Application for HR 2 final

5. A nurse is completing discharge instructions with a client who has spontaneously passed a calcium oxalate calculus. To decrease the chance of recurrence, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods? (Select all that apply) a. Red meat b. Black tea c. Cheese d. Whole grains e. Spinach

b. Black tea e. Spinach

1. A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a client who has renal calculi. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Bradycardia b. Diaphoresis c. Nocturia d. Bradypnea

b. Diaphoresis

4. CHAPTER 59 A nurse is reviewing client laboratory data. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is expected for a client who has Stage 4 chronic kidney disease? a. BUN 15 mg/dL b. GFR 20 mL/min c. Serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL d. Serum potassium 5.0 mEq/L

b. GFR 20 mL/min

2. CHAPTER 56 A nurse is monitoring a client who had a kidney biopsy for postoperative complications. Which of the following complications should the nurse identify as causing the greatest risk to the client? a. Infection b. Hemorrhage c. Hematuria d. Pain

b. Hemorrhage

5. CHAPTER 60 A nurse is reviewing urinalysis results for four clients. Which of the following urinalysis results indicates a UTI? a. Positive for hyaline casts b. Positive for leukocyte esterase c. Positive for ketones d. Positive for crystals

b. Positive for leukocyte esterase

The nurse wishes to reduce the incidence of hospital-acquired acute kidney injury. Which question by the nurse to the interdisciplinary health care team will result in reducing client exposure? "Should we filter air circulation?" "Can we use less radiographic contrast dye?" "Should we add low-dose dobutamine?" "Should we decrease IV rates?"

"Can we use less radiographic contrast dye?" Contrast dye is severely nephrotoxic, and other options can be used in its place. Air circulation and low-dose dopamine are not associated with nephrotoxicity. Pre-renal status results from decreased blood flow to the kidney, such as fluid loss or dehydration; IV fluids can correct this.

A client is scheduled to undergo kidney transplant surgery. Which teaching point does the nurse include in the preoperative teaching session? "Your diseased kidneys will be removed at the same time the transplant is performed." "The new kidney will be placed directly below one of your old kidneys." "It is essential for you to wash your hands and avoid people who are ill. "You will receive dialysis the day before surgery and for about a week after."

"It is essential for you to wash your hands and avoid people who are ill. Anti-rejection medications increase the risks for infection, sepsis, and death. Strict aseptic technique and handwashing are essential. Unless severely infected, the client's kidneys are left in place and the graft is placed in the iliac fossa. Dialysis is performed the day before surgery; after the surgery, the new kidney should begin to make urine.

Discharge teaching has been provided for a client recovering from kidney transplantation. Which information indicates that the client understands the instructions? "I can stop my medications when my kidney function returns to normal." "If my urine output is decreased, I should increase my fluids." "The anti-rejection medications will be taken for life." "I will drink 8 ounces of water with my medications."

"The anti-rejection medications will be taken for life." Immune-suppressant therapy must be taken for life to prevent organ rejection. Adherence to immunosuppressive drugs is crucial to survival for clients with transplanted kidneys. Lack of adherence can lead to complications such as rejection, graft loss, return to dialysis, and death. Oliguria is a symptom of transplant rejection; the transplant team should be contacted immediately if this occurs. It is not necessary to take anti-rejection medication with 8 ounces of water.

A client is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Septra) for urinary tract infection (UTI). What does the nurse instruct the client about this therapy? Select all that apply. 1. Disclose any allergies to sulfa drugs before beginning therapy. 2. Wear sunscreen and protective clothing when out in the sun. 3. Monitor the pulse twice daily while taking this drug. 4. Drink a full glass of water with each dose of the drug. 5. Avoid taking the drug within 2 hours of taking an antacid.

1. Disclose any allergies to sulfa drugs before beginning therapy. 2. Wear sunscreen and protective clothing when out in the sun. 4. Drink a full glass of water with each dose of the drug. The nurse should ensure that the client does not have any allergies to sulfa drugs before beginning therapy, since allergies to sulfa drugs are common and may require changing the drug therapy. The client should wear sunscreen and protective clothing when out in the sun because sulfamethoxazole increases sensitivity to the sun and can lead to severe sunburns. The client must consume a full glass of water with each dose because the drug can form crystals that precipitate in the kidney tubules; drinking at least 3 L of fluids daily prevents this complication. The client taking fluoroquinolone is asked to monitor the pulse twice daily as this class of drugs induces serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Fluoroquinolone must not be taken within 2 hours of taking an antacid; antacids containing magnesium or aluminum interfere with drug absorption.

The nurse is teaching a group of older adult women about the signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which concepts does the nurse explain in the presentation? Select all that apply. 1. Dysuria 2. Enuresis 3. Frequency 4. Nocturia 5. Urgency 6. Polyuria

1. Dysuria 3. Frequency 4. Nocturia 5. Urgency Dysuria (painful urination), nocturia (frequent urinating at night), urgency (having the urge to urinate quickly), and frequency are symptoms of UTI. Enuresis (bed-wetting) and polyuria (increased amounts of urine production) are not signs of a UTI.

What nonsurgical methods does the nurse teach the client to manage stress incontinence? Select all that apply. 1. Reduce excess body weight. 2. Walk to strengthen pelvic muscles. 3. Perform Kegel exercises. 4. Use artificial sweeteners instead of sugar. 5. Practice vaginal cone therapy.

1. Reduce excess body weight. 3. Perform Kegel exercises. 5. Practice vaginal cone therapy. The client with stress incontinence should reduce excess weight because increased abdominal pressure aggravates stress incontinence. Kegel exercise therapy strengthens the muscles of the pelvic floor, and weighted vaginal cones are used to strengthen pelvic muscles and decrease stress incontinence. Walking is a good exercise; however, it does not help to increase pelvic strength. The client must avoid foods that irritate the bladder such as artificial sweeteners, alcohol, nicotine, citrus, and caffeine.

What clinical findings does the nurse attribute to the presence of kidney stones? Select all that apply. 1. Smoky urine 2. Odorless urine 3. Increased serum calcium 4. Increased serum phosphate 5. Urine pH of 6

1. Smoky urine 3. Increased serum calcium 4. Increased serum phosphate Smoky or rusty urine is common in clients with kidney stones, indicating hematuria. Increases in serum calcium and phosphate levels indicate that excess minerals are present and may contribute to stone formation. The urine generally has an odor, indicating infection. Normal urine is alkaline, with a pH between 5 and 6. If urine contains uric acid or cystine stones, it is highly acidic. If urine contains calcium phosphate and struvite stones, it is alkaline.

What method of emptying the bladder is helpful for a client with a large cystocele? 1. Splinting 2. Credé method 3. Double-voiding 4. Valsalva maneuver

1. Splinting The client with a large cystocele or prolapse of the bladder into the vagina may use splinting to reduce renal urinary incontinence. This is achieved by inserting fingers into the vagina and lifting the cystocele to urinate. The client using the Credé method presses over the bladder area to increase pressure. The client may also trigger nerve stimulation by tugging at the pubic hair or massaging the genital area. In the double-voiding technique, the client empties the bladder once and then attempts a second voiding within a few minutes. The Valsalva maneuver is a breathing technique that increases chest and abdominal pressure. Increased pressure is directed toward the bladder during exhalation.

The nurse is teaching a client with a neurogenic bladder to use intermittent self-catheterization for bladder emptying. Which client statement indicates a need for further clarification? 1. "A small-lumen catheter will help prevent injury to my urethra." 2. "I will use a new, sterile catheter each time I do the procedure." 3. "My family members can be taught to help me if I need it." 4. "Proper handwashing before I start the procedure is very important."

2. "I will use a new, sterile catheter each time I do the procedure." Catheters are cleaned and reused. With proper handwashing and cleaning of the catheter, no increase in bacterial complications has been shown. Catheters are replaced when they show signs of deteriorating. The smallest lumen possible and the use of a lubricant help reduce urethral trauma to this sensitive mucous tissue. Research shows that family members in the home can be taught to perform straight catheterizations using a clean (rather than a sterile) catheter with good outcomes. Proper handwashing is extremely important in reducing the risk for infection in clients who use intermittent self-catheterization and is a principle that should be stressed.

The nurse receives the change-of-shift report on four clients. Which client does the nurse decide to assess first? 1. 26-year-old admitted 2 days ago with urosepsis with an oral temperature of 99.4° F (37.4° C) 2. 28-year-old with urolithiasis who has been receiving morphine sulfate and has not voided for 8 hours 3. 32-year-old admitted with hematuria and possible bladder cancer who is scheduled for cystoscopy 4. 40-year-old with noninfectious urethritis who is reporting "burning" and has estrogen cream prescribed

2. 28-year-old with urolithiasis who has been receiving morphine sulfate and has not voided for 8 hours Anuria may indicate urinary obstruction at the bladder neck or urethra and is an emergency because obstruction can cause acute kidney failure. The client who has been receiving morphine sulfate may be oversedated and may not be aware of any discomfort caused by bladder distention. The 26-year-old admitted with urosepsis and slight fever, the 32-year-old scheduled for cystoscopy, and the 40-year-old with noninfectious urethritis are not at immediate risk for complications or deterioration.

During assessment of a client, what finding does the nurse associate with the presence of kidney stones? 1. Oliguria 2. Flank pain 3. Dysuria 4. Flank pain extending to the scrotum

2. Flank pain The major manifestation of kidney stones is renal colic, which begins suddenly and is described as "unbearable." Flank pain indicates that the stone is in the kidney or the upper ureter. Oliguria, or scant urine output, indicates an obstruction at the bladder neck or urethra. Dysuria and frequency occur when the stone reaches the bladder and causes irritation. Flank pain extending to the scrotum suggests that the stones are in the ureters or bladder. The pain is most intense when the stone is moving or when the ureter is obstructed.

What complication may the nurse expect in an older client with an indwelling catheter for urinary continence? 1. Skin breakdown 2. Risk for infection 3. Damage to tissues 4. Urine retention

2. Risk for infection An indwelling catheter increases the risk for infection in a client. An indwelling catheter can help protect the skin and reduce the risk of skin breakdown caused by urinary incontinence. Applied devices, such as intravaginal pessaries for women and penile clamps for men, can cause tissue damage. An indwelling catheter completely drains the bladder, so the client does not have urinary retention.

A client is prescribed prophylactic immunotherapy with intravesical instillation of bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) to prevent recurrence of bladder tumor. What does the nurse inform the client about this therapy? 1. The procedure is done in an inpatient setting. 2. The BCG virus compound is allowed to dwell in the bladder for 2 hours. 3. Flush the toilet three times after use. 4. Dispose of clothing that comes in contact with urine in 24 hours.

2. The BCG virus compound is allowed to dwell in the bladder for 2 hours. The BCG virus compound is allowed to dwell in the bladder for 2 hours. Live virus will be excreted when the client urinates. The instillation procedure is done in an outpatient setting. The client must not share the toilet with other household members for 24 hours after instillation; the toilet must be flushed and cleaned with a solution of 10% liquid bleach. The client must wash all clothing that has come into contact with urine during the 24 hours after instillation separately with 10% liquid bleach.

The nurse in the urology clinic is providing teaching for a female client with cystitis. Which instructions does the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1. Cleanse the perineum from back to front after using the bathroom. 2. Try to take in 64 ounces of fluid each day. 3. Be sure to complete the full course of antibiotics. 4. If urine remains cloudy, call the clinic. 5. Expect some flank discomfort until the antibiotic has worked.

2. Try to take in 64 ounces of fluid each day. 3. Be sure to complete the full course of antibiotics. 4. If urine remains cloudy, call the clinic. Between 64 and 100 ounces (2-3 liters) of fluid should be taken daily to dilute bacteria and prevent infection. Not completing the course of antibiotics could suppress the bacteria, but would not destroy all bacteria, causing the infection to resurface. For persistent symptoms of infection, the client should contact the provider. The perineal area should be cleansed from front to back or "clean to dirty" to prevent infection. Cystitis produces suprapubic symptoms; flank pain occurs with infection or inflammation of the kidney.

The nurse is caring for a client who has pyuria. What does the urinalysis reveal in this client? 1. Kidney stones. 2. White blood cells in the urine. 3. Red blood cells in the urine. 4. Heavy bacteria in the urine.

2. White blood cells in the urine. Urinalysis showing pyuria means that the client has white blood cells in the urine without a large number of bacteria.

The nurse is instructing an older adult female client about interventions to decrease the risk for cystitis. Which client comment indicates that the teaching was effective? 1. "I must avoid drinking carbonated beverages." 2. "I need to douche vaginally once a week." 3. "I should drink 2½ liters of fluid every day." 4. "I will not drink fluids after 8 pm each evening."

3. "I should drink 2½ liters of fluid every day." Drinking 2½ liters of fluid a day flushes out the urinary system and helps reduce the risk for cystitis. Avoiding carbonated beverages is not necessary to reduce the risk for cystitis. Douching is not a healthy behavior because it removes beneficial organisms as well as the harmful ones. Avoiding fluids after 8 pm would help prevent nocturia but not cystitis. It is recommended that clients with incontinence problems limit their late-night fluid intake to 120 mL.

A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman reports "leaking urine" when she laughs, and is diagnosed with stress incontinence. What does the nurse tell the client about how certain drugs may be able to help with her stress incontinence? 1. "They can relieve your anxiety associated with incontinence." 2. "They help your bladder to empty." 3. "They may be used to improve urethral resistance." 4. "They decrease your bladder's tone."

3. "They may be used to improve urethral resistance." Bladder pressure is greater than urethral resistance; drugs may be used to improve urethral resistance. Relieving anxiety has not been shown to improve stress incontinence. No drugs have been shown to promote bladder emptying, and this is not usually the problem with stress incontinence. Emptying the bladder is accomplished by the individual, or if that is not possible, by using a catheter. Decreasing bladder tone would not be a desired outcome for a woman with incontinence.

A client is prescribed estrogen therapy for urinary incontinence. What does the nurse teach the client about this therapy? 1. Change positions slowly, especially in the mornings. 2. Report urine output that is significantly lower than fluid intake. 3. A thin application of cream is adequate. 4. Use hard candy to moisten the mouth.

3. A thin application of cream is adequate. Teach the client that a thin application of estrogen cream is all that is needed. The client taking tricyclic antidepressants must change positions slowly, especially in the mornings, because these drugs cause dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, and increase the risk for falls. The client taking antispasmodics or anticholinergics should report urine output that is significantly lower than fluid intake as these drugs cause urine retention. Dry mouth is another side effect of antispasmodics and anticholinergics; the client can use hard candy to moisten the mouth.

A cognitively impaired client has urge incontinence. Which method for achieving continence does the nurse include in the client's care plan? 1. Bladder training 2. Credé method 3. Habit training 4. Kegel exercises

3. Habit training Habit training (scheduled toileting) will be most effective in reducing incontinence for a cognitively impaired client because the caregiver is responsible for helping the client to a toilet on a scheduled basis. Bladder training, the Credé method, and learning Kegel exercises require that the client be alert, cooperative, and able to assist with his or her own training.

The certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse (CWOCN) or enterostomal therapist (ET) teaches a client who has had a cystectomy about which care principles for the client's postdischarge activities? 1. Nutritional and dietary care 2. Respiratory care 3. Stoma and pouch care 4. Wiping from front to back (asepsis)

3. Stoma and pouch care The enterostomal therapist demonstrates external pouch application, local skin care, pouch care, methods of adhesion, and drainage mechanisms. The registered dietitian (RD) teaches the cystectomy client about nutritional care. The respiratory therapist teaches the cystectomy client about respiratory care. The client with a cystectomy does not require instruction about front-to-back wiping.

A client is ordered phenazopyridine (Prodium) to reduce bladder pain and burning on urination. What does the nurse teach the client about this drug regimen? 1. Report if the urine turns red. 2. Report blurred vision. 3. Take the drug with a meal. 4. Wear dark glasses in sunlight.

3. Take the drug with a meal. The client should take the drug with a meal to prevent gastrointestinal disturbances. The client need not report if the urine turns red or orange because this is an expected response to the drug. The client taking antispasmodics for relieving bladder spasms is asked to report blurred vision,which is a manifestation of toxicity. The client taking antispasmodics, not analgesics, is asked to wear dark glasses in sunlight as the drug dilates the pupil and increases eye sensitivity to light.

Which client does the nurse manager on the medical unit assign to an experienced LPN/LVN? 1. 42-year-old with painless hematuria who needs an admission assessment 2. 46-year-old scheduled for cystectomy who needs help in selecting a stoma site 3. 48-year-old receiving intravesical chemotherapy for bladder cancer 4. 55-year-old with incontinence who has intermittent catheterization prescribed

4. 55-year-old with incontinence who has intermittent catheterization prescribed Insertion of catheters is within the education and legal scope of practice for LPN/LVNs. Admission assessments and intravesical chemotherapy should be done by an RN. Preoperative preparation for cystectomy and stoma site selection should be done by an RN and either a Certified Wound, Ostomy, and Continence Nurse (CWOCN) or an enterostomal therapy (ET) nurse.

The nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for a neobladder and a Kock's pouch. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of these procedures? 1 . "If I restrict my oral intake of fluids, the adjustment will be easier." 2. "I must go to the restroom more often because my urine will be excreted through my anus." 3. "I need to wear loose-fitting pants so the urine can flow into my ostomy bag." 4. "I will have to drain my pouch with a catheter."

4. "I will have to drain my pouch with a catheter." For the client with a neobladder and a Kock's pouch, urine is collected in a pouch and is drained with the use of a catheter. Fluids should not be restricted. A neobladder does not require the use of an ostomy bag.

The nurse is teaching a client about pelvic muscle exercises. What information does the nurse include? 1. "For the best effect, perform all of your exercises while you are seated on the toilet." 2. "Limit your exercises to 5 minutes twice a day, or you will injure yourself." 3. "Results should be visible to you within 72 hours." 4. "You know that you are exercising correct muscles if you can stop urine flow in midstream."

4. "You know that you are exercising correct muscles if you can stop urine flow in midstream." When the client can start and stop the urine stream, the pelvic muscles are being used. Pelvic muscle exercises can be performed anywhere and should be performed more often than 5 minutes twice daily. Noticeable results take several weeks.

The health care provider requests phenazopyridine (Pyridium) for a client with cystitis. What does the nurse tell the client about the drug? 1. "It will act as an antibacterial drug." 2. "This drug will treat your infection, not the symptoms of it." 3. "You need to take the drug on an empty stomach." 4. "Your urine will turn red or orange while on the drug."

4. "Your urine will turn red or orange while on the drug." Phenazopyridine will turn the client's urine red or orange. Clients should be warned about this effect of the drug because it will be alarming to them if they are not informed, and care should be taken because it will stain undergarments. Phenazopyridine reduces bladder pain and burning by exerting a local analgesic/anesthetic effect on the mucosa of the urinary tract. It does treat the symptoms of bladder infection; it has no antibacterial action. Phenazopyridine should be taken with a meal or immediately after eating.

What clinical finding in a postmenopausal client with urethritis does the nurse attribute to low estrogen levels? 1. The urinalysis indicates pyuria. 2. The urethral culture is positive for bacteria. 3. The urinalysis indicates presence of bacteria. 4. A pelvic examination shows tissue changes.

4. A pelvic examination shows tissue changes. A pelvic examination of a postmenopausal client shows tissue changes due to low estrogen. The client with urethritis does not have pyuria or white blood cells (WBCs) in the urine. The urethral culture and urinalysis is usually negative for bacteria. These clients may have improvement in their urethral symptoms with the use of estrogen vaginal cream.

The nurse is caring for a client with cystitis. What does the nurse ask the client to include in the diet as part of nutritional therapy? 1. Carbonated beverages 2. Tomato products 3. Caffeine 4. Cranberry juice

4. Cranberry juice The client with cystitis should consume 50 mL of concentrated cranberry juice daily because it is known to decrease the ability of bacteria to adhere to the epithelial cells lining the urinary tract, decreasing the incidence of symptomatic urinary tract infections in some clients. Cranberry juice must be consumed for 3 to 4 weeks to be effective. Caffeine, carbonated beverages, and tomato products must be avoided to decrease bladder irritation during cystitis.

What does the nurse teach a client to do to decrease the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI)? 1. Limit fluid intake. 2. Increase caffeine consumption. 3. Limit sugar intake. 4. Drink about 3 liters of fluid daily.

4. Drink about 3 liters of fluid daily. Drinking about 3 liters of fluid daily, if another medical problem does not require fluid restriction, helps prevent dehydration and UTIs. Fluids flush the system and should not be limited. Increased caffeine intake and limiting sugar intake will not prevent UTIs.

In what location would the nurse expect to find infection in a client with acute pyelonephritis? 1. Urethra 2. Urinary bladder 3. Prostate gland 4. Kidneys

4. Kidneys Acute pyelonephritis is a kidney infection. Urinary tract infections are described by their location in the tract. Urethritis is an acute infection in the urethra, cystitis in the bladder, and prostatitis in the prostate gland.

What procedure does the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe for the removal of a large, impacted stone in a client's kidney? 1. Lithotripsy 2. Stenting 3. Pyelolithotomy 4. Nephrolithotomy

4. Nephrolithotomy Nephrolithotomy, an open surgical procedure, is often prescribed to remove a large, impacted stone in the kidney. This method is performed if all other procedures fail and there is a possible risk for a lasting injury to the ureter or kidney. Lithotripsy is the use of sound, laser, or dry shock waves to break stones into small fragments. Stenting is a minimally invasive procedure performed by placing a stent in the ureter by ureteroscopy. The stent dilates the ureter, enlarging the passageway for the stone or stone fragments. Pyelolithotomy is an open surgical procedure to remove stones in the kidney pelvis.

A client reports experiencing involuntary loss and constant dribbling of urine due to an enlarged prostate. How does the nurse document this incontinence? 1. Stress incontinence 2. Urge incontinence 3. Reflex incontinence 4. Overflow incontinence

4. Overflow incontinence This client's condition is known as overflow incontinence. The urethra in the client is obstructed due to the enlarged prostate; the urethra fails to relax sufficiently to allow urine to flow, resulting in incomplete bladder emptying or complete urinary retention. Loss of urine following physical exertion, cough, or sneeze is documented as stress incontinence. Stress incontinence occurs due to intrinsic sphincter deficiency or acquired anatomic damage to the urethral sphincter. The client with urge incontinence experiences an involuntary loss of urine with a strong desire to urinate. The client with reflex incontinence has a post-void residual less than 50 mL.

What information will the nurse provide to a client who is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy? Select all that apply. A. "Your urine will be strained after the procedure." B. "Be sure to finish all of your antibiotics." C. "Immediately call the health care provider if you notice bruising." D. "Remember to drink at least 3 liters of fluid a day to promote urine flow." E. "You will need to change the incisional dressing once a day."

A. "Your urine will be strained after the procedure." B. "Be sure to finish all of your antibiotics." D. "Remember to drink at least 3 liters of fluid a day to promote urine flow." After lithotripsy, urine is strained to monitor the passage of stone fragments. Clients must finish the entire antibiotic prescription to decrease the risk of developing a urinary tract infection. Drinking at least 3 L of fluid a day dilutes potential stone-forming crystals, prevents dehydration, and promotes urine flow. Bruising on the flank of the affected side is expected after lithotripsy as a result of the shock waves that break the stone into small fragments. The client must notify the health care provider if he or she develops pain, fever, chills, or difficulty with urination because these signs and symptoms may signal the beginning of an infection or the formation of another stone. There is no incision with extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. There may be a small incision when intracorporeal lithotripsy is performed.

Which medication is most effective in slowing the progression of kidney failure in a client with chronic kidney disease? Diltiazem (Cardizem) Lisinopril (Zestril) Clonidine (Catapres) Doxazosin (Cardura)

ACE Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors such as lisinopril appear to be the most effective drugs to slow the progression of kidney failure. Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem may indirectly prevent kidney disease by controlling hypertension, but are not specific to slowing progression of kidney disease. Vasodilators such as clonidine and doxazosin control blood pressure, but do not specifically protect from kidney disease.

8. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to an older adult. Understanding age-related changes, what alterations in the usual protocol are necessary for the nurse to implement? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess vital signs more often. b. Hold other IV fluids running. c. Premedicate to prevent reactions. d. Transfuse smaller bags of blood. e. Transfuse each unit over 8 hours.

ANS: A, B The older adult needs vital signs monitored as often as every 15 minutes for the duration of the transfusion because changes may be the only indication of a transfusion-related problem. To prevent fluid overload, the nurse obtains a prescription to hold other running IV fluids during the transfusion. The other options are not warranted.

5. A student nurse is helping a registered nurse with a blood transfusion. Which actions by the student are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Hanging the blood product using normal saline and a filtered tubing set b. Taking a full set of vital signs prior to starting the blood transfusion c. Telling the client someone will remain at the bedside for the first 5 minutes d. Using gloves to start the clients IV if needed and to handle the blood product e. Verifying the clients identity, and checking blood compatibility and expiration time

ANS: A, B, D Correct actions prior to beginning a blood transfusion include hanging the product with saline and the correct filtered blood tubing, taking a full set of vital signs prior to starting, and using gloves. Someone stays with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion. Two registered nurses must verify the clients identity and blood compatibility.

9. A client has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The student nurse asks how this is treated. About what drugs does the nurse instructor teach? (Select all that apply.) a. Argatroban (Argatroban) b. Bivalirudin (Angiomax) c. Clopidogrel (Plavix) d. Lepirudin (Refludan) e. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

ANS: A, B, D The standard drugs used to treat HIT are argatroban, bivalirudin, and lepirudin. The other drugs are not used. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent used to reduce the likelihood of stroke or myocardial infarction. Methylprednisolone is a steroid used to reduce inflammation.

2. A student studying leukemias learns the risk factors for developing this disorder. Which risk factors does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Chemical exposure b. Genetically modified foods c. Ionizing radiation exposure d. Vaccinations e. Viral infections

ANS: A, C, E Chemical and ionizing radiation exposure and viral infections are known risk factors for developing leukemia. Eating genetically modified food and receiving vaccinations are not known risk factors.

6. A student nurse is learning about blood transfusion compatibilities. What information does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood type AB. b. Donor blood type B can donate to recipient blood type O. c. Donor blood type AB can donate to anyone. d. Donor blood type O can donate to anyone. e. Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood type B.

ANS: A, D Blood type A can be donated to people who have blood types A or AB. Blood type O can be given to anyone. Blood type B can be donated to people who have blood types B or AB. Blood type AB can only go to recipients with blood type AB.

3. A client has Hodgkins lymphoma, Ann Arbor stage Ib. For what manifestations should the nurse assess the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Headaches b. Night sweats c. Persistent fever d. Urinary frequency e. Weight loss

ANS: B, C, E In this stage, the disease is located in a single lymph node region or a single nonlymph node site. The client displays night sweats, persistent fever, and weight loss. Headache and urinary problems are not related.

7. A client with chronic anemia has had many blood transfusions. What medications does the nurse anticipate teaching the client about adding to the regimen? (Select all that apply.) a. Azacitidine (Vidaza) b. Darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) c. Decitabine (Dacogen) d. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) e. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

ANS: B, D Darbepoetin alfa and epoetin alfa are both red blood cell colony-stimulating factors that will help increase the production of red blood cells. Azacitidine and decitabine are used for myelodysplastic syndromes. Methylprednisolone is a steroid and would not be used for this problem.

10. A client has received a bone marrow transplant and is waiting for engraftment. What actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Not allowing any visitors until engraftment b. Limiting the protein in the clients diet c. Placing the client in protective precautions d. Teaching visitors appropriate hand hygiene e. Telling visitors not to bring live flowers or plants

ANS: C, D, E The client waiting for engraftment after bone marrow transplant has no white cells to protect him or her against infection. The client is on protective precautions and visitors are taught hand hygiene. No fresh flowers or plants are allowed due to the standing water in the vase or container that may harbor organisms. Limiting protein is not a healthy option and will not promote engraftment.

4. A client has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. What actions does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist with oral hygiene using a firm toothbrush. b. Give the client an enema if he or she is constipated. c. Help the client choose soft foods from the menu. d. Shave the male client with an electric razor. e. Use a lift sheet when needed to re-position the client.

ANS: C, D, E This client has thrombocytopenia and requires bleeding precautions. These include oral hygiene with a soft-bristled toothbrush or swabs, avoiding rectal trauma, eating soft foods, shaving with an electric razor, and using a lift sheet to re-position the client.

A client awaiting kidney transplantation states, "I can't stand this waiting for a kidney, I just want to give up." Which statement by the nurse is most therapeutic? "I'll talk to the health care provider and have your name removed from the waiting list." "You sound frustrated with the situation." "You're right, the wait is endless for some people." "I'm sure you'll get a phone call soon that a kidney is available."

Acknowledging the client's frustration reflects the feelings the client is having and offers assistance and support. Talking to the health care provider and removing the client from the waiting list does not allow the nurse to hear more and perhaps offer therapeutic listening or a solution to the problem. Telling the client that the wait is endless for some people cuts the client off from sharing his or her concerns and accentuates the negative aspects of the situation. The waiting time for kidney matches is increasing due to a shortage of organs; the nurse should not offer false hope by suggesting that the client will get a phone call soon.

Which finding in the first 24 hours after kidney transplantation requires immediate intervention? Abrupt decrease in urine output Blood-tinged urine Incisional pain Increase in urine output

An abrupt decrease in urine output may indicate complications such as rejection, acute kidney injury, thrombosis, or obstruction. Blood-tinged urine, incisional pain, and an increase in urine output are expected findings after kidney transplantation

Which clinical manifestation indicates the need for increased fluids in a client with kidney failure? Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Increased creatinine level Pale-colored urine Decreased sodium level

An increase in BUN can be an indication of dehydration, and an increase in fluids is needed. Increased creatinine indicates kidney impairment. Urine that is pale in color is diluted; an increase in fluids is not necessary. Sodium is increased, not decreased, with dehydration.

A client is being treated for kidney failure. Which statement by the nurse encourages the client to express his or her feelings and concerns about the risk for death and the disruption of lifestyle? "All of this is new. What can't you do?" "Are you afraid of dying?" "How are you doing this morning?" "What concerns do you have about your kidney disease?"

Asking the client about any concerns is open-ended and specific to the client's concerns. Asking the client to explain what he or she can't do implies inadequacy on the client's part. Asking the client if he or she is afraid of dying is too direct and would likely cause the client to be anxious. Asking the client how he or she is doing is too general and does not encourage the client to share thoughts on a specific topic.

When caring for a client with a left forearm arteriovenous fistula created for hemodialysis, which actions must the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) Check brachial pulses daily. Auscultate for a bruit every 8 hours. Correct Teach the client to palpate for a thrill over the site. Correct Elevate the arm above heart level. Ensure that no blood pressures are taken in that arm. Correct

Auscultate for a bruit every 8 hours. Correct Teach the client to palpate for a thrill over the site. Correct Ensure that no blood pressures are taken in that arm. Correct A bruit or swishing sound, and a thrill or buzzing sensation upon palpation should be present in this client, indicating patency of the fistula. No blood pressure, venipuncture, or compression, such as lying on the fistula, should occur. Distal pulses and capillary refill should be checked, and for a forearm fistula, the radial pulse is checked—the brachial pulse is proximal. Elevating the arm increases venous return, possibly collapsing the fistula.

A client with chronic kidney disease reports chest pain. The nurse notes tachycardia and low-grade fever. Which additional assessment is warranted? Auscultate for pericardial friction rub. Assess for crackles. Monitor for decreased peripheral pulses. Determine if the client is able to ambulate.

Auscultate for pericardial friction rub. The client with uremia is prone to pericarditis; symptoms include inspiratory chest pain, low-grade fever, and ST-segment elevation. Crackles and tachycardia are symptomatic of fluid overload; fever is not present. Although the nurse will monitor pulses, and ambulation is important to prevent weakness and deep vein thrombosis, these are not pertinent to the constellation of symptoms of pericarditis that the client presents with.

Which instruction by the nurse will help a client with chronic kidney disease prevent renal osteodystrophy? Consuming a low-calcium diet Avoiding peas, nuts, and legumes Drinking cola beverages only once daily Increasing dairy products enriched with vitamin D

Avoiding peas, nuts, and legumes Kidney failure causes hyperphosphatemia; this client must restrict phosphorus-containing foods such as beans, peas, nuts (peanut butter), and legumes. Calcium should not be restricted; hyperphosphatemia results in a decrease in serum calcium and demineralization of the bone. Cola beverages and dairy products are high in phosphorus, contributing to hypocalcemia and bone breakdown.

The RN has just received change-of-shift report. Which of the assigned clients should be assessed first? Client with chronic kidney failure who was just admitted with shortness of breath Client with kidney insufficiency who is scheduled to have an arteriovenous fistula inserted Client with azotemia whose blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are increasing Client receiving peritoneal dialysis who needs help changing the dialysate bag

Client with chronic kidney failure who was just admitted with shortness of breath The dyspnea of the client with chronic kidney failure may indicate pulmonary edema and should be assessed immediately. The client with kidney insufficiency is stable and assessment can be performed later. The client with azotemia requires assessment and possible interventions, but is not at immediate risk for life-threatening problems. The client receiving peritoneal dialysis can be seen last because it is a slow process and the client has no urgent needs.

A client with a recently created vascular access for hemodialysis is being discharged. In planning discharge instructions, which information does the nurse include? Avoiding venipuncture and blood pressure measurements in the affected arm Modifications to allow for complete rest of the affected arm How to assess for a bruit in the affected arm How to practice proper nutrition

Compression of vascular access causes decreased blood flow and may cause occlusion; if this occurs, dialysis will not be possible. The arm should be exercised to encourage venous dilation, not rested. The client can palpate for a thrill; a stethoscope is not needed to auscultate the bruit at home. The nurse should take every opportunity to discuss nutrition, even as it relates to wound healing, but loss of the graft or fistula by compression or occlusion must take priority because lifesaving dialysis cannot be performed.

To prevent pre-renal acute kidney injury, which person is encouraged to increase fluid consumption? Construction worker Office secretary Schoolteacher Taxicab driver

Construction worker Physical labor and working outdoors, especially in warm weather, cause diaphoresis and place the construction worker at risk for dehydration and pre-renal azotemia. The office secretary and schoolteacher work indoors and, even without air conditioning, will not lose as much fluid to diaphoresis as someone performing physical labor. The taxicab driver, even without air conditioning, will not experience diaphoresis and fluid loss like the construction worker.

A client with acute kidney injury is receiving a fluid challenge of 500 mL of normal saline over 1 hour. With a drop factor of 20 drops/mL, how many drops per minute does the nurse infuse? _________

Correct Responses 167 drops/min 20 gtt × 500 mL = 10,000/60 min = 167 drops/min

Which signs and symptoms indicate rejection of a transplanted kidney? (Select all that apply.) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 21 mg/dL, creatinine 0.9 mg/dL Crackles in the lung fields Correct Temperature of 98.8° F (37.1° C) Blood pressure of 164/98 mm Hg Correct 3+ edema of the lower extremities Correct

Crackles in the lung fields Correct Blood pressure of 164/98 mm Hg Correct 3+ edema of the lower extremities Correct Signs and symptoms of fluid retention (e.g., crackles in the lung fields and 3+ edema of the lower extremities) indicate transplant rejection. Increased blood pressure is also a symptom of transplant rejection. Increasing BUN and creatinine are symptoms of rejection; a BUN of 21 mg/dL and a creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL reflect normal values. Fever, not normothermia, is symptomatic of transplant rejection.

The nurse is teaching the importance of a low purine diet to a client admitted with urolithiasis consisting of uric acid. Which statement by the client indicates that teaching was effective? A. "I am so relieved that I can continue eating my fried fish meals every week." B. "I will quit growing rhubarb in my garden since I'm not supposed to eat it anymore." C. "My wife will be happy to know that I can keep enjoying her liver and onions recipe." D. "I will no longer be able to have red wine with my dinner."

D. "I will no longer be able to have red wine with my dinner." Nutrition therapy depends on the type of stone formed. When stones consist of uric acid (urate), the client should decrease intake of purine sources such as organ meats, poultry, fish, gravies, red wines, and sardines. Reduction of urinary purine content may help prevent these stones from forming. Avoiding oxalate sources such as spinach, black tea, and rhubarb is appropriate when the stone consists of calcium oxalate.

1. CHAPTER 58 A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply) a. Anuria b. Marked azotemia c. Crackles in the lungs d. Increased calcium level e. Proteinuria

a. Anuria b. Marked azotemia c. Crackles in the lungs e. Proteinuria

A client with end-stage kidney disease has been put on fluid restrictions. Which assessment finding indicates that the client has not adhered to this restriction? Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg Weight loss of 3 pounds during hospitalization Dyspnea and anxiety at rest Central venous pressure (CVP) of 6 mm Hg

Dyspnea is a sign of fluid overload and possible pulmonary edema; the nurse should assist the client in correlating symptoms of fluid overload with nonadherence to fluid restriction. Nonadherence to fluid restriction results in fluid volume excess and higher blood pressures; 118/78 mm Hg is a normal blood pressure. Excess fluid intake and fluid retention are manifested by an elevated CVP (>8 mm Hg) and weight gain, not weight loss.

When assisting with dietary protein needs for a client on peritoneal dialysis, the nurse recommends that the client select which food? Eggs Ham Eggplant Macaroni

EGGs Suggested protein-containing foods for a client on peritoneal dialysis are milk, meat, and eggs. Although a protein, ham is high in sodium, which should be avoided. Vegetables and pasta contain mostly carbohydrates. Peritoneal dialysis clients are allowed 1.2 to 1.5 g of protein/kg/day because protein is lost with each exchange.

3. CHAPTER 59 A nurse is planning care for a client who has Stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply) a. Assess for JVD b. Provide frequent mouth rinses c. Auscultate for a pleural friction rub d. Provide a high-sodium diet e. Monitor for dysrhythmias

a. Assess for JVD b. Provide frequent mouth rinses c. Auscultate for a pleural friction rub e. Monitor for dysrhythmias

Which clients are at risk for acute kidney injury (AKI)? (Select all that apply.) Football player in preseason practice Correct Client who underwent contrast dye radiology Correct Accident victim recovering from a severe hemorrhage Correct Accountant with diabetes Client in the intensive care unit on high doses of antibiotics Correct Client recovering from gastrointestinal influenza Correct

Football player in preseason practice Correct Client who underwent contrast dye radiology Correct Accident victim recovering from a severe hemorrhage Correct Client in the intensive care unit on high doses of antibiotics Correct Client recovering from gastrointestinal influenza Correct To prevent AKI, all people should be urged to avoid dehydration by drinking at least 2 to 3 liters of fluids daily, especially during strenuous exercise or work associated with diaphoresis, or when recovering from an illness that reduces kidney blood flow, such as influenza. Contrast media may cause acute renal failure, especially in older clients with reduced kidney function. Recent surgery or trauma, transfusions, or other factors that might lead to reduced kidney blood flow may cause AKI. Certain antibiotics may cause nephrotoxicity. Diabetes may cause acute kidney failure superimposed on chronic kidney failure.

When caring for a client with acute kidney injury and a temporary subclavian hemodialysis catheter, which assessment finding does the nurse report to the provider? Mild discomfort at the insertion site Temperature 100.8° F 1+ ankle edema Anorexia

Infection is a major complication of temporary catheters. All symptoms of infection, including fever, must be reported to the provider because the catheter may have to be removed. Mild discomfort at the insertion site is expected with a subclavian hemodialysis catheter. During acute injury, oliguria with resulting fluid retention is expected. Rising blood urea nitrogen may result in anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.

Which assessment finding represents a positive response to erythropoietin (Epogen, Procrit) therapy? Hematocrit of 26.7% Potassium within normal range Absence of spontaneous fractures Less fatigue

Less fatigue Treatment of anemia with erythropoietin will result in increased hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) and decreased shortness of breath and fatigue. A hematocrit value of 26.7% is low; erythropoietin should restore the hematocrit to at least 36% to be effective. Erythropoietin causes more red blood cells to be produced, increasing H&H, not potassium. Calcium supplements and phosphate binders prevent renal osteodystrophy; erythropoietin treats anemia.

The nurse teaches a client who is recovering from acute kidney disease to avoid which type of medication? Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Opiates Calcium channel blockers

NSAIDs may be nephrotoxic to a client with acute kidney disease, and should be avoided. ACE inhibitors are used for treatment of hypertension and to protect the kidneys, especially in the diabetic client, from progression of kidney disease. Opiates may be used by clients with kidney disease if severe pain is present; however, excretion may be delayed. Calcium channel blockers can improve the glomerular filtration rate and blood flow within the kidney.

While managing care for a client with chronic kidney disease, which actions does the registered nurse (RN) plan to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) Obtain the client's pre-hemodialysis weight. Correct Check the arteriovenous (AV) fistula for a thrill and bruit. Document the amount the client drinks throughout the shift. Correct Auscultate the client's lung sounds every 4 hours. Explain the components of a low-sodium diet.

Obtain the client's pre-hemodialysis weight. Correct Document the amount the client drinks throughout the shift. Correct Obtaining the client's weight and documenting oral fluid intake are routine tasks that can be performed by UAP. Assessment skills (checking the AV fistula and auscultating lung sounds) and client education (explaining special diet) require more education and are in the legal scope of practice of the RN.

A client admitted to the medical unit with a history of vomiting and diarrhea and an increased blood urea nitrogen requires 1 liter of normal saline infused over 2 hours. Which staff member should be assigned to care for the client? RN who has floated from pediatrics for this shift LPN/LVN with experience working on the medical unit RN who usually works on the general surgical unit New graduate RN who just finished a 6-week orientation

RN who usually works on the general surgical unit The nurse with experience in taking care of surgical clients will be most capable of monitoring the client receiving rapid fluid infusions, who is at risk for complications such as pulmonary edema and acute kidney failure. The pediatric float RN and the new graduate RN will have less experience in caring for this type of client. The LPN/LVN should not be assigned to a client requiring IV therapy and who is at high risk for complications.

The nurse assists a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) to modify the diet in which ways? (Select all that apply.) Restricted protein Correct Liberal sodium Restricted fluids Correct Low potassium Correct Low fat

Restricted protein Correct Restricted fluids Correct Low potassium Correct Breakdown of protein leads to azotemia and increased blood urea nitrogen. Fluid is restricted during the oliguric stage. Potassium intoxication may occur, so dietary potassium is also restricted. Sodium is restricted during AKI because oliguria causes fluid retention. Fats may be used for needed calories when proteins are restricted.

Which problem excludes a client hoping to receive a kidney transplant from undergoing the procedure? History of hiatal hernia Presence of diabetes and glycosylated hemoglobin of 6.8% History of basal cell carcinoma on the nose 5 years ago Presence of tuberculosis

TB Long-standing pulmonary disease and chronic infection typically exclude clients from transplantation; these conditions worsen with the immune suppressants that are required to prevent rejection. A client with a history of hiatal hernia is not exempt from undergoing a kidney transplant. Good control of diabetes is a positive point, and would not exclude the client from transplantation. Basal cell carcinoma is considered curable and occurred 5 years ago, consistent with appropriate candidates for transplantation.

When caring for a client who receives peritoneal dialysis (PD), which finding does the nurse report to the provider immediately? Pulse oximetry reading of 95% Sinus bradycardia, rate of 58 beats/min Blood pressure of 148/90 mm Hg Temperature of 101.2° F (38.4°

Temperature of 101.2° F (38.4° Peritonitis is the major complication of PD, caused by intra-abdominal catheter site contamination; meticulous aseptic technique must be used when caring for PD equipment. A pulse oximetry reading of 95% is a normal saturation. Although a heart rate of 58 beats/min is slightly bradycardic, the provider can be informed upon visiting the client. Clients with kidney failure tend to have slightly higher blood pressures due to fluid retention; this is not as serious as a fever.

A client is receiving immune-suppressive therapy after kidney transplantation. Which measure for infection control is most important for the nurse to implement? Adherence to therapy Handwashing Monitoring for low-grade fever Strict clean technique

The most important infection control measure for the client receiving immune-suppressive therapy is handwashing. Adherence to therapy and monitoring for low-grade fever are important, but are not infection control measures. The nurse should practice aseptic technique for this client, not simply clean technique.

3. CHAPTER 60 A nurse is preparing education material to present to a female client who has frequent UTIs. Which of the following information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply) a. Avoid sitting in a wet bathing suit b. Wipe the perineal are back to front following elimination c. Empty the bladder when there is an urge to void d. Wear synthetic fabric underwear e. Take a shower daily

a. Avoid sitting in a wet bathing suit c. Empty the bladder when there is an urge to void e. Take a shower daily

While assisting a client during peritoneal dialysis, the nurse observes the drainage stop after 200 mL of peritoneal effluent drains into the bag. What action should the nurse implement first? Instruct the client to deep-breathe and cough. Document the effluent as output. Turn the client to the opposite side. Re-position the catheter.

Turn the client to the opposite side. With peritoneal dialysis, usually 1 to 2 L of dialysate is infused by gravity into the peritoneal space. The fluid dwells in the peritoneal cavity for a specified time, then drains by gravity into a drainage bag. The dialyzing fluid is called peritoneal effluent on outflow. The outflow should be a continuous stream after the clamp is completely open. Potential causes of flow difficulty include constipation, kinked or clamped connection tubing, the client's position, fibrin clot formation, and catheter displacement. If inflow or outflow drainage is inadequate, re-position the client to stimulate inflow or outflow. Turning the client to the other side or ensuring that he or she is in good body alignment may help. Instructing the client to deep-breathe and cough will not promote dialysate drainage. Increased abdominal pressure from coughing contributes to leakage at the catheter site. The nurse needs to measure and record the total amount of outflow after each exchange. However, the nurse should re-position the client first to assist with complete dialysate drainage. An x-ray is needed to identify peritoneal dialysis catheter placement. Only the physician re-positions a displaced catheter.

Which factor represents a sign or symptom of digoxin toxicity? Serum digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL Polyphagia Visual changes Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L

Visual changes, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are symptoms of digoxin toxicity. A digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL is normal (0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL). Polyphagia is a symptom of diabetes. Although hypokalemia may predispose to digoxin toxicity, this represents a normal, not low, potassium value.

5. CHAPTER 58 A nurse is preoperative teaching with a client who is scheduled for a kidney transplant about reject of a transplanted kidney. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply) a. "Expect an immediate removal of the donor kidney for a hyperacute rejection" b. "You may need to begin dialysis to monitor your kidney function for a hyperacute rejection" c. "A fever is a manifestation of an acute rejection" d. "Fluid retention is a manifestation of an acute rejection" e. "Your provider will increase your immunosuppressive medications for a chronic rejection"

a. "Expect an immediate removal of the donor kidney for a hyperacute rejection" c. "A fever is a manifestation of an acute rejection" d. "Fluid retention is a manifestation of an acute rejection"

4. CHAPTER 60 A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the following clients are at risk for developing pyelonephritis? (Select all that apply) a. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation b. A client who has kidney calculi c. A client who has a urine pH of 4.2 d. A client who has a neurogenic bladder e. A client who has diabetes mellitus

a. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation b. A client who has kidney calculi d. A client who has a neurogenic bladder e. A client who has diabetes mellitus

4. CHAPTER 58 A client who is scheduled for kidney transplantation surgery is assessed by the nurse for risk factors of surgery. Which of the following findings increase the client's risk of surgery? (Select all that apply) a. Age older than 70 years b. BMI of 41 c. Administering NPH insulin each morning d. Past history of lymphoma e. Blood pressure averaging 120/70 mmHg

a. Age older than 70 years b. BMI of 41 c. Administering NPH insulin each morning d. Past history of lymphoma

3. CHAPTER 57 A nurse is planning postprocedure care for a client who received hemodialysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply) a. Check BUN and serum creatinine b. Administer medications the nurse withheld prior to dialysis c. Observe for signs of hypovolemia d. Assess the access site for bleeding e. Evaluate blood pressure on the arm with AV access

a. Check BUN and serum creatinine b. Administer medications the nurse withheld prior to dialysis c. Observe for signs of hypovolemia d. Assess the access site for bleeding

3. CHAPTER 56 A nurse is caring for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and will have excretory urography. Prior to the procedure, which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply) a. Identify an allergy to seafood b. Withhold metformin for 24 hr. c. Administer an enema d. Obtain a serum coagulation profile e. Assess for asthma

a. Identify an allergy to seafood b. Withhold metformin for 24 hr. c. Administer an enema e. Assess for asthma

2. A nurse is reviewing discharge instruction with a client who had spontaneous passage of a calcium phosphate renal calculus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply) a. Limit intake of food high in animal protein b. Reduce sodium intake c. Strain urine for 48 hr. d. Report burning with urination to the provider e. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day

a. Limit intake of food high in animal protein b. Reduce sodium intake d. Report burning with urination to the provider e. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day

5. CHAPTER 57 A nurse is planning care for a client who will under peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply) a. Monitor serum glucose levels b. Report cloudy dialysate return c. Warm the dialysate in a microwave oven d. Assess for shortness of breath e. Check the access site dressing for wetness f. Maintain medical asepsis when accessing the catheter insertion site

a. Monitor serum glucose levels b. Report cloudy dialysate return d. Assess for shortness of breath e. Check the access site dressing for wetness

2. CHAPTER 58 A nurse is planning postoperative care for a client following a kidney transplant surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply) a. Obtain daily weights b. Assess dressings for bloody drainage c. Replace hourly urine output with IV fluids d. Expect oliguria in the first 4 hr. e. Monitor serum electrolytes

a. Obtain daily weights b. Assess dressings for bloody drainage d. Expect oliguria in the first 4 hr. e. Monitor serum electrolytes

2. CHAPTER 59 A nurse is planning care for a client who has postrenal AKI due to metastatic cancer. The client has a serum creatinine of 5 mg/dL. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? (Select all that apply) a. Provide a high-protein diet b. Assess the urine for blood c. Monitor for intermittent anuria d. Weight the client once per week e. Provide NSAIDs for pain

a. Provide a high-protein diet b. Assess the urine for blood c. Monitor for intermittent anuria

1. CHAPTER 60 A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic pyelonephritis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? (Select all that apply) a. Provide a referral for nutrition counseling b. Encourage daily fluid intake of 1 L c. Palpate the costovertebral angle d. Monitor urinary output e. Administer antibiotics

a. Provide a referral for nutrition counseling c. Palpate the costovertebral angle d. Monitor urinary output e. Administer antibiotics

2. CHAPTER 57 A nurse is preparing to initiate hemodialysis for a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply) a. Review the medications the client currently takes b. Assess the AV fistula for a bruit c. Calculate the client's hourly urine output d. Measure the client's weight e. Check serum electrolytes f. Use the access site area for venipuncture

a. Review the medications the client currently takes b. Assess the AV fistula for a bruit d. Measure the client's weight e. Check serum electrolytes

3. CHAPTER 58 A nurse is teaching a client who is postoperative following a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. "Decrease your intake of protein-rich foods" b. "Take this medicine with grapefruit juice" c. "Monitor for and report a sore throat to your provider" d. "Expect your skin to turn yellow"

c. "Monitor for and report a sore throat to your provider"

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a left renal calculus and an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider? a. Flank pain that radiates to the lower abdomen b. Client report of nausea c. Absent urine output for 1 hr d. Serum WBC count 15,000/mm3

c. Absent urine output for 1 hr

4. CHAPTER 57 A nurse is caring for a client who develops disequilibrium syndrome after receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Administer an opioid medication b. Monitor for hypertension c. Assess level of consciousness d. Increases the dialysis exchange rate

c. Assess level of consciousness

4. CHAPTER 56 A nurse administered captopril to a client during a renal scan. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Assess for hypertension b. Limit the client's fluid intake c. Monitor for orthostatic hypotension d. Encourage early ambulation

c. Monitor for orthostatic hypotension

5. CHAPTER 56 A nurse is reviewing the results of a client's urinalysis. The findings indicate the urine is positive for leukocyte esterase and nitrites. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Repeat the test early the next morning b. Start 24-hr urine collection for creatinine clearance c. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen for C&S d. Insert an indwelling catheter urinary catheter to collect a urine specimen

c. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen for C&S

1. CHAPTER 59 A nurse is planning care for a client who has prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI) following abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Urinary output is 60 mL in the past 2 hr, and blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg. The nurse should anticipate which of the following interventions. a. Prepare the client for a CT scan with contrast dye b. Plan to administer nitroprusside c. Prepare to administer a fluid challenge d. Plan to position the client in Trendelenburg

c. Prepare to administer a fluid challenge

5. CHAPTER 59 A nurse is assessing a client who has prerenal AKI. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply) a. Reduced BUN b. Elevated cardiac enzymes c. Reduced urine output d. Elevated serum creatinine e. Elevated serum calcium

c. Reduced urine output d. Elevated serum creatinine

3. A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL). Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I will be fully awake during the procedure" b. "Lithotripsy will reduce my chances of having stones in the future" c. "I will report any bruising that occurs to my doctor" d. "Straining my urine following the procedure is important"

d. "Straining my urine following the procedure is important"

1. CHAPTER 56 A nurse is teaching a client who will have an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "You will receive contrast dye during the procedure" b. "An enema is necessary before the procedure" c. "You will need to lie in a prone position during the procedure" d. "The procedure determines whether you have a kidney stone"

d. "The procedure determines whether you have a kidney stone"

2. CHAPTER 60 A nurse is caring for a client who has a UTI. Which of the following is the priority intervention by the nurse? a. Offer a warm sitz bath b. Recommend drinking cranberry juice c. Encourage increased fluids d. Administer an antibiotic

d. Administer an antibiotic

1. CHAPTER 57 A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease and is to begin hemodialysis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Hemodialysis restores kidney function b. Hemodialysis replaces hormonal function of the renal system c. Hemodialysis allows an unrestricted diet d. Hemodialysis returns a balance to serum electrolytes

d. Hemodialysis returns a balance to serum electrolytes