Anatomy and Physiology II Unit 3 Exam
24) What effects might a shortened frenulum of tongue cause? (Module 22.6D) A) difficulty fighting off infections B) difficulty tasting sweet foods C) difficulty eating or talking D) difficulty trapping bacteria and other pathogens that enter the oral cavity E) difficulty tasting spicy foods
C
38) Define ingestion. A) The movement of nutrients across the digestive epithelium and into the bloodstream. B) The discharge of feces. C) The enzymatic breakdown of food. D) Entry of food and liquids into the digestive tract through the mouth. E) The crushing and shearing of food.
D
26) Damage to the parotid glands would affect the digestion of which nutrient? A) glucose B) starches C) proteins D) fats E) nucleic acids
B
29) Identify when most of the CO2 is released during the complete catabolism of glucose. A) glycolysis B) preparatory step C) citric acid cycle D) Calvin cycle E) electron transport chain
C
11) Describe hepatitis. A) Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver. B) Hepatitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. C) Hepatitis is inflammation of the pancreas. D) Hepatitis is inflammation of the small intestine. E) Hepatitis is inflammation of the large intestine.
A
14) What is the function of the lesser omentum? A) stabilizes the position of the stomach and provides a route for structures entering or leaving the liver B) locks the small intestine and pancreas with the posterior abdominal wall C) provides padding and protection across the anterior and lateral surfaces of the abdomen D) suspends the small intestine E) suspends the large intestine
A
27) Compare oxidation and reduction. A) Oxidation is the gain of oxygen, or loss of hydrogen or electrons, whereas reduction is the loss of oxygen, or the gain of hydrogen or electrons. B) Oxidation is the loss of oxygen, or the gain of hydrogen or electrons, whereas reduction is gain of oxygen, or loss of hydrogen or electrons.
A
3) Name the three pairs of salivary glands. A) sublingual, submandibular, and parotid B) buccal, parotid, lingual C) caudate, quadrate, falciform D) lingual, sublingual, and submandibular E) serous, mucous, and parotid
A
35) Compare catabolism and anabolism. A) Catabolism is the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones, whereas anabolism is buildup of large molecules from smaller building blocks. B) Catabolism is the buildup of large molecules from smaller building blocks, whereas anabolism is the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones. C) Catabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in the body, whereas anabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions in an individual cell. D) Catabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions in an individual cell, whereas anabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in the body. E) Catabolism uses ATP, whereas anabolism generate ATP.
A
4) Define hepatocyte. A) a liver cell B) a pancreatic cell C) a gallbladder cell D) a small intestinal cell E) a salivary gland cell
A
50) On a hot August day at the beach, the lifeguard jumped up and ran into the water, throwing a life-buoy to a troubled swimmer calling for help, and pulling her to safety. He was happy to help the swimmer, and once back on the beach, he realized that being in the water cooled him off a great deal. What form of heat transfer contributed to his feeling cooler? A) convection B) radiation C) conduction D) evaporation
A
51) A high uric acid level (above 7.4 mg/dl) can lead to the painful condition known as A) gout. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) anorexia nervosa. D) lupus. E) Kwashiorkar.
A
56) How do the absorptive and postabsorptive states maintain normal blood glucose levels? A) During the absorptive state, insulin stimulates glucose uptake by cells and during the postabsorptive state, glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose. B) During the absorptive state, glucagon stimulates glucose uptake by cells and during the postabsorptive state, insulin stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose. C) During the absorptive state, insulin stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and during the postabsorptive state, glucagon stimulates glucose uptake by cells. D) During the absorptive state, glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and during the postabsorptive state, insulin stimulates glucose uptake by cells.
A
60) Define balanced diet. A) A balanced diet contains all of the nutrients needed to maintain homeostasis and prevent malnutrition. B) A balanced diet contains equal amounts of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. C) A balanced diet contains equal amounts of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. D) A balanced diet contains all of the nutrients needed for energy expenditure without any excess nutrients that would be stored. E) A balanced diet contains only healthy sources of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids.
A
67) What is the difference between a micelle and a chylomicron? A) Micelles are lipid-bile salt complexes, whereas chylomicrons are lipoproteins. B) Micelles are lipoproteins, whereas chylomicrons are lipid-bile salt complexes. C) Micelles are found only in adipocytes, whereas chylomicrons are found in the bloodstream. D) Micelles are produced in the liver, whereas chylomicrons are produced in the intestinal lumen. E) Micelles are also known as high-density lipoproteins, whereas chylomicrons are also known as low-density lipoproteins.
A
68) Describe leptin and its effect on appetite. A) Leptin is a peptide hormone produced by adipose tissues during the synthesis of triglycerides and it signals satiety. B) Leptin is a neurotransmitter that increases appetite. C) Leptin is a hormone released by the gastric mucosa that stimulates appetite. D) Leptin is a hormone released by the pancreas that suppresses appetite. E) Leptin is steroid hormone produced by adipose tissues during the breakdown of triglycerides and it stimulates appetite.
A
82) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A) jaundice B) elevated levels of blood glucose C) impaired digestion of protein D) blood in the feces E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin
A
10) Trace a drop of bile from the hepatic ducts to the duodenal lumen. A) hepatic ducts, bile duct, duodenal lumen B) hepatic ducts, common hepatic duct, bile duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen C) hepatic ducts, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen D) hepatic ducts, liver sinusoids, cystic duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen E) hepatic ducts, cystic duct, bile duct, common hepatic duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen
B
33) What two coenzymes transfer hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain? A) pyruvate and acetyl CoA B) NAD and FAD C) ADP and GDP D) ATP and GTP E) NADP and FAD
B
36) Name the major functions of the large intestine. A) producing digestive enzymes, producing acidic chyme, digesting proteins, fats and carbohydrates B) reabsorbing water and compacting material into feces, absorbing vitamins, and storing fecal material C) detoxifying alcohol and drugs, producing bile, storing bile D) producing buffers, absorbing vitamins, and storing bile E) emulsifying lipids, synthesizing clotting factors, and absorbing and inactivating lipid-soluble drugs
B
41) Which step of glucose metabolism yields the greater amount of ATP? A) glycolysis B) electron transport system C) citric acid cycle D) glycolysis + citric acid cycle
B
42) What is the primary function of the duodenum? A) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce vitamin K. B) The primary function of the duodenum is to neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small intestine. C) The primary function of the duodenum is to regulate the speed that food enters the large intestine. D) The primary function of the duodenum is to absorb water. E) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce acid for the digestion of protein.
B
44) Pellagra, an epithelial and mucosal deterioration, results from a deficiency in A) vitamin B2 (riboflavin). B) vitamin B3 (niacin). C) vitamin B9 (folic acid). D) vitamin D. E) vitamin K.
B
48) What is the primary function of the duodenum? A) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce vitamin K. B) The primary function of the duodenum is to neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small intestine. C) The primary function of the duodenum is to regulate the speed that food enters the large intestine. D) The primary function of the duodenum is to absorb water. E) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce acid for the digestion of protein.
B
55) Describe the source of intestinal gas. A) churning of food in the stomach increases the carbon dioxide that is mixed into the chyme B) bacterial metabolism of indigestible carbohydrates in the colon C) swallowing excess air during eating generates pockets of air that remain in the food D) as certain foods are broken down they release trapped gases E) as bile emulsifies lipids some gas is released in the process
B
57) Describe cholecystitis. A) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the liver. B) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. C) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the pancreas. D) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the small intestine. E) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the large intestine.
B
58) ________ is an unhealthy state resulting from inadequate intake of one or more nutrients that becomes life-threatening as the deficiencies accumulate. A) Anorexia B) Malnutrition C) Bulimia D) Protein deficiency disease E) Kwashiorkor
B
7) Define energetics. A) Energetics is how much energy is derived from food. B) Energetics is the study of the flow of energy and its change from one form to another. C) Energetics is the force generated by muscular contractions. D) Energetics is the sum of all the energy created by nutrient breakdown in the body. E) Energetics is the balance of food intake with energy expenditure.
B
71) A(n) ________ is deficient in one or more of the essential amino acids. A) complete protein B) incomplete protein C) water-soluble vitamin D) fat-soluble vitamin
B
75) Predict the effect of peripheral vasodilation on a person's body temperature. A) Body temperature would increase. B) Body temperature would decrease. C) Body temperature would stay the same.
B
76) What is the function of the gallbladder? A) synthesize and secrete bile B) store and concentrate bile C) store fat-soluble vitamins D) store glycogen and lipids E) synthesize clotting factors
B
13) Which pair of salivary glands contributes most to saliva production? A) lingual B) sublingual C) submandibular D) parotid E) buccal
C
15) Which accessory organ of the digestive system is responsible for almost 200 known functions? A) salivary glands B) gallbladder C) liver D) pancreas E) appendix
C
17) Which pair of salivary glands secretes substances that reduce oral bacteria populations? A) lingual B) sublingual C) submandibular D) parotid E) buccal
C
21) Why do cells make new compounds? A) to break them down into smaller compounds which liberates greater amounts of ATP B) new compounds contain more high energy bonds that can be used by the cell to fuel cellular metabolism C) new compounds are used to maintain and repair structures, support growth, and store nutrient reserves D) making new compounds generates heat which can be used to maintain body temperature E) making new compounds ensures that only one nutrient source is used by metabolic pathways to generate ATP
C
22) What is the importance of the mesenteries? A) they increase the surface area available for absorption in the small intestine B) they produce enzymes to increase the digestion of proteins and fats in the small intestine C) they support and stabilize organs of the abdominal cavity and provide a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels D) they consist of smooth muscle that contracts to push food along the digestive tract E) they produce hormones that regulate the activities of the digestive organs
C
30) Which is not true for smooth muscle cells? A) They have actin and myosin. B) They can twist like a corkscrew when they contract. C) They have sarcomeres. D) The multi-unit type of smooth muscle cells are innervated by motor neuron. E) The visceral type of smooth muscle cells are arranged in sheets and layers and usually lack direct contact with any motor neuron.
C
52) Describe the roles of LDLs and HDLs. A) LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine and HDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the liver. B) LDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the liver and LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine. C) LDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues and HDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the liver. D) LDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the liver and HDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues. E) LDLs deliver excess cholesterol to adipocytes and HDLs remove excess cholesterol from adipocytes.
C
53) What is the function of parietal cells? A) secrete mucous B) secrete pepsinogen C) secrete intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid D) secrete a variety of hormones E) absorb nutrients
C
59) Vitamin B2 is A) folate. B) thiamin. C) riboflavin. D) retinol. E) ascorbic acid.
C
6) Describe a portal triad. A) A portal triad consists of two lobes of the liver and the gallbladder. B) A portal triad consists of the three primary lobes of the liver. C) A portal triad consists of an interlobular vein, an interlobular artery, and an interlobular bile duct. D) A portal triad consists of three hepatocytes forming a lobule. E) A portal triad consists of a central vein, bile canaliculi, and bile ductules.
C
63) The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of A) pancreatic islets. B) pancreatic crypts. C) pancreatic acini. D) pancreatic lobules. E) triads.
C
66) Which hormone inhibits the satiety center and stimulates appetite in the short term? A) Leptin B) Insulin C) Ghrelin D) Glucagon E) Neuropeptide Y
C
79) What bacterium is responsible for most peptic ulcers? A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella C) Helicobactor pylori D) Candida albicans E) Staphylococcus aureus
C
8) Name the four major regions of the stomach in order from its junction with the esophagus to the small intestine. A) pyloric part, cardia, body, fundus B) cardia, body, pyloric part, fundus C) fundus, cardia, body, pyloric part D) fundus, pyloric part, body, cardia E) cardia, fundus, body, pyloric part
C
81) Briefly describe phenylketonuria (PKU). A) PKU is the accumulation of uric acid crystals due to an inability to catabolize purines. B) PKU is the accumulation of ketone bodies due to the breakdown of fatty acids and amino acids. C) PKU is an inherited metabolic disorder resulting from an inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. D) PKU occurs as a result of inadequate protein intake. E) PKU is an eating disorder that involves excessive food consumption followed by purging.
C
9) Define emulsification. A) Breakdown of proteins into fatty acids by enzymes B) Breakdown of starches into glucose monomers C) Breakdown of lipid droplets by bile salts D) Breakdown of nucleic acids by bile salts E) Breakdown of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids by bile salts
C
12) Explain the significance of peritoneal fluid. A) provide a liquid medium for the intestines to be suspended in B) gas exchange occurs in the peritoneal fluid C) hormones travel through the peritoneal fluid to their target digestive organs D) prevent friction and irritation when digestive organs move E) nutrients pass from the digestive lumen into the peritoneal fluid before entering the bloodstream
D
18) What is the name sometimes given to the third set of molars? A) deciduous teeth B) baby teeth C) milk teeth D) wisdom teeth E) permanent teeth
D
19) Compare glycogenesis and glycogenolysis. A) Glycogenesis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates. Glycogenolysis is the formation of non-carbohydrates from glucose. B) Glycogenesis is the formation of non-carbohydrates from glucose. Glycogenolysis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates. C) Glycogenesis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose. Glycogenolysis is the formation of glycogen from glucose. D) Glycogenesis is the formation of glycogen from glucose. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose. E) Glycogenesis is the formation of glycogen from non-carbohydrates. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of non-carbohydrates into glycogen.
D
23) Most of the absorbed nutrients enter into which blood vessel? A) aorta B) superior mesenteric artery C) hepatic artery D) hepatic portal vein E) inferior vena cava
D
31) Define oxidative phosphorylation. A) The generation of ATP by adding a phosphate group to ADP in the absence of oxygen. B) The generation of ATP by adding a phosphate group to ADP in the presence of oxygen. C) The generation of ATP through glycolysis. D) The generation of ATP through the transfer of electrons from coenzymes to oxygen. E) The generation of ATP through the transfer of electrons from oxygen to coenzymes.
D
32) Name the structure that forms the roof of the mouth. A) palatoglossal arch B) lingual tonsils C) pharyngeal tonsil D) hard palate E) uvula
D
34) Identify the four regions of the colon. A) ileum, cecum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon B) duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum C) cardia, pylorus, body, sigmoid colon D) ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon E) cecum, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus
D
37) Poisons like cyanide bind to ________ and prevent electron transfer. A) enzymes B) the endoplasmic reticulum C) acetyl-CoA D) cytochromes E) mitochondria
D
39) What anatomical feature of the stomach allows the organ to form chyme? A) the muscular pyloric sphincter contracts B) the rugae allows the lumen to expand C) the wide body gives ample space D) the 3 muscular layers allows mixing and churning E) the long greater curvature produces an angle creating a pouch
D
43) ________ carry excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) C) Intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs) D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) E) Very-high-density lipoproteins (VHDLs)
D
45) Describe the alkaline tide. A) The alkaline tide is the activation of carbonic acid inside parietal cells. B) The alkaline tide is the release of intrinsic factor. C) The alkaline tide is the release of hormones that influence digestion. D) The alkaline tide is the sudden influx of bicarbonate ions into the bloodstream. E) The alkaline tide is the active transport of hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen.
D
46) Obesity is defined as a body weight more than ________ percent above the ideal body weight for an individual. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 30
D
49) The energy content of foods is commonly given in units of A) ATP units. B) carbohydrate. C) grams (also, g, or gms). D) kilocalories (also, kcal or Cal). E) degrees Celsius.
D
5) Most of the absorbed nutrients enter into which blood vessel? A) aorta B) superior mesenteric artery C) hepatic artery D) hepatic portal vein E) inferior vena cava
D
54) In amino acid metabolism, identify the processes by which the amino group is removed. A) urea cycle or amination B) citric acid cycle or urea cycle C) amination or deamination D) transamination or deamination E) proteolysis or beta-oxidation
D
61) A(n) ________ contains all of the essential amino acids. A) carbohydrate B) water-soluble vitamin C) fat-soluble vitamin D) complete protein E) essential fatty acid
D
64) Define thermoregulation. A) the study of the flow of energy B) the homeostatic control of energy expenditure C) the homeostatic control of energy intake D) the homeostatic control of body temperature E) the study of thermodynamics
D
65) Of all the energy released in catabolism, about ________ percent is lost as heat warms the surrounding tissues. A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 60 E) 80
D
70) Define insensible perspiration. A) The loss of water by radiation. B) The loss of water as cool air moves across the surface of the body. C) The loss of water by direct transfer of energy through physical contact. D) The loss of water by evaporation from the skin and alveolar surfaces of the lungs. E) The loss of water by evaporation from sweat glands.
D
74) Which one of the following is TRUE? A) The area of the brain that regulates body temperature is the pineal gland. B) Deficiency of vitamin A can result in a condition called scurvy. C) The minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person is called steady state. D) Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, glucose yields energy the quickest. E) The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are proteins.
D
77) Explain the role of glycogen in cellular metabolism. A) It is the primary fuel that enters glycolysis. B) It is the primary fuel that enters the citric acid cycle. C) It is the primary fuel that enters the electron transport chain. D) It serves as an intracellular glucose reserve. E) It can easily be converted to other non-carbohydrate fuel sources.
D
1) Which of the following is FALSE? A) The mesentery is a double sheet of peritoneal membrane that suspends the visceral organs and carries nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels. B) Hepatocytes are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of plates converging toward a central vein. C) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called peristalsis. D) Teniae coli are longitudinal bands of smooth muscle on the outer surface of the colon. E) The sac-like structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the haustra.
E
16) Name the three main parts of a typical tooth. (Module 22.7A) A) bulb, shaft, and root B) labia, body, and root C) canal, cavity, and socket D) papilla, cortex, and medulla E) crown, neck, and root
E
2) Name the lobes of the liver. A) superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior B) superior, inferior, medial, and lateral C) superior, inferior, right, and left D) anterior, posterior, caudate, and quadrate E) right, left, caudate, and quadrate
E
20) Name the regions and functions of the pharynx. A) buccal pharynx, lingual pharynx, and oral pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland secretions B) labial pharynx, palatopharynx, and lingual pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland secretions C) buccal pharynx, labial pharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus D) nasopharynx, oropharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus E) nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus
E
25) Explain when glycolysis is important in cellular metabolism. A) When glucose is only fuel source. B) When beta-oxidation no longer produces sufficient ATP to fuel the cellular metabolism. C) When gluconeogenesis has decreased then glycolysis becomes important. D) When ATP must be produced aerobically. E) When ATP must be produced anaerobically.
E
28) Distinguish between the exocrine and endocrine secretions of the pancreas. A) The exocrine pancreas produces acidic secretions and the endocrine pancreas produces alkaline secretions. B) The exocrine pancreas produces mucous and the endocrine pancreas produces enzymes. C) The exocrine pancreas produces bile and the endocrine pancreas concentrates and stores bile. D) The exocrine pancreas produces hormones and the endocrine pancreas produces buffers and enzymes. E) The exocrine pancreas produces buffers and enzymes and the endocrine pancreas produces hormones.
E
40) A disorder caused by the ingestion of excessive quantities of a fat-soluble vitamin is known as A) hypovitaminosis. B) Kwashiorkor. C) avitaminosis. D) carbohydrate loading. E) hypervitaminosis.
E
47) Homeostatic control of body temperature is termed A) thermic monitoring. B) energetics. C) homeostasis. D) basal metabolic rate. E) thermoregulation.
E
62) Explain why carbohydrates are preferred over proteins and lipids as an energy source. A) Carbohydrates yield more energy than proteins and lipids. B) Carbohydrates travel easier through the blood than proteins and lipids. C) Carbohydrates can be stored and proteins and lipids cannot. D) Proteins and lipids are rarer in food than carbohydrates. E) Proteins and lipids are more important as structural components of cells and tissues.
E
69) The vitamin that is essential for the production of several clotting factors is A) vitamin A. B) vitamin B. C) vitamin C. D) vitamin E. E) vitamin K.
E
72) Your patient has inflammation of the mucous membrane lining of the stomach. This is known clinically as A) an ulcer. B) gingivitis. C) cholecystitis. D) ascites. E) gastritis.
E
73) How is heat loss different between conduction and convection? A) Conduction is the loss of heat by evaporation from the skin and convection is the loss of heat by evaporation from the alveolar surfaces of the lungs. B) Conduction is the loss of heat by evaporation from sweat glands and convection is the loss of heat by evaporation from the skin. C) Conduction involves radiation, whereas convection involves evaporation. D) Conduction involves heat loss as cooler air moves across the surface of the body and convection is the direct transfer of energy through physical contact. E) Conduction is the direct transfer of energy through physical contact and convection involves heat loss as cooler air moves across the surface of the body.
E
78) Name the heat conservation mechanism that conducts heat form deep arteries to adjacent deep veins in the limbs. A) vasomotor flow B) peripheral vasodilation C) nonshivering thermogenesis D) shivering thermogenesis E) countercurrent exchange
E
80) Cite the major mechanisms that regulate and control digestive activities. A) local factors B) central nervous system reflexes C) local factors and neural mechanisms D) neural mechanisms and hormonal mechanisms E) local factors, neural mechanisms, and hormonal mechanisms
E
