ACD prepU
A client asks the nurse how long to wait after taking nitroglycerin before experiencing pain relief. What is the best answer by the nurse? 3 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 60 minutes
Correct response: 3 minutes Explanation: Nitroglycerin may be given by several routes: sublingual tablet or spray, oral capsule, topical agent, and intravenous (IV) administration. Sublingual nitroglycerin is generally placed under the tongue or in the cheek (buccal pouch) and ideally alleviates the pain of ischemia within 3 minutes.
The nurse is teaching a client with suspected acute myocardial infarction about serial isoenzyme testing. When is it best to have isoenzyme creatinine kinase of myocardial muscle (CK-MB) tested? 30 minutes to 1 hour after pain 2 to 3 hours after admission 4 to 6 hours after pain 12 to 18 hours after admission
Correct response: 4 to 6 hours after pain Explanation: Serum CK-MB levels can be detected 4 to 6 hours after the onset of chest pain. These levels peak within 12 to 18 hours and return to normal within 3 to 4 days.
A client with angina pectoris must learn how to reduce risk factors that exacerbate this condition. When developing the client's care plan, which expected outcome should a nurse include? "Client will verbalize an understanding of the need to call the physician if acute pain lasts more than 2 hours." "Client will verbalize the intention to avoid exercise." "Client will verbalize the intention to stop smoking." "Client will verbalize an understanding of the need to restrict dietary fat, fiber, and cholesterol."
Correct response: "Client will verbalize the intention to stop smoking." Explanation: A client with angina pectoris should stop smoking at once because smoking increases the blood carboxyhemoglobin level; this increase, in turn, reduces the heart's oxygen supply and may induce angina. The client must seek immediate medical attention if chest pain doesn't subside after three nitroglycerin doses taken 5 minutes apart; serious myocardial damage or even sudden death may occur if chest pain persists for 2 hours. To improve coronary circulation and promote weight management, the client should get regular daily exercise. The client should eat plenty of fiber, which may decrease serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels and minimize hypertension, in turn reducing the risk for atherosclerosis (which plays a role in angina).
A client, who has undergone a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), has received discharge instructions. Which statement by the client would indicate the need for further teaching by the nurse? "I should avoid taking a tub bath until my catheter site heals." "I should expect a low-grade fever and swelling at the site for the next week." "I should avoid prolonged sitting." "I should expect bruising at the catheter site for up to 3 weeks."
Correct response: "I should expect a low-grade fever and swelling at the site for the next week." Explanation: Fever and swelling at the site are signs of infection and should be reported to the physician. Showers should be taken until the insertion site is healed. Prolonged sitting can result in thrombosis formation. Bruising at the insertion site is common and may take from 1 to 3 weeks to resolve.
Which technique is used to surgically revascularize the myocardium? Balloon bypass Peripheral bypass Minimally invasive direct coronary bypass Gastric bypass
Correct response: Minimally invasive direct coronary bypass Explanation: Several techniques are used to surgically revascularize the myocardium; one of them is minimally invasive direct coronary bypass. Balloon bypass is not used to revascularize the myocardium. If the client is experiencing acute pain in the leg, peripheral bypass is performed. Gastric bypass is a surgical procedure that alters the process of digestion.
A client with an acute myocardial infarction is receiving nitroglycerin by continuous I.V. infusion. Which client statement indicates that this drug is producing its therapeutic effect? "I have a bad headache." "My chest pain is decreasing." "I feel a tingling sensation around my mouth." "My vision is blurred, so my blood pressure must be up."
Correct response: "My chest pain is decreasing." Explanation: Nitroglycerin, a vasodilator, increases the arterial supply of oxygen-rich blood to the myocardium. This action produces the drug's intended effect: relief of chest pain. Headache is an adverse effect of nitroglycerin. The drug shouldn't cause a tingling sensation around the mouth and should lower, not raise, blood pressure.
When providing discharge instructions for a client who has been prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin for angina, the nurse should plan to include which instructions? "See if rest relieves the chest pain before using the nitroglycerin." "Call 911 if you develop a headache following nitroglycerin use." "Place the nitroglycerin tablet between cheek and gum." "Only take one nitroglycerin tablet for each episode of angina."
Correct response: "See if rest relieves the chest pain before using the nitroglycerin." Explanation: Decreased activity may relieve chest pain; sitting will prevent injury should the nitroglycerin lower BP and cause fainting. The client should expect to feel dizzy or flushed or to develop a headache following sublingual nitroglycerin use. The client should place one nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue if 2-3 minutes of rest fails to relieve pain. Clients may take up to three nitroglycerin tablets within 5 minutes of each other to relieve angina. However, they should call 911 if the three tablets fail to resolve the chest pain.
The nurse is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). What is an appropriate nursing action when evaluating a client with CAD? Assess the client's mental and emotional status. Assess the skin of the client. Assess the characteristics of chest pain. Assess for any kind of drug abuse.
Correct response: Assess the characteristics of chest pain. Explanation: The nurse should assess the characteristics of chest pain for a client with CAD. Assessing the client's mental and emotional status, skin, or for drug abuse will not assist the nurse in evaluating the client for CAD. The assessment should be aimed at evaluating for adequate blood flow to the heart.
The nurse administers propranolol hydrochloride to a patient with a heart rate of 64 beats per minute (bpm). One hour later, the nurse observes the heart rate on the monitor to be 36 bpm. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer that is an antidote for the propranolol? Digoxin Atropine Protamine sulfate Sodium nitroprusside
Correct response: Atropine Explanation: Sheath removal and the application of pressure on the vessel insertion site may cause the heart rate to slow and the blood pressure to decrease (vasovagal response). A dose of IV atropine is usually given to treat this response.
The nurse is providing education about angina pectoris to a hospitalized client who is about to be discharged. What instruction does the nurse include about managing this condition? Select all that apply. Balance rest with activity. Stop smoking. Avoid all physical activity. Carry nitroglycerin at all times. Follow a diet high in saturated fats.
Correct response: Balance rest with activity. Stop smoking. Carry nitroglycerin at all times. Explanation: Managing angina pectoris at home includes balancing rest with activity, participating in a regular daily program of activities that do not induce angina pain, stopping smoking, carrying nitroglycerin at all times, and following a diet low in saturated fat.
A middle-aged client presents to the ED reporting severe chest discomfort. Which finding is mostindicative of a possible myocardial infarction (MI)? Chest discomfort not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin Intermittent nausea and emesis for 3 days Cool, clammy skin and a diaphoretic, pale appearance Anxiousness, restlessness, and lightheadedness
Correct response: Chest discomfort not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin Explanation: Chest pain or discomfort not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin is associated with an acute MI. The other findings, although associated with acute coronary syndrome or MI, may also occur with angina and, alone, are not indicative of an MI.
Which medication is given to clients who are diagnosed with angina but are allergic to aspirin? Clopidogrel Amlodipine Diltiazem Felodipine
Correct response: Clopidogrel Explanation: Clopidogrel or ticlopidine is given to clients who are allergic to aspirin or are given in addition to aspirin to clients who are at high risk for MI. Amlodipine, diltiazem, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers.
A client comes to the emergency department (ED) complaining of precordial chest pain. In describing the pain, the client describes it as pressure with a sudden onset. What disease process would the nurse suspect in this client? Coronary artery disease Raynaud's disease Cardiogenic shock Venous occlusive disease
Correct response: Coronary artery disease Explanation: The classic symptom of CAD is chest pain (angina) or discomfort during activity or stress. Such pain or discomfort typically is manifested as sudden pain or pressure that may be centered over the heart (precordial) or under the sternum (substernal). Raynaud's disease in the hands presents with symptoms of hands that are cold, blanched, and wet with perspiration. Cardiogenic shock is a complication of an MI. Venous occlusive disease occurs in the veins, not the arteries.
Which is the most important postoperative assessment parameter for a client recovering from cardiac surgery? Inadequate tissue perfusion Mental alertness Blood glucose concentration Activity intolerance
Correct response: Inadequate tissue perfusion Explanation: The nurse must assess the client for signs and symptoms of inadequate tissue perfusion, such as a weak or absent pulse, cold or cyanotic extremities, or mottling of the skin. Although the nurse does assess blood glucose and mental status, tissue perfusion is the higher priority. Assessing for activity intolerance, while important later in the recovery period, is not essential in the immediate postoperative period for clients undergoing cardiac surgery.
A clientt is given a prescription for metoprolol after being examined by the health care provider. What is the most important teaching for the nurse to give to the client? Take the medication at the same time each day. Don't suddenly stop taking the medication without calling your health care provider. Dress warmly. Blood circulation may be reduced in the extremities. If dizziness occurs, adjust the medication.
Correct response: Don't suddenly stop taking the medication without calling your health care provider. Explanation: All teaching points need to be covered, but the nurse needs to emphasize that metoprolol should not be suddenly stopped because some conditions can become worse.
A client presents to the emergency room with characteristics of atherosclerosis. What characteristics would the client display? Fatty deposits in the lumen of arteries Cholesterol plugs in the lumen of veins Blood clots in the arteries Emboli in the veins
Correct response: Fatty deposits in the lumen of arteries Explanation: Atherosclerosis is a condition in which the lumen of arteries fill with fatty deposits called plaque. Therefore, the other options are incorrect.
The nurse is discussing risk factors for developing CAD with a patient in the clinic. Which results would indicate that the patient is not at significant risk for the development of CAD? Cholesterol, 280 mg/dL Low density lipoprotein (LDL), 160 mg/dL High-density lipoprotein (HDL), 80 mg/dL A ratio of LDL to HDL, 4.5 to 1.0
Correct response: High-density lipoprotein (HDL), 80 mg/dL Explanation: A fasting lipid profile should demonstrate the following values (Alberti et al., 2009): LDL cholesterol less than 100 mg/dL (less than 70 mg/dL for very high-risk patients); total cholesterol less than 200 mg/dL; HDL cholesterol greater than 40 mg/dL for males and greater than 50 mg/dL for females; and triglycerides less than 150 mg/dL.
Understanding atherosclerosis, the nurse identifies which of the following to be both a risk factor for the development of the disorder and an outcome? Hyperlipidemia Hypertension Glucose intolerance Obesity
Correct response: Hypertension Explanation: Increases in diastolic and systolic blood pressure are associated with an increased incidence of atherosclerosis, often an inherited factor. Elevation of blood pressure results when the vessels cannot relax and impairs the ability of the artery to dilate. Hyperlipidemia, diabetes, and obesity are all risk factors for atherosclerosis but do not result from the disorder.
A client admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) diagnosed with a STEMI is anxious and fearful. Which medication will the nurse administer to relieve the client's anxiety and decrease cardiac workload? IV morphine IV nitroglycerin Atenolol Amlodipine
Correct response: IV morphine Explanation: IV morphine is the analgesic of choice for the treatment of an acute MI. It is given to reduce pain and treat anxiety. It also reduces preload and afterload, which decreases the workload of the heart. IV nitroglycerin is given to alleviate chest pain. Administration of atenolol and amlodipine are not indicated in this situation.
The nurse notes that the post cardiac surgery client demonstrates low urine output (< 25 mL/hr) with high specific gravity (> 1.025). What will the nurse anticipate the health care provider will order? Increase intravenous fluids Decrease intravenous fluids Irrigate the urinary catheter Prepare the client for diaylsis
Correct response: Increase intravenous fluids Explanation: Urine output of less than 25 mL/hr may indicate a decrease in cardiac output. A high specific gravity indicates increased concentration of solutes in the urine, which occurs with inadequate fluid volume. The heallthcare provider may increase intravenous fluids. Irrigating the urinary catheter will be done if there is a suspected blockage. Dialysis is not indicated by urinary volumes.
A client has been recently placed on nitroglycerin. Which instruction by the nurse should be included in the client's teaching plan? Instruct the client on side effects of flushing, throbbing headache, and tachycardia. Instruct the client to renew the nitroglycerin supply every 3 months. Instruct the client not to crush the tablet. Instruct the client to place nitroglycerin tablets in a plastic pill box.
Correct response: Instruct the client on side effects of flushing, throbbing headache, and tachycardia. Explanation: The client should be instructed about side effects of the medication, which include flushing, throbbing headache, and tachycardia. The client should renew the nitroglycerin supply every 6 months. If the pain is severe, the client can crush the tablet between the teeth to hasten sublingual absorption. Tablets should never be removed and stored in metal or plastic pillboxes. Nitroglycerin is very unstable and should be carried in its original container.
The nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with angina pectoris about the difference between the pain of angina and a myocardial infarction (MI). How should the nurse describe the pain experienced during an MI? (Select all that apply.) It is relieved by rest and inactivity. It is substernal in location. It is sudden in onset and prolonged in duration. It is viselike and radiates to the shoulders and arms. It subsides after taking nitroglycerin.
Correct response: It is substernal in location. It is sudden in onset and prolonged in duration. It is viselike and radiates to the shoulders and arms. Explanation: Chest pain that occurs suddenly, continues despite rest and medication, is substernal, and is sometimes viselike and radiating to the shoulders and arms is associated with an MI. Angina pectoris pain is generally relieved by rest and nitroglycerin.
Which discharge instruction for self-care should the nurse provide to a client who has undergone a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) procedure? Cleanse the site with disinfectants and dress the wound appropriately Refrain from sexual activity for 1 month Monitor the site for bleeding or hematoma. Normal activities of daily living can be resumed the first day after surgery
Correct response: Monitor the site for bleeding or hematoma. Explanation: The nurse provides certain discharge instructions for self-care, such as monitoring the site for bleeding or the development of a hard mass indicative of hematoma. A nurse does not advise the client to clean the site with disinfectants or refrain from sexual activity for 1 month.
Severe chest pain is reported by a client during an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug for the nurse to administer? Isosorbide mononitrate (Isordil) Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) Morphine sulfate (Morphine) Nitroglycerin transdermal patch
Correct response: Morphine sulfate (Morphine) Explanation: Morphine sulfate not only decreases pain perception and anxiety but also helps to decrease heart rate, blood pressure, and demand for oxygen. Nitrates are administered for vasodilation and pain control in clients with angina-type pain, but oral forms (such as isosorbide dinitrate) have a large first-pass effect, and transdermal patch is used for long-term management. Meperidine hydrochloride is a synthetic opioid usually reserved for treatment of postoperative or migraine pain.
A nurse reviews a client's medication history before administering a cholinergic blocking agent. Adverse effects of a cholinergic blocking agent may delay absorption of what medication? Amantadine Nitroglycerin Digoxin Diphenhydramine
Correct response: Nitroglycerin Explanation: A cholinergic blocking agent may cause dry mouth and delay the sublingual absorption of nitroglycerin. The nurse should offer the client sips of water before administering nitroglycerin. Amantadine, digoxin, and diphenhydramine can interact with a cholinergic blocking agent but not through delayed absorption. Amantadine and diphenhydramine enhance the effects of anticholinergic agents.
A client presents to the ED reporting anxiety and chest pain after shoveling heavy snow that morning. The client says that nitroglycerin has not been taken for months but upon experieincing this chest pain did take three nitroglycerin tablets. Although the pain has lessened, the client states, "They did not work all that well." The client shows the nurse the nitroglycerin bottle; the prescription was filled 12 months ago. The nurse anticipates which order by the physician? Nitroglycerin SL Chest x-ray Serum electrolytes Ativan 1 mg orally
Correct response: Nitroglycerin SL Explanation: Nitroglycerin is volatile and is inactivated by heat, moisture, air, light, and time. Nitroglycerin should be renewed every 6 months to ensure full potency. The client's tablets were expired, and the nurse should anticipate administering nitroglycerin to assess whether the chest pain subsides. The other choices may be ordered at a later time, but the priority is to relieve the client's chest pain.
The nurse is caring for a client following a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The nurse notes persistent oozing of bloody drainage from various puncture sites. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication to neutralize the unfractionated heparin the client received? Protamine sulfate Alteplase Clopidogrel Aspirin
Correct response: Protamine sulfate Explanation: Protamine sulfate is known as the antagonist for unfractionated heparin (it neutralizes heparin). Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is given to reduce the risk of thrombus formation after coronary stent placement. The antiplatelet effect of aspirin does not reverse the effects of heparin.
A triage team is assessing a client to determine if reported chest pain is a manifestation of angina pectoris or an MI. The nurse knows that a primary distinction of angina pain is? Described as crushing and substernal Associated with nausea and vomiting Relieved by rest and nitroglycerin Accompanied by diaphoresis and dyspnea
Correct response: Relieved by rest and nitroglycerin Explanation: One characteristic that can differentiate the pain of angina from a myocardial infarction is pain that is relieved by rest and nitroglycerine. There may be some exceptions (unstable angina), but the distinction is helpful especially when combined with other assessment data.
The nurse is caring for a client presenting to the emergency department (ED) reporting chest pain. Which electrocardiographic (ECG) finding would be most concerning to the nurse? ST elevation Isolated premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) Sinus tachycardia Frequent premature atrial contractions (PACs)
Correct response: ST elevation Explanation: The first signs of an acute MI are usually seen in the T wave and the ST segment. The T wave becomes inverted; the ST segment elevates (it is usually flat). An elevated ST segment in two contiguous leads is a key diagnostic indicator for MI (i.e., ST-elevation MI). This client requires immediate invasive therapy or fibrinolytic medications. Although the other ECG findings require intervention, elevated ST elevations require immediate and definitive interventions.
The nurse is educating the patient about administering nitroglycerin prior to discharge from the hospital. What information should the nurse include in the instructions? Take a nitroglycerin and if the pain is not relieved, drive to the nearest emergency department. Take 2 nitroglycerins and if the pain is not relieved, go to the emergency department. Take a nitroglycerin and repeat every 5 minutes if the pain is not relieved until a total of 3 are taken. If pain is not relieved, activate the emergency medical system. Take 2 nitroglycerins every 10 minutes until a total of 6 pills are taken. If pain is not relieved, activate the emergency medical system.
Correct response: Take a nitroglycerin and repeat every 5 minutes if the pain is not relieved until a total of 3 are taken. If pain is not relieved, activate the emergency medical system. Explanation: The nurse should recommend that the patient note how long it takes for the nitroglycerin to relieve the discomfort. Advise the patient that if pain persists after taking three sublingual tablets at 5-minute intervals, emergency medical services should be called.
A patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) is having a cardiac catheterization. What indicator is present for the patient to have a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)? The patient has compromised left ventricular function. The patient has had angina longer than 3 years. The patient has at least a 70% occlusion of a major coronary artery. The patient has an ejection fraction of 65%.
Correct response: The patient has at least a 70% occlusion of a major coronary artery. Explanation: For a patient to be considered for CABG, the coronary arteries to be bypassed must have approximately a 70% occlusion (60% if in the left main coronary artery).
In the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD), medications are often ordered to control blood pressure in the client. Which of the following is a primary purpose of using beta-adrenergic blockers in the nursing management of CAD? To dilate coronary arteries To decrease workload of the heart To decrease homocysteine levels To prevent angiotensin II conversion
Correct response: To decrease workload of the heart Explanation: Beta-adrenergic blockers are used in the treatment of CAD to decrease the myocardial oxygen by reducing heart rate and workload of the heart. Nitrates are used for vasodilation. Anti-lipid drugs (such as statins and Bvitamins) are used to decrease homocysteine levels. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin.
A client is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain and doesn't respond to nitroglycerin. The health care team obtains an electrocardiogram and administers I.V. morphine. The health care provider also considers administering alteplase. This thrombolytic agent must be administered how soon after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) symptoms? Within 6 hours Within 12 hours Within 24 to 48 hours Within 5 to 7 days
Correct response: Within 6 hours Explanation: For the best chance of salvaging the client's myocardium, a thrombolytic agent must be administered within 6 hours after onset of chest pain or other signs or symptoms of MI. Sudden death is most likely to occur within the first 24 hours after an MI. Health care providers initiate I.V. heparin therapy after administration of a thrombolytic agent; it usually continues for 5 to 7 days.
A client with CAD thinks diltiazem (Cardizem) has been causing nausea. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is categorized as which type of drug? calcium-channel blocker beta-adrenergic blocker nitrate diuretic
Correct response: calcium-channel blocker Explanation: Calcium-channel blocking agents may be used to treat CAD as well, although research has shown that they may be less beneficial than beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is an example of a calcium-channel blocker.
A client returns for a follow-up visit to the cardiologist 4 days after a trip to the ED for sudden shortness of breath and abdominal pain. The nurse realizes the client had a myocardial infarction because the results from the blood work drawn in the hospital shows: elevated troponin levels. decreased LDH levels. decreased myoglobin levels. increased C-reactive protein levels.
Correct response: elevated troponin levels. Explanation: Troponin is present only in myocardial tissue; therefore, it is the gold standard for determining heart damage in the early stages of an MI. LDH1 and LDH2 may be elevated in response to cardiac or other organ damage during an MI. Myoglobin is a biomarker that rises in 2 to 3 hours after heart damage during an MI. C-reactive protein, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and the WBC count increase on about the third day following MI because of the inflammatory response that the injured myocardial cells triggered. These levels would not be elevated during the MI event.
The nurse is caring for a client with coronary artery disease. What is the nurse's priority goal for the client? decrease anxiety enhance myocardial oxygenation administer sublingual nitroglycerin educate the client about his symptoms
Correct response: enhance myocardial oxygenation Explanation: Enhancing myocardial oxygenation is always the first priority when a client exhibits signs or symptoms of cardiac compromise. Without adequate oxygen, the myocardium suffers damage. A nurse administers sublingual nitroglycerin to treat acute angina pectoris, but its administration isn't the first priority. Although educating the client and decreasing anxiety are important in care, neither is a priority when a client is compromised.
A client's lipid profile reveals an LDL level of 122 mg/dL. This is considered a: high LDL level. low LDL level. normal LDL level. fasting LDL level.
Correct response: high LDL level. Explanation: LDL levels above 100 mg/dL are considered high. The goal is to decrease the LDL level below 100 mg/dL.
A client's elevated cholesterol levels are being managed with atorvastatin daily. What is a common side effect the nurse will teach the client that will require monitoring? hyperuricemia increased liver enzymes hyperglycemia severe muscle pain
Correct response: increased liver enzymes Explanation: Myopathy and increased liver enzymes are significant side effects of the statin Lipitor. Hyperuricemia occurs when too much uric acid is present in the blood; it is not a side effect of the statins. Hyperglycemia is increased blood glucose, which is not a side effect of the statins. Severe muscle pain is an adverse effect of statins, but it does not require monitoring.
The nurse is admitting a client with an elevated creatine kinase-MB isoenzyme (CK-MB). What is the cause for the elevated isoenzyme? cerebral bleeding I.M. injection myocardial necrosis skeletal muscle damage due to a recent fall
Correct response: myocardial necrosis Explanation: An increase in CK-MB is related to myocardial necrosis. An increase in total CK might occur for several reasons, including brain injuries such as cerebral bleeding; skeletal muscle damage, which can result from I.M. injections or falls; muscular or neuromuscular disease; vigorous exercise; trauma; or surgery.
The nurse is caring for a client after cardiac surgery. What is the most immediate concern for the nurse? weight gain of 6 ounces serum glucose of 124 mg/dL potassium level of 6 mEq/L bilateral rales and rhonchi
Correct response: potassium level of 6 mEq/L Explanation: Changes in serum electrolytes should be immediately reported, especially a potassium level of 6 mEq/L. An elevated blood sugar is common postoperatively, and the weight gain is not significant. The abnormal breath sounds are of concern, but the electrolyte imbalance is the most immediate condition that needs to be addressed.
A client was transferring a load of firewood in the morning and experienced a heaviness in the chest and dyspnea. The client arrives in the emergency department four hours after the heaviness and the health care provider diagnoses an anterior myocardial infarction (MI). What orders will the nurse anticipate? streptokinase, aspirin, and morphine administration morphine administration, stress testing, and admission to the cardiac care unit serial liver enzyme testing, telemetry, and a lidocaine infusion sublingual nitroglycerin, tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), and telemetry
Correct response: sublingual nitroglycerin, tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), and telemetry Explanation: The nurse should anticipate an order for sublingual nitroglycerin, tPA, and telemetry, as the client's chest pain began 4 hours before diagnosis. The preferred choice is tPA, which is more specific for cardiac tissue than streptokinase. Stress testing shouldn't be performed during an MI. The client doesn't exhibit symptoms that indicate the use of lidocaine.
The nurse is teaching the client about coronary artery damage after an abnormal fasting lipid profile. The client asks the nurse what type of lipid is most troublesome. What is the nurse's best response? "The total cholesterol level of 252 mg/dL warrants medication treatment alone." "The low-density lipoproteins (LDL) pose a threat to plaque formation and can cause a heart attack or stroke." "The higher the high-density lipoproteins (HDL), the more at risk you are for heart damage or a stroke." "The triglycerides levels measure good fat, so the higher the level, the less risk you are for a heart attack or stroke."
Correct response: "The low-density lipoproteins (LDL) pose a threat to plaque formation and can cause a heart attack or stroke." Explanation: When there is an excess of LDL, these particles adhere to vulnerable points in the arterial endothelium. Here, macrophages ingest them, leading to the formation of foam cells and the beginning of plaque formation. A harmful effect is exerted on the coronary vasculature because the small LDL particles can be easily transported into the vessel lining. The cholesterol level should be <200 mg/dL but it is not the only indication for treatment. The lower the HDL, the more the client is at risk for heart attack or stroke. The combination of the client's triglycerides, LDL, and HDL levels is used to direct treatment.
The nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute MI (STEMI). The nurse anticipates the physician will prescribe alteplase. Before administering this medication, which question is mostimportant for the nurse to ask the client? "What time did your chest pain start today?" "Do your parents have heart disease?" "How many sublingual nitroglycerin tablets did you take?" "What is your pain level on a scale of 1 to 10?"
Correct response: "What time did your chest pain start today?" Explanation: The client may be a candidate for thrombolytic (fibrolytic) therapy. These medications are administered if the client's chest pain lasts longer than 20 minutes and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin, if ST-segment elevation is found in at least two leads that face the same area of the heart, and if it has been less than 6 hours since the onset of pain. The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is in relations to when the chest pain began. The other questions would not aid in determining whether the client is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy.
A client has just arrived in the ER with a possible myocardial infarction (MI). The electrocardiogram (ECG) should be obtained within which time frame of arrival to the ER? 10 minutes 5 minutes 15 minutes 20 minutes
Correct response: 10 minutes Explanation: The ECG provides information that assists in diagnosing acute MI. It should be obtained within 10 minutes from the time a client reports pain or arrives in the emergency department. By monitoring serial ECG changes over time, the location, evolution, and resolution of an MI can be identified and monitored.
Heparin therapy is usually considered therapeutic when the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is how many times normal? .25 to .75 .75 to 1.5 2.0 to 2.5 2.5 to 3.0
Correct response: 2.0 to 2.5 Explanation: The amount of heparin administered is based on aPTT results, which should be obtained during the follow-up to any alteration of dosage. The client's aPTT value would have to be greater than .25 to .75 or .75 to 1.5 times normal to be considered therapeutic. An aPTT value that is 2.5 to 3 times normal would be too high to be considered therapeutic.
The charge nurse was discussing with the nursing student that studies have been published that suggest inflammation increases the risk of heart disease. Which modifiable factor would the nursing student target in teaching clients about prevention of inflammation that can lead to atherosclerosis? Avoid use of caffeine Encourage use of a multivitamin Addressing obesity Drink at least 2 liters of water a day
Correct response: Addressing obesity Explanation: Published information by Balistreri et al. (2010) indicated a relationship between body fat and the production of inflammatory and thrombotic (clot-facilitating) proteins. This information suggests decreasing obesity and body fat stores may help to reduce the risk. Avoiding the use of caffeine, encouraging the use of a multivitamin, and drinking at least 2 liters of water a day are not actions that will address the prevention of inflammation that can lead to artherosclerosis.
A client in the emergency department reports squeezing substernal pain that radiates to the left shoulder and jaw. The client also complains of nausea, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action? Complete the client's registration information, perform an electrocardiogram, gain I.V. access, and take vital signs. Alert the cardiac catheterization team, administer oxygen, attach a cardiac monitor, and notify the health care provider. Gain I.V. access, give sublingual nitroglycerin, and alert the cardiac catheterization team. Administer oxygen, attach a cardiac monitor, take vital signs, and administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
Correct response: Administer oxygen, attach a cardiac monitor, take vital signs, and administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Explanation: Cardiac chest pain is caused by myocardial ischemia. Therefore the nurse should administer supplemental oxygen to increase the myocardial oxygen supply, attach a cardiac monitor to help detect life-threatening arrhythmias, and take vital signs to ensure that the client isn't hypotensive before giving sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Registration information may be delayed until the client is stabilized. Alerting the cardiac catheterization team or the health care provider before completing the initial assessment is premature.
A nurse is reevaluating a client receiving IV fibrinolytic therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse? Altered level of consciousness Minimal oozing of blood from the IV site Presence of reperfusion dysrhythmias Chest pain 2 of 10 (on a 1-to-10 pain scale)
Correct response: Altered level of consciousness Explanation: A client receiving fibrinolytic therapy is at risk for complications associated with bleeding. Altered level of consciousness may indicate hypoxia and intracranial bleeding, and the infusion should be discontinued immediately. Minimal bleeding requires manual pressure. Reperfusion dysrhythmias are an expected finding. A chest pain score of 2 is low and indicates the client's chest pain is subsiding, an expected outcome of this therapy.
A client reports chest pain and heavy breathing when exercising or when stressed. Which is a priority nursing intervention for the client diagnosed with coronary artery disease? Assess chest pain and administer prescribed drugs and oxygen Assess blood pressure and administer aspirin It is not important to assess the client or to notify the physician Assess the client's physical history
Correct response: Assess chest pain and administer prescribed drugs and oxygen Explanation: The nurse assesses the client for chest pain and administers the prescribed drugs that dilate the coronary arteries. The nurse administers oxygen to improve the oxygen supply to the heart. Assessing blood pressure or the client's physical history does not clearly indicate that the client has CAD. The nurse does not administer aspirin without a prescription from the physician.
The client has had biomarkers tested after reporting chest pain. Which diagnostic marker of myocardial infarction remains elevated for as long as 2 weeks? Myoglobin Troponin Total creatine kinase CK-MB
Correct response: Troponin Explanation: Troponin remains elevated for a long period, often as long as 2 weeks, and it therefore can be used to detect recent myocardial damage. Myoglobin peaks within 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Total creatine kinase (CK) returns to normal in 3 days. CK-MB returns to normal in 3 to 4 days.
Which term refers to preinfarction angina? Stable angina Unstable angina Variant angina Silent ischemia
Correct response: Unstable angina Explanation: Preinfarction angina is also known as unstable angina. Stable angina has predictable and consistent pain that occurs upon exertion and is relieved by rest. Variant angina is exhibited by pain at rest and reversible ST-segment elevation. Silent angina manifests through evidence of ischemia, but the client reports no symptoms.
Which nursing actions would be of greatest importance in the management of a client preparing for angioplasty? Inform client of diagnostic tests. Remove hair from skin insertion sites. Assess distal pulses. Withhold anticoagulant therapy.
Correct response: Withhold anticoagulant therapy. Explanation: The nurse knows to withhold the anticoagulant therapy to decrease chance of hemorrhage during the procedure. The nurse does inform the client of diagnostic test, will assess pulses, and prep the skin prior to the angioplasty, but this is not the most important action to be taken.
