Week 2
Which is safe to put in the ears if the tympanum may be ruptured? A.) 0.9% NaCl B.) Chlorhexidine C.) Gentamicin D.) Neomycin
0.9% NaCl Explanation: Saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is considered safe. The others listed (especially aminoglycoside antibiotics) could potentially be ototoxic if the eardrum is not intact.
The veterinarian would like you to give famotidine to a 23 kg Doberman Pinscher that has been hospitalized for vomiting. The dosage is 0.5 mg/kg. Using the image, how many milliliters you will be administering? A.) 11.5 ml B.) 1.4 ml C.) 1.2 ml D.) 0.12 ml
1.2 ml Explanation: 23 kg multiplied by 0.5 mg/kg= 11.5 mg divided by 10 mg/ml= 1.2 ml
While caring for a week old orphan puppy, it is important to monitor body temperature. Rectal temperature should be between: A.) 99-101F B.) 94-99F C.) 101-103F D.) 92-94F
94-99F Explanation: If the temperature falls below 94F, the heart rate will drop and intestinal motion ceases. Death will occur if not corrected.
One of the most common incisional complications encountered in veterinary surgery is the formation of a seroma. Which of the following is a poor treatment choice for an incision diagnosed with a seroma? A.) Warm compress B.) Antibiotics C.) Placement of a drain D.) Exercise restriction
Antibiotics Explanation: Seromas are not infections and do not need to be treated with antibiotics. They consist of serous fluid, which is usually secondary to excessive dissection or "dead-space" that was created during surgery. Excessive activity and motion at the surgical site may predispose to the formation of a seroma. A warm compress will help increase blood flow to the region and thus help the body reabsorb the fluid. Nonetheless, it may take days to weeks for a seroma to completely resolve. Placing a drain at the site of a seroma may help speed up its resolution, as this helps keep the tissues adhered to each other.
An "FHO" would most likely be performed on a patient with which of the following problems? A.) Blindness from glaucoma B.) Arthritic hip C.) Incontinence D.) Ovarian cysts
Arthritic hip Explanation: "FHO" stands for Femoral Head Osteotomy. This procedure is removal of the femoral head from the hip joint. It is often performed when there is severe arthritis of a hip or due to fracture or disease from trauma to that hip joint.
Impulses are carried away from the neuronal cell body by which of the following structures? A.) Dendrite B.) Afferent nerve C.) Axon D.) Spinous process
Axon Explanation: The axon is the nerve cell projection that conducts the electrical impulses away from the neuronal cell body.
Which of the following components of an anesthetic machine needs to be replaced regularly? A.) Barium lime B.) One-way valves C.) Breathing tubes D.) Vaporizer
Barium lime Explanation: Barium lime is a carbon dioxide absorber that can become exhausted (lose its ability to absorb carbon dioxide) and must be replaced. The other components listed can be re-used.
What part of the brain controls heartbeat, respiration, and blood pressure? A.) Brain stem B.) Hypothalamus C.) Cerebral cortex D.) Cerebellum
Brain stem Explanation: The brain stem is made of the midbrain, pons, and medulla. It controls basic vital functions such as breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure.
You are assisting with an ACTH stimulation test to test for hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease). ACTH stimulates the release of which of the following? A.) Cortisol B.) Amylase C.) Bile D.) Insulin
Cortisol Explanation: The ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulation test measures the ability of the adrenals to respond to the hormone ACTH. This hormone is made in the pituitary and stimulates the adrenals to produce cortisol. Cushing's disease is an overproduction of cortisol due to either a pituitary or adrenal mass. Addison's disease is the lack of production of cortisol from the adrenal glands.
What is the optimal method of sampling if a urine culture is to be performed in a dog? A.) Urinary catheterization B.) Cystocentesis C.) Free catch D.) Bladder expression
Cystocentesis Explanation: The only way to definitively obtain a sterile urine sample is by performing a cytocentesis. All other methods carry the risk of environmental contamination with bacteria.
Which breed almost always needs a Cesarean section to give birth? A.) Bedlington Terrier B.) English Bulldog C.) Chihuahua D.) Yorkshire Terrier
English Bulldog Explanation: More than 90% of bulldogs need a C-section due to their conformation.
What is the cause of hip dysplasia? A.) It is a multifactorial disease B.) Poor diet C.) Breed conformation D.) Environment E.) Genetics
It is a multifactorial disease Explanation: Hip dysplasia is multifactorial. Many things such as genetics, environment, nutrition, and breed conformation play a role in the disease. Therefore, the treatment is often multi-modal. This may include an exercise plan, special diet, supplements for cartilage protection, anti-inflammatories, surgery, and/or other treatments.
Patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid which of the following? A.) Signs of hypoadrenocorticism B.) Signs of hyperinsulinism C.) Signs of hyperadrenocorticism D.) Signs of diabetes insipidus E.) Signs of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Signs of hypoadrenocorticism Explanation: Chronic prednisone administration can lead to atrophy of the adrenal gland due to the absence of signaling to produce cortisol. If prednisone is suddenly stopped, the adrenal gland will not be capable of producing enough cortisol, and the animal may show signs of hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease).
What is a sarcolemma? A.) Connective tissue putting muscle fibers into groups B.) The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber C.) A calcium storage unit in the muscle D.) A contractile cell in the muscle
The cell membrane which encloses a muscle fiber Explanation: A sarcolemma is a thin membrane enclosing a striated muscle fiber, or simply the cell wall of a muscle cell.A sarcomere is the contractile unit of a myofibril, or muscle cell. Sarcomeres are repeating units and are located between Z lines of the muscle cells.Perimysium is connective tissue that groups individual muscle fibers into bunches or groups.
The clinician has been unsuccessfully treating a chronic cough. A culture of the lower airways is needed. What is the best method for this? A.) Nasal swab culture B.) Culture of the back of the throat with a sterile swab after coughing episode C.) Nebulize the dog and culture the mist in the mask after 10 minutes D.) Transtracheal wash
Transtracheal wash Explanation: Transtracheal wash is used when a culture of the lower respiratory tract is needed. It is typically done under general anesthesia for small dogs or cats or under a local in larger dogs. It is a method of collecting bronchial exudate for culture and cytology. The procedure entails inserting a catheter into the trachea in the ventral neck region between two tracheal rings, and infusing and aspirating sterile saline in order to get a sample.
A veterinarian hands you a prescriptions that reads: Cephalexin 250 mg, SIG: 3 cap PO BID x 14d What is correct amount of medication to dispense and what directions should be typed on the drug label? A.) 84 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. B.) 136 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth three times daily for 14 days. C.) 42 capsules (75 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth once daily for 14 days. D.) 84 capsules (75 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. E.) 42 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days.
84 capsules (250 mg each) of cephalexin. Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days. Explanation: The signatura (SIG) or transcription is the directions for the medication. PO stands for "Per Os" which means orally. BID means twice daily. So the correct instructions are: Give 3 capsules by mouth twice daily for 14 days.If 3 capsules are given twice daily, then 6 are given total per day. 6 X 14 days= 84 capsules
Which of these is an effective drug to induce emesis in the dog? A.) Azathioprine B.) Apomorphine C.) Magnesium hydroxide D.) Xylazine
Apomorphine Explanation: The correct answer is apomorphine. Apomorphine is an opioid dopaminergic agonist that acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce vomiting in dogs. It can be administered IM, SC, IV, or in the conjunctival sac. Xylazine is a fairly effective emetic in the cat but is not used in the dog for this purpose. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive drug not used to induce vomiting. Magnesium hydroxide or Milk of Magnesia is a cathartic but is not used for vomiting.
A 3-month old kitten presents for mucoid diarrhea and anemia. The clinic where you work has recently seen several other puppies and kittens with similar clinical signs that were infected with Strongyloides stercoralis. You look up and find that this parasite is passed in the feces in the L1 larval form. What is the best way to recover and identify this parasite? A.) Fecal sedimentation B.) Baermann fecal technique C.) Direct fecal smear D.) Fecal flotation
Baermann fecal technique Explanation: The correct answer is Baermann fecal technique. Strongyloides stercoralis mainly causes a mucoid diarrhea and possibly anemia in puppies and kittens. It passed in the feces in the L1 larvae form. The best technique for recovering larvae is the Baermann technique. Fecal flotations are good for eggs that float. Fecal sedimentation is good for eggs that sink, such as most fluke eggs. A direct fecal smear can find any type of egg or larva passed in feces but does not concentrate the sample to improve the yield in finding the eggs or larvae.
An elastrator band is used for which purpose? A.) Castration B.) To aid in ambulation for pets that have had back or orthopedic surgery C.) To reduce stomach size in obese pets D.) Valve replacement in the heart E.) To hold pressure on the abdomen in cases of hemoabdomen
Castration Explanation: An elastrator band is used to castrate young calves. It is placed on the scrotum. In 2-3 weeks after placement, the scrotum and testes are sloughed.
Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type IV hypersensitivity, also known as delayed type hypersensitivity, as a result of a T-cell response to an antigen? A.) Atopy B.) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C.) Glomerulonephritis D.) Contact allergy to plastic
Contact allergy to plastic Explanation: There are 4 types of hypersensitivity. Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).
A tibial fracture needs to be repaired. The surgeon is intending to place a bone plate on the medial aspect of the tibia. How should the patient be positioned and prepped? A.) Lateral recumbency with affected side up B.) Lateral recumbency with affected side down C.) Dorsal recumbency with leg tied to the table D.) Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped
Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung until the patient is draped Explanation: The best positioning is that which will allow the surgeon good access to the proposed surgical site while ideally keeping the patient comfortable. Any time surgery is being performed on the tibia, the leg should be hung while it is being prepped for surgery. Sometimes the surgeon will prefer the leg to stay hung while performing the repair. Such an approach helps maintain retraction on the bone fragments and thus reduce the fracture. This is common practice when placing external fixators. When placing bone plates, the surgeon will usually opt to "cut" the leg down and lay it such that the lateral side is against the surgery table. This will allow for an incision into the medial aspect of the tibia. This is the preferred location as there is not nearly as much musculature on this side. This allows an easier approach and dissection, and reduces morbidity. Therefore the best answer is to have the patient in dorsal recumbency with the limb temporarily hung until the patient is draped.
Fermentation is a microbial process that uses enzymes to decompose food so that it may be utilized by the animal. In which species is this process most utilized in the hindgut during digestion? A.) Horses B.) Cows C.) Sheep D.) Dogs
Horses Explanation: Horses are hindgut (large-intestinal) fermenters. They are herbivores, and the cellulose in the plants they consume is difficult to digest. They have a fermentation system which contains specific microflora, that break sdown the plant material, allowing them to access useful nutrients.Ruminants (sheep and cows) are also herbivores but are foregut fermenters as their fermentation process occurs in the rumen. Dogs are carnivores and monogastrics.
A 2-year old dachshund presents with acute urticaria and facial swelling. Which of the following would be a most likely cause for this presentation (see photo)? A.) Contact dermatitis B.) Flea allergy dermatitis C.) Insect sting D.) Drug eruption
Insect sting Explanation: While any of these choices may cause hives, the most common cause for an acute reaction such as this is an insect bite or sting. This patient should be assessed and treated for an allergic reaction, which most often includes administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and dexamethasone. Epinephrine may be used in cases of anaphylaxis when the patient is collapsed in a state of shock.
A 5-week old cat received emergency surgery for a laceration. What antibiotic should NOT be used in this patient? A.) Cefazolin B.) Enrofloxacin C.) Clindamycin D.) Amoxicillin E.) Ticarcillin
Enrofloxacin Explanation: Young animals should not receive enrofloxacin (Baytril) due to risk of cartilage defects (mostly in young large breed dogs). This drug must be used with caution and at lower doses in cats because it may cause blindness.
Lincosamides (such as lincomycin and clindamycin) are contraindicated for use in which species of animal? A.) Swine B.) Feline C.) Equine D.) Canine
Equine Explanation: Lincosamides are contraindicated in horses, ruminants, rodents, and rabbits. These drugs can cause severe gastrointestinal effects in these species and can even result in death.
A dog has been brought into your clinic showing stage two signs of rabies. What are the animal's symptoms? A.) Animal will be asymptomatic B.) Excitability, viciousness, biting, and snapping C.) Paralytic, excessive salivation, and change in bark D.) Sudden change in behavior, unusually shy or nervous, seeks solitude
Excitability, viciousness, biting, and snapping Explanation: Stage two of rabies is the furious stage. Animals will bite, snap, and attack for no reason, spreading the disease in their saliva though bite wounds. Stage one is the prodromal stage which is characterized by changes in attitude. The animal may become shy, nervous, and apprehensive.Stage three of the disease is the paralytic stage. Muscles will become uncoordinated and paralysis sets in. The animal will lose the ability to swallow and excessively salivate.
An owner rushes in with her Labrador retriever who is having non-productive retching, is lethargic, and has a distended abdomen. She wants to know if he has "bloat". Which condition is she concerned about? A.) Ascites B.) Gastric dilation volvulus C.) Splenic mass D.) Mesenteric volvulus
Gastric dilation volvulus Explanation: Gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV) is when the stomach dilates and then rotates around itself on the short axis. It is a life-threatening emergency to which owners often refer to as "bloat".
A dog under anesthesia has an end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2) reading of 60 mm Hg. What should be done? A.) Give the patient a breath, or ventilate, to lower the ETCO2 Correct Answer B.) Increase the oxygen flow rate to the patient C.) Give a dose of atropine IV D.) Increase the anesthetic gas because the patient is light
Give the patient a breath, or ventilate, to lower the ETCO2 Explanation: If the patient has an ETCO2 greater than 55, the patient is hypoventilating. Giving the patient some breaths, or ventilating the patient, will help to lower this value.Increasing the oxygen flow rate would increase the amount of anesthetic flowing through the circuit. Atropine would increase the heart rate. Typically, a patient in a light plane of anesthesia would be hyperventilating and may have a lower ETCO2 (less than 30).
Which anesthetic gas would be most likely to induce a cardiac arrhythmia? A.) Sevoflurane B.) Oxygen C.) Halothane D.) Isoflurane
Halothane Explanation: While any of the inhaled anesthetics may cause cardiac arrhythmias, they would be more likely to occur with the use of Halothane gas. Because of this, most veterinary practices have moved toward the use of Isoflurane or Sevoflurane for anesthetic maintenance during procedures.
Which of the following fluid types is a colloid? A.) 5% dextrose in saline B.) Hypertonic saline C.) Sodium chloride 0.9% D.) Lactated Ringers E.) Hetastarch
Hetastarch Explanation: A colloid contains larger molecules than a crystalloid. This size difference allows the fluid to stay in the intravascular space for longer and thus helps to increase oncotic pressure.Examples of colloids are Hetastarch, blood products (whole blood, plasma, etc.), and Dextrans.
Smooth muscle is found in what regions? A.) Extremities B.) Within the muscles of the eye C.) Hollow organs D.) Within the muscles of mastication
Hollow organs Explanation: Smooth muscle is under involuntary control and is found lining the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. The extremities are surrounded by skeletal muscle which is voluntarily controlled. Muscles of the eye and mastication are also made up of skeletal muscle.
A very tiny kitten presents with severe dehydration and is hardly responsive to handling. You are unable to place a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following routes could be used as a fast or most efficient way of administering fluids and medications to such a small animal? A.) Intraosseus B.) Subcutaneous C.) Orogastric tube D.) Intraperitoneal
Intraosseus Explanation: Intraosseus fluid administration is delivery of fluid directly into the bone/bone marrow. It can be very beneficial and life saving in a tiny animal with poor peripheral veins when a catheter cannot be placed. Intraperitoneal means inside the abdominal cavity; this route has very slow absorption. Oral/orogastric absorption is very slow, especially in an animal that is obtunded; this may put the patient at an increased risk for aspiration. Subcutaneous fluid administration could be used but may be poorly absorbed in a patient this dehydrated and is not the most efficient.
A six month old Collie comes into your clinic for a technician exam and deworming. What antiparasitic drug should be used with caution in this breed? A.) Fenbendazole B.) Propofol C.) Ivermectin D.) Pyrantel pamoate E.) Sulfadimethoxine
Ivermectin Explanation: Collies, Australian Shepherds, and Shelties have a greater sensitivity to Ivermectin thought to be caused by a greater permeability in the blood-to-brain barrier. These breeds may show symptoms of toxicity even at therapeutic doses.
Which of the following is a product of anaerobic metabolism and may indicate poor blood flow to the tissues? A.) Lactate B.) Blood glucose C.) Alanine aminotransferase D.) Creatine kinase
Lactate Explanation: Lactate is a product of anaerobic metabolism. Elevation of lactate may indicate hypoxia or inadequate perfusion.
Which of the following medications blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone to help reduce nausea and vomiting in small animals? A.) Sucralfate B.) Famotidine C.) Metronidazole D.) Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide Explanation: The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ or CRTZ) is part of the medulla that communicates with the vomiting center to initiate vomiting. Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an anti-emetic primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting in small animals. This medication blocks the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Sucralfate is a gastric "band-aid" that helps to protect and heal irritated mucosa. Famotidine (Pepcid AC) is a gastric acid reducer. Metronidazole is an antibiotic often prescribed for diarrhea or colitis.
Dirofilaria immitis falls under which category of parasite? A.) Trematode B.) Coccidian C.) Cestode D.) Protozoan E.) Nematode
Nematode Explanation: Dirofilaria immitis is the heartworm and is a nematode (a type of roundworm). The mosquito is the intermediate host.Trematodes are flukes and require a snail as an intermediate host.Protozoans are single celled organisms (microscopic). They may take on a cyst form or may be in trophozoite form (such as Giardia). Coccidians (such as Cystoisospora) are a type of protozoan.Cestodes are tapeworms. Dipylidium, a type of tapeworm, requires a flea as an intermediate host.
Anal pruritus in the horse can be associated with an infestation of this parasite. Note the alopecia around the anal region and around the tail caused by rubbing. A.) Habronema muscae B.) Parascaris equorum C.) Oxyuris equi D.) Anoplocephala
Oxyuris equi Explanation: The correct answer is Oxyuris equi. This is the equine pin worm, which will infest the perineal region and result in perineal irritation after eggs are laid. A frequent diagnostic test performed when visualizing damaged perineal regions is a scotch tape preparation.
What is feline "parvo" virus is known as? A.) Calicivirus B.) Feline Leukemia C.) Rhinotracheitis D.) Panleukopenia
Panleukopenia Explanation: Feline panleukopenia is sometimes referred to as "feline parvo". It causes feline infectious enteritis. It can be associated with cerebellar disease in young kittens.
You are working in the emergency clinic and are assisting with treating a dog that has been hit by a car. You are asked to set up for a blood transfusion, and the doctor would like you to give whole blood. A whole blood transfusion would include which of the following components? A.) White blood cells and red blood cells only B.) Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets C.) Platelets, plasma, and red blood cells D.) Plasma and red blood cells only
Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets Explanation: The correct answer is plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets (everything that is found in whole blood).
A 3-year old castrated male Doberman Pinscher comes in to the emergency clinic with signs consistent with gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV). Following standard initial emergency treatment for suspected gastric dilation and volvulus, what imaging procedure would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis? A.) Ventral dorsal abdominal radiograph B.) Abdominal ultrasound exam C.) Barium contrast abdominal radiograph D.) Ventral recumbency abdominal radiograph E.) Dorsal recumbency abdominal radiograph F.) Right lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
Right lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph Explanation: A typical GDV occurs with repositioning of the pylorus to the left dorsal abdomen. A right lateral radiographic image is the best perspective position for revealing a-gas filled right dorsally-displaced pylorus with a gas-filled ventral fundus separated by a soft tissue band (compartmentalized stomach). Although the features of a malpositioned stomach may be observed on the other radiographic views, they are often more difficult to interpret than that represented by the right lateral recumbency view. The severe amount of gas within the GI tract that is associated with GDV would make ultrasound exam interpretation extremely difficult at best.
An animal that has been diagnosed with underlying cardiac insufficiency may need to be restricted on intake of: A.) Sodium B.) Potassium C.) Magnesium D.) Thiamine
Sodium Explanation: Water follows salt, so an animal consuming more sodium is likely to retain more water. This may be detrimental to an animal with underlying heart disease.
Which essential amino acid is critical for cats? A.) Lysine B.) Taurine C.) Tyrosine D.) Arginine
Taurine Explanation: Taurine deficiency in cats is associated with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) and retinal degeneration (think taurine Deficiency = DCM).
You take a series of chest radiographs and notice that all of the films appear darker (more exposed) towards one side of the film. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? A.) The processor is running low on developer B.) The radiograph cassette is not closing fully C.) The X-ray beam is usually more intense on one side of the field D.) The processor is running low on fixative
The X-ray beam is usually more intense on one side of the field Explanation: This phenomenon is known as the "Heel effect". X-ray distribution in diagnostic X-ray units is uneven, with the beam being most intense at the cathode side of the machine and weakest at the anode side. This effect is frequently minor but can be noticeable. It is advantageous to radiograph patients of uneven thickness (i.e. the body of a deep-chested dog) by orienting the thickest part toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube. The other choices listed could cause artifacts but should not cause such a gradient on the film.
The autonomic nervous system refers to what? A.) The peripheral nervous system (PNS) B.) The limbic nervous system C.) The cranial nerves D.) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems E.) The central nervous system (CNS)
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems Explanation: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems direct many of the body's homeostatic functions and is made up of nerves that innervate internal organs and blood vessels. The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system is composed of cranial and spinal nerves. There is actually some overlap between these two arbitrary divisions. The limbic nervous system is actually within the brain and is thought to be associated with emotional responses in humans and other animals. Reference Values ·
Which of the following components or settings influence x-ray beam quality? A.) kVp and filtration B.) kVp and mAs C.) Collimation and filtration D.) kVp and collimation E.) mAs and filtration F.) mAs and collimation
kVp and filtration Explanation: The "quality" of an x-ray beam refers to the energy distribution of the photons that are emitted. mAs and collimation have no effect on the energy of the emitted photons. mAs specifies the quantity of photons emitted; collimation constrains the area where the photons are emitted. The kVp is related to the peak energy of the photons emitted. Applied filtration preferentially absorbs lower-energy photons to affect beam quality.
