripheral edema, or if severe, anasarca, in which dilution of plasma by excess fluid causes a decreased hematocrit & blood urea nitrogen (BUN); & possible cerebral edema. Rationale 4: Increased hemoglobin & hematocrit values are associated with fluid volume deficit.
A pt is admitted with hypernatremia caused by being str&ed on a boat in the Atlantic Ocean for five days without a fresh water source. Which of the following is this pt at risk for developing? 1. pulmonary edema 2. atrial dysrhythmias 3. cerebral bleeding 4. stress fractures
Answer: 3 Rationale 1: Pulmonary edema is not associated with dehydration. Rationale 2: Atrial dysrhythmias are not a factor for this pt. Rationale 3: The brain experiences the most serious effects of cellular dehydration. As brain cells contract, the brain shrinks, which puts mechanical traction on cerebral vessels. These vessels may tear, bleed, & lead to cerebral vascular bleeding. Rationale 4: There have been no activities to support the development or occurrence of stress fractures.
A postoperative pt with a fluid volume deficit is prescribed progressive ambulation yet is weak from an inadequate fluid status. What can the nurse do to help this pt? 1. Assist the pt to maintain a standing position for several minutes. 2. This pt should be on bed rest. 3. Assist the pt to move into different positions in stages. 4. Contact physical therapy to provide a walker.
Answer: 3 Rationale 1: The pt should avoid prolonged standing. Rationale 2: Bed rest can promote skin breakdown. Rationale 3: The pt needs to be taught how to avoid orthostatic hypotension which would include assisting & teaching the pt how to move from one position to another in stages. Rationale 4: A physician referral is needed for physical therapy intervention & is not indicated in this situation.
A pt's blood gases show a pH greater of 7.53 & bicarbonate level of 36 mEq/L. The nurse realizes that the acid-base disorder this pt is demonstrating is which of the following? 1. respiratory acidosis 2. metabolic acidosis 3. respiratory alkalosis 4. metabolic alkalosis
Answer: 4 Rationale 1& 2: Respiratory acidosis & metabolic acidosis are both consistent with pH less than 7.35. Rationale 3: Respiratory alkalosis is associated with a pH greater than 7.45 & a PaCO2 of less than 35 mmHG. It is caused by respiratory related conditions. Rationale 4: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) show a pH greater than 7.45 & bicarbonate level greater than 26 mEq/L when the pt is in metabolic alkalosis.
A pt is admitted for treatment of hypercalcemia. The nurse realizes that this pt's intravenous fluids will most likely be which of the following? 1. dextrose 5% & water 2. dextrose 5% & ? normal saline 3. dextrose 5% & ? normal saline 4. normal saline
Answer: 4 Rationale 1: If isotonic saline is not used, the pt is at risk for hyponatremia in addition to the hypercalcemia. Rationale 2: This solution is hypotonic. Isotonic saline is used because sodium excretion is accompanied by calcium excretion through the kidneys. Rationale 3: This solution is hypotonic. Isotonic saline is used because sodium excretion is accompanied by calcium excretion through the kidneys. Rationale 4: Isotonic saline is used because sodium excretion is accompanied by calcium excretion through the kidneys.
The nurse is admitting a pt who was diagnosed with acute renal failure. Which of the following electrolytes will be most affected with this disorder? 1. calcium 2. magnesium 3. phosphorous 4. potassium
Answer: 4 Rationale 1: This pt will be less likely to develop a calcium imbalance. Rationale 2: This pt will be less likely to develop a magnesium imbalance. Rationale 3: This pt will be less likely to develop a phosphorous imbalance. Rationale 4: Because the kidneys are the principal organs involved in the elimination of potassium, renal failure
An elderly pt who is being medicated for pain had an episode of incontinence. The nurse realizes that this pt is at risk for developing 1. dehydration. 2. over-hydration. 3. fecal incontinence. 4. a stroke.
Correct Answer: 1 Rationale 1: Functional changes of aging also affect fluid balance. Older adults who have self-care deficits, or who are confused, depressed, tube-fed, on bed rest, or taking medications (such as sedatives, tranquilizers, diuretics, & laxatives), are at greatest risk for fluid volume imbalance. Rationale 2: There is inadequate evidence to support the risk of over-hydration. Rationale 3: There is inadequate evidence to support the risk of fecal incontinence. Rationale 4: There is inadequate evidence to support the risk of a stroke.
A nurse is caring for a client who tells the nurse, "Something is wrong. I feel like God is so far away from me and I don't know what to do." Which of the following is the client experiencing? a) medical futility b) spiritual distress c) palliative care d) caritas process
spiritual distress
