VTNE Prep Day 1

A double-contrast cystogram involves which of the following? Positive-contrast media injected directly into the bladder and air injected intravenously Positive-contrast media injected intravenously that will be excreted via the kidneys into the bladder and air injected directly into the bladder Soluble positive-contrast media and air injected directly into the bladder Soluble positive-contrast media only injected directly into the bladder Air only injected directly into the bladder

Double-contrast cystograms are typically performed by retrograde injection via catheter of a soluble positive-contrast agent and air.

In which species will you never perform a reticulocyte count? Feline Equine Canine Bovine

Horses do not release reticulocytes (immature erythrocytes) into circulation

Approximately what percentage of body weight should a horse consume in forage (i.e. hay) per day? 5% 8% 12% 2%

The average horse should consume approximately 2% of its body weight in forage. In a 1000 lb horse, this would equal 20 lbs of hay/day.

What is most commonly used to restrain a horse for basic procedures? Hobbles Squeeze chute Halter Twitch

The halter is a "head collar" or headgear that fits behind the ears and around the muzzle. A lead rope is attached to the halter. It is a basic piece of equipment that is almost always used when handling an adult horse.Twitches are also used when greater restraint is needed.

You are instructed to administer 12 liters of sterile isotonic IV fluids via a fluid pump over the next 24 hours. What is the appropriate fluid rate to administer this volume of IV fluids? 500 mL/hour 1 liter/hour 12 liters/hour 250 mL/hour

12 liters (12000 mLs) divided by 24 hours would equal 500 mLs/hour.

What is meant by a "left shift" when describing a complete blood count? Increased numbers of immature neutrophils in the blood Increased total number of white blood cells Decreased numbers of neutrophils in the blood Increased numbers of lymphoblasts in the blood Decreased numbers of reticulocytes in the blood

A left shift refers to an increase in the number of immature neutrophils, usually bands, in the blood. This occurs when the bone marrow is increasing neutrophil production in response to inflammatory signals.

What immunoglobulin is the only one to pass through the human placenta, thereby providing protection to the fetus in utero? IgE IgD IgM IgA IgG

Antibodies come in different varieties and differ in their biological properties, functional locations, and ability to deal with different antigens. IgG is the only class of antibody to cross the placenta from mother to fetus; it is also the most abundant of all antibodies.

Your dog's histopathology results have arrived and show an adenoma. What is true about an adenoma? Is frequently life-threatening Is always easy to excise and small in nature Does not cause morbidity Is not malignant

Benign tumors are not cancerous. There are many large benign tumors that are difficult to remove or are inoperable that can cause the patient serous morbidity. Just because a lesion is not cancerous does not mean that it will not be large or problematic for the pet.

Assessing which of the following on serum chemistry is most appropriate in the assessment of liver function? Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) Bilirubin Glucose Creatinine

Bilirubin is an indicator of liver function. However, bilirubin levels must be interpreted cautiously because factors unrelated to liver function can also cause elevated bilirubin; this is true for all of the choices listed.BUN and creatinine are primarily indicators of kidney function.

The surgeon asks for the Brown-Adsons. Which type of instrument is this? Small curved clamp Small retractor Tissue scissors Thumb forceps

Brown Adson forceps are thumb forceps which have fine teeth at the tip. They are used for grasping delicate tissue. Common tissue scissors include the metzenbaum scissors (longer, more narrow scissors with a blunt tip) and the iris scissors (tiny scissors with a sharp point). A small retractor would be a Senn-Rake (a long, skinny, hand held retractor resembling a rake), or a gelpi (self-retaining retractor). There are small and large versions of the gelpi. A small curved clamp would be a mosquito hemostat.

Which species regurgitates food for remastication? Pigs Horses Cats Lagomorphs Cattle

Cattle chew their "cud", which is food that they regurgitate for remastication. When a cow chews her cud, she regurgitates a food bolus into her mouth, which is then re-chewed and re-swallowed. While cattle are chewing their cud, they produce saliva which acts as a natural antacid that helps to buffer and protect the rumen. Cows sometimes spend up to 8 hours a day chewing their cud.

A Golden retriever ingests several tablespoons of antifreeze. This will cause the most damage to what organ system? Renal Gastrointestinal Cardiac Nervous Hepatic

Ethylene glycol (EG), the primary ingredient in antifreeze, causes damage to the renal system (kidneys). EG causes damage to the renal tubular epithelium, causing build up of oxalate crystals in the renal tubules and metabolic acidosis.

Of the following, which drug is considered an aminoglycoside? Doxycycline Enrofloxacin Gentamicin Cephalexin Itraconazole

Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside and these drugs, with the exception of amikacin, can be identified with the -micin or -mycin suffix in the chemical name. Enrofloxacin (Baytril) is a fluoroquinolone. Fluoroquinolones can be identified by their -floxacin suffix in the generic name. Cephalexin (Keflex) is a cephalosporin which can be identified by the pre-fix -ceph or -cef in most of the drugs of this group. Itraconazole (Sporonox) is an antifungal agent. Antifungal medications have the suffix -azole. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) is in the tetracycline family of drugs recognized by the -cycline suffix.

Which medication may help in a case of acute glaucoma? Ketamine Chloramphenicol Mannitol Atropine

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that will help to decrease intraocular pressure. Atropine raises intraocular pressure and would be contraindicated. Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic, and ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and dissociative anesthetic. Neither of these are indicated in glaucoma.

A feline patient presents for onychectomy. What does this entail? Nail trim Anal gland expression Neuter Bladder stone removal Surgical nail remov

Onychectomy, mostly known as declawing, is an operation to surgically remove an animal's nails by means of amputating the distal phalanx.

Chronic exposure to which hormone leads to a pyometra? Estrogen Luteinizing hormone Testosterone Progesterone

Pyometra is often related to increased progesterone levels and their effect on the lining of the uterus. Prolonged exposure to estrogen can cause bone marrow suppression.

What is the purpose of polishing the teeth after a dental cleaning? To smooth the microscopic defects on the tooth surface To strengthen the enamel To prevent cavity formation To remove any remaining calculus on the teeth

Scratches or pits on the tooth that can be created by the scaling procedure or from mastication increase the surface area on the tooth, allowing plaque/calculus to build up more quickly. Polishing helps to smooth out any defects. All surfaces of the tooth crown should be polished on slow rotational speed. The polisher should be kept in constant motion to prevent thermal damage to the tooth.

You find coccidia (Cystoisospora) on a fecal float for a puppy that presents with mucoid diarrhea with streaks of blood. What medication is used to treat coccidia? Fenbendazole Praziquantel Metronidazole Pyrantel Sulfadimethoxine

Sulfadimethoxine (Albon) is used to treat coccidia in dogs and cats.

Which of the following is another term for the type of parasite known as a tapeworm? Ascarid Protozoan Nematode Trematode Cestode

Tapeworms or cestodes are long, segmented, flat worms. Examples include the canine tapeworms, Taenia pisiformis and Dipylidium caninum. Trematodes are flukes, nematodes are roundworms, ascarids are a type of nematode (roundworm), and protozoans are single-celled organisms that may be parasitic.

Which essential amino acid is a requirement in the feline diet? Leucine Taurine Lysine Arginine

Taurine is an essential amino acid that is critical for normal heart muscle function, vision, and reproduction in cats.

Which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals? Famotidine Sucralfate Metronidazole Metoclopramide

The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ or CRTZ) is part of the medulla that communicates with the vomiting center to initiate vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an anti-emetic primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting in small animals. This medication blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Sucralfate is a gastric "band-aid" that helps to protect and heal irritated mucosa. Famotidine (Pepcid AC) is a gastric acid reducer. Metronidazole is an antibiotic often prescribed for diarrhea or colitis.

What is the causative agent of what is commonly known as "Ich" in fish? Ichthyophthirius magnum Ichthyophthirius multocida Ichthyophthirius multifiliis Ichthyophthirius multifilementum

The correct answer is Ichthyophthirius multifiliis, a protozoan ectoparasite. The other answers are simply tricky distractors.

Which of the following is a diagnostic stage of Dirofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworm, in dogs? Larval stage 1 (L1) Nymphal stage Larval stage 3 (L3) Microfilarial stage

The diagnostic stage is the stage of the parasite that is used to detect it with a diagnostic test. For heartworm, microfilaria can be identified on a concentrated blood sample.

The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT? Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Pectorals Muscles of the neck Epaxial muscles

The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.

When a calf is born, milk goes immediately to the omasum and bypasses the rumen and reticulum. Which anatomic structure makes this possible? Esophageal groove Reticular folds Gastric rugae Epiploic foramen

The esophageal groove is a structure at the distal esophagus that forms a tube to allow milk to go directly into the abomasum. The purpose of this is to prevent the milk from being fermented by microorganisms found in the rumen. This structure is also sometimes called the reticular groove.

Which of the following best describes the therapeutic index of a drug? The range of microbial species that a drug is effective against The amount of variability in the response of a population to a drug The ratio between the effective dose and the toxic dose The ratio between the maximum effective dose and the minimum effective dose The number of milligrams of a drug that is needed to be effective divided by 100

The therapeutic index is a measure of a drug's safety margin. It is defined as the ratio between the effective dose (ED50) and the lethal dose (LD50) to a population.

Where is the thyroid gland located? Above the right kidney Ventral neck Cranial to the bladder Near the hypothalamus in the brain

The thyroid gland is located in the ventral neck region

A castrated male goat is known as a: Buck Gelding Wether Barrow

Wether is the term for a neutered male goat. Buck is an intact male goat. Barrow is a castrated male pig. Gelding is a castrated male horse.

"Scabies" in dogs generally refers to skin disease caused by which type of organism? Protozoa Flea Fly larva Mite Bacterium Louse

Scabies refers to infestation with Sarcoptes scabiei var. canis, which is a skin mite that can cause severe pruritus and skin lesions. It is usually seen in dogs and rarely in cats. It may also cause less severe lesions in humans.

What is the name for the muscle group that includes the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius? Gluteals Quadriceps Hamstrings Triceps

"Quad" means four, and the Quadriceps femoris is a large group of muscles that cover most of the middle thigh. This muscle group extends the knee. The rectus femoris originates on the ilium and also flexes the hip. The other three muscles originate from the femur. All four parts attach to the patella through the quadriceps tendon. The hamstrings are the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles.

Colic with an associated painful mass at the root of the mesenery is seen with verminous arteritis, caused by damage to the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches by Strongylus vulgaris. The strongyle egg shown in the picture is an extra hint. A number of anthelmintics are effective including benzimidazoles, pyrantel and ivermectin.

A 4-year old male Thoroughbred horse presents for colic due to verminous arteritis caused by an equine parasite. An egg of this parasite is shown below. What is the parasite that causes verminous arteritis of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses? Strongylus vulgaris Taenia coli Strongyloides westeri Trichostrongylus axei

You are sterilizing this retractor for a wound repair surgery. Which retractor is this? (see image) Malleable Gelpi Balfour Weitlaner

A Weitlaner retractor is a self-retaining instrument. The blades open when the ratcheted handles are closed. The blades have four downward-pointing and curved prongs. It looks similar to a Gelpi, except the Gelpi does not have the prongs and just has a single point on each blade. Balfour is a self-retaining retractor commonly used for abdominal surgery. Malleable retractors are deformable hand-held retractors.

To assess liver function in a patient with a possible portosystemic liver shunt, which of the following tests is most likely to be helpful? Insulin:glucose ratio Bile acids test Water deprivation test Dexamethasone suppression test

A bile acids test is the only choice here that is a test of liver function. Bile acids are one of the most helpful tests in evaluating liver function, particularly in cases of portosystemic shunts. In this test, a fasted blood sample is drawn and a post-feeding blood sample is drawn to compare bile acid levels. Normally, bile acids increase after a meal due to release from the gall bladder, but they do not increase too much because they are reabsorbed by the liver through the portal circulation. In animals with liver dysfunction, including portosystemic shunts, bile acids are not reabsorbed and accumulate in the systemic circulation after a meal. Insulin-to-glucose ratio is a test that may be used to diagnose functional insulin-secreting tumors. Dexamethasone suppression tests are typically used to diagnose Cushing's disease. A water deprivation test may be used to diagnose diabetes insipidus.

You are entering an exam room to obtain a history and perform a physical exam on a 2 year old German Shepherd. Which of the following body language signals would indicate that the dog is nervous or anxious? Dog is standing with ears erect, tail straight down, and looking around the room. Standing at attention, making eye contact, hackles raised, and growling. Dog is standing but crouched down, ears pinned back, tail down, and the head lowered. Dog is standing with ears erect and forward, tail straight down, and looking forward. Dog is laying on his back, tail tucked to his abdomen, and ears flattened.

A dog that is crouched down, with the ears pinned back, head lowered, and the tail down is displaying nervous body language.A dog with erect ears, tail down, and looking around the room is calm.A dog holding his ears erect and forward with the tail down is alert.A dog laying on his back with his tail tucked and ears flat is submissive.A dog standing at attention with hackles raised and growling is showing aggression and may be protective of the owner.

This is a cattle warble called Hypoderma. The 2 species are H. bovis and H. lineatum. They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin or moxidectin) are effective.

A farmer brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. What is the name of the parasite in the image? Musca autumnalis Cuterebra Habronema Hypoderma bovis

A 7-year old female spayed domestic short hair previously diagnosed with diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic dull and unresponsive. In addition to obtaining a blood glucose, what other laboratory test would be important for determining the cat's diabetic status? Urine ketones Total protein Hematocrit BUN Blood lactate

A patient with ketones in the urine is likely to be in a diabetic ketoacidotic state. An elevated BUN would be an indication of renal disease. A low hematocrit level would cause a patient to be dull, but this value does not relate directly to diabetes. Blood lactate levels directly correspond to shock. A total protein level would help in determining the patient's hydration and protein status.

What is a pneumocystogram? A radiograph of the bladder taken after direct injection of positive contrast Fluoroscopy of the kidney and bladder taken after intravenous injection of positive contrast that is excreted via the kidneys A radiograph of the bladder taken after having had air injected into it A radiograph of the bladder taken after intravenous injection of positive contrast that is excreted via the kidneys

A pneumocystogram is a radiograph of the bladder taken after insertion of a urinary catheter, draining of the urine, and injection of air (negative contrast) into the bladder via the catheter. This procedure allows the bladder wall to be visible and makes certain types of bladder stones more easily viewable. A radiograph of the bladder taken after direct injection of positive contrast is called a cystogram or a positive-contrast cystogram. A radiograph of the bladder taken after intravenous injection of positive contrast that is excreted via the kidneys is called an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) or excretory urogram.

All of the following pieces of information legally must be present on a radiographic film EXCEPT for which of the following? Name of patient and owner Patient breed Name of practice Date of radiograph

A radiograph is part of the legal medical record. As such, it is necessary to identify the patient it was taken from, the date of the exam, and the name of the practice. It is frequently helpful to use a marker to orient the radiograph or to identify which extremity is being examined. For film radiographs, frequently patient information is imprinted by the use of special graphite-impregnated tape where the information can be written and placed on the radiograph cassette or by a light flasher system that exposes printed patient information to the film. For digital radiographs, the patient information must be entered into the computer so that it is saved along with the digital radiograph. Additional patient information such as breed can be helpful but is not required.

A toggle-pin fixation for a luxated hip is going to be performed this afternoon. How will the patient be ultimately positioned for surgery after it is has surgically prepped? Dorsal recumbency Lateral recumbency Hanging leg technique Ventral recumbency

A toggle-pin fixation is performed to reduce a luxated hip. This is the most common surgical procedure performed for repair of a luxated hip. The approach is made with a curvilinear incision over the lateral aspect of the coxofemoral joint; it is therefore best to have the patient in lateral recumbency. A hanging leg technique would be performed to aseptically prep the limb prior to surgery, but the limb would not remain in that position for the duration of the surgery and is therefore not the best answer choice.

A dog with bradycardia and a low albumin on a high rate of IV fluids is at risk for developing which of the following? Seizures Thromboembolism Syncope Pulmonary edema

Albumin provides oncotic pressure which helps maintain fluid in the vasculature. If the oncotic pressure is decreased from low albumin and movement of blood through the body is slow due to a low heart rate (bradycardia), fluid can build up in the lungs (pulmonary edema)

Which drug inhibits platelet aggregation? Enalapril Metronidazole Aspirin Amoxicillin

Aspirin has antithrombotic effects (it is a COX-1 inhibitor); it blocks the platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase (aspirin is a Cox-1 inhibitor) resulting in inhibition of platelet aggregation. Next Question

You need to perform a CBC and take thoracic radiographs on a somewhat fractious cat. You sedate the cat with an intramuscular injection of medetomidine. While on the X-ray table, you become concerned that the cat is not doing well, and the veterinarian asks you to reverse the effects of medetomidine. What should you give the cat? Atropine Yohimbine Atipamezole Naloxone Flumazenil

Atipamezole (trade name: Antisedan), an alpha-2 antagonist, is the reversal agent for medetomidine (trade name: Dormitor). Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist. Xylazine would be another example of an alpha-2 agonist. Yohimbine is its reversal agent. Other alpha-2 agonists are clonidine, detomidine, dexmeditomidine and romifidine. Flumazenil is a reversal agent for benzodiazepines. Naloxone is used to reverse opioids. Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist of acetylcholine and may be dangerous to use after administration of alpha-2 agonists. This is because alpha-2 agonists cause marked vasoconstriction and high afterload on the heart. Giving atropine and increasing the heart rate can place further stress on the heart. You do not want to set in motion peripheral vasoconstriction and compensatory bradycardia brought on by the alpha-2, thereby increasing the heart rate against the high afterload.

What is the disease Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy also known as? Mad Cow Disease Black Leg Disease Polioencephalomalacia Hardware disease

BSE is most commonly known as Mad Cow Disease and is a neurodegenerative prion disease in cattle. It causes a spongy degeneration in the brain and spinal cord and is fatal. Polioencephalomalacia is a central nervous system condition that is ultimately a result of thiamine deficiency. One cause may be by an enzyme that destroys thiamine. Black Leg in cattle is caused by Clostridium chauvoei and is an acute febrile disease causing emphysematous swelling in the heavy muscles. Hardware disease is a common term for bovine traumatic reticulopericarditis. It is caused when the cow swallows a sharp, heavy metallic object that falls to the floor of the rumen and is pushed forward into the reticulum, where it can penetrate into the pericardium.

The veterinarian asks you to please administer an FVRCP vaccination to a cat that is boarding. Where should you administer the vaccination? Subcutaneous at the intrascapular region Subcutaneous on the lateral aspect of a forelimb as distal as possible Into the epaxial muscles on either side Subcutaneous at the nape of the neck

Because of the risk associated with feline vaccine-associated sarcomas, it is recommended to give feline vaccines on the lateral aspect of a limb as distal as possible. The intrascapular region and nape of the neck area should be avoided.

A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following? Hemoabdomen Pericardial effusion Pyothorax Chylothorax

Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and others. If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to determine the effusion is chylous. The necropsy on this animal reveals a chylous effusion. Note the milky appearance of the fluid.

Chyme is a part of which bodily function? Digestion Coagulation Motor movement Protection of the ear canal

Chyme is the term for partially digested food of the stomach that passes into the intestine.

A dog presents with Gastric Dilatation and Volvulus (GDV), and you have tried multiple times to pass an orogastric tube to no avail. If this is not working what else can be done? Trocharize the stomach on the right side Trocharize the stomach ventrally Flip the patient over Prep the dog for surgery and not decompress the stomach

Decompression should be performed; the best place for the trocharization is on the right side. Trocharization involves passing a large sterile needle or catheter through the abdominal wall into the stomach to relieve the gas within the stomach. This is necessary in order to make the patient more stable prior to surgery.

An owner calls your vet clinic in a panic because her epileptic dog is currently having a seizure. She says that the vet at your hospital had given her a drug to give rectally to help. She starts to list off the medications in her medicine cabinet. Which of these is the appropriate drug for this instance? Naloxone Clomipramine Ketamine Potassium bromide Diazepam

Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that can stop a seizure. It is most commonly given intravenously in the clinic but it can be given rectally by an owner at home and is sometimes dispensed for this purpose. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic and an NMDA antagonist that is used in anesthetic drug combinations, but it can be seizurogenic and should not be used in dogs prone to seizures. Potassium bromide is used as an anti-seizure drug; it is usually given orally for seizure prevention but an IV loading dose can be given. It is not effective per rectum and must be given over too long of a period of time to be effective at stopping an ongoing seizure. Clomipramine (Clomicalm) is an antidepressant sometimes used as part of the treatment of behavioral disorders in dogs. Naloxone is an opioid reversal agent.

How many lumbar vertebrae do dogs and cats have? 18 7 13 5

Dogs and cats have 7 lumbar vertebrae. Horses and cows have 6 lumbar vertebrae. Humans only have 5 lumbar vertebrae. Pigs and sheep can vary in the number of vertebrae they have (6-7).

Upon gram staining, gram-positive bacteria will appear what color when visualized under the microscope? Purple Blue Orange Pink

Gram-positive bacteria stain purple because of the chemical and physical properties of the cell wall. Gram-negative bacteria would appear pink.

Traumatic reticuloperitonitis or pericarditis in cattle is most commonly known as which of the following conditions? White muscle disease Metal heart disease Reticulitis Hardware disease

Hardware disease is caused by ingestion of wire, nails, etc; these foreign bodies migrate into the reticulum and may pierce through and cause damage to internal organs (including the heart and diaphragm). It is most easily prevented via a magnet being placed into the reticulum to prevent these ingested metallic foreign bodies from migrating.

A Yorkshire Terrier who has given birth 2 weeks ago presents with a history of tremoring. She is febrile and not eating well. On her electrolyte panel which of the following would you expect to see? Hypomagnesemia Hyponatremia Hypokalemia Hypocalcemia

Eclampsia, also known as "milk fever" is caused by a low calcium level. It most often occurs around 3 weeks after whelping due to losing calcium in the milk and the inability of the body to keep up with demand. It is most common in small-breed dogs with larger litters. It is treated with calcium gluconate IV in an acute crisis and oral supplementation is then required. Milk fever is also seen more commonly in dairy cows that are close to calving. It typically causes a LOW temperature and often causes staggering and recumbency. It can also cause tremors and dilated pupils. It is also treated with injectable calcium. When cows are dry (not lactating), they should be kept on a LOW calcium diet so that calcium can be mobilized more rapidly from the bone when it is needed during calving and lactation.

A tablet may have enteric coating to serve what purpose? It increases transit time so the drug can make it to the colon more quickly for absorption It slows transit time so that the drug will be absorbed mostly through the stomach wall It prevents gastric ulceration To protect the medication from being destroyed by the acids of the stomach

Enteric coatings are used to protect the medication from the acidic stomach environment so that more of the active drug can make it and be absorbed in the small intestine. The enteric coating does not increase or decrease transit time. Drugs are mostly absorbed in the small intestine, not the colon.

A vet at your clinic is preparing to perform a punch biopsy of a dermal mass in a cat under local anesthesia. He asks you to add epinephrine to his lidocaine before administering the local anesthetic. What is the rationale for adding epinephrine? Epinephrine allows the lidocaine to be more rapidly cleared Epinephrine acts as a pharmacologic antagonist to the systemic effects of lidocaine, to which cats can be particularly sensitive Epinephrine prolongs the duration of lidocaine's effects Correct Answer Epinephrine, when given by this route, has a sedative effect on cats Epinephrine neutralizes the acidic pH of lidocaine, decreasing the pain on injection

Epinephrine is used with lidocaine to cause local vasoconstriction, preventing rapid systemic absorption. This is typically done to prolong the duration of local anesthetic effects of lidocaine by maintaining it at the site. It can decrease systemic uptake and toxicity, but it is not a lidocaine antagonist.Epinephrine does not neutralize the pH of lidocaine; sodium bicarbonate is sometimes added for this purpose.

A client's dog has been diagnosed with a splenic mass that requires surgical removal. The dog has also been previously diagnosed with liver disease. The owner has pet insurance and is submitting a claim for the laparotomy. She is afraid the insurance company will deny the claim because of the liver disease and asks you to omit that from the medical record until the claim is approved.Of the following, which would be the most appropriate action to take? Explain to the owner that the medical record can not be altered but you can omit the liver disease from the claim form. By law you must report attempted fraud to the insurance company. Let the owner fill out the claim form by herself and you will be absolved of any responsibility of committing insurance fraud. Explain to the owner that by law you can not change the medical record

Explaining to the owner that you can not change the medical record by law is the appropriate response.

For which very contagious and rapidly fatal disease are ferrets vaccinated against? Canine bordetella Canine adenovirus Canine distemper Feline panleukopenia Feline rhinotracheitis Canine parvovirus

Ferrets are very susceptible to the canine distemper virus. It is very contagious between ferrets and thus has a very high morbidity and mortality rate.

If a region of the film does not come into contact with developer but does run through fixer and the rest of the processing steps, what will this region look like? It will be purple It will be yellow It will be green It will be black It will be clear

Films go into the developer first, reducing exposed silver halide into elemental metallic silver, which is black. If a region of the film does not touch the developer, there will be no black on the film even if it was exposed. The remaining crystals would be converted into a soluble form in the fixer solution, dissolving away and leaving a clear image.

A patient's fluid rate is currently set at 150 ml/hr. The doctor asks you to decrease the fluid rate by 25%. What is the new rate? 37.5 ml 90 ml 112.5 ml 87.5 ml

First, we need to determine how much 25% of 150ml is. 150 ml x 0.25 = 37.5 ml Now, subtract the answer above from the original fluid rate to determine the new rate. 150 ml - 37.5 ml = 112.5 ml

What is the name of the dye commonly applied to the eye to identify a corneal ulcer? Lugol dye Schirmer dye Rose bengel dye Fluorescein dye

Fluorescein dye is the most commonly used dye to identify corneal ulcers; the dye adheres to exposed corneal stroma and stains it bright green. Rose bengel dye is occasionally used but much less frequently than fluorescein.

What term describes an enlarged thyroid gland? Goiter Thyroiditis Thyroidosis Hypothyroidism

Goiter is the abnormal gross enlargement of the thyroid gland.Thyroiditis is inflammation of the thyroid tissue.Thyroidosis is not a medical term.Hypothyroidism is inadequate production of thyroid hormone.

A Gram stain causes Gram-negative bacteria to turn which color? Green Purple Blue Orange Pink

Gram staining is the method of differentiating Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on cell wall properties. Gram staining stains Gram-positive bacteria blue/purple and Gram-negative bacteria pink/red.

What is of the biggest concern when shipping pigs? Dehydration Gastric dilatation Overheating Stress-induced diarrhea

Heat prostration is of greatest concern when moving and shipping porcine. The same is true when performing medical procedures on them. It is always best to handle swine in the early morning when the temperature is cooler. This is due to their large amount of body fat and lack of sweat glands. The same is true for sheep; they easily over-heat due to their thick coat.

Which species is unable to vomit? Pigs Cows Birds Horses

Horses are unable to empty their stomach by vomiting. Passing a nasogastric tube is important in cases of colic to prevent the stomach from filling or rupturing.Placing a nasogastric tube: The tube is placed in the ventral meatus of the nasal passage and gently advanced through the nasopharynx. The neck should be flexed to help the horse swallow the tube and prevent advancement of the tube into the trachea. Sucking back on the tube and getting negative pressure helps to confirm that the tube is in the esophagus.

Hyperthyroidism in cats can be associated with which condition? Patent ductus arteriosus Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) Bradycardia

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a thickening of the heart muscle (myocardium) and is often associated with hyperthyroidism or hypertension.

Which electrolyte abnormality is known to cause ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness? Hyponatremia Hypokalemia Hypercalcemia Hypermagnesemia

Hypokalemia (low potassium) can result from various metabolic and endocrine disorders. It causes muscle weakness and can cause cervical ventroflexion. Hypokalemic myopathy has been linked with chronic kidney disease and excessive potassium loss (especially in cats). Hypokalemia can also result from osmotic diuresis, correction of acidosis, or insulin-mediated cell uptake that is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis therapy. Some medications can also contribute to hypokalemia, such as furosemide, which causes excess potassium loss in the urine. Other causes include inadequate potassium intake in the diet, gastrointestinal loss, and hereditary causes; also it is often seen in cases of hepatic lipidosis.

An owner presents her diabetic cat and new glucometer with lancets. Where is the best place for her to collect a sample? Medial hindlimb Dorsal frontlimb Pinna Pad

Lancets are best to use on superficial smaller veins such as veins on the ear. Pads are very thick and therefore difficult to use for sample collection.

Smooth muscle is found in what regions? Within the muscles of the eye Extremities Within the muscles of mastication Hollow organs

Smooth muscle is under involuntary control and is found lining the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. The extremities are surrounded by skeletal muscle which is voluntarily controlled. Muscles of the eye and mastication are also made up of skeletal muscle.

You are working with an aggressive chihuahua, and the standard muzzles available in the practice will not fit this dog. Which alternative could you try? Cover the dog's head with a towel Use your hand to firmly close the dog's mouth during examination Gauze muzzle No muzzle, just grasp firmly around the neck region so the dog cannot turn its head to bite

If it is difficult to place a regular muzzle on a dog or if the correct size is not available, a gauze muzzle can be used by tying the gauze around the muzzle and behind the ears. You should never grasp around the neck as described. Some breeds, such as brachycephalics, may have underlying airway disease and this would put them at risk for becoming cyanotic from excessive restraint. The same applies for the towel.It is too dangerous to try and attempt to hold an aggressive dog's muzzle with your hand given the risk of being bitten.

Colostrum provides passive immunity to the neonate because it is rich in which of the following? Folate Electrolytes Immunoglobulins Antigens

Immunoglobulins are antibodies that are essential to the neonate to protect against infections

A 5-year-old domestic short hair cat presents with some lesions on his chin. The doctor diagnoses feline acne and prescribes some antibiotics and ointment. Which of the following is a good suggestion a technician could make to the owner? Apply hydrocortisone cream to the chin twice a day Allow the cat to go outside as the air will help the chin to dry out Avoid plastic food and water dishes Gently pop the pimples on the chin twice a day

In some cats, a hypersensitivity to plastic can cause feline acne. This is a good suggestion to make to the owner of any cat with this condition. You cannot make recommendations for medications other than what the doctor prescribed during the visit. Popping the pimples can further irritate the skin and should not be performed by the owner. Taking the cat outside will not likely help this condition.

A 2-year old cat presents 15 minutes after being attacked by a dog. The cat is in cardiac arrest. The owner wants CPR to be undertaken, and the veterinarian is not currently on the premises. What course of action should be taken? The cat should be transferred to the closest emergency facility. The cat should be immediately intubated and CPR should commence. The cat should receive no medical care without the supervision of a veterinarian. The owner should be told the cat is beyond saving. The cat may be intubated but chest compressions should not occur.

In the event of a life-threatening emergency, a licensed veterinary technician is allowed to intervene with life saving care. However, a veterinarian should be immediately notified of the situation. If the cat is in full cardiac arrest, transferring the cat to even the closest emergency facility would take too long to result in effective aid. If the owner requests that life-saving measures be taken, they should be initiated at that time.

Which of the following statements is most correct about indicator tape? Indicator tape is only used if a sterilization strip is not used Indicator tape should never be used on linens Indicator tape should be placed on the inside of a wrap Indicator tape should be placed on the outside of a wrap

Indicator tape should always be placed on the outside of a wrap. It is also prudent to label the pack along the indicator with the type of pack, date, and initials of the technician who prepared the pack. Indicator tape is not used inside of a pack, as sterilization strips are preferred. The majority of time indicator tape is used to secure packs wrapped in linens.

Valium is often given with ketamine to provide which effect? Increased heart rate Increased muscle tone Increased cardiac contractility Muscle relaxation

Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity. Valium (diazepam) is often given with ketamine to provide muscle relaxation.

Which is true regarding umbilical hernias? They should not be repaired at the same time as a spay or neuter procedure The best treatment for all umbilical hernias is benign neglect They usually consist of a small piece of fat protruding through the body wall and are not life-threatening They usually progress until a loop of bowel is strangulated through the defect and should be repaired as an emergency procedure

MOST umbilical hernias are stable and consist of a small piece of fat protruding through a body wall defect. Many small dogs with stable hernias do not require repair since they are not life-threatening. Larger dogs with hernias require repair more often since the weight of their abdominal contents on the defect can enlarge it and increase the risk that abdominal contents (such as intestine) could protrude through. The best time to repair these is when they are already under anesthesia for their spay or neuter. The course of action for repair or monitoring depends upon the risk factors (size of hernia, size of dog, etc.).

What is the biggest complication in patients with megaesophagus? Aspiration pneumonia Anemia Glaucoma Spinal cord compression

Megaesophagus patients are at a high risk of aspirating due their high incidence of regurgitation.

In neonatal calves and foals, what is the most common reason that these animals succumb to disease and death? Failure of passive transfer Infection acquired by the mother from the placenta Iron deficiency Gastrointestinal parasitism

Newborns require essential maternal antibody absorption from the colostrum to help protect against infectious diseases. If they do not get these precious immunoglobulins, they can suffer from increased morbidity and mortality from infections. There are now field test kits that can detect blood levels of IgG in calves and foals to help determine if failure of passive transfer has occurred.

Approximately how much urine should a 40-pound dog produce in a 24-hour period if the dog is drinking and urinating normal amounts and is not dehydrated? About 1.5 Liters of urine Between 450 and 850 mL of urine Between 150 to 300 mL of urine About 2.2 Liters of urine

Normal urine output for a dog is 1-2 mL per kg per hour. This dog is 40 pounds, about 18 kg (40 pounds/2.2 = 18.1 kg) 18 kg X 1 = 18 mL/hr X 24 hours = 432 mL 18 kg X 2 = 36 mL/hr X 24 hours = 864 mL Normal urine output for this dog is between 432 mL and 864 mL in a 24-hour period. 1.5 Liters is equal to 1500 mL (there are 1,000 mL per Liter) 2.2 Liters is equal to 2200 mL

Where on a primate's body are they tested for tuberculosis? Arm Leg Foot Eyelid

Primates are tested for tuburculosis with an intradermal skin test on the eyelid. This allows the reading to be done without having to restrain the animal. It is much safer for personnel and less stress for patient

In a pregnant mare, "red bag" delivery implies what situation? Rupture of the amniotic sac Rupture of the chorioallantois Delivery of a premature foal Premature placental separation

Red bag is the layman's term for premature separation of the chorioallantois from the placenta and is a medical emergency. The chorioallantois interfaces with the mare's endometrium and is the interface that transfers oxygen to the fetus. Under normal circumstances, the fetus breaks through the chorioallantois at the cervical star, and the fetus and amniotic sac are delivered first. In a red bag delivery, the entire fetal-placental unit is being delivered all at once and thus can cut off the oxygen supply to the fetus prior to birth; this can result in death of the fetus if parturition is not facilitated immediately.

Which of the following conditions causes muscle rigidity and a "saw horse"-like stance? Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP) Tetanus Myasthenia gravis Cushing's disease

Tetanus, also known as "lock-jaw", causes muscle rigidity. Animals with tetanus are light-sensitive and have a "saw horse" stance. Tetanus is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani and can be present in the soil, gaining access to the body through an open or penetrating wound. Horses should be vaccinated against tetanus.

What is a Knott's test is useful for detecting? Aelurostrongylus Ancylostoma Microfiliariae Leptospira

The Knott's test is a test for microfilariae and is useful for diagnosis of heartworm infection in dogs.

Which small animal disease has been implicated as a specific danger to pregnant women? Camylobacter Coccidiosis Clostridium Toxoplasmosis

The Toxoplasmosis tachyzoites can migrate transplacentally and harm the fetus. Transmission can occur by eating undercooked meat or by inadvertently ingesting oocytes from cat feces. Therefore, it is advised that pregnant women not clean litter boxes, or if they must, wear personal protective equipment while doing so.

Gas exchange occurs between air and blood by diffusion through which structure? Bronchi Pleura Alveoli Trachea

The alveoli are the site of gas exchange. They are tiny air sacs in the lungs that exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen and are located at the last branching of the respiratory tract. They are lined with simple squamous epithelium. The oxygen diffuses through the epithelium and the capillary endothelium in the exchange. The upper airway is lined mostly with pseudostratified columnar epithelium.

A 60 lb Bulldog is to receive intravenous fluids at a maintenance rate. Assuming the maintenance rate can be calculated as 60 ml/kg/day, what would the fluid rate be per hour? Round answer to the closest milliliter/hour. 150 108 30 68 163

The answer is 68. 60 lb/2.2 kg/lb = 27.27 kgs in weight. 27.27 x 60 ml/kg = 1636 ml/day. 1636 ml/day / 24hrs/day = 68 ml/hour

Anal pruritus in the horse can be associated with an infestation of this parasite. Note the alopecia around the anal region and around the tail caused by rubbing. Parascaris equorum Oxyuris equi Habronema muscae Anoplocephala

The correct answer is Oxyuris equi. This is the equine pin worm, which will infest the perineal region and result in perineal irritation after eggs are laid. A frequent diagnostic test performed when visualizing damaged perineal regions is a scotch tape preparation.

Emesis should not be induced in dogs that have ingested which toxin? Brodifacoum Gasoline Chocolate Bromethalin

The correct answer is gasoline. Emesis, if you can initiate it soon after exposure to a toxin, is a very effective means of decontamination. The times that emesis is not appropriate is for caustic (acid or alkali) substances and substances that are volatile and may be inhaled, causing pulmonary toxicity or aspiration pneumonia. The other contraindication to inducing emesis is when the patient is not awake enough to protect their airway and prevent aspiration.

Which is a "ball and socket" type of joint? Elbow Stifle Hip Atlantoaxial

The hip joint (acetabulofemoral joint) is the ball of the head of the femur sitting in the socket (acetabulum) of the pelvis. The atlantoaxial joint is a pivot joint connecting the first and second cervical vertebrae. The stifle and elbow are hinge joints.

The "hock joint" of a horse is more appropriately identified as what structure? Distal interphalangeal joint Metatarsophalangeal joint Tarsometatarsal joint Tarsocrural joint

The hock joint, more specifically called the tarsocrurual joint in the horse, is a high-motion joint composed of numerous bones. the tarsotibial joint

Which of the following is an abnormal finding in an intact male dog's urine sediment sample performed from a free catch? Sperm Fat droplets Bacteria 10-15 WBC per high-powered field

The only abnormal finding in this sample is the excessive number of white blood cells present. Bacteria are not unexpected, as the sample obtained is a free catch, which is not a sterile collection method. Sperm can be seen in intact males. Fat droplets are not an abnormal finding in urine sediment

Which bone is not associated with the forelimb? Radius Tibia Ulna Humerus Metacarpal

The tibia is a bone of the hindlimb also known as the "shinbone". The tibia is located distal to the femur and proximal to the tarsus.

The Brown-Adson tissue forceps are thumb forceps used for grasping tissue without causing excessive trauma. Note the multiple tiny teeth on each tip. Debakey thumb forceps are even less traumatic in that they don't have tiny teeth at the tip. Allis tissue forceps as well as Kelly forceps are different primarily in that they have a "scissor-type" handle. These can be very traumatic to delicate structures.

This instrument is commonly used in surgery for grasping tissues. What is the name of this instrument? Kelly forceps Allis tissue forceps Brown-Adson forceps Debakey forceps

You are new on the ICU floor and are taking time to look through the crash cart so you will be prepared when emergency arises. You find a 60 cc syringe attached to a 3-way stopcock and extension set with a 22-gauge needle attached. What might this setup be used for? Thoracocentesis Jugular catheter placement Tracheal drug administration Decreasing intracranial pressure

This is commonly used for removing fluid from the pleural space (pleural effusion).

A dog with which condition should not have blood drawn from the jugular vein? Hyperadrenocorticism Hypertension Congestive heart failure Renal failure Thrombocytopenia

Thrombocytopenia is the term for decreased platelets. Dogs that have low platelets have problems clotting and could potentially have a serious bleed from the site of venipuncture

A 4-kg puppy is in need of subcutaneous fluids due to dehydration. The doctor prescribed a dose of 20 ml/kg. How many milliliters should this patient receive? 200 ml 5 ml 80 ml 24 ml

To obtain the answer the following math should have been performed: 4 kg x (20 ml/kg) = 80 ml Notice the kilograms were canceled out.

A proptosed globe is an eye that has actually popped out of the orbit. Buphthalmos describes an enlarged and bulging globe which is usually caused by increased intraocular pressure (such as with glaucoma). Miosis is the term for constricted pupils and mydriasis is the term for dilated pupils.

What is the proper term for when the globe (eye) comes out of the orbit due to trauma? Proptosis Mydriasis Miosis Buphthalmos

You are taking thoracic radiographs to evaluate for lung metastasis in a dog with splenic hemangiosarcoma. What radiographic views should be taken? A right lateral and a ventrodorsal projection Dorsoventral, ventrodorsal, and either a right lateral or left lateral projection Right lateral, left lateral, and either a dorsoventral or ventrodorsal projection Either a dorsoventral or a ventrodorsal projection AND either a right lateral or left lateral A left lateral and a dorsoventral projection

When a patient is placed into left lateral recumbency for a left lateral radiograph, the left lung fields are compressed and do not inflate fully. This can prevent resolution of small metastatic lung lesions due to the lack of contrast with air in the left lung. The same is true of the right lung fields with a right lateral radiograph. Therefore, for evaluation of pulmonary metastasis, both a left and right lateral radiograph should be taken.Either a ventrodorsal (VD) or dorsoventral (DV) view is acceptable for visualizing the lung fields in this case.

Which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhythmia? Isoflurane Sevoflurane Oxygen Halothane

While any of the inhaled anesthetics may cause cardiac arrhythmias, they would be more likely to occur with the use of Halothane gas. Because of this, most veterinary practices have moved toward the use of Isoflurane or Sevoflurane for anesthetic maintenance during procedures.

This view may also be referred to as a DMPLO or simply a medial oblique. With this technique, the beam comes from 45 degrees between dorsal and medial sides of the limb and the film is placed 45 degrees between the lateral aspect and the palmar (or plantar) aspect. By convention and so that the viewer of the radiograph can determine the view easily, the marker is placed at the D position. For the DLPMO view, the marker would be placed at the B position. Next Question

You are asked to take a dorsomedial-palmarolateral oblique radiograph of a horse's fetlock with a portable x-ray unit. A cross-section of the limb is diagrammed and labeled below with the red lines representing two possible x-ray cassette placement locations. Pick the letter that corresponds to the correct cassette placement and the correct placement of the marker on the cassette. A D C B

Which of the following medications would be beneficial to a patient who is being treated for an NSAID overdose? Cortisone Lactulose Misoprostol Potassium

answer: Misoprostol is a protective prostaglandin used to treat overdoses of NSAIDs, and helps to provide protection to the gastric mucosa.Overdoses of NSAIDS would cause a high incidence of gastric damage or ulceration. Other concerns would be liver or kidney damage. Potassium would not provide any protection against these effects. Cortisone (or any type of steroid) would be contraindicated in a toxicity such as this as it may exacerbate the signs. Lactulose is a stool softener and would not be beneficial to the GI tract.

Which bone articulates with the patella? Fibula Femur Humerus Tibia

answer: The distal femur articulates with the patella at the level of the trochlear groove. The patella attaches to the tibial tuberosity but does not articulate with this bone. The fibula is the bone directly adjacent to the tibia. The humerus is a bone of the forelimb.