500 Things to Know Before Writing the CAMRT
54. When inserting enema tip it should be directed (anteriorly/posteriorly) and (superiorly/inferiorly).
anteriorly and superiorly
102. MPD for student _______ tech __________ pregnant tech ________.
student is 1 mSv tech 20 mSv pregnant tech 2 mSv.
42. Can compression be used for microscopic hematuria when doing an IVP?
a. Yes - compression is only contraindicated for urinary stones, abdominal mass or aneurysm, a colostomy, a suprapubic catheter or traumatic injury (MERRILLS)
92. If II is as close to patient as possible will this reduce scatter?
a. Yes - space between x-ray tube and II will eliminate some scatter (CLINICAL, PHYSICS NOTES, ETC)
251. Which two quality control tests should be done BEFORE a linearity test?
a. kVp accuracy and reproducibility (RAD EQUIP 2)
417. The rate of replenishment in automatic processor depends primarily on: The area of film processed, the temperature of solution, or the dev. time
a. the area of film processed
285. Is the ESE the same as the absorbed dose?
NO: Entrance Skin Exposure - quantity of radiation, given in SI units of coulombs per kilogram or traditional units of Roentgens, incident upon an object. Backscatter radiation is excluded. Absorbed Dose - the deposition of energy per unit mass by ionizing radiation in the patient's body tissue. This absorbed energy is responsible for whatever biologic damage occurs as a result of tissues being exposed to x-radiation (SHERER)
353. How many ribs are visible on the AP/PA projection of ribs?
For ribs above the diaphragm = 1st through 10th For ribs below the diaphragm = 8th through 12th
240. Difference between pulmonary edema vs pulmonary emboli
Pulmonary edema = abnormal accumulation of fluid in the extra-vascular pulmonary tissues Pulmonary embolism = occlusion of pulmonary vessels by an embolus or emboli (EISENBERG)
45. How is mobility assessed on wheelchair pt that you need to stand?
I. Deviations from correct body alignment II. Immobility or limitations in range of joint motion III. The ability to walk IV. Respiratory, cardiovascular, metabolic, and musculoskeletal problems V. Patient's general condition VI. Range of motion and weight bearing ability VII. Strength and endurance VIII. Ability to maintain balance IX. Ability to understand what is expected X. Acceptance of the move XI. Medication history
74. How is a question of imperforate anus radiographed?
I. Infant is held upside down by heels for 5 minutes to allow swallowed air to rise to level of closure II. Films are taken 6-24 hours after birth (allows time for air to reach rectum) III. Film at 72" SID - minimizes distortion IV. AP and Lateral views are taken while upside-down, radiopaque marker placed at anal opening V. Distance can be measured on the radiograph
263. Which body habitus show the biggest change in stomach position when moving from supine to the upright position?
a. Asthenic (MERRILLS)
340. When doing an abdominal angiogram where does the catheter sit when doing the flush?
a. At the level of T12 (TORTORICI)
167. What is the normal body temperature?
a. Average body temperature is between 36 and 37OC (96.8 - 98.6 OF) depending where temperature is taken (TORRES)
261. When doing a mammogram exam what is best demonstrated by the MLO position?
a. Axillary tail and lymph nodes of affected breast (MERRILLS)
125. A diabetic foot may be associated with what bony pathology?
a. Bacterial osteomyelitis (EISENBERG)
138. What is the prep for an outpatient BE?
a. Low residue diet 2-3 days b. Clear fluids only a day prior to the exam c. Laxative d. Colonic lavage if necessary (PATH & PROC 1)
189. What 2 body areas are examined in BMD?
a. Lumbar spine and hips (MERRILLS)
249. Give an example of transitional vertebrae.
a. Lumbarization (SI becomes like a 6th lumbar vertebra) or sacralization (L5 becomes fused with sacrum) (PATH & PROC 2)
72. What is injection site for cerebral angiogram?
a. May be performed by using the direct percutaneous method of the common carotid artery or catheterization method via a femoral or transaxillary puncture; by guiding the catheter and appropriate positioning of the patient's head, any one of the cerebral vessels may be catheterized (TORTORICI) b. Internal carotid artery
276. An ER stretcher patient's leg is medially rotated 15 degrees; the leg cannot be moved. Do you angle the tube 30 degrees medially or laterally to open up the proximal tibia articulation?
a. Medially (CLINICAL + MERRILLS)
323. What alteration would be done for a pregnant patient?
a. Minimum amount of views are done to reduce dose (MERRILLS)
303. What causes ball bearing to wear in the x-ray tube?
a. Rotor prep time (melts bearings) (RAD EQUIP NOTES)
108. Protective clothing must provide attenutation equivalent to ______mm lead at _______kVp.
0.25 mm lead at 100 kVp or less 0.35 mm lead at 100 - 150 kVp 0.5 mm lead at 150 kVp or more (SC20 p29)
105. The maximum length the enema tip can be inserted is ____________inches or __________________cms.
1 ½ inches or 3.8 cms.
362. Give 4 factors that will enhance subject contrast on an image.
1. ↓ kVp 2. ↑ difference between adjacent thicknesses of body parts 3. ↓ field size, ↓ body thickness 4. addition of contrast media (higher atomic #) (CARLTON & ADLER)
4. SC 20 (p24) timer accuracy must be accurate to ______second or _____% of the setting which ever is greater.
1/60 and 7 %
62. Normal blood pressure is __________ systolic ______________diastolic
110 - 140 mmHg systolic 60 - 80 mmHg diastolic
30. SC 20 (pg 26) states that mobile exams the target-skin distance be no less than ___________ cm.
30 cm
89. What is the SID for lateral c-spine? __________inches ___________cms
72 inches, 183 cm
69. CR angulation for clavicle views? AP PROJECTION: PA PROJECTION: AP AXIAL PROJECTION: PA AXIAL PROJECTION:
AP PROJECTION: perpendicular PA PROJECTION: perpendicular AP AXIAL PROJECTION: 15-30 degrees cephalad PA AXIAL PROJECTION: 15-30 degrees caudad
317. According to SC 20 the x-ray beam size must be limited to the size of the image __________ or smaller.
According to SC20, the x-ray beam must be limited to the size of the image receptor or smaller.
419. According to SC 20 unexposed film must be stored so that no film receives ore than ______ milliroentgen of stray radiation before use.
According to SC20, unexposed film must be stored so that no film receives more than 0.2 milliroentgen of stray radiation before use.
214. You are asked to do a coned bladder shot on a male, give centre point, angle and direction or CR.
CENTER POINT 1" (2.5 cm) above ASIS ANGLE 15 degrees DIRECTION caudad
220. During an enterocylsis procedure, the tube is inserted into the nose to what final destination, before the procedure is started?
Duodenojejunal flexure, near the ligament of Treitz (MERRILLS)
365. T or F Sterilization uses either heat or chemicals and destroy all micro-organisms.
a. True (TORRES)
296. How do you demonstrate the left ureterovesical junction?
a. Turn the patient to the unaffected side (RPO) (CLINICAL, MERRILLS)
380. What kVp would be used to achieve low contrast? Another way to define low contrast is to say _______________ scale of contrast.
High kVp Another way to define low contrast is to say long scale of contrast.
217. What 3 vessels form the celiac axis and where is it located?
I. Common Gastric artery II. Left Gastric artery III. Splenic artery Located beneath the diaphragm at approximately T12 (ANATOMY TEXT, CS NOTES)
456. After an IVP injection you notice swelling at the injection site, what should be done? (torres)
a. Apply pressure and a cold cloth to the site and monitor patient for allergic reactions
128. In CT by changing the window width you change the ___________, and by changing the window level you change the ____________________.
In CT, by changing the window width you change the contrast, and by changing the window level you change the center of the window or range of gray shades that will be displayed.
274. Increased humidity in the darkroom will cause the films to ___________.
Increased humidity in the darkroom will cause the films to fog (BUSHONG)
431. Increased density or blurring of an area on film caused by________
Increased density or blurring of an area on the film is caused by poor film/screen contact (BUSHONG)
265. While doing a portable chest you accidental pull out a line, what must you do? (check torres)
a. Apply pressure to insertion site and call for assistance (nurse). May have to fill out incident / occurrence report.
224. Give patient position and angle and direction of CR for apical views of chest?
LORDOTIC POSITION - perpendicular CR PA AXIAL PROJECTION - pt is positioned as for normal PA CXR -10 - 15 degrees cephalic AP AXIAL PROJECTION - pt is upright or supine - 15 - 20 degrees cephalad (MERRILLS)
382. Why is carbon dioxide used for barium enemas?
a. Because it is more rapidly absorbed than the nitrogen in air (MERRILLS)
309. Low humidity will cause _______________marks on film.
Low humidity will cause static marks on film. (BUSHONG)
461. What kVp would be used to achieve high contrast? Another name for high contrast is ________________ scale of contrast.
Low kVp. Another name for high contrast is short scale contrast.
454. Give optimal kVp, respiration and position for sternum view.
PA OBLIQUE 65 kV expiration or breathing technique LATERAL 70 kV inspiration Positioning PA OBLIQUE RAO LATERAL Lateral with hands behind back (MERRILLS)
335. What is the difference between photo spot (film) camera and radiographic spot film?
PHOTOSPOT - similar to a movie camera except that it exposes only one frame when activated SPOT FILM - spot film is placed between patient and II, encased in a lead-lined shroud until needed (BUSHONG)
401. When mixing fresh chemicals for a processor, list 2 chemical solutions that the tech should use to mix the development solution.
a. Developer solution b. Starter solution (IMAGE RECORDING)
399. Give patient position and angle of tube for axiolateral view of mandible.
RAMUS - patients head in true lateral position BODY - rotate head 30 degrees toward the IR SYMPHYSIS - rotate head 45 degrees toward the IR ANGLE = 25 degrees cephalad
441. What is the difference between a repeat and a rejected film?
REPEAT= poor film caused by radiographer error (positioning, technique, centering, etc) REJECT = poor film that occurred unrelated to human error (processor error, etc)
304. What is syncope and how do you treat it?
SYNCOPE = fainting TREATMENT - have patient lie down if dizzy; place them in a supine position with legs elevated if syncope has occurred
492. When positioning the sternoclavicular joints oblique position which joint is demonstrated the side up or side down. Which is closest to the spine?
Side down. Side down. (MERRILLS)
185. The aim of the Radiation Protection Bureau is to minimize dose to both ___________ and _____________.
The aim of the Radiation Protection Bureau is to minimize dose to both patient and personnel
123. The anatomical landmark for SI Jts.______, lower costal margin_____
The anatomical landmark for SI joints: 1" above ASIS, lower costal margin L4 (MERRILLS)
124. The anatomical landmark for T 10 ______, T4/5________ C5 ________
The anatomical landmark for T10 xiphoid tip, T4/5 sternal angle, C5 cricoid cartilage
485. Does a chest x-ray (radiation to breast) have any effect on a breast-feeding mother?
a. NO
235. The enema tip should be directed ___________inch or ________cm toward the umbilicus. (the usual amount of insertion of tip)
The enema tip should be directed 1 inch or 2.5 cm toward the umbilicus (the usual amount of insertion of tip) (MERRILLS)
286. What is the inverse square law - think of an example and use the formula (don't forget to square the distances- check the text -KNOW THIS
The exposure from an x-ray tube operated at 70kVp, 200mAs is 400 mR at 90 cm. What will be the exposure at 180 cm? D'2 / D'2 = I/I
279. The maximum permissible entrance skin exposure for an AP projection of the lumbar spine is ________________mR
The maximum permissible entrance skin exposure for an AP projection of the lumbar spine is 500 mR. (SC20A p45)
184. The safety code is prepared by the ___________ __________ _______ Ottawa, Canada.
The safety code is prepared by the Radiation Protection Bureau, Ottawa, Canada (SC20A)
287. The secondary barrier is only required to attenuate only ___________ radiation (leakage and scatter). The primary beam should not be directed to this barrier.
The secondary barrier is only required to attenuate only secondary radiation (leakage & scatter). The primary beam should not be directed to this barrier. (SHERER)
372. Is Compton scatter affected by atomic number?
a. NO (BUSHONG)
440. What instrument is used to measure reproducibility?
a. Radiation dosimeter (BUSHONG)
320. To do a portable chest on an immuno-compromised patient the isolation procedure to use is: contact strict respiratory protective (Torres 5th p61)
To do a portable chest on an immunosuppressed / immunocompromised patient the isolation procedure to use is protective (TORRES)
421. Too high humidity in darkroom causes____________
Too high humidity in the darkroom causes fog.
129. What is the k edge of iodine and why is it significant when doing IVU's?
a. 33 keV, there is an abrupt increase in radiographic absorption, allows for selection of technical factors during IVUs (BUSHONG)
448. What CR angle is needed for the plantodorsal projection of the calcaneous given the foot is in a 90 flexion.
a. 40O cephalad (MERRILLS)
234. An ER patient has arrived with no backboard, the patient is not to flex or move their back. This patient must be moved to the x-ray table how is this done? (check torres for accurate information)
Use a log roll to move patient onto sliding board Transfer the patient using the sliding board (TORRES)
275. The Privacy Act states that the patient is entitled to privacy, how does the "where, who and what" apply when taking a patient's history. (eg where-what are you questioning patient....)
WHERE - in a private location where you cannot be overheard WHO - medical professionals, those associated with exam WHAT - information pertinent to the exam
212. Weight/volume of barium for single contrast GI __________ and double contrast GI ________________?
Weight / volume of barium for a single contrast GI: 30 - 50% and double contrast GI: up to 250% (MERRILLS)
233. What is the MPD per year for a student______________, a technologist______________ the general public ___________ a pregnant technologist _________________ MPD to the eye/yr ___________________ the MPD to skin/hands/feet per year _________________________
What is the MPD per year for a student: 1 mSv, a technologist: 20 mSv, the general public: 1 mSv, a pregnant technologist: 2 mSv, MPD to the eye / year: 150 mSv, the MPD to skin / hands / feet per year: 500 mSv (for radiation workers). (SC20A)
435. What is the angle used for bladder shot of male______ female_______
What is the angle used for bladder shot of male 25O female 40O.
422. When handling a urinary drainage bag it is important not to allow urine to flow back to bladder because this could cause ___________________.
When handling a urinary drainage bag it is important not to allow urine to flow back to bladder because this could cause a urinary tract infection. (TORRES)
346. When lifting your center of gravity is always over ____________.
When lifting, your center of gravity is always over the base of support (ADLER & CARLTON)
483. When turning a patient from the supine position on an x-ray table that does not turn well do you (roll patient with arm above their head onto their hip or arm beside their body onto their hip) then (pull patient toward you or push patient away from you)? Please check torres
When turning a patient from the supine position on an x-ray table that does not turn well you roll patient with arm above their head onto their hip then pull patient toward you.
96. When doing AP knee projection on a patient that measures 25 cm and above give angle and direction of CR.
a. 5 degrees cephalic angulation (MERRILLS, RAD CRITIQUE)
15. Maximum size focal spot for scaphoid.
a. 0.6 mm (CLINICAL)
162. What does DNR mean on a chart?
a. Do Not Resuscitate
223. What part of the x-ray tube controls the penumbra?
a. Focal spot (BUSHONG)
359. After doing a portable chest exam, you notice different lines in your radiograph. Which lines and tubes could you move: O2, IV or CVP
a. You can move the oxygen (O2) tube and intravenous (IV) supply tube off the chest, however the CVP cannot be moved as it is in the patient (CLINICAL)
430. Contamination of developer will cause the film to (pick one) Scratch easily be fogged have excessive emulsion swelling,
b. Be fogged
474. Quantum mottle would most likely occur with the use of which of the following: detailed screens, 400 speed screens, rare earth screens
c. Rare earth screens
416. There is a DNR on chart, during an IVP the patient has a heart attack you should: begin CPR call a code call radiologist that injected do nothing
c. call radiologist that injected
418. The ability of the radiograph to form distinct image of two or more objects located close together is: detail contrast resolution definition or sharpness
c. resolution
351. Which drug will relieve pain without the loss of consciousness: anaesthetic antihistamine anticonvulsant analgesic
d. Analgesic
499. Which vein will most likely be used for an IVP injection: femoral axillary radial antecubital
d. Antecubital
79. The imaging plate for CR are coated with a heavy metal phosphor called ______________________________________________, which are energized when exposed to x-rays.
europium - activated barium fluorohalide compounds
452. kVp must be accurate with in +/_ _______% of selected kVp
kVp must be accurate within + / - 5 % of selected kVp (SC20A)
21. The pedicles sit too posterior on vertebral bodies, so the patient is_________.
too far obliqued (if an oblique L-spine)
392. Where would you find Meckels Diverticulum
a. In the ileum (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
262. How do you compensate when doing a 5"x 5" coned view from a 14"x17" field of view, to maintain same density.
a. Increase mAs by a factor of 9.5
455. To demonstrate SI Jts in AP position give amount of patient rotation and the centre point.
a. 25 - 30O, 1" medial to elevated ASIS (MERRILLS)
208. What is cholelithiasis?
a. The presence of gallstones (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
157. What colour are a CT number of +1000 and a CT number of -1000, what type of tissue do each of these numbers represent?
+1000 White Bone -1000 black Air
109. Protective gloves must provide attenuation equivalent to _______mm lead at __________kVp.
0.25 mm lead at 150 kVp (SC20 p29)
331. What four methods are used to demonstrate a hiatus hernia?
1. Breathing exercises 2. Water test 3. Compression technique 4. Toe-touch maneuver (BONTRAGER)
277. The four "D" of epiglottis?
1. Dysphagia: difficulty swallowing 2. Dysphonia: difficulty in speaking 3. Dyspnea: difficult or labored breathing 4. Drooling (ONLINE, PATH & PROC 1)
413. Give steps to properly bunny wrap a baby.
1. Fold a large sheet 2. Place top of sheet at child's shoulders and bottom at the child's feet 3. Leave the greater portion of the sheet at one side of the child 4. Bring the longer side back over the arm and under the body and other arm 5. Bring back the sheet over the exposed arm and under the body again (TORRES)
342. What wears the anode of the tube?
1. excessive temperature - melting and pitting 2. temperature increases too rapidly - anode may crack 3. bearing damage - electrons focused on one part of the anode 4. excessive use of small focal spot - increased wear on smaller area of anode
151. What is correct way to transfer a patient from a wheelchair to table?
1. If patient can assist, instruct them to push up with upper arm when told to do so. 2. The footrests should be up and locks engaged with the wheelchair at a 45 degree angle to the table, the patients strong side closest to the table 3. Allow or help the patient to the edge of the wheelchair 4. On the count of three, using both arms, assist the patient to a sitting position on the table 5. Move the wheelchair out of the way (TORRES)
270. Give proper way to transfer patient with neck/back injury?
1. Log roll onto transfer board 2. Use slider board to transfer patient (TORRES)
148. What are the four associated heart abnormalities of Tetralogy of Fallot? a congenital heart condition involving four abnormalities occurring together, including a defective septum between the ventricles and narrowing of the pulmonary artery, and accompanied by cyanosis.
1. high ventricular septal defect 2. pulmonary stenosis 3. overriding of the aortic orifice above the ventricular defect 4. right ventricular hypertrophy (EISENBERG)
451. What factors affect the intensity of the x-ray beam? (6 total)
1. kVp 2. mAs 3. distance 4. filtration (BUSHONG) 5. target material 6. voltage waveform
281. Name the four borders of the mediastinum?
1. sternum (anterior) 2. spine (posterior) 3. right lung (lateral) 4. left lung (lateral) (MERRILLS)
496. Name the tarsal bones.
1. talus 2. calcaneus 3. medial cuneiform 4. intermediate cuneiform 5. lateral cuneiform 6. cuboid 7. navicular (BRYAN)
266. Give three contraindications for compression during an IVU?
1. urinary stones 2. abdominal mass or aneurysm (MERRILLS) 3. colostomy
34. Enema bag should be ___________inches or ________cm above the anus.
24 61
67. During mobile exam how far must stand from tube housing _________meters
3 meters
68. Mobile cable must be ____________meters long.
3 meters
27. How often is a sensitometry strip done?
a. Daily (IMG RECORDING NOTES, HARP ACT)
489. The primary factor controlling density is _____________.
The primary factor controlling density is mAs (BUSHONG)
368. If the exposure used at 30" SID is 5 mAs what mAs exposure would be used at 40" (pick one) 7 9 11 15
9
237. According to the S of P every female between age ____ to _____ is asked whether there is any chance of pregnancy.
According to the S of P, every female between age 10 to 55 is asked whether there is any chance of pregnancy.
174. What sphincter allows food into the duodenum?
a. Pyloric sphincter (ANATOMY NOTES)
289. What is atelectasis?
a. A collapsed or airless state of the lung (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
482. By moving the II closer to the patient how does this affect dose?
a. Decreases dose (CLINICAL)
158. Put the following tissues in order of increasing CT numbers Air, bone, CSF, blood, water, fat, clotted blood, cartilage, muscle
AIR -1000 FAT -100 WATER 0 CSF 15 BLOOD 20 CARTILAGE 35 MUSCLE 50 CLOTTED BLOOD 75 BONE 1000 (BUSHONG, CARLTON & ADLER)
243. What is the CR angle, direction and entry point to demonstrate TM JTS.
AP AXIAL PROJECTION 35O caudad, 3" above nasion AXIOLATERAL VIEW 30 O caudad, ½ " anterior and 2" superior to upside EAM AXIOLATERAL OBL. VIEW 15O caudad, 1½" superior to upside EAM
375. According to the HARP Act who can order x-rays __________,___________,Chiropodists of Ont. Chiropractors of Ont., and Dental surgeons.
According to the HARP Act, who can order x-rays: medical practitioner, osteopath, Chiropodists of Ontario, Chiropractors of Ontario, and dental surgeons.
239. According to the S of P the technologist must give the patient an opportunity to ask questions, provide questions within the scope of their responsibility and refer the patients questions to ___________ if it is beyond their scope.
According to the S of P the technologist must give the patient an opportunity to ask questions, provide questions within the scope of their responsibility and refer the patients' questions to their referring physician if it is beyond their scope.
181. According to the S of P all requisitions must include _____________, ______________, ______________, _____________, __________________.
According to the S of P, all requisitions must include patient name, patient date of birth, date and time of requisition issued, procedure requested, legible signature of requester and their designation (INTRO TO MI NOTES)
238. According to S of P if patient has to be rescheduled you must ensure that the patient is informed of the ________ , ______ and location of next appointment.
According to the S of P, if the patient has to be rescheduled you must ensure that the patient is informed of the time, date, and location of the next appointment.
236. According to the Standard of Practice each film must be marked with the patients name, ____________, _______________, ,____________.
According to the Standards of Practice, each film must be marked with the patients' name, medical record number, date & time, hospital / facility name.
211. Allowing a patient to fall off a stretcher because you neglected to put the side rails up is an example of ___________________. An example of professional misconduct would be ___________________________.
Allowing a patient to fall off a stretcher because you neglected to put the side rails up is an example of negligence (ADLER & CARLTON). An example of professional misconduct would be the abuse / use of unnecessary drugs during a shift which reduces quality of patient care (A&C)
468. What does filtration do to patient dose?
a. Decreases patient dose (BUSHONG)
17. Test tool used to test focal spot.
a. Standard = slit camera; also pinhole camera + star pattern (BUSHONG)
94. Give CT numbers for blood _____________ bone ______________ Water _____________ air ____________________ Lung ______________ fat ___________________
BONE 1000 BLOOD 20 WATER 0 FAT -100 LUNG -200 AIR -1000
219. What boney pathological condition is associated with a diabetic foot?
Bacterial osteomyelitis (EISENBERG)
444. What is the safe O2 rate for a patient without an order?
a. Oxygen is considered a medication and must be prescribed (TORRES)
66. On the oblique lumbar spine what is the "neck" of the Scotty dog?
a. Par interarticularis (MERRILLS, RAD CRITIQUE, ETC)
338. When doing an exam on an immuno-compromised patient with two technologist, who is the clean tech and who is the dirty tech. (Torres p64) immune-compromised: having an impaired immune system
CLEAN TECH = tech in immediate contact with the patient DIRTY TECH = tech who touches surfaces that may be contaminated so that these contaminations are not in contact with the immunocompromised patient.
6. A safelight test has become worst than the previous test what would you check first?
a. Light leaks (STEVENS) - also: bulb wattage, film type, timing, etc.
228. To best demonstrate the Left SI Joint which position would you choose the RPO, RAO, LPO or AP with CR perpendicular?
a. RPO (MERRILLS)
19. The size of focal spot effects penumbra, what does penumbra effect?
a. Recorded detail (CARLTON & ADLER)
209. What type of beam is used by a laser image (printer) to expose the film?
a. Red laser beam (BUSHONG)
183. CR direction and angle and centre point for Townes view.
DIRECTION caudad ANGLE 30O to OML, 37O to IOML CENTRE POINT 2 ½ inches above glabella, passing through EAM (MERRILLS)
409. Why is the base colour of x-ray film usually blue?
a. Reduces eyestrain for the interpreting radiologist (CARLTON & ADLER)
73. Why use an anticholinergic?
a. Reduces gastric motility, which may help decrease cramping (TORRES)
59. How does cold barium affect the stomach for a GIFT?
a. Reduces irritation to colon, reduces spasm and cramping (ADLER & CARLTON)
386. Give the catheter tip location for a percutaneous nephrostogram.
a. Renal pelvis (MERRILLS)
463. If film is processed in fixer too long the outcome is.
a. The film becomes brittle and the emulsion begins to flake off (BUSHONG)
288. What is the difference between genetic and stochastic effects of radiation?
GENETIC EFFECTS - biologic effects of ionizing radiation on generations yet unborn STOCHASTIC EFFECTS - mutational, nonthreshold, randomly occurring biologic somatic changes in which the chance occurrence of the effect rather than the severity of the effect is proportional to the dose of ionizing radiation
439. Write out grid conversion table for both 70 kVp and 120 kVp.
GRID RATIO 70 kVp 120 kVp No grid 1 1 5:1 2 3 8:1 3 4 12:1 3.5 5 16:1 4 6
313. Difference between Hickman catheter and PICC line
HICKMANN CATHETER = tunnel-type central venous catheter PICC LINE = may be peripherally inserted into the patient's arm and advanced until its tip lies in a central vein (TORRES)
186. Name carpal bones.
MEDIAL Hamate Capitate Trapezoid Pisiform Trapezium LATERAL Triquetrum Lunate Scaphoid
381. When x-raying a supracondylar # what should be in contact with the film the humerus or the elbow?
a. The humerus
115. What is situs inversus?
a. Total or partial transposition of the body organs to the side opposite the normal
112. Give the final location for each of these lines and tubes: PICC ____________ feeding tube_____________ NG tube_____________ Swan Ganz ________
PICC Superior vena cava FEEDING TUBE At least 1st part of duodenum NG TUBE Stomach SWAN GANZ Right * or left pulmonary artery
321. Rt. lateral stomach best demonstrates and unobstructed view of the ________________in single contrast, the ________________area, and the _______________space.
Right lateral stomach best demonstrates an unobstructed view of the duodenal bulb in single contrast, the duodenojejunal area, and the right retrogastric space. (MERRILLS)
126. Rectifiers are used to convert high voltage AC currents to _____ currents.
Rectifiers are used to convert high voltage AC currents to DC currents.
247. How will tube current, applied kvp, target material and filtration affect the quality of the x-ray beam?
TUBE CURRENT = affects quantity of radiation in the beam, and therefore how much radiation is in the beam affects the quality of the beam KVP = as kVp ↑, a wider range of photon energies is produced TARGET MATERIAL = affects interactions that produce x-rays due to atomic number FILTRATION = changes average photon energy of the beam (CARLTON & ADLER)
116. Given that all other factors remain the same, how is image density affected by: tube current, increased SID, increased field size, added filtration, slower speed screen, smaller focal spot? ( know these check the text)
TUBE CURRENT ↑ tube current = ↑ density and vice versa INCREASED SID Decreased density INCREASED FIELD SIZE Decreased density ADDED FILTRATION Decreased density SLOWER SPEED SCREEN Decreased density SMALLER FOCAL SPOT Should be no difference if properly calibrated, however may be less by 30%, necessary to alter image density
280. The AEC backup timer must cut off at ______ seconds or _______mAs.
The AEC backup timer must cut off at 3 seconds or 600 mAs (SC20A p80)
343. The effective focal spot is controlled by the anode target angle and the _____________ focal spot (which is controlled by the filament length).
The EFFECTIVE focal spot is controlled by the anode target angle and the ACTUAL focal spot (which is controlled by the filament length) (CARLTON & ADLER)
180. The Standards of Practice was developed by the ________ __ ___________ _______________ ____________ for the protection of the public.
The Standards of Practice was developed by the College of Medical Radiation Technologists for the protection of the public (INTRO TO MI NOTES)
412. The TLD worn above the lead apron measures_________________.
The TLD worn above the lead apron measures effective dose (SEERAM)
411. The TLD worn under the lead apron measures ________________.
The TLD worn under the lead apron measures absorbed dose (SEERAM)
344. The smaller the target angle the smaller the effective focal spot and the better the __________________.
The smaller the target angle the smaller the effective focal spot and the better the resolution (CARLTON & ADLER)
182. The surgical procedure done when a patient is diagnosis with a pneumothorax is an insertion of a _____________________.
The surgical procedure done when a patient is diagnosed with a pneumothorax is an insertion of a chest tube (EISENBERG)
86. What is the ratio of one-man compression for CPR?
a. 15:2 ratio (compression : breaths); 80 to 100 compressions per minute (ADLER & CARLTON)
213. X-table lateral knee, film against medial side of knee, direction of angle___________?
X-table lateral knee, film against medial side of knee, direction of angle = caudal (towards foot) (CLINICAL)
497. What is the angle and direction for an AP sacrum?
a. 15O cephalad (MERRILLS)
423. The film is placed ____________ to the femoral neck when doing a cross table lateral hip.
The film is placed parallel to the femoral neck when doing a cross table lateral hip.
322. The fluoro timer maximum setting should not exceed _______ minutes.
The fluoro timer maximum setting should not exceed 5 minutes (SC20A, p28)
290. The primary factor controlling contrast is ________________.
The primary factor controlling contrast is kVp. (BUSHONG, CARLTON & ADLER)
252. Excessive prep time increases the filament boost, which will increase filament evaporation. This will inturn increase deposits on the __________, therefore interfering with the electron flow and decrease efficiency of x-ray production.
This will in turn increase deposits on the glass envelope, therefore interfering with the electron flow and decrease efficiency of x-ray production.
475. What is the difference between a tomogram and a zonogram?
Tomogram - technique whereby a predetermined plane of the body is demonstrated in focus on the radiograph Zonogram - produces focal plane images of greater contrast than possible with thin-section tomography
420. Too low of humidity in darkroom causes_____________
Too low of humidity in a darkroom causes static.
127. During angiography what is the rate pulse control used for?
a. Found on the power injector, designed to prevent a sudden, forceful injection (TORTORICI)
231. What position should you place a patient with epitaxis?
a. (Nosebleed) - Patient should sit up with the head tilted back and the soft portion of the nose grasped firmly between thumb and forefinger (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
348. What distance should the sternum be depressed on an adult during CPR?
a. 1 ½ to 2 inches (ADLER & CARLTON)
What is the CR angle for an AP coccyx?
a. 10 degrees caudad (MERRILLS) b. 10 degree caudal central ray angulation (RAD CRITIQUE)
493. How much is the body rotated for the oblique sternoclavicular oblique position?
a. 10-15O (MERRILLS)
465. What is the optimal kVp setting for a double contrast GI?
a. 100 - 110 kV (MERRILLS)
13. What is the optimal kVp for a chest x-ray and why?
a. 100-130 kVp sufficiently penetrates the heart shadow and visualizes the thoracic vertebrae as well as provides the long scale of contrast necessary to visualizr lung details (RAD CRITIQUE)
196. What is normal rate of respiration for an adult?
a. 15 to 20 breaths/minute
443. What is the safe infusion rate for IV drip for a patient without an order?
a. 15 to 20 drips per minute (TORRES)
173. What must be included on an AP projection of a thumb?
a. From distal tip of thumb to trapezium (MERRILLS)
298. How is the image released on a CR image receptor?
a. From exposure to a high-intensity laser beam (BUSHONG)
278. What cranial bones are best demonstrated on the 15-degree occipital frontal projection?
a. Frontal bone (MERRILLS)
428. What is the best film-screen combo for rheumatoid arthritis? 200 speed @ 55-60kVp 200sp @ 70-75 kVp 400sp@ 55-60kVp
a. 200 speed @ 55-60 kVp
498. When doing the cervicothoracic lateral position of the cervical spine what angle is suggested to help separate the two shoulder, especially with a patient with limited flexibility who cannot depress the shoulders?
a. 3 - 5O caudad (MERRILLS)
49. Minimum number of people needed for a stretcher transfer(without slider bd)
a. 3 people (TORRES) - one at the head, one at each side of patient
136. How much must mAs be changed to see difference in density?
a. 30 % change (CARLTON & ADLER)
113. What is the angle and direction of CR for BE sigmoid shot if patient prone?
a. 30 - 40 degrees caudad
163. How much rotation of the foot is needed for an oblique view of the foot? Is there an angle on the tube for the oblique foot?
a. 30O rotation, perpendicular CR (MERRILLS)
201. For radiation safety at what point of exposure (percentage of MPD) are radiation worker worried about their exposure, and need to take remedial action to reduce their occupation exposure?
a. 5 % of MPD (SC20A p 34)
318. Location of endotracheal tube tube.
a. 5-7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina) (TORRES)
99. What is the ratio of two-man compression for CPR?
a. 5:2 ratio, each rescuer independently performing compressions or ventilations with periodic switches of position. Compressions are delivered at a rate of 80 to 100 per minute, with a 2-3 second pause for two ventilations after every 5 chest compressions
260. What is a normal adult pulse per minute?
a. 60 - 90 beats / minute in a rested state (TORRES)
55. SID distance for AC joints and why give weights?
a. 72 inches (183 cm) - reduces magnification and distortion of joint space; weights will clearly demonstrate an AC joint separation, if any
491. What is the suggested kVp for soft tissue neck?
a. 75 kVp (MERRILLS)
202. Optimum kvp range for IVP after injection and why?
a. 75 kVp because subject contrast is increased due to addition of radiopaque contrast material (MERRILLS)
192. What are the symptoms of a pulmonary emboli?
a. 80% of patients with PE have no symptoms (EISENBERG)
466. Give an example of inherent filtration.
a. Glass or metal window of x-ray tube housing (BUSHONG)
114. Choosing grid for chest x-ray what is best 8:1 focused or 12:1 focused
a. 8:1 focused ← best for portable b. 12:1 focused ← best for high kV (above 80)
308. Definition of a blow-out fracture?
a. A fracture of the orbital floor just above the maxillary sinus caused by a direct blow to the front of the orbit that causes a rapid increase in intra-orbital pressure (EISENBERG)
232. What is a Salter-Harris fracture?
a. A fracture through the epiphysis (growth plate) of a child
8. Is a germicide the same as a disinfectant?
a. A germicide is a solution that destroys microorganisms b. A disinfectant is any substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria c. A disinfectant is a type of germicide (TORRES)
357. In relation to DR/CR imaging what is a histogram?
a. A histogram is a bar graph which may provide useful diagnostic data in some instances. Software is available to produce these graphs by Hounsfield units and by time versus motion
58. When a patient is confiding personal information to you about himself or herself what attitude is important for you to assume? (torres 5th p25)
a. A neutral, non-judgmental one
301. What is spina bifida and the signs and sympotoms?
a. A posterior defect in the spinal canal resulting from failure of posterior elements to fuse properly • Spina bifida occulta (mild form) o Splitting of the bony neural canal at L5-S1 level • Spina bifida vera (severe form( o Herniation of the meninges or the meninges and a porion of the spinal cord or nerve roots o May be asymptomatic (EISENBERG)
83. What is a primary barrier? Is the control both wall a primary barrier?
a. A primary protective barrier prevents primary radiation from reaching personnel or members of the general public on the other side of the barrier. The control booth is NOT a primary barrier, as the booth intercepts leakage and scattered radiation only and is therefore regarded as a secondary protective barrier (SHERER)
121. After doing a 10-minute film on an IVU all the kidneys are well demonstrated except the upper poles of both kidneys. What would you do next?
a. A radiograph during an IVU must include the entire outline of the kidneys, and therefore the 10 minute film must be repeated as soon as possible centered the appropriate amount higher to include the entire kidney (MERRILLS)
315. What is a nephrogram and why is it important?
a. A radiograph of the renal parenchyma when "blushed" with contrast → shows function of the renal parenchyma
98. Define an aneurysm.
a. A sac formed by dilation of the alls of a blood vessel, usually an artery, and filled with blood (MEDICAL DICTIONARY) b. An aneurysm is a localized dilation of an artery that most commonly involves the aorta (EISENBERG)
210. A ring artefact on a CT image could indicate what?
a. A single detector or bank of detector malfunction (3rd generation CT) (BUSHONG)
175. When doing a mobile chest in CCU, what do you tell the visiting family?
a. A smile and brief explanation of the procedure, with extra attention when delays occur is acceptable. Ask them politely to leave when taking the radiograph. If interpretation of images is asked, tell the family the findings are available to the referring physician and only he/she can provide the information (ADLER & CARLTON)
38. What is the sterile field area in surgery?
a. A sterile field ends at the level of the tabletop or at the waist of the sterile person's gown b. Edges of a sterile wrapper are not sterile c. Cuffs of a sterile gown are not considered sterile (TORRES)
255. What is roadmapping in angiography?
a. A technique in which a static image of the contrast-filled vessel allows the radiologist to see the guidewire or balloon catheter (TORTORICI)
51. What is a colles fracture?
a. A transverse fracture through the distal radius with dorsal (posterior) angulation and often overriding of the distal fracture fragment (EISENBERG) b. Most common fracture of the upper extremity, commonly associated with an avulsion fracture of the ulnar styloid process, radial fragment may be displaced posteriorly ("dinner fork" deformity) (PATH & PROC 1)
403. For the 10 degree caudad projection of coccyx where is the coccyx demonstrated above or below the symphsis pubis?
a. Above (MERRILLS)
155. What does agenesis mean?
a. Absence of an organ due to nonappearance of its primordium in the embryo (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
425. If the TLD is worn under the lead apron what does this measure?
a. Absorbed dose (SEERAM)
70. During voiding cystogram patient does not want to continue with exam, what should you do, advocate for radiologist or patient?
a. Advocate for the patient (TORRES)
256. Why is inspiration/expiration views ordered for possible aspirated FB?
a. Air becomes trapped on the affected side and cannot escape, therefore inspiration views will appear normal but will appear abnormal on expiration (affected lung will not deflate) (MERRILLS)
152. What is the advantage of slip ring technology in CT?
a. Allows for continuous rotation of the x-ray tube possible by eliminating the cables between the gantry and the generators (MERRILLS)
153. What is spiral pitch ratio in CT?
a. Also referred to as pitch, is the relationship between the patient couch movement and x-ray beam collimation Pitch = couch movement every 360O (mm) Slice thickness (mm) (BUSHONG)
36. While communicating with patient why is humour never used?
a. Although humor is often an effective communication tool, you must use it with care when there are cultural or age differences. If there is any doubt concerning its appropriateness, do not use humor. (TORRES)
53. Name three things found on an emergency crash cart.
a. Defibrillator b. Oxygen tank + tubing c. Suction machine d. Oral airways e. Laryngoscope f. Endotracheal tubes and supplies g. Stethoscope h. Blood pressure cuffs i. IV supplies j. Syringes k. Needles l. Blood tubes m. Tape n. Gauze o. Tourniquets
150. How is density affected when changing from 400speed to 200speed screen?
a. Density is decreased by a factor of two (halved) (BUSHONG, IMG RECORDING)
97. What is a nosocomial infection?
a. An infection acquired in the course of medical care (TORRES)
61. What does quantum mottle indicate?
a. An insufficient quantity of photons have stricken the intensifying screen - due to low mAs / time factor (CARLTON & ADLER)
307. What is a monteggia fracture?
a. An isolated fracture of the shaft of the ulna associated with anterior dislocation of the radius at the elbow (EISENBERG)
48. What is the optimal kvp for an abdomen and why?
a. An optimal 65 to 75 kVp technique sufficiently penetrates the soft tissue and bony structures of the abdomen. This kVp setting enhances the subtle radiation absorption differences among the fat, gas, muscles and solid organs, which mainly consist of water (RAD CRITIQUE)
143. What kvp range is optimal for an abdomen and why?
a. An optimal 65-75 kVp technique sufficiently penetrates the soft tissue and bony structures of the abdomen. This kVp enhances the subtle radiation absorption differences among the fat, gas, muscles and solid organs, which consist mainly of water (RAD CRITIQUE)
82. What procedure is done in radiology to relieve the symptoms of artheriosclerosis?
a. Angioplasty, vascular stenting, thrombolysis (TORTORICI)
14. When x-raying a kyphotic patient for portable chest x-ray how do you adjust your CR?
a. Angle up slightly or leave the CR straight so clavicles will be 1" below apices of lung (CLINICAL)
188. How is the male urethra best demonstrated in a voiding cystogram?
a. Anterior oblique view - RPO or LPO position ➢ Places penis along soft tissues of the medial side of the lower thigh to obtain a uniform density of both the deep and cavernous portions of the urethral canal (MERRILLS)
177. When x-raying a pelvis a 45 degree caudad angle is used, what is the name of this view and what does it best demonstrate?
a. Anteroposterior axial "outlet" projection of the pelvis; demonstrates pubic rami without foreshortening
1. What does flexion/extension views of c-spine assess?
a. Anteroposterior mobility (RAD CRITIQUE) b. Anteroposterior movement, motility (MERRILLS)
218. Why should a chest x-ray kVp on a child not exceed 90 kVp?
a. Any higher of a kVp would result in a very low mAs, which in turn results in quantam mottle which can look like a pathology (pneumonia) on a pediatric chest (CLINICAL)
442. How is repeat rate calculated?
a. As a percentage of the total number of images produced during the period of the study: (CARLTON & ADLER) REPEAT RATE = total # of repeats total # of images produced
170. A patient in ER has severe gash on the hand, would you remove the band-aid before x-raying?
a. As a radiographer during trauma, you should remove anything that can cause an artifact, however you should not remove anything that could exacerbate the patient's situation. Therefore you should keep the bandage on for the x-ray if the blood loss would create further complications if removed, and document this on the film bag. (TORRES)
377. If you cannot find a translator for a patient for BE what would you do?
a. Ask a family member or close relative that speaks English to translate
5. Why is a ball catchers view done?
a. Assist in detecting early radiologic changes needed to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis (MERRILLS)
31. Difference between bennets# and Pott's #
a. BENNETT'S FRACTURE = • Oblique fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, possibly with proximal and lateral subluxation of metacarpal shaft • Fracture extends into first carpometacarpal joint • Usually caused by FOOSH b. POTT'S FRACTURE = • Fracture of the ankle, involving the mallleoli: • First degree Pott's = fractures involving one malleolus • Second degree Pott's (bimalleolar) = fractures involving both malleoli • Third degree Pott's (trimalleolar) = bimalleolar fracture with a fracture of the posteroinferior surface of the tibia
333. During surgery how do you pass a sterile nurse?
a. Back to back (TORRES)
273. What is a ureterocele?
a. Ballooning of the lower end of the ureter into the bladder (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
46. List exams from highest to lowest dose lumbar spine, KUB, chest, BE
a. Barium Enema b. Lumbar Spine c. KUB d. Chest
284. Which exam has the highest gonadal dose l-sp, BE, abdomen, GI?
a. Barium Enema (TRAVIS)
221. What two contrast agents are injected for enterocylsis?
a. Barium and either air or methyl cellulose (MERRILLS)
40. What is included on a brain CT?
a. Base of skull to cranial apex (CLINICAL 2)
334. If a Tech touches a patient without permission, what complaint could be brought against tech: malpractice battery harassment misconduct
a. Battery (ADLER & CARLTON)
347. A grids primary function is to improve what?
a. Contrast (CARLTON & ADLER, BUSHONG)
52. What 3 anatomical landmarks are assessed for perfect position of "Y" view?
a. Coracoid b. Acromion angle c. Medial scapular angle
90. What areas on the body are most prone to bedsore?
a. Bed sores can occur anywhere on the body, but the areas most prone to bedsores are those where the bones are closer to the surface of the skin. For instance, the hips, elbows, ankles, back, shoulder and behind the head; these areas are more likely to result in bed sores than other parts of the body (ONLINE SOURCE)
414. After a mild reaction the doctor wants to administer a antihistamine, which of these would be selected? benadryl adrenalin xylocaine atropine
a. Benadryl
75. What vertebral level does the kidneys sit?
a. Between T12 and L3 on either side of the spine (ANATOMY NOTES) b. Normally extend from the level of the superior border of T12 to the level of the transverse processes of L3 in persons of sthenic build (MERRILLS)
191. Where would a vesicovaginal fistula be found?
a. Between the bladder and the vagina (MERRILLS, EISENBERG)
350. How is off-focus radiation controlled?
a. By using a fixed diaphragm in the tube housing near the window of the x-ray tube; another effective solution is the metal envelope x-ray tube (BUSHONG)
110. What professional body assists techs in education?
a. CAMRT and OAMRT (INTRO TO MI NOTES)
33. Describe method to open sterile tray?
a. CLOTH-WRAPPED PACKS: • Should have already washed your hands • Indicator tape = dark gray if sterilized • Place pack on clean tabletop with sealed end toward you i. Remove the tape ii. Move first corner of wrapper back and away from you iii. Open next two corners of the pack to the left and right, respectively iv. Open the fourth corner by dropping it toward your body v. DO NOT TOUCH sterile contents vi. To move the content to another sterile field, grasp the underside of the wrapper and let the edges fall over you hand (TORRES)
106. What professional body protects the public?
a. CMRTO (INTRO TO MI NOTES)
436. What is most likely radiation induced effect on a fetus in 1st trimester
a. CNS damage (if dose > 200 mSv, death) (SHERER)
32. Difference between compound# and comminuted#.
a. COMPUND FRACTURE (OPEN): • A wound in communication with the fracture • Susceptible to infection • Blood loss may be significant b. COMMINUTED FRACTURE: • Fracture with more than two bone fragments • Segmental = divides the long bone into several fragments • Butterfly = wedge-shaped fragment split off from the main fragment
387. What type of gas is created when granules are given during a GI series?
a. Carbon dioxide
394. If you are about to start CPR which artery should be used to assess pulse?
a. Carotid artery (ADLER & CARLTON)
314. What is the landmark for the cricoid cartilage?
a. Cervical vertebra C4 - 5 (ANATOMY NOTES)
145. Notice a box of expired x-ray films, what do you do with them?
a. Check base + fog, if within limits you may use the film as soon as possible (NOTES) b. Film must be used before its expiration date (BUSHONG)
460. What do you do if an exam is ordered and you are unsure of the routine?
a. Check department technique / routine manual
242. How do you check for allergies on an inpatient?
a. Check thwir medical chart, if it is not included call the nurses station where they came from. It does not hurt to also ask the patient to verify the information you received (if possible)
437. Blood or body fluid has spilled what can be used to clean up?
a. Clean using a disinfectant (TORRES)
12. Purpose of lateral bending for scoliosis.
a. Compensatory curve will straighten / correct itself on one of these films (PATH & PROCEDURES 2) b. Employed in patients with early scoliosis to determine the presence of structural change when bending to the right and left (MERRILLS)
363. If a fellow technologist is talking about something personal (what they did last night in front of a patient what would you do?
a. Confidentiality - as a radiographer, you must not disclose facts concerning the patient's health or other personal information (TORRES)
57. In terms of communication what must be discussed first before moving a patient (torres p76)
a. Consultation with the nurse in charge of the patient is recommended so that patient's condition and limitations can be understood: if assistants are needed, they must be on hand
168. By a mistake a 400speed film screen system was used instead of a 200 speed film system. The technical factors set was for a 200 speed system. The density of the film will be affected how and by how much?
a. Density will be increased by a factor of two (doubled) (CLINICAL EXPERIENCE, PHYSICS NOTES & TEXTS)
187. How do you assess mobility in a wheelchair patient?
a. Deviations from correct body alignment b. Immobility or limitations in range of joint movement c. Respiratory, cardiovascular, metabolic and musculoskeletal problems d. Patient's general condition e. Ability to understand what is expected during transfer f. Acceptance of move g. Medication history
3. What does ERCP stand for and why is it done?
a. Diagnose biliary and pancreatic pathologic conditions (MERRILLS) b. Used to investigate gallbladder, common bile duct and pancreatic ducts as well as intervention (PATH & PROCEDURES YR 1)
203. Define hydronephrosis.
a. Dilation of the renal pelvicalyceal system due to blockage above the level of the bladder (EISENBERG)
336. The photo spot (film) camera receives its information from the light from the output phosphor of the II where does the spot film camera receive it information?
a. Directly from the x-ray beam (BUSHONG)
194. Why is contrast necessary when doing some CT exams?
a. Distinguish normal anatomy from pathology; make various disease processes more visible; oral contrast = distinguish between loops of bowel and other structures within the abdomen (MERRILLS)
479. What should be the Tech response if the patient asks if they have seen anything on the film? (Torres p 92)
a. Do NOT diagnose, as this is illegal. Tell the patient that they can ask the referring physician about the results of the exam. (TORRES, SHERER)
222. Give the post care instructions for the patient following enterocylsis?
a. Do NOT eat or drink for 2-3 hours post procedure as throat anesthesis is used to reduce the gag reflex (NOTES)
426. If the TLD is worn on the thyroid collar what does this measure?
a. Effective dose (SEERAM)
349. What is off-focus radiation (extra focal radiation)?
a. Electrons bounce off the focal spot and land on other areas of the target, causing x-rays to be produced from outside the focal spot (BUSHONG)
470. Which of the following component of the II is responsible for focussing the electron beam: electrostatic lens the input phosphor the glass envelope the photocathode
a. Electrostatic lens
120. What is enteroclysis and what would you tell the patient when you are finished the exam?
a. Enteroclysis is the injection of nutrient or medicinal liquid into the bowel - for radiography, a procedure in which contrast medium is injected into the duodenum under fluoro control for examination of the small intestine. After the procedure you must tell the patient not to eat or drink for a few hours as spray anesthesia is used to inhibit gag reflex when intubating.
447. Which line is primarily used for long term drug therapy: Epidural catheter Swan Ganz catheter Hickman catheter
a. Epidural catheter
140. How is rotation assessed on the Caldwell view of the skull?
a. Equal distance from lateral border of skull to lateral border of orbit on both sides
84. What pathology seen during a GI is associated with cirrhosis of liver?
a. Esophageal varices (EISENBERG)
390. According to Torres how often should the MRT assess a trauma patient while they are in imaging department? (p 185) -know this
a. Every 5 to 10 minutes
391. What causes filament vaporization in the tube?
a. Excessive rotor prep time
478. What respiration should be used when inserting an enema tip?
a. Expiration (TORRES)
299. T or F Subcutaneous emphysema ( gas or air is in the layer under the skin) can be the result of a pneumothorax?
a. FALSE - caused by penetrating or blunt injuries (EISENBERG)
449. How do you best communicate with a child? (torres)
a. Face to face, using a soft tone of voice and speaking in terms that are simple and familiar (TORRES)
206. T or F Linear tube movement is used for renal tomograms?
a. False (MERRILLS)
230. T or F A pneumonia will appear on a radiograph as an area of decreased lung marking and increased density?
a. False - decreased density (EISENBERG)
43. Why does excessive rotor prep time lead to wear on x-ray tube?
a. Filament vaporization - gassy tube as well as melting the bearings in the rotor - seized rotor - uneven wear on anode (BUSHONG)
477. What tone of voice is best suited when communicating with the elderly? (torres)
a. Firm but not condescending, do not yell at them
190. What are 2 common causes of film coming out of the processor damp?
a. Fixer - depletion or lack of hardener b. Wash Tank - saturation or insufficient fresh water (CARLTON & ADLER)
450. Why are vital signs often taken before an intraarterial injection of contrast?
a. For baseline values (TORTORICI)
355. What is a TIA? (transient ischemic attack)
a. Headache, dizziness, drowsiness, mental confusion caused by atherosclerotic plaque, most commonly plaque at the bifurcation of the carotid artery; can happen during sleep or when awakened (PATH & PROC 2)
204. What MUST be recorded on a requisition after an injection?
a. How much (Amount) b. Name of Contrast c. Time / date injected d. Name / Signature of personnel who injected the contrast
44. When doing c-spine odontoid in collar what visible reference line is parallel to CR?
a. IOML (RAD CRITIQUE)
60. How do you know if a FB is in oesophagus and not trachea?
a. If a FB is in the trachea, the lung(s) will still have air in them on the expiration radiograph of the chest, whereas a FB in the oesophagus will have no effect on the lung size / markings (CLINICAL)
169. Where is the CT x-ray beam collimated?
a. In CT scanning, there is usually two collimators: one (prepatient) mounted on the x-ray tube housing or adjacent to it, the other (predetector) is between the patient and the detectors. (BUSHONG)
395. What is ataxia?
a. Incoordination occurring in the absence of apraxia, paresis, rigidity, spasticity or involuntary movement (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
160. Patient can only dorsiflex 80 degrees for plantodorsal projection of calcaneous, how do you adjust the CR?
a. Increase angle to 50O cephalad (MERRILLS)
472. What is the effect of using a grid?
a. Increases contrast (BUSHONG)
119. What is diverticulitis?
a. Inflammation of diverticula, small blind pouches that form in the lining and wall of the colon
464. What is total filtration?
a. Inherent filtration plus added filtration (BUSHONG)
469. In the image intensifier tube what is the purpose of the input phosphor?
a. Input phosphor (made of cesium iodide) converts x-rays to visible light (BUSHONG)
144. What joint are visible when patient in obliqued supine position with CR 20-30 caudad. How would you demo these joints in the PA upright position?
a. Intervertebral foramen on raised side as well as pedicles b. To demo in the PA upright position, angle cephalically and put side of interest closest to the film
122. How should agitated patients be approached?
a. It is best to approach a patient who is agitated from the side, not face to face (TORRES)
306. What is the threshold dose below which no genetic effects can occur? (safety code pg 48)
a. It is generally presumed that there is NO threshold dose below which genetic effects can occur (SC20A, p48)
56. What is most likely the first sign of anaphylactic shock and what drug would you most likely reach for first, in an anaphylactic reaction?
a. Itching, redness or swelling of the skin; epinephrine (TORRES, TORTORICI)
332. Are most intravenous contrast agents LOW or HIGH osmolarity today?
a. LOW osmolarity (ADLER & CARLTON)
77. What position best demonstrates AP displacement on a # mandible?
a. Lateral view (CLINICAL)
215. How do you assess AP mobility of the cervical spine and why is it necessary?
a. Lateral view of c-spine with hyperflexion and hyperextension; usually done to demo normal AP movement or an absence of movement resulting from trauma or disease (CLINICAL - before surgery for anaesthesiologist to see if intubation is possible) (MERRILLS)
141. What view best demonstrates Osgoode Schlatter disease?
a. Lateral view of the affected knee (NOTES)
9. Difference between a lauenstein view of hip and x-table lateral
a. Lauenstein = lesser trochanter in profile medially and femoral neck superimposes greater trochanter b. X-table = femoral neck demoed without any foreshortening, greater and lesser trochanters are demoed at about the same transverse level (RAD CRITIQUE, MERRILLS)
345. Which stomach position demonstrates the fundus full of barium, an unobstructed view of the duodenal bulb _________________?
a. Left Posterior Oblique View (MERRILLS)
176. What is best demonstrated in the left anterior oblique view of the cervical spine?
a. Left intervertebral foramina and pedicles (MERRILLS)
87. The cervical spine on supine patient is being examined. The patient I sin the RPO with the CR 20 cephald. What is best demonstrated?
a. Left intervertebral foramina and pedicles and an oblique projection of the bodies and other parts of the cervical vertebrae (MERRILLS)
429. Which position best demonstrates the hepatic flexure on DC colon series?
a. Left posterior oblique
486. What will be demonstrated best when doing a pelvis if the legs are externally rotated (lesser or greater) trochanter?
a. Lesser trochanter (MERRILLS, CLINICAL)
78. What test is done after collimator light is changed?
a. Light field / beam congruency test (STEVENS)
402. What is a disadvantage of capacitor discharge mobile unit?
a. Limits available x-ray tube current and results in falling kVp during exposure, and there is a chance of continued x-ray emission (BUSHONG)
159. What test would be performed when changing the speed of your films?
a. Linearity test (STEVENS)
137. If a trauma patient has not had his neck cleared how do you turn this patient? And how many people are needed?
a. Log roll - 5 people are needed, 2 people stand at each side of the table/bed, one person keeps the head and neck immobilized, two assist with maintaining alignment of the torso and two with the legs • Patient's arms across chest • Pillow between patient's knees • Place bolster where head will rest when turn is complete • In unison, use sheet to turn pt as if a log, keeping head, neck and torso immobile during move (TORRES)
11. What body part is perpendicular to the CR when doing an intercondylar fossa?
a. Long axis of the leg (MERRILLS) b. Calf / lower leg / tib-fib
7. What is orthostatic hypotension?
a. Low blood pressure due to standing upright (dizziness after getting up from a supine position) (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
481. An in-patient has arrived for an IVP and cannot understand English how do you check for allergies?
a. Medical chart, verify with English-speaking relative if available
369. What is a medical directive?
a. Medical directives pertain to treatment preferences and the designation of a surrogate decision-maker in the event that a person should become unable to make medical decisions on their own behalf (ONLINE MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
47. What drug would be given to patient following a severe contrast reaction?
a. Medications usually given for anaphylactic shock are epinephrine, diphenhydramine, hydrocortisone and aminophylline (TORRES, TORTORICI)
272. Why is 72" necessary for a PA chest x-ray?
a. Minimize magnification of the heart and to obtain greater recorded detail of the delicate lung structures (MERRILLS)
18. You notice the nurse forgets to chart that a medication was given while the patient was having an IVP what should you do?
a. Must bring any omissions to their attention - any item that has not been documented on the chart is considered to be "not performed" in a court of law (TORRES)
300. What is the chemical name for buscopan?
a. N - butylscopolaminomium bromide (an anticholinergic drug) (ONLINE)
179. Is the tib fib visualized anywhere on a patellar view?
a. NO
293. Mrs Smith is pregnant and has arrived in ER. She has broke her distal tib fib. On the initial film you have included the fracture and the joint closest to the fracture, do you need to include the other joint and increase her exposure?
a. NO - include only the area of interest by carefully collimating (SHERER)
366. Can a nurse with an extended class order an acute abdomen series?
a. NO - only authorized to order x-rays of the chest, ribs, arm, wrist, hand, leg, ankle and foot, and to order a mammogram (CMRTO - ONLINE)
172. Is having the tube pointing at the control booth okay? (look a primary and secondary barriers)
a. NO - the control booth is a secondary, not a primary barrier (SHERER)
319. Can you give the patient his/her chart to read? Who can?
a. NO - their physician can discuss the contents with them (ADLER & CARLTON)
433. Can a pregnant patient have an IVP_________?
a. NO - ultrasound is better in this instance (MERRILLS)
103. Order for possible aspirated FB in child, what area is covered by film?
a. Nasopharynx to anal canal (MERRILLS)
161. What is the location of boxer fracture?
a. Neck of fifth metacarpal (EISENBERG)
226. Can a pregnant technologist work anywhere in department? (check safety code)
a. No • Appropriate steps must be taken to ensure that her work duties during the remainder of the pregnancy are compatible with accepted maximum radiation exposure (SC20A p14) • This may mean that time in a high-dose area like fluoro rooms may be reduced, etc (CLINICAL)
396. For enteric precautions are masks required?
a. No (contact precautions) (TORRES)
241. A pregnant mother wants to stand by her child in the pigostat and will wear a lead apron. Is this acceptable?
a. No - lead apron only stops 95% of primary radiation, therefore putting the fetus at risk. If she wishes to stay nearby where she can see her child, the only option would be to stand behind the control panel.
480. An ER patient is to have a GI for a possible perforated stomach, what contrast would you use (choose one): non-ionic water-soluble iodinated contrast, barium with baros granules or ionic contrast?
a. Non-ionic water soluble iodinated contrast
250. What vertebral level would you find most kidneys?
a. Normally extend from the level of the superior border of T12 to the level of the transverse processes of L3 in persons of sthenic build (MERRILLS)
267. What grid error has occurred if the film is light on one side and dark on the other?
a. Off-center and off-focus combined (BUSHONG)
118. When using a grid what causes an overall decreased density?
a. Off-level or off-center grid (CARLTON & ADLER)
93. How do you know you should start CPR?
a. On realization that a patient has suffered cardiac arrest, the appropriate alert should be initiated before the beginning of CPR. CPR must be initiated immediately on verifying that cardiopulmonary distress exists, but it is vitally important these procedures be performed only after it has been determined that true cardiopulmonary distress exists. Establish unresponsiveness by shaking and shouting at the victim. If these actions fail to rouse the person, call for help and proceed with CPR. (ADLER & CARLTON)
495. Where is the coracoid process located?
a. On the scapula (BRYAN)
37. How can dose be minimized when x-raying pregnant pt. (safety code p 39)
a. Only essential investigations should be taken in the case of pregnant or suspected pregnant women b. Pregnant women or women who may be pregnant must not be accepted for chest photofluorographic (mass radiographic) exams c. When pelvic radiography is required, exposure must be kept to the absolute minimum with optimal use of gonadal shielding d. If a radiographic exam of the fetus is required the prone position should be used to reduce fetal dose e. Radiography should not be used for the determination of abnormal presentations of the fetus or for placenta localizations
111. What is ankylosis spondylitis?
a. Ossification in the paravertebral tissues and longitudinal spinal ligaments combines with extensive lateral bony bridges between vertebral bodies to produce the characteristic "bamboo spine" of advanced disease b. Starts in SI joints, causing bilateral and usually symmetric involvement c. Limitation of activity leads to generalized skeletal osteoporosis and a tendency to fracture in response to stress of minor trauma (EISENBERG)
400. What is Legge Perthes disease?
a. Osteochondrosis of the epiphysis of the head of the femur (due to interference of blood supply) (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)a. Developer solution b. Starter solution (IMAGE RECORDING)
459. If the exposure detector lies over the centre for a PA chest projection, what will the result be on the image?
a. Overexposed (dark, ↑ density) (CLINICAL)
484. If the AEC is over the petrous ridges for a skull x-ray how will the rest of the film appear?
a. Overexposed (↑ density) (CLINICAL)
404. What type of exam do you do with a single phase generator, select one: (PA chest on a crying baby, 8yr old enema or a t -spine)
a. PA Chest on a crying baby b. 8 year old enema (BUSHONG) c. T-spine
216. What is the role of the Radiation Protection Officer?
a. Oversee the program's daily operation and provide for its formal review each year; developing appropriate radiation safety programs for the facility; also has a responsibility for maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel (SHERER)
91. What joint and anatomical structure must be included on a patellar view?
a. Patellofemoral joint and patella in profile, as well as the surface of femoral condyles (MERRILLS)
147. Skills necessary when working with children (alder/carlton 129)
a. Patience, technical knowledge, understanding of the pediatric patient, and the effective use of communication skills and immobilization devices can assist in obtaining a quality image.
407. What is the Sims position?
a. Patient lies on either left or right side with the forward arm flexed and the posterior arm extended behind the body. The body is inclined slightly forward with the top knee bent sharply and the bottom knee slightly bent (TORRES)
254. Subject contrast depends on 3 main areas, name them:
a. Patient thickness b. Tissue density c. Effective atomic number (BU SHONG)
383. When positioning an inpatient her hand is pinched in the bucky and skin is broken. What two places would show documentation of this?
a. Patient's record as well as an administrative incident report (ADLER & CARLTON)
71. Name the most often-used injection site for abdominal angiogram?
a. Percutaneoud femoral artery approach, catheter positioned at the level of T12 (TORTORICI)
85. Give path and catheter final destination for femoral angiogram, starting with femoral artery.
a. Percutaneous femoral artery approach on contralateral side (if unilateral), travel through femoral to iliac to common iliac artery of affected side (TORTORICI) b. If lower extremities are to be studied, an end-hole, multiple side-hole catheter is employed at the level of L-4 (TORTORICI)
193. What is the tube angle in relation to the lower leg, when demonstrating an intercondylar notch?
a. Perpendicular (MERRILLS)
39. Give angle and direction of AP knees on patient abdominal measurement of 19-24cm?
a. Perpendicular to knee joint (MERRILLS, RAD CRITIQUE)
101. Which of the following has lower dose and which has better resolution: Photospot film, cine, 105mm, magnetic tape, radiographic spot film
a. Photospot film has a lower dose b. Radiographic spot film has better resolution (BUSHONG)
379. What does PACS mean?
a. Picture Archive Communication System (DIGITAL NOTES)
229. Which condition would you most often take inspiration and expiration films for?
a. Pneumothorax (CLINICAL)
50. What are is the fowler position?
a. Position in which the head of the patient's bed is raised 18 to 20 inches above the level with the knees also elevated
227. To best demonstrate the iliac wing, how would you position the patient?
a. Position the patient with the affected side down in a posterior oblique (MERRILLS)
410. When performing a shoulder exam what is the patient position to best demonstrate the glenoid fossa?
a. Posterior oblique of the affected side (PRO or LPO) (MERRILLS)
282. What is the purpose of the thymus?
a. Produces several hormones important to the development and maintenance of normal immunological defenses (MARTINI)
337. What is reverse isolation? When finished exam do you clean machine?
a. Protects a patient with decreased immunity from hospital personnel or other patients. You do NOT need to clean the machine afterward, but must do so before the examination (PT CARE)
259. In the construction of film what is the purpose of the gelatine layer?
a. Provides a rigid structure to suspend the silver ions in b. Flexible and resistant to allow easy handling (BUSHONG)
494. Where is the coronoid process located?
a. Proximal ulna or mandible (BRYAN)
23. Purpose and position of a swan ganz catheter.
a. Purpose = 1. to measure wedge pressure 2. to measure central venous pressure 3. to measure systolic, diastolic and mean pressure 4. to withdraw blood samples 5. to give fluid or inject drugs Location = right or left pulmonary artery
63. What kvp used in mammography and why?
a. Requires a low kV for high contrast as breast is made up of similarly attenuating parts; technique factors of approximately 23 to 28 kVp are used because too low a technique increases dose while high kV reduces image quality (BUSHONG)
146. Skills necessary when working with mentally impaired. (alder/carlton 128)
a. Requires a thorough knowledge of equipment and immobilization techniques as well as interaction skills
415. What is the purpose of hydroquinone in the development solution?
a. Responsible for black shades on a radiograph (BUSHONG)
370. What are the signs and symptoms of shock?
a. Restlessness, apprehension or general anxiety, tachycardia, decreasing blood pressure, cold and clammy skin, pallor (ADLER & CARLTON)
156. What 4 vessels supply blood to the brain?
a. Right and left internal carotid arteries, right and left vertebral arteries (TORTORICI)
135. What vessel does the R and L vertebral arteries originate from?
a. Right and left subclavian artery (NETTERS, NOTES, ETC)
205. The LPO position best demonstrates which distal ureter?
a. Right distal ureter (MERRILLS)
117. Which position best demonstrates pleural effusion of RT lung?
a. Right lateral decubitus (MERRILLS)
253. What is best demonstrated on the left anterior oblique view of the lumbar spine?
a. Right zygoapophyseal joints (MERRILLS)
100. What are demonstrated on oblique views of a myelogram?A myelogram is a diagnostic imaging procedure done by a radiologist. It uses a contrast dye and X-rays or computed tomography (CT) to look for problems in the spinal canal, including the spinal cord, nerve roots, and other tissues.
a. Ruptured intervertebral disc ("sheep nose" or "anvil like" deformity (PUTMAN)
198. What carpal bone is prone to aseptic necrosis and why?
a. Scaphoid • blood supply enters from distal portion of carpal bone and can get cut off when the bone is fractured • loss of blood supply will result in avascular necrosis
488. According to Torres which area of the body is most susceptible to the formation of decubitus ulcers? (Torres 5h p90)
a. Scapulae, sacrum, trochanters, knees and heels of the feet
Name the two common type of CT detectors?
a. Scintillation and gas-filled detectors (BUSHONG)
25. What instruments are used for sensitometry?
a. Sensitometer (step wedge) and densitometer (BUSHONG)
197. What 2 tools are required to produce a characteristic curve, when comparing two different type of films? What are their purpose?
a. Sensitometer - optical step wedge; gives a range of densities on the film b. Densitometer - a device that measures the optical density (BUSHONG)
76. What does the RT lateral stomach demonstrate?
a. Shows the anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach, the pyloric canal, and the duodenal bulb. The right lateral projection commonly affords the best image of the pyloric canal and the duodenal bulb in patients with a hypersthenic habitus (MERRILLS)
80. What type of film is used in mammography and why?
a. Single emulsion film; no light crossover, result is higher contrast which is useful in mammography (BUSHONG)
490. What is the respiration for soft tissue neck?
a. Slow inspiration (MERRILLS)
65. What breathing should be used when x-raying a soft tissue neck?
a. Slow inspiration so the trachea is filled with air (MERRILLS)
164. Does a high ratio grid have a smaller or larger focussing range than a low ratio grid?
a. Smaller focusing range (CARLTON & ADLER)
271. Why are high frequency transformers the choice for new x-ray equipment?
a. Smaller; improved image quality at lower patient dose (BUSHONG)
297. What is the most common injection site for a myelogram?
a. Spinal puncture, most commonly at the L2-L3 or L3-L4 interspace (MERRILLS)
29. Difference between spondyolysis vs. spondylolisthesis.
a. Spondylolysis refers to a defect in the pars interarticularis without displacement, if displacement occurs the condition is called spondylolithesis (EISENBERG) b. Spondylolysis = the breaking down of a vertebra, or replacement of a portion of the vertebral arch with cartilage c. Spondylolithesis = forward displacement of a vertebra over a lower segment, usually of the 4th or 5th lumbar, frequently due to spondylolysis (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
16. What medication may be added to the contrast before injection to prevent a reaction?
a. Steroids and antihistamines (Benadryl, Medrol) may be used as a premedication but contrast media shoul NEVER be mixed with medication (TORTORICI, TORRES)
248. What does a prone view of a GI exam of stomach demonstrate?
a. Stomach spreads horizontally, and the pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are well demonstrated in patients with an asthenic or a hyposthenic body habitus (MERRILLS)
64. Injection site for myelogram?
a. Subarachnoid space by spinal puncture, most commonly at the L2-3 or L3-4 interspace or at the cisterna magna between C1 and the occipital bone (MERRILLS)
371. Which method of drug administration will provide the fastest response? subcutaneous intramuscular rectal intravenous
a. Subcutaneous b. Intramuscular c. Rectal d. Intravenous
389. T or F To change a patient that has suffered a stroke you always take the clothes off the unaffected side first.
a. TRUE (TORRES)
246. Define intussusception.
a. Telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjoining section causing intestinal obstruction (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
434. What should be done if you observe a co-worker touching a patient incorrectly?
a. Tell the supervising (charge) technologist, who may take it to the manager and / or human resources
295. If you have a complaint about a Radiologist which body would you contact?
a. The College of Physicians and Surgeons (ONLINE SOURCE)
133. How is a radiation reading received from a TLD?
a. The TLD sensing material (usually lithium fluoride) is heated to a high temperature to release trapped electrons in the form of visible light. The intensity of the light is proportional to the amount of radiation that interacted with the crystals (SHERER)
134. What is the air-gap technique and why is it used?
a. The air-gap technique is another method of reducing scatter radiation, thereby enhancing image contrast. When this technique is used, the IR is moved 10 to 15 cm away from the patient, SID may or may not be increased, and technical factors must be increased. The air-gap technique has found application in chest radiography and cerebral angiography. (BUSHONG)
385. What area does the sterile corridor refer to?
a. The area between the patient drape and the instrument table (ADLER & CARLTON)
339. The patient from the above question asks for a Kleenex who should give it to him the clean or the dirty tech? (Torres 5th p 64)
a. The clean tech
457. Why must the elbow flexed 90 for a lateral elbow?
a. The elbow fat pads are least compressed in this position (MERRILLS)
139. When doing a skull exam what is the most radiosensitive area?
a. The eyes (NOTES, CLINICAL)
95. Why is it important to have soft tissue on lateral elbow view?
a. The fat pads are least compressed when elbow is 90 degrees, and if the fat pad(s) show on a radiograph, this means that there is effusion in the joint which may indicate an undetectable fracture on the x-ray. These fat pads are within the soft tissue surrounding the elbow (MERRILLS, CLASS NOTES, CLINICAL)
24. What does plia circularis mean?
a. The numerous folds of the mucous membrane of the small intestine, running transversely for about two-thirds of the circumference of the gut (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
268. What area of sterile gown is considered sterile?
a. The only parts of a sterile gown considered sterile are the areas from the waist to the shoulders in front and the sleeves from 2" above the elbow to the cuffs (TORRES)
35. What part of gown is sterile, during surgery?
a. The only parts of a sterile gown considered sterile are the areas from the waist to the shoulders in front and the sleeves from 2" above the elbow to the cuffs (TORRES)
310. On the oblique lumbar spine what are the "eyes" of the Scotty dogs?
a. The pedicles of the lumbar vertebrae (MERRILLS, RAD CRITIQUE)
311. What is the tube housing made of and its purpose?
a. The protective housing is made of cast steel and is capable of absorbing most of the unwanted photons. The housing is usually lined with lead for additional absorption only at the cathode end because the direction of the photons being emitted from the anode. The housing also serves as an electrical shock protector and a cushion for the x-ray tube from rough handling. (CARLTON & ADLER, BUSHONG)
354. Who is responsible for the consent?
a. The radiographer (TORRES)
408. What is the purpose of the reflective layer in the intensifying screen?
a. The reflective layer intercepts light headed in other directions and redirects it to the film (BUSHONG)
171. What rib attaches to the sternal angle?
a. The second rib (MERRILLS)
292. What is the trendelenberg position?
a. The table or bed is inclined with the patient's head lower than the rest of the body (TORRES)
225. Who is in charge of radiation protection during an exam the Radiation Protection Officer or the technologist?
a. The technologist (RAD PROTECTION NOTES)
476. When doing scoliosis series which DON"T you want to select: the two outside cells, graduated screens, filters
a. The two outside cells
462. Why must a knee not be flexed more than 5 to 10 degrees for lateral knee?
a. This position relaxes the muscles and shows the maximum volume of joint cavity (MERRILLS)
283. What age group is the thymus most predominate?
a. Those children who have not yet reached puberty
20. State the line focus principle.
a. Through angling the target, the effective area of the target is made much smaller than the actual area of electron interaction (BUSHONG)
107. The teeth obscure the odontoid, how do you reposition?
a. Tilt the head back (extend the neck) to align the incisors with the base of the occiput (RAD CRITIQUE, CLINICAL, ETC)
341. What is the purpose of the flush?
a. To assess the nature, number and course of the great vessels extending from the aorta; employed to rule out the presence of aneurysms, congenital anomalies, stenosis, or occlusions (TORTOTICI)
132. Why is it important to know a patients creatine level before injecting contrast.
a. To check kidney function because injection of contrast is contraindicated by impaired kidney function
406. Why is an ERCP performed?
a. To diagnose biliary and pancreatic pathologic conditions as well as treat them (MERRILLS)
291. Why is it necessary to show soft tissue on a lateral cervical spine?
a. To ensure that the prevertebral fat stripe is included: • On anterior surfaces on vertebrae • If widening of space between vertebral surface and fat stripe occurs, may indicate fracture, masses and inflammation (RAD CRITIQUE)
264. Why do you lower a fainting patient to the floor and elevate her feet?
a. To get blood supply to the brain so no permanent damage is done and consciousness is regained
374. Why is graphite used as a backing material for anode disc?
a. To move heat away from the surface of the anode - works as a heat sink because of high melting point and low thermal conductivity (RAD EQUIP 2A)
358. What is the purpose of universal precautions?
a. To prevent the transmission of disease by body fluids and substances (ADLER & CARLTON)
26. Why is it suggested to do scoliosis in the PA projection?
a. To reduce radiation exposure to selected radiosensitive organs (MERRILLS)
244. When x-raying an AP lumbar spine why are the knees bent?
a. To reduce the lumbar curvature in order for intervertebral joints to be well demonstrated (MERRILLS, CLINICAL)
207. What is the purpose of squeegee rollers?
a. To remove excess water from the film after the wash stage of processing (IMAGE RECORDING NOTES, CLINICAL)
471. What is the purpose of a back up timer? (Safety code, appendix III (c-e)
a. To terminate the exposure in the event of a phototimer failure
316. What are the 3 major components of the characteristic curve?
a. Toe, straight-line portion and shoulder (BUSHONG)
258. How would the radiograph appear if, when exposing the patient the wrong bucky was selected ? (too dark or too light)
a. Too dark / increased density if using AEC (CLINICAL)
305. How does a stroke show on a CT scan?
a. Triangular or wedge-shaped area of hypodensity (EISENBERG)
487. T or F A Swan-Ganz catheter measures the pumping ability of the heart.
a. True
149. T or F Circuits with low ripple produce more constant x-ray output.
a. True (BUSHONG)
269. T or F A image that displays vignetting will be dim around the periphery? softening or shading away the edges of the subject.
a. True (BUSHONG)
393. T or F The technologist has no control over the mA selection when using a falling load generator?
a. True (BUSHONG)
154. T or F The combination of metformin and iodinated contrast can put the patient at risk of renal failure?
a. True (TORRES)
T or F Early signs of raised intracranial pressure do to trauma include drowsiness, slow respirations, and becoming incoherent.
a. True (TORRES)
432. A patient needs the following exams list the order these should be done: BE, US ABD, GI, IVP
a. US ABD b. IVP c. GI d. BE
424. The AEC cell was not changed after doing a pa chest x-ray. How will the lateral appear?
a. Underexposed (light) (CLINICAL)
142. What radiographic position best demonstrates perforation of the intestines?
a. Upright or decubitus (depends on patient capability) to show air level under diaphragm or on raised flank
384. What grid error has occurred if the centre portion of the film is okay but the periphery is light?
a. Upside-down grid (CARLTON & ADLER, BUSHONG)
312. When doing a Town's skull the patient head is extended 10 degrees off the perpendicular OML, how would you adjust your CR?
a. Use a 40O caudal angle instead of 30O caudal angle (difference between OML & IOML = 7O plus the extra 3O) (MERRILLS)
22. Purpose and position of a CVP line.
a. Used for measuring central venous pressure as well as allowing nutrients and fluid to be instilled; best location would be brachiocephalic vein at the junction of the SVC or actually within the SVC itself (TORRES)
10. The significance of shenton's line.
a. Used to evaluate pathology of the hip (PATH & PROCEDURES 1)
130. What vessels would you most likely find a "berry " aneurysm?
a. Usually at an angle of bifurcation of the cerebral arteries (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
467. During hypovolemic shock would a vasodialator or vasocontrictive drug be used to counter the shock?
a. Vasoconstrictive drug (TORRES)
41. Which vessel ascends through the cervical transverse foramina?
a. Vertebral artery (NETTERS, ANATOMY YR 1 NOTES, ETC)
405. What type of contrast is used for a possible perforated stomach?
a. Water-soluble iodinated (TORRES, ADLER & CARLTON)
398. The axiolateral view of the mandible best demonstrates what?
a. Whatever region of the mandible that was parallel to the IR (ramus, body or symphysis) (MERRILLS)
427. When is a small bowel follow through completed?
a. When the barium reaches the ileocecal junction
81. When would you use a slipper pan?
a. When the patient has a fracture or another disability that makes it impossible to use a pan of this height (normal pan is 4 inches high) (TORRES)
302. When is buscopan contraindicated? What can be used instead?
a. When the patient has glaucoma or cardiac conditions - Glucagon can be used instead
88. What is the prep for an elderly patient for an IVP?
a. When time permits, have the patient follow a low-residue diet for 1 to 2 says to prevent gas formation b. Have the patient eat a light evening meal on the day before the examination c. Have the patient take nothing by mouth after midnight on the day of the examination. However, the patient should not be dehydrated. Patients with multiple myeloma, high uric acid levels or diabetes must be well hydrated before the IVP is performed (MERRILLS)
373. Is Compton scatter affected by photon energy?
a. YES (BUSHONG)
388. Is a cathartic the same as a laxative?
a. YES - a laxative with a mild or gentle effect on the bowels is also known as an aperient; one with a strong effect is referred to as a cathartic or a purgative (MEDICAL DICTIONARY)
294. Does kVp affect both contrast and density?
a. YES - ↑kVp = ↓ contrast, 15% ↑kV doubles density (BUSHONG)
438. There is vertical # of the patella, can a skyline be done?
a. Yes (MERRILLS)
445. Is bleach a disinfectant?
a. Yes (TORRES)
446. Is alcohol a disinfectant?
a. Yes (TORRES)
165. Can two grids with the same grid ratio have different amounts of lead content? Which one is more efficient?
a. Yes - as the lead content of the grid increases, the ability of the grid to remove scatter and improve contrast increases (dependant upon grid frequency) (CARLTON & ADLER)
364. How do you decrease quantum mottle?
a. You must increase the amount of x-rays reaching the image receptor by increasing mAs, kVp, or choosing a slower film/screen combination (BUSHONG)
166. Can a patient ever be allowed to get into wheelchair unassisted?
a. You should never allow a patient to get off a table or onto a wheelchair without some assistance (TORRES)
245. Film contrast depends on 4 main areas, name them:
a. kVp b. Grid ratio c. Beam restriction d. Image receptor used (BUSHONG)
199. Where is the needle inserted in a shoulder arthrogram?
a. ½ inch inferior (1.3 cm) and lateral to the coracoid process into the joint capsule (MERRILLS)
458. The major source of scatter radiation occurs where? table top patient x-ray tube grid
b. Patient
453. The quality of the x-ray beam is chiefly governed by it: field size kVp mAs total filtration
b. kVp
367. What can an nurse with an extended class order?
• Chest • Ribs • Arm • Wrist • Hand • Leg • Ankle • Foot • Mammogram ULTRASOUND • Abdomen • Pelvis • Breast (CMRTO ONLINE)
104. What are the evaluation criteria for the 30-degree Fronto-Occipital Projection of the skull?
• Equal distance from lateral border of skull to lateral margin of foramen magnum on both sides, indicating no rotation • Symmetric petrous pyramids • Dorsum sellae and posterior clinoid processes visible within foramen magnum • Penetration of occipital bone without excessive density at lateral borders of skull
195. Name the sinuses demonstrated on the lateral view of the skull.
• Frontal • Maxillary (MERRILLS, CLINICAL, ETC) • Ethmoid • Sphenoid
28. What is best demonstrated on a 15 Occipital fontal view of sinuses?
• Frontal sinuses lying superior to frontonasal suture • Anterior ethmoidal air cells lying on each side of the nasal fossas and immediately inferior to the frontal sinuses • Sphenoid sinuses projected through the nasal fossas just inferior to or between the ethmoid air cells • Petrous ridge in inferior 1/3 of orbit
178. What are the symptoms of hypoglycaemia and how is it treated in radiography room?
• Intense hunger, weakness, shaky, excessive sweat, confused, irritable, mild hostility • Glucose tablets, sugar water, orange juice (quickly digested) • Never administer food to an unconscious patient (ADLER & CARLTON)
257. What are some signs of an allergic reaction?
• Rash, hives, urticaria • Nausea, vomiting • Dizziness • Pallor • Cough • Warmth • Shaking • Flushing • Nasal stuffiness • Swelling (eyes, face) • Itching, sweats (ADLER & CARLTON)
397. Describe the most accurate method of measuring leg length?
• Take CT localizer or "scout" images of the femurs and tibias • Measure between joints using software option: most accurate way is to measure 3 times and take an average (MERRILLS)
