9. Air Law
Q: If intercepted by an aircraft, you shall
A: Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
Q: EASA Headquarters are in:
A: Germany
Q: Who has the right of way?
A: Glider has to give right of way to a balloon
Q: Taxiway centerline lights are
A: Green
Q: Airplanes, helicopters, motor gliders:
A: Have to be equipped for VFR with at least one VHF receiver
Q: What should the glider pilot do, if on head-on collision course with the two-engined Cessna?
A: He should deviate to the right.
Q: What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?
A: Height
Q: There are three conditions that a holder of an EASA PPL (A) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement?
A: Holds an Instrument Rating.
Q: Distress phase is announced
A: If the fuel supplies in the aircraft are considered depleted or not enough for safe end of flight
Q: Distress phase is announced:
A: If the fuel supplies in the aircraft are considered depleted or not enough for safe end of flight
Q: Flying hours to be credited for a licence or rating must have been flown:
A: In the same type or category of aircraft as that for which the licence or rating is being sought.
Q: Which of the following ratings on an EASA PPL (A) precludes the requirement for a separate Night Rating to be held by a private pilot who wishes to fly as PIC at night?
A: Instrument Rating.
Q: AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication) :
A: Is published by The state
Q: How long is an EASA PPL (A) issued for?
A: It is valid for lifetime (does not expire).
Q: Under Chicago convention, territory of a country consists of:
A: Land and territorial waters
Q: PIC of an aircraft is required to
A: Land in the direction of white T and to the right of it
Q: PIC shall not commence a flight until he is satisfied that
A: Mass and Balance is within limits for the intended flight
Q: When may you fly over any congested area of a city,town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?
A: Only when necessary for take-off and landing.
Q: Under Chicago convetion, which of the following documents have to be on board an international flight, amongst others:
A: Passenger manifest with boarding place and destination, and cargo manifest
Q: What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1?
A: Personnel Licensing
Q: Who is responsible for the adequate safe separation between VFR flights in the air?
A: Pilots themselves exclusivelly.
Q: When descending from a Flight Level to an altitude above mean sea level, the pilot has to set the altimeter to:
A: QNH
Q: What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from a rule?
A: Refuse the clearance as stated and request that it be amended.
Q: Pilot must hold:
A: Relevant class or rating for the airplane pilot wishes to fly and a medical certificate
Q: Which rules of the air apply to an aircraft registered in the Republic of Croatia while flying outside the native aerospace?
A: Rules of the air of the state being overflown.
Q: You are flying in a 9A registered aeroplane in Russian airspace. Which rules of the air shall you observe?
A: Russian
Q: An ATC clearance provides
A: authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
Q: If a pilot wishes to have priority due to low remaining fuel on board, he shall do so by informing the ATC:
A: by declaring emergency using the phrase Mayday
Q: The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the
A: control zone.
Q: An engine failure, or damage limited just to the engine or the propeller is:
A: is not defined as an accident
Q: Multi-engine piston aircraft class rating
A: may be added to SEP class rating and it basically encompasses all multi-engine piston aeroplanes with MTOM below 5700 kg
Q: The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
A: owner or operator.
Q: Which best describes the flight conditions under which pilots are specifically required to keep their safety harness fastened?
A: Safety belts during take off and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Q: Aircraft registration marks are established / determined by:
A: State of registry
Q: National registration marks are issued by the:
A: State of registry
Q: The Flight Time a pilot loggs is the total time from the moment
A: Than an aircraft first moves under its own or external power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.
Q: What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention
A: The Convention on International Civil Aviation.
Q: Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude?
A: The airplane which has another airplane at his right side.
Q: The departure and arrival time entered by a PPL holder in his flying log book is taken as follows:
A: The time the aircraft begins to move under its own power and the time it comes to rest
Q: Pilot that is in control of an aircraft, is required after take-off
A: To climb with maximum angle
Q: In Class E Airspace
A: VFR, IFR and SVFR flights are allowed. IFR and SVFR are subject to ATC clearance and control
Q: Marking on an apron, for pilots are
A: Yellow colour
Q: During a cross-country flight you find yourself in the vicinity of an unknown airport. A military aircraft approaches, turns around your aircraft, rocks the wings and finally lowers the landing gear. What does this mean?
A: You have been intercepted, land at the airport below you!
Q: Above the transition altitude, aeroplanes fly:
A: at Flight Levels
Q: A crew member shall not consume alcohol at least
A: 8 hours before flight
Q: The holder of an EASA PPL(A) who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of 3 take-offs and landings within the preceding:
A: 90 days.
Q: ICAO is:
A: A Special entity under the UN
Q: A PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with SVFR must have the following minima:
A: A minimum visibility of 1.5 kms or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
Q: What may be a substitute for the training flight at least 1 hour with a flight instructor, which is beside others conditions requested for revalidation of a single pilot single engine class rating?
A: A proficiency check or skill test for a class rating within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating.
Q: Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use' on an uncontrolled airfield?
A: A runway into wind.
Q: What does "AAL" mean?
A: Above aerodrome level.
Q: PIC will not start with a VFR flight until he has made sure that
A: Actual weather forecast and report for the planned route indicate VFR condistions
Q: A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome should initiate his descent to below transition level with the altimeter subscale set to:
A: Aerodrome QNH.
Q: What of the following is printed on a Certificate of Airworthiness?
A: Aircraft Category
Q: With the respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
A: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
Q: Who is required to pass language proficiency testing and have a language proficiency endorsed on the license?
A: All aeroplane, helicopter, powered-lift and airship pilots who are required to use radio telephone
Q: Aircraft Incident is defined as Select one: a. An event that influences or could influence aircraft safety b. All answers are correct c. An event in connection with aircraft operations d. An event that is not an accident
A: All answers are correct
Q: Differences training on all single-engine piston aeroplanes must be completed each time the pilot transitions from simpler, lighter aeroplanes with fixed pitch propeller to Select one: a. Aircraft with turbo-charger and pressurised cabin b. Aircraft with variable pitch propeller c. All answers are correct d. Aircraft with retractable landing gear
A: All answers are correct
Q: Approach control gives the following service(s)
A: All answers correct
Q: Approach control gives the following service(s):
A: All answers correct
Q: At the request of aviaiton inspectors, a pilot must prove:
A: All answers correct
Q: Incident is defined as: Select one: a. An event that influences or could influence aircraft safety b. All answers are correct c. An event in connection with aircraft operations d. An event that is not an accident
A: All answers correct
Q: In B class airspace?
A: All flights are subject to ATC Spearation
Q: Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic?
A: An aircraft in distress.
Q: Nationality of an airplane is defined in ICAO DOC 7300:
A: Article 17
Q: TORA is
A: Available length of a runway declared as available and suitable for the acceleration of an aircraft during take-off
Q: PPL holder can:
A: Be a PIC or copilot in non commercial operations
Q: How shall aircraft in the air avoid each other on a head-on collision course?
A: Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right.
Q: A PPL holder is not permitted to:
A: Carry fare paying passengers.
Q: What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?
A: Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.
Q: What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot?
A: Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.
Q: Uncontrolled airspace is classified as
A: Class F and G
Q: AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication)
A: Contains information of long lasting character important for flights.
Q: A PIC may not commence a flight until he has ascertained that
A: Current weather reports and forecasts for the indented route of flight indicate that the weather will be above applicable minima on the whole intended route
Q: Which of the following represents an accident:
A: Death of a person or serious injury
Q: European commision:
A: Decides on regulation in civil air transport based on EASA opinions
Q: Pilot must
A: During approach and after takeoff, in the traffic pattern, make all turns to the left unless otherwise noted
Q: When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, which way should each aircraft turn?
A: Each aircraft should turn to the right.
Q: Which of the following flight levels would be suitable for an aircraft flying in accordance with the quadrantal rule and maintaining a magnetic track of 146 degrees?
A: FL75.
Q: Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-in-command and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is
A: Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC).
Q: How long is a Level 5 language proficiency valid for?
A: 6 years
Q: In case of radio communication failure, you will set transponder to
A: 7600
Q: ICAO members may introduce stricter regulations than recommended.
A: 'True'
Q: In Croatia, the national regulation specifies that in aviation a person is under influence of alcohol if the following limit is reached or exceeded:
A: 0.2 g/kg
Q: An aircraft flying above the sea between 4,500 feet MSL and 9,000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain at least:
A: 1,500 m horizontally, 1,000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
Q: As a substitute for the proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine airplane class rating?
A: 12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings and a training flight with an FI (flight instructor) of at least 1 hour
Q: How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?
A: 12 months.
Q: How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?
A: 2 years
Q: When flying an aircraft without a night rating inside the terithory of the Republic of Croatia, which is the latest time for landing if the sunset is at 20:15?
A: 20:45
Q: A night flying inside the territory of Republic Croatia is defined by the state regulations as a flying between
A: 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise.
Q: What is the minimum safe altitude required to operate an aircraft over settlements or over open-air assembly of people?
A: 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m of the aircraft.
Q: How long is a Level 4 language proficiency valid for?
A: 4 years
Q: The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
A: 450-meter ceiling and 5.0-km visibility.
Q: Visual flying of aircraft in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, up to 3,050 m (10,000 ft), is permitted if the horizontal visibility is at least
A: 5 km
Q: How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation Procedures Trainer or Simulator?
A: 5.
Q: How can you extend the validity of your SEP(land) Single-Engine-Piston (land) Rating?
A: pass a proficiency check with an examiner within 3 months of the expirty date of the rating, or have logged 12 hours of flight time,thereof: 6 hours as PIC and 12 take-offs and 12 landings and a training flight with an FI of at least 1 hour
Q: The person directly responsible for the prelaunch briefing of passengers for a flight is
A: pilot in command.
Q: When a runway is permanently close, it is marked by
A: white X at both runway ends
Q: After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted aircraft is rocking its wings. This means:
A: will comply
Q: You wish to take your friend for a night flight with you. You need to make sure that
A: you have completed at least 3 take-off, approaches and landings total in the same type or class of aircraft in the preceding 90 days, and, you hold a night rating and have completed at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at night or you hold an instrument rating
