April's Questions
76. Select the correct answer for calculating the transaction value of a shipment with details as follows: • $1,750,000 entered amount, • CIF New York Duty Paid, MPF included • Price includes $25,000 ocean freight, $2500 marine insurance, $1500 trucking freight (New York to Baltimore, MD), $100 broker fee in Baltimore, $100,000 Customs duties and fees • The actual duty rate is 6.5% • The actual MPF rate is 0.21%
"A. TV = entered amount minus ocean freight, marine insurance, trucking freight, and customs broker fee; add MPF and 6.5% duty B. TV = entered amount minus ocean freight, marine insurance, trucking freight, and Customs broker fee. Divide remainder by 1.0671. Multiply the remainder by .0021. Subtract $485 from the entered amount minus the authorized deductions. Divide the remainder by 1.065 C. TV = entered amount minus ocean freight, marine insurance, trucking freight, maximum MPF, and 6.5% actual duty rate D. Divide out the actual duty rate, and then subtract the ocean freight, marine insurance, trucking freight and customs broker fee E. TV = entered amount minus ocean freight, marine insurance, and trucking freight fee and divide by 1.0671, multiply by .0021 for actual MPF; subtract MPF as allowed from the entered amount minus deductions and divide by 1.065 to yield Transaction Value Credit granted to all A09
73. Which of the following is NOT grounds for suspending or revoking access to the Automated Broker Interface?
"B. An error rate of less than 10% on transmitted data C. Transmitting 90% of total entry summary volume electronically to ACS D. Exact correspondence of printed data with transmitted data CATAIR - Requirements: Operational Status A06
16. Which of the following is CORRECT?
"E. Payment of duty, tax, or other debt or obligation owing to the Government for which the broker has received payment from a client, must be made to the Government on or before the date that payment is due 111.29(a) A09
50. The shrimp is identified as line item 002 of the Entry Summary. The correct information for identifying line number 002 from the abbreviated Entry Summary at Blocks 27 through 29 is:
"SHRIMP, Frozen dusted 1605.20.1030 CBP Form 7501 Instructions, Blocks 10, 27-29 A08
22. What is the classification and rate of duty for frozen egg yolks from Mexico?
0408.19.0000/Free Chp. 4, Heading 0408 A11
23. What is the classification for a woman's orthopedic shoe with a rubber sole and an upper of textile material?
9021.10.0090 Chp. 64, Note 1(e) A11
29. When goods are claimed to be free of duty under subheading 9801.00.10 or 9802.00.20, of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, and are not being returned for repairs or rejected by the purchaser, a declaration by the foreign shipper is required when the articles are valued over _____.
A. $ 2,000 10.1(a) A11
9. The TOTAL DUTY AND FEES due on an entry of originating goods that were wholly obtained or produced entirely in the territory of Chile, classified in 8536.61.0000, imported via ocean freight to the port of Los Angeles, and have an entered value of $20,000 is _____.
A. $25 24.23(b); 24.24(a) A06
10. A formal entry is required on shipments of wearing apparel under HTSUS Chapters 61 and 62 if the import value exceeds what amount?
A. $250 143.21(a); HTS Section XI A08
18. What is the price actually paid or payable per unit?
A. $5 152.102(f) A07
33. What is the amount of duty on an upholstered oak chair, valued at $10,000, found to be manufactured in Germany in 1908 and entered under 9706.00.0040 by an importer/retailer?
A. $660 Chapter 97, Additional U.S. Note 2; Chapter 94 A07
45. What is the ENTRY TYPE CODE for this consumption entry?
A. 01 CBP Form 7501 Instructions A08
4. What is the applicable collection code for a Tea Fee?
A. 038 Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005)- Other Fee Summary for Block 39 A06
17. A consumption entry has not been liquidated by CBP, and the time for liquidation has not been extended or suspended. When will this entry be deemed liquidated by operation of law?
A. 1 year from the date of entry. 159.11(a) A10
58. A person has _____ days after making an oral disclosure of a violation of 19 USC 1592 or 19 USC 1593a to give the concerned Fines, Penalties and Forfeitures Officer a written record of the information conveyed orally.
A. 10 162.74(a)(2) A06
16. A proprietor of a bonded warehouse may be required to furnish a new bond on Customs Form 301 on how many days notice from the port director?
A. 10 19.2(e) A11
39. The Customs-Trade Partnership Against Terrorism (C-TPAT) security elements of "maintaining control of employees" at the Physical Access Controls criterion and ensuring that "information used in clearing of merchandise/cargo is legible and protected against the exchange, loss or introduction of erroneous information" at the Documentation Processing criterion for a Customs broker addressing the C-TPAT Minimum Security Criteria may find regulatory guidance at 19 CFR _____.
A. 111.2(a)(2)(ii)(A)(1) and 111.24 111.2(a)(2)(ii)(A)(1) and 111.24, C-TPAT (3-20-2007); A08
80. A quota category that has closed will be opened again shortly. It is anticipated that the quota will be filled at the opening of the quota period. If a preliminary review has not been submitted, the correct time frame for presenting the entry summaries or withdrawals for consumption is no earlier than _____ in all time zones.
A. 12:00 Noon Eastern Standard Time 132.12(a) A10
12. The Automated Broker Interface status indicator must be recorded in block _____ of CBP Form 7501.
A. 2 Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005) A10
46. If Port Arthur, Texas located in the vicinity of Houston, Texas is the port of entry what is the port code?
A. 2101 HTS Annex C A08
7. An import specialist is seeking additional information on a shipment of merchandise that has been released. This request is done via a CBP Form _____.
A. 28 151.11 A07
49. What is the time period allowed to amend an unliquidated drawback claim?
A. 3 years after the date of exportation or destruction of the articles that are the subject of the original drawback claim 191.52(c) A06
21. If merchandise is found NOT to be legally marked after release, and it was examined in a public store or a place of arrival, such as a pier, a demand for marking can be made by the Port Director not later than _____.
A. 30 days after the date of entry 141.113(a) A07
60. A shipment of merchandise bearing a protected trademark was seized in accordance with 19 USC 1526. 14 days after the notice of seizure was sent from the Office of Fines, Penalties, and Forfeitures (FP&F), the importer received written approval from the trademark holder to import the merchandise. When must the importer submit a petition for relief to FP&F to obtain the release of the seized merchandise?
A. 30 days from the date of mailing of the notice of seizure 171.2(a); 171.2(b)(1) A06
24. What is the CLASSIFICATION for product labels printed by a flexographic process (not lithographic) on pressure-sensitive polyolefin plastic film and mounted on sheets of release paper?
A. 3919 GRI1; Section VII, Legal Note 2 A07
47. Column 31 of the CBP Form 7501 should indicate _____ for the salsa.
A. 4,536 kilograms CBP Form 7501 Instructions A08
33. What is the CLASSIFICATION for telephone poles treated with preservatives?
A. 4403.10.0020 HTS Chapter 44 eo nominee A08
9. If a CBP Form 214 is designated as a Temporary Deposit due to incomplete documentation, a complete and accurate CBP Form 214 must be submitted within _____ days, unless an extension is granted by the port director.
A. 5 146.35(e) A09
46. If the Port Director determines that a NAFTA Certificate of Origin is illegible or defective, the importer shall be given a period of not less than _____ working days to submit a corrected Certificate.
A. 5 181.22(c) A09
52. If the port director finds a NAFTA Certificate of Origin to be illegible, defective or incomplete, the importer must be given a least _____ to present a corrected certificate.
A. 5 business days 181.22 A06
36. Any theft or overage or any extraordinary shortage or damage (equal to one percent or more of the value of the merchandise in an entry) of merchandise stored in a bonded warehouse must be immediately reported to the Port Director and then confirmed in writing within ______.
A. 5 business days after being reported 19.12(d)(3) A08
33. What is(are) the classification(s) of a girl's size 6, 100% cotton knit t-shirt and 50% cotton, 50% polyester woven shorts, put up together as a set for retail sale?
A. 6109.10.0045 & 6204.63.3540 HTS 6109.10.0045, 6204.63.3540; Section XI, Note 14 A09
20. What is the CLASSIFICATION for men's water-resistant windbreaker jackets that are woven (not knitted or coated with plastic or rubber) of 100% nylon and meet the water resistance test specified in Additional U. S. Note 2, Chapter 62 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule?
A. 6201.93.3511 Ch. 62 eo nominae; Ch. 62 Additional U.S. Note 2 A06
44. What is the classification for a shipment of women's woven ski jackets? The jackets are made of camel hair with down filling. The down comprises 48% of the garment's weight, and the camel hair comprises the remaining 52%.
A. 6202.91.2011 HTS Ch. 62 (eo nominee); Ch. 51 Note1(b) A10
30. What is the classification for a woven scarf that is 58cm by 58cm containing 78% silk and 22% polyester?
A. 6213.90.0500 Chp. 62, Note 7 A11
29. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a woven cotton baseball cap with detachable sunglasses attached under the bill of the cap?
A. 6505.90.2590 Chapter 65 eo nomine; GRI 3(b) A07
35. A non-clad/plated/coated, hot-rolled coil that has a width of less than 600mm and thickness of 5mm. The element weights are 95% Iron (FE) and 5% Nickel (Ni). What is the classification for the coil?
A. 7211.14.00.90 GRI 3(a) and Chptr. 72, Note 1(f) A11
46. What is the classification for a non-clad/plated/ coated, hot-rolled coil that has a width of less than 600mm and thickness of 5mm? The element weights are 95% Iron (FE) and 5% Nickel (Ni).
A. 7211.14.00.90 HTS Ch. 72, Note 1(f) A10
24. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a compression-type household refrigerator-freezer combination that has separate external doors for the refrigerator and freezer compartments and has a 396-liter (approximately 14.1 cubic feet) capacity?
A. 8418.10.0040 Ch. 84 eo nominae A06
23. What is the classification of a 15 mega pixel, single-lens reflex, digital camera? The camera cannot capture sequential images.
A. 8525.80.4000 HTS 8525.80.4000; Chapter 90, Note 1(h) A09
66. What are the official office hours for the purpose of administering quotas?
A. 8:30 am to 4:30 pm in all time zones 132.3 A09
70. An importer may submit a written request for an explanation of how CBP determined the value of its imported merchandise within _____ days after liquidation.
A. 90 calendar 152.101(d) A10
40. Currently, which of the following is eligible to become a C-TPAT Customs broker?
A. A "person" residing in Mexico and employed in Laredo, Texas 111.1 A08
11. The release of merchandise other than by a "live" entry does NOT require _____.
A. A CBP Form 7501 142.3 (a) A06
43. Which is NOT required to be included in the triennial status report?
A. A broker's license number 111.30(d) A06
11. What additional information is required when filing an entry subject to antidumping duties?
A. A certificate/statement of reimbursement. 351.402(f)(iii)(2) A09
3. Which of the following may be identified as the importer of record whereby the U.S. Customs broker is authorized to accept service of process on the Power of Attorney?
A. A corporate manufacturer located in the People's Republic of China. 141.36 A10
44. Which party does NOT have the authority to sign drawback documents?
A. A licensed broker without power of attorney 191.6 A07
65. Which statement about CBP Form 301 Customs bond requirements is NOT true?
A. A surety may terminate a Customs bond on which it is obligated only when it has the consent of all the principals listed on the bond 113.27(b) A07
14. Which of the following statements regarding absolute quotas is correct?
A. Absolute quotas limit the number of units of merchandise to be entered or withdrawn for consumption during specified periods 132.1(a) A06
39. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the classification of merchandise?
A. An article which is imported unassembled cannot be classified in the heading that refers to the completed article HTS GRI 2(a) A09
24. The entry of livestock, exported for temporary exhibition and returned and claimed to be exempt from duty under subheading 9801.00.60 shall be supported with a _____.
A. CBP Form 3311 or equivalent export documentation, and a CBP Form 4455 10.66(a) A10
74. When a broker is employed for the transaction of "Customs business" by an unlicensed person who is not the actual importer, the broker must transmit to the actual importer either a copy of his bill for services rendered or a copy of the entry, unless the merchandise was purchased on a _____ basis or unless the importer has in writing waived transmittal of the copy of the entry or bill for services rendered.
A. Delivered duty-paid 111.36 A11
17. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. During the period of retention, the broker must make available upon reasonable notice for inspection, copying, or other CBP official use for a period not to exceed 5 working days 111.25 A09
68. An importer is under investigation by CBP. Half of the entries and entry summaries CBP lists in its investigation have liquidated. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Entries and entry summaries that have liquidated are subject to investigatory actions and penalties. 162.8 A10
43. When importing softwood lumber products from any country into the United States, what additional entry requirements are present?
A. Export Price, Estimated Export Charge, if any, and Importer Declaration 12.142(c)(1),(2) and (3) A11
46. Which of the following items are excepted from the country of origin marking?
A. Firewood 134.33 A11
5. Which of the following are NOT excepted from country of origin marking requirements?
A. Flowers, artificial, bunches 134.33 A06
10. Which of the following is NOT a valid Column 1 "Special" symbol denoting a current trade program or agreement?
A. IT & C. T Credit will be granted to those that answered A and C; HTS General A10
44. Monetary penalties may be assessed against a broker for _____ if convicted after the broker license application was filed.
A. Illegal exportation of munitions 171 Appendix C IV A06
70. The correct format for entering an individual's name into the SRE file is:
A. Last name, first name, middle initial with a comma after the last name CD 5610-002A A06
48. The Manufacturer's Identification Code is:
A. MXELGOR2568MAT CBP Form 7501 Instructions A08
1. Which is NOT entitled to duty free admission into the U.S.?
A. Military articles made in a foreign country (HTS) General Note 3(e) A08
16. An importation, imported directly from which of the following countries of origin is NOT excluded from the Merchandise Processing Fee?
A. Morocco 24.23(c) A08
19. An "X" appearing in the column for units of quantity in the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States means which one of the following?
A. No quantity is to be reported other than the gross weight General Statistical Note 4 A11
56. Which of the following statements regarding Remote Location Filing is FALSE?
A. Only entry types 01, 02 and 11 will be accepted Remote Location Filing Eligibility Requirements A09
51. Under the North American Free Trade Agreement, which of the following would NOT be considered an "indirect material" in the manufacture of a ceramic dish?
A. Purified water added to the ceramic mix 102.1(k); General Note 12(i) A07
5. What action should take place for an express consignment package that has arrived in Miami? The shipper is in Ireland, the consignee is in Bolivia. The shipment is manifested as a metal picture frame valued at $99.
A. Segregate the package and file a CBP Form 7512 10.151; 10.153; 18.20 A08
45. Which of the following statements is NOT required when filing a post-importation claim under NAFTA?
A. Statement indicating the basis of appraisement used in determining the value of the shipment, i.e., transaction value, computed value, etc. 181.32(b) A09
16. A broker files a temporary importation under bond entry in January 2009. In February of 2010 he calls Customs and Border Protection to find out if the entry has liquidated. Which of the following is correct?
A. Temporary importation under bond entries do not liquidate. 159.2 A10
65. After receiving written notice from the port director for substantially or habitually delinquent payments of CBP bills, how many days does an importer have to make current their payments before immediate delivery privileges are suspended at all CBP ports?
A. Ten working days from date of the notice 142.26(a) A08
54. On December 20, 2005, a broker receives CBP approval for alternative methods of storage of entry documents. The broker's next shipment is released January 1, 2006. On January 16, 2006, the broker converts the original entry documents into an electronically readable format. CBP requests the commercial invoice and Certificate of Eligibility issued by the Mexican government for this entry on February 14, 2006. Which statement is CORRECT?
A. The broker must submit the original documents to CBP 163.5(b)(2)(iii) A07
44. A woven cotton dress is shipped from Israel directly to the United States. The cotton fabric for the dress was woven in Pakistan and comprises 64% of the value of the finished garment, a woven cotton dress. A polyester contrasting trim fabric was woven in Puerto Rico and constitutes 5% of the value of the finished garment. The dress was cut and sewn in Israel which constitutes 31% of the value. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The country of origin of the dress is Israel and it qualifies for the United States Israel Free Trade Area (USIFTA) General Note 8(b) and 3(a) and (v) A11
59. A woven cotton dress is shipped from Israel directly to the U.S. The cotton fabric for the dress was woven in Pakistan and comprises 64% of the value of the finished garment. A polyester contrasting trim fabric was woven in Puerto Rico and constitutes 5% of the value of the finished garment. The dress was cut and sewn in Israel which constitutes 31% of the value. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The country of origin of the dress is Israel and it qualifies for the United States Israel Free Trade Area (USIFTA). HTS General Note 8(b) A10
64. Which of the following changes CANNOT be made by a bond rider?
A. The name of the principal when the legal identity or status of the principal has changed 113.24(a) A06
61. Which statement is TRUE regarding this shipment of pullovers? • Silk yarn formed in China • Elastomeric yarn formed in Singapore • 95% silk/5% elastomeric fabric knit in China • Cut and wholly sewn into a silk knit pullover in Singapore • Pullover shipped from Singapore to the US
A. These pullovers do not make the necessary tariff shift for originating goods under the United States-Singapore Free Trade Agreement HTS General Note 25 A08
59. Which statement is TRUE regarding this shipment of dresses * Cotton fabric knit in US of US yarn • Fabric cut in Guatemala • Components sewn into dresses in Jamaica using US sewing thread • Dresses embroidered in Guatemala using Guatemalan embroidery thread that comprises 26% of the value of the garment • Dresses shipped from Guatemala to the US"
A. This shipment qualifies for Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act HTS Chapter 98, Subchapter XX A08
75. Payments received by a broker from a client after the due date must be transmitted to the government _____ from receipt by the broker.
A. Within 5 working days 111.29 A11
61. A single entry bond would NOT have to be executed in an amount at least three times the total entered value for _____.
A. a mold imported for repair 113.129b); Customs Directive 3510-004 A07
80. Changes to a valid continuous bond on file for an importer may be submitted in the form of a bond rider in order to change the _____.
A. address of the principal 113.24(a) A09
67. The maximum monetary civil penalty that CBP may assess against an individual for a fraudulent violation of Section 592 of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, when the circumstances of the violation were not disclosed, is _____
A. an amount not to exceed the domestic value of the merchandise. 162.73(a)(1) A10
58. Brokers must retain revoked powers of attorney and letters of revocation for _____.
A. five years from the date of revocation or 5 years after the date the client ceases to be active 111.239(a)(2) A07
7. When the transaction is in foreign currency, the date that should be considered for conversion purposes is the date the _____.
A. goods were exported from the country of export for the U.S. 152.1(c); 159.32 A09
60. If an importer anticipates that the merchandise entered under a Temporary Importation Bond will not be exported or destroyed in accordance with the terms of the bond, the importer may _____.
A. indicate to CBP in writing before the bond period has expired of the anticipatory breach 10.39(f) A07
51. CBP requires a single entry bond in the amount of three times the total entered value for _____.
A. medical instruments CD 3510-004 A08
2. When merchandise is NOT imported by a common carrier, _____ shall be deemed sufficient evidence of the right to make entry.
A. possession of the merchandise at the time of arrival in the U.S. 141.12 A07
13. An entered commodity determined by the Department of Commerce to be included within the scope of an antidumping order _____.
A. shall be entered as a type '03' entry type code CBP Form 7501 Instructions A09
11. The MAXIMUM amount of time merchandise formally entered temporarily under bond under HTS # 9813.00.20 may remain in the Customs territory of the U.S. is _____ from the date of importation into the U.S.
A. three years Chapter 98, Subchapter XIII, U.S. Note 1(a) A07
78. An overseas shipper sells furniture to a party in the U.S. At the time of U.S. entry or release the ultimate consignee is the party _____.
A. to whom the overseas shipper sold the imported merchandise CD 3550-079A, 6.3 A07
4.In general, merchandise forwarded under a Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Form 7512 may be diverted to any port other than the port named in the entry _____.
A.at the option of the consignee or agent 18.5(a) A11
23. What is the CLASSIFICATION for objective closed circuit television camera lenses? A. 8529.90.0900 B. 7020.00.6000 C. 9002.11.6000 D. 8529.90.9900 E. 9002.11.9000
Answers C and E will be accepted as correct answers. A07
55. Intentional removal, defacement, destruction, or alteration of a marking of the country or origin may result in criminal penalties of up to:
B. $ 5,000 and/or imprisonment for 1 year 134.4 A11
"SEE QUESTIONS 17-19 A U.S. importer supplies its unrelated foreign assembly facility a mold used in the production of merchandise destined to the U.S. and Mexico. The value of the mold is $1,000, and is purchased by the foreign facility for $200. The U.S. importer projects that the mold's continued life expectancy and amount to be sold based upon sales forecasts will be 3,000 units. Two thirds of the units will be consumed in Mexico, and the balance consumed in the U.S. The foreign assembler's cost of producing a single unit is $3. The commercial invoice accompanying the shipment to the U.S. identifies the per unit price as $5. The U.S. importer's domestic retail outlets will sell the finished product for $50. 17. What is the amount of the assist per unit?
B. $0.80 152.103(a)(1) A07
53. The minimum amount of a Customs Bond shall not be less than _____ except when the law or regulation expressly provides that a lesser amount may be taken.
B. $100 133.13(a) A08
79. A U.S. resident importer purchased from an unrelated supplier widgets invoiced at $10,000 DDP (delivered duty paid) to New York. Actual air freight to New York from the supplier was $1,500. The rate of duty is 7.5 percent ad valorem. The entry is not subject to additional fees such as the harbor maintenance and the merchandise processing. Both parties agree that if the U.S. importer is able to sell the merchandise within 48 hours upon the entry that the importer will pay an additional $500 to the supplier. The merchandise is sold after 10 working days. What is the entered value?
B. $7,907 152 A11
22. What is the CLASSIFICATION of live crabs imported from Japan?
B. 0306.24.4000 HTS Chapter 3 eo nominee A08
53. Where no claim for preferential treatment under the NAFTA was made at the time of importation, an importer may file a claim for preferential treatment under NAFTA within ¬¬¬_____.
B. 1 year from the date of importation of the goods 181.31 A06
63. A request by a principal to terminate a bond takes effect on the date requested if that date is at least _____ business days after the date CBP receives the request.
B. 10 113.27(a) A06
71. An ABI filer using statement processing is responsible for ensuring that payment is made within ____ days of the entry of the related merchandise.
B. 10 24.25(c)(3) A08
20. Merchandise that has arrived in-bond at the final destination port should be presented to CBP for clearance no later than _____ calendar days after arrival at the port of destination.
B. 15 141.5; 19 CFR 142.2(a) A07
9. Air cargo shipments being transported to a final port of destination within the U.S. must be delivered to CBP at their destination within _____ from the date the receiving airline gives the receipt for cargo at the first port of arrival.
B. 15 days 122.119(b) A08
26. What is the CLASSIFICATION for babassu crude oil?
B. 1513.21.0000 HTS Chapter 15 eo nominee A08
27. What is the CLASSIFICATION for frozen wafers containing peanuts?
B. 1905.32.0021 HTS Chapter 19 eo nominee A08
67. How many DUTIABLE PROOF LITERS are in a shipment of 3,600 one-liter bottles of vodka that are 40% alcohol by volume?
B. 2,880 pfl Ch. 22 Additional U.S. Note 5 A06
55. The maximum amount of money CBP can penalize a person for a negligent violation under Section 592 of the Tariff Act of 1930 when the circumstances of the violation were not disclosed is_____.
B. 20% of the dutiable value if there is no loss of duty 162.73(a)(3)(ii) A06
29. What is the CLASSIFICATION for arsenic trioxide?
B. 2811.29.1000 HTS Chapter 28 eo nominee A08
22. If conditionally released merchandise must be examined, inspected, or appraised, CBP has up to _____ days after the end of the conditional release period to issue a demand for redelivery?
B. 30 113.62(d) A10
79. After an importer has been given written notice after any commingling of merchandise is discovered, the importer has _____ days after the date of mailing or personal delivery of the notice to take appropriate action.
B. 30 152.13(a) and (c); General Note 3(f) A07
59. Bonds and riders may be filed up to _____ before the effective date in order to provide adequate time for CBP administrative review and processing.
B. 30 calendar days 113.26(a) A07
43. A broker is asked for help by a U.S. importer in correcting a NAFTA Certificate of Origin executed for a shipment. The broker advises the importer that they shall within _____ make a corrected declaration and pay any duties that may be due.
B. 30 calendar days after the date of discovery of the error 181.21(b) A09
38. What is the CLASSIFICATION for polyethylene terephthalate (PET) film coated with heat-sensitive ink for thermal ink transfer and imported in rolls 910 mm wide and 360 m long?
B. 3702.42.0000 Ch. 37 Note 2; Heading 3702; General Rules of Interpretation 1 A06
78. Port directors may accept certificates of marking supported by samples of articles required to be marked, for which a CBP Form _____ was issued, from importers or from actual owners.
B. 4647 134.52(a) A08
21. What is the CLASSIFICATION for professional books?
B. 4901.99.0050 HTS Chapter 49 eo nominee A08
76. When a change of ownership results in the addition of a new principal to a corporate broker, Customs may conduct a background investigation of the new principal. A "principal" is defined as any person having at least a _____ percent capital, beneficiary or other direct or indirect interest in the business of a broker.
B. 5 111.28(d) A10
50. Merchandise which CBP permits for transfer to U.S. Custom territory has been issued must be physically removed from the zone within ________ of issuance of that permit unless an extension is granted by the Port Director.
B. 5 working days 146.71(c) A11
29. What is the classification of a woven chenille fabric composed of 55% rayon and 45% polyester and containing yarns of different colors? The weight is 372 g/m2; the width is 145 cm. It is coated with an application of plastic that is visible to the naked eye. The chenille yarn is on one side only.
B. 5801.36.0010 HTS 5801.36.0010 eo nominee A09
17. What is the CLASSIFICATION for 100% cotton men's blue denim trousers?
B. 6203.42.4011 HTS Chapter 62 eo nominee A08
21. What is the CLASSIFICATION for baby girls' cotton dresses woven (not knitted) of 100% cotton for babies with a height of 96 cms?
B. 6204.42.3060 Ch. 62 eo nominae; Ch. 62 Note 4(a) A06
42. What is the classification of a woven scarf that is 58cm by 58cm containing 78% silk and 22% polyester?
B. 6213.90.0500 HTS Ch. 62, Note 7 A10
32. What is the classification for a custom made window curtain constructed of 50% silk and 50% cotton knit fabric?
B. 6303.19.2120 Section XI, Note 2(A) A11
22. What is the CLASSIFICATION of Italian ceramic glazed tiles that cover 2855 tiles per square meter?
B. 6908.10.1000 Chapter 69 eo nomine A07
36. What is the classification of spent catalyst in form of ash being imported for extraction of platinum?
B. 7112.30.0000 HTS Ch. 71 (eo nominee); Ch. 26 Note 1(f); Ch. 38 Note 1(e) A10
34. What is the classification for an alloy steel, non-welded gas line with an outside diameter of exactly 114.3mm?
B. 7306.19.5110 Chp. 73 A11
31. What is the classification for a base metal bell which is non-electric and can be attached to the handlebar of a bicycle?
B. 8306.10.0000 Section XV, Chptr. 83 and Section XVII, Note 2(d) A11
24. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a double row, angular contact ball bearing with an outside diameter of 70 mm that is NOT used in a wheel hub unit?
B. 8482.10.5028 HTS Chapter 84 eo nominee A08
34. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a machine that assembles integrated circuits by a eutectic (bonding by application of heat, i.e. welding) die attach process?
B. 8515.80.0080 GRI 1; Headings 8479 and 8515 A07
36. What is the classification for unrecorded "smart cards"?
B. 8523.52. 0000 HTS 8523.52.0000 eo nominee A09
35. What is the classification of a slide-in camper?
B. 8708.99.8130 HTS 8708.99.8130 eo nominee A09
35. What is the CLASSIFICATION of a pencil with novelty erasers? The article has a pencil lead encased in a rigid sheath.
B. 9609.10.0000 Chapter 96 eo nomine A07
50. Which must be used in the first tariff field (along with the Chapter 62 tariff number) to obtain preferential treatment for cotton woven shirts assembled in Haiti with U.S. thread and cut from fabric of U.S. origin made from U.S. yarns?
B. 9820.11.06 10.223(a)(3); General Note 7(a); Chapter 98 A07
16. For quota priority and status purposes, presentation of an entry summary for consumption or withdrawal for consumption in proper form means:
B. A correct entry summary or withdrawal for consumption is accompanied by estimated duties attached or entry/entry summary information and a valid scheduled statement date have been successfully received by CBP via the Automated Broker Interface 132.11; 132.12 A06
12. Which document by itself does NOT give a broker the right to make entry?
B. A shipping receipt 141.11 A06
64. The computed value of imported merchandise would include all of the following EXCEPT:
B. An amount for any tax imposed on the merchandise by the government of the exporting country which is refunded to the producer upon exportation of the merchandise 152.106 A11
72. The party filing a prior disclosure may choose to make the tender of actual loss of duties, taxes and fees or actual loss of revenue _____ or within _____ after CBP notifies the person in writing of CBP's calculation of the actual loss of duties, taxes and fees or actual loss of revenue.
B. At the time of filing the prior disclosure/ 30 days 162.74(c) A06
62. What is the type of bond that would cover an obligation to redeliver widgets when, during transportation, the widgets were delivered to an unauthorized location?
B. Basic Custodial Bond 18.8 and 113.63 A11
80. In the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, the "Special" indicator _____ refers to the Agreement on Trade in Civil Aircraft.
B. C Harmonized Tariff Schedule, General Note 3(c)(i) A06
78. A properly executed _____ creates an Ultimate Consignee number with CBP.
B. CBP Form 5106 24.5(a) A06
"66. In the following scenario, choose the appropriate CBP response. • A Canadian electronics exporter to the U.S. submits a prior disclosure admitting that the company has filed false NAFTA claims within the past year in violation of 19 USC 1592 and other Customs laws. • The violator tenders $30,000 to account for the apparent loss of revenue. Verification of this submission by CBP auditors discovers an additional $300,000 loss of revenue for identical NAFTA violations that the disclosure did NOT identify. • The company (also the importer of record) agrees with the audit findings after being advised by CBP of these discrepancies.
B. CBP should assess a Section 1592 penalty for the undisclosed claims 162.74 A07
56. The de minimis value applicable to foreign material applies to all of the following chapters of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States EXCEPT:
B. Chapter 12 102.13(b) A11
2. Which of the following are NOT accepted by CBP for payment of duties, taxes, and other assessments?
B. Checks drawn on foreign banks in either U.S. or foreign funds and foreign travelers' checks 24.1(c) A06
19. Which of the following is NOT an option for an importer when merchandise is imported in excess of an absolute quota/textile safeguard?
B. Commingling of quota and non-quota merchandise and classifying as non-quota class goods 132.5 A06
74. Which of the following is NOT an option for an importer when merchandise is imported in excess of an absolute quota/textile safeguard?
B. Commingling of the merchandise and classification with non-quota class goods 132.5(c) A09
5. What type of liquidation occurs when CBP fails to liquidate, extend or suspend, a consumption entry or a warehouse entry on which all merchandise was withdrawn for consumption, within one year?
B. Deemed liquidation 159.11 A10
49. ________ must be completed by the importer and retained on file before making a customs entry for nonroad engines/equipment/vehicle.
B. EPA Form 3520-21 12.74(b) A11
58. What is the correct Manufacturer's Identification Code for the following? Chapeaux pour Chiens 17, rue de Lyons 38031 Grenoble Cedex 1 FRANCE
B. FRCHAPOU17GRE Directive 3550-055 A09
74. Which is NOT an approved method to use as the basis of a Manufacturing Drawback claim?
B. First In - First Out 191.23 A08
56. A NAFTA Certificate of Origin shall be accepted by CBP for _____.
B. Four years after the date on which the certificate was signed by the exporter or producer. 181.22(b)(4) A10
14. An importer wants to import frozen fish. When they contact their broker for the importation, how will the broker determine the origin of the fish?
B. From the country where the ship is registered or recorded and flying its flag 102.1(g)(5) A07
62. For CBP country of origin purposes, fungible goods or fungible material means:
B. Goods or materials that are interchangeable for commercial purposes and whose properties are essentially identical. 102.1(f) A10
48. Which is NOT an approved accounting method for identifying merchandise or articles for drawback purposes?
B. High-to-Low 191.14 A06
71. "Customs business" includes all of the following activities involving transactions with CBP EXCEPT:
B. Internal corporate compliance activity 111.1 A11
63. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
B. Juneau Harbor in Juneau, Alaska is exempt from the Harbor Maintenance Fee; Hoonah Harbor in Juneau, Alaska is not exempt from the Harbor Maintenance Fee 24.24(b)(1) A09
60. Which method of marking is NOT acceptable?
B. Labeling the outer shipping container of a shipment of 150 Chinese pens with "Made in China". The pens are complimentary gifts to visitors to a trade show. They will not be displayed in the container 134 A09
75. For a prior disclosure, which of the following is NOT a requirement when disclosing the circumstances of the violation?
B. Provide a statute of limitations waiver 162.74(b) A08
26. Numeric code 21, entered in Block 9 of the CBP Form 7501 refers to which mode of transportation by which the imported merchandise entered the U.S. port of arrival from the last foreign country?
B. Rail, container Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005) A10
76. Where a broker who is licensed as a corporation and fails to have at least one officer of the corporation who holds a valid individual broker license, for any continuous period of 120 days, Customs and Border Protection will, regardless whether the broker consents, have the corporation's broker license and permit:
B. Revoked by operation of law 111.45 A11
52. Which would NOT be considered a direct cost of processing operations performed in the beneficiary developing country in determining eligibility for the benefits of the Generalized System of Preferences (GSP)?
B. Salesmen's salaries 10.178(b)(2) A07
2. Which of the following is NOT an additional invoice requirement for footwear classified in headings 6401 through 6405 of the HTSUS?
B. Specific size of the footwear 141.89(a) A09
45. The nation of Montserrat is a qualifying member of which association of countries under the Generalized System of Preferences?
B. The Caribbean Common Market (CARICOM) General Note 4 A11
57. Which statement is TRUE regarding this shipment of trousers? • Cotton fabric woven in the US of US yarn • Fabric cut and assembled into trousers in South Africa • Waistband formed in Korea • Sewing thread from Korea • Trousers washed, packed and shipped from Kenya to US
B. The Korean sewing thread disqualifies these garments for African Growth and Opportunity Act HTS Chapter 98, Subchapter XIX A08
"60. Which statement is TRUE regarding this shipment of trousers? • Wool yarn formed in Canada • Elastomeric yarn formed in Korea • 96% wool/4% spandex fabric woven in US • Visible lining fabric of subheading 5512.19 woven in Korea • Fabric cut and sewn into women's trousers with visible lining in Mexico • Trousers shipped from Mexico to the US"
B. The Korean visible lining fabric does not disqualify these trousers from North American Free Trade Agreement HTS General Note 12(t) A08
61. Blended yarn (5205.13) is imported from Mexico, consisting of 95% cotton fibers originating from Mexico, blended with 5% imported nylon fiber from Taiwan under HTSUS 5506.10. Does the blended yarn originate under NAFTA?
B. The Taiwanese fibers of heading 5506.10, fall within the range of non allowable changes in tariff classification, therefore yarn would not originate under General Note 12(b)(ii)(A) but originate under de minimis Rule Note 12(f). HTS General Note 12(f)(vi) A10
18. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for proper country of origin marking of Native American imitation jewelry?
B. The article must be marked using die stamping, cast-in-the-mold lettering, etching, or engraving. C. The article must be marked with the English name of the country of origin E. The article must be marked as permanently as the nature of the article will permit." Credit will be granted to those that answered B, C and E A10
47. Which statement is TRUE regarding this shipment of trousers? • Nylon filament yarn of subheading 5402.32.30 formed in Israel • Nylon fabric woven in Honduras • Elastic for waistband formed in Israel • Sewing thread formed and finished in Dominican Republic • Cut and assembled into men's nylon trousers with elastic waistband in Honduras • Trousers shipped from Honduras to US "
B. The elastic waistband from Israel disqualifies the trousers from Dominican Republic-Central America-United States Free Trade Agreement preference HTS General Note 29, Chapter 62, Chapter Rule 3 A09
51. Foreign merchandise that is entered into a foreign trade zone and is manufactured or changed in condition may be exported to Canada or Mexico at a waived or reduced duty amount. Which of the answers below apply for filing and/or duty payment to claim the waived or reduced duty amount?
B. The estimated duty must be deposited with CBP 60 calendar days after the date of exportation of the goods 181.53 A10
58. Foreign merchandise that is entered into a Foreign Trade Zone and is manufactured or changed in condition may be exported to Canada or Mexico at a waived or reduced duty amount in the U.S. Which of the answers below apply for filing and/or duty payment to claim the waived or reduced duty amount?
B. The estimated duty must be deposited with CBP 60 calendar days after the date of exportation of the goods. 181.53(A)(2)(III)(c); 181.53(b)(4) A10
48. Which statement is INCORRECT for the United States-Australia Free Trade Agreement (UAFTA)?
B. The good must be imported directly from Australia into the customs territory of the United States HTS General Note 28(a) A09
18. When goods are classifiable under two or more headings and cannot be classified by reference to General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) 3(a) or 3(b), they shall be classified under:
B. The heading which occurs last in numerical order among those which equally merit consideration General Rules of Interpretation A11
61. If merchandise released under a special permit for immediate delivery is later found to be prohibited, the port director will demand its recall in accordance with 19CFR141.113 and an entry summary and the deposit of estimated duties, if any, shall not be required provided certain conditions are met. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions?
B. The merchandise is deposited in a Foreign Trade Zone. 142.28(a) A09
17. An article composed of two different base metals is classified based on which of the following?
B. The metal that predominates by weight Section XV, Legal Note 5 A11
61. Which of the following is NOT included in the guidelines for determining amount of bond?
B. The number of importations during the previous 3 fiscal years. 113.13(b) A11
59. An offer in compromise is considered accepted only if _____.
B. The offeror is notified by CBP in writing that the offer was received timely 171.32 A06
64. Except as otherwise provided, under 19 CFR 102, Rules of Origin, foreign materials that do NOT undergo the applicable change in tariff classification, or satisfy the other applicable requirements when incorporated into a textile or apparel product covered by that section shall be disregarded in determining the country of origin of the good if:
B. The total weight of the components or materials is not more than 7 percent of the total weight of the good. 102.13(c) A10
63. Which of the following statements about the Additional U.S. Rules of Interpretation is TRUE?
B. They provide guidance in classifying goods in the United States HTS Additional U.S. Rules of Interpretation A08
3. What is the proper entry type to file for a commercial shipment of plastic patio doors, classified at 3925.20.0010 with a transaction value of $267.00?
B. Type 01 143.21 A07
65. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
B. Venezuela is a designated beneficiary country of the Andean Trade Preference Act. HTS General Note 11(a) A10
47. A drawback claimant must furnish a properly executed drawback bond if approved for a/an _____.
B. accelerated payment 191.92(d) A07
1. "Released conditionally," as defined in 19 CFR, means ¬¬¬¬¬_____.
B. any release from CBP custody before liquidation 141.0a(i) A07
72. A _____ is a building or other secured area in which imported merchandise may be stored or manipulated without the payment of duty or taxes for up to five years.
B. bonded warehouse 19 A09
34. Public bonded warehouses used exclusively for the storage of imported merchandise are called _____ warehouses.
B. class 3 19.1(a)(3) A08
80. Interest is assessed on the underpayment of duties and fees at a rate determined by the Secretary, from the ______________ to the liquidation or re-liquidation date.
B. date the importer is required to deposit estimated duties 24.3(b)(2) A11
41. An application for an individual broker's license requires _____.
B. fingerprints 111.12(a) A07
28. If the entry type code, in block 2 of CBP Form 7501 begins with the number '5', the general category code is identified as a/an _____ entry.
B. government Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005) A10
15. An antidumping or countervailing duty reimbursement certificate must be filed _____.
B. prior to liquidation of the entry 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) A09
56. A broker is permitted in the Districts of Laredo and Houston Texas. The broker's mother becomes ill in Lubbock, Texas, and the broker ceases operation as a Customs broker to care for his mother. The broker's records _____.
B. shall be maintained in the District where the Customs business was performed 111.23(a) A07
27. For the purposes of headings 6103 and 6104, the term _____ means a set of garments composed of two or three pieces made up, in respect of their outer surface, in identical fabric, that include a coat or jacket and a garment to cover the lower body.
B. suit Chapter 61, Note 3(a) A07
49. The importer requests that you review the label that is permanently, conspicuously, and legibly affixed to the salsa. As the broker, you advise your client that _____.
B. the country of origin must be in close proximity to and of comparable size to the distributor's U.S. address 134.46 A08
62. A power of attorney issued by a partnership to file a protest is limited to a period not to exceed _____ year(s) from the date of receipt by the port director.
B. two 174.3(c) A09
6. Merchandise received under an immediate transportation without appraisement entry more than 6 months after the date of original importation may be entered only _____.
B. under a consumption entry 18.12(a) A07
3. When one of the units of quantity is underlined for merchandise found in chapters 50 through 63 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule, the_____.
B. unit of measure to be used for reporting quota shall be the first unit of quantity unless the second unit of quantity (if there is one) is underlined, in which case the second unit of quantity shall be reported HTS Section XI, Statistical Note 3 A08
79. An antidumping entry rejected for failure to post bond must be resubmitted:
B. within 10 business days from the date of rejection CD 3550-067 part 3 E, paragraph 3 A06
10.A shipment of merchandise valued at $3,000 arrived from Toronto to port code 5210. The consignee wants to admit this merchandise into a Foreign-Trade Zone at district port code 5203. Which Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Form would be the proper document to file in order to move this merchandise?
B.CBP Form 7512 (Transportation Entry and Manifest of Goods Subject to CBP Inspection and Permit) 143.23(d) and 18.10 A11
1. If the merchandise has not been sold or consigned to a U.S. party at the time of entry or release, then the ultimate consignee at the time of entry or release is defined as _____
B.The proprietor of the U.S. premises to which the merchandise is to be delivered. CD 3550-079A A11
68. A broker's penalty for not keeping a power of attorney on file is _____ per client.
C. $ 1,000 171 Appendix C(V)(E) A07
76. The hourly fee charged by CBP for furnishing an official certification after the entry documents have been filed is _____.
C. $10 per hour or fraction thereof plus 15 cents per page for photocopying 24.12(a)(2) A06
3. Which would be the correct amount of duty for 7200 liters of red wine made in Spain having an alcohol strength by volume of 14.72% and a value of $47,912?
C. $1216.80 (HTS) 2204.21.8060 A09
58. As a licensed broker, you filed entry summaries on behalf of Spyglass, Inc. for five shipments of binoculars invoiced at $50,000 per shipment. Weeks later your client discovered that a computer error had generated incorrect invoices. The correct value of each shipment was actually $150,000. Because the merchandise was duty-free, Spyglass, Inc. decided it was not necessary to notify you or Customs and Border Protection (CBP). A year later CBP discovered the discrepancies through an audit. A penalty was assessed under 19 U.S.C. 1592 for gross negligence against the five shipments. The amount of the penalty assessed would have been:
C. $300,000 162.73(a)(2) A11
"4. For the following U.S. importation, what is the correct value in U.S. Dollars? • The latest certified quarterly exchange rate from Canadian Dollars to U.S. Dollars is 0.626449. • The listed invoice value of the item being entered is $1,200 in Canadian Dollars.
C. $752 159.34(a) $1,200x.626449 = $751.74 (rounded to $752) A07
52. An Importer of wearing apparel decides to establish a new continuous bond. During the previous calendar year, the importer paid $817,543 in duties $41,908 in taxes and fees and imported a total value of $11,860,739. Considering the Importer expects a steady 10% gain in business over the next 5 years, at what minimum amount should the bond limit of liability be fixed?
C. $90,000 CD 3510-004 A08
2. What is the appropriate entry type code for an entry summary with a product subject to quota restrictions as well as antidumping and countervailing duties?
C. 07 Instructions for Preparation of CBP Form 7501 (8-30-2005) A08
27. What is the CLASSIFICATION for fresh whole onion bulbs, intended for planting, that have been treated with a fungicide to prevent infection with White Rot?
C. 0703.10.4000 Ch. 7 eo nominae; Ch. 7 Additional U.S. Note 3 A06
15. What is the entry type code for a duty deferral entry?
C. 08 CBP Form 7501 Instructions1 A11
20. The license of a broker that is a corporation or association can be revoked by operation of law if it fails for _____ continuous days to have at least one officer of the corporation or association who holds a valid individual broker license.
C. 120 111.45(a) A09
26. What is the CLASSIFICATION for crabmeat (Callinectus sapidus), a product of Mexico, that has been processed by boiling the bodies, extracting the meat from the shell, sealing the meat in airtight plastic containers, and freezing the meat prior to shipment to the U.S.?
C. 1605.10.2051 Ch. 16 eo nominae; Ch 16 Note 1 A06
77. The master or owner of a conveyance or the agent thereof shall notify CBP of any imported merchandise or baggage for which entry has not been made no later than _____.
C. 20 calendar days after landing at a CBP port 4.37(a) A08
44. SEE COMM. INVOICE IN EXAM Q44-50 What is the CLASSIFICATION of the salsa?
C. 2103.20.4020 HTS Chapter 21; HQ Ruling 964502 A08
39. An importer plans to import one liter bottles of brandy from France. Each one liter bottle of brandy has a value of $3.50. What is the correct classification for the brandy?
C. 2208.90.3000 HTS Ch. 22 (eo nominee) A10
57. If a protest relates to an administrative action involving exclusion of merchandise from entry or delivery under any provision of CBP laws, the port director shall review and act on this protest within _____ days from the date the protest was filed.
C. 30 174.21(b) A09
8.A broker receives a written demand from Customs and Border Protection for the production of certain entry records. The demand is not being made in connection with a determination regarding the admissibility or release of merchandise. The broker shall produce the entry records within ______ of receipt of the demand.
C. 30 calendar days 163.6(a) A11
77. If textile goods are examined for marking at the importer's premises, and found NOT to be legally marked after release, a demand for marking can be made by the Port Director no later than _____.
C. 30 days after the date of examination 141.113(a) A07
37. What is the classification of disposable plastic sleeve protectors constructed of 100% polyvinyl chloride plastic from China?
C. 3926.20.9050 HTS 3926.20.9050 A10
25. What is the classification for an inflatable dock fender made of vulcanized rubber other than hard rubber?
C. 4016.94.0000 HTS 4016.94.0000 eo nominee A09
47. What is the classification of a jewelry box consisting of a base metal box covered in paper which has an exterior coating of plastic?
C. 4202.92.9060 HTS Ch. 42, Additional U.S. Note 2 A10
77. What is the correct quota/visa category number for a woman's 60% polyester, 40% wool woven dress imported from Nepal?
C. 436 HTS 6204.43.3010 A10
80. Merchandise may remain in a bonded warehouse up to _____ years from the date of importation.
C. 5 144.5 A07
18. How long is a broker required to retain records according to the requirements set forth in 19 CFR?
C. 5 years other than powers of attorney 111.23(a) A09
71. For those countries for which a quarterly rate of exchange is certified, the certified daily rate of exchange must vary from the certified quarterly rate by at least _____ before the certified daily rate is used.
C. 5% 159.34(a) and (b)(2) A07
41. What is the correct classification of a woman's 60% wool/40% polyester (synthetic) knit suit comprised of a divided skirt and a suit coat? The skirt and suit coat are of the same fabric construction, color and composition
C. 6104.19.5000 HTS Ch. 61 (eo nominee) A10
30. What is the classification for footwear with upper straps or thongs assembled to the sole by means of plugs (zoris)?
C. 6402.20.0000 HTS 6402.20.0000 eo nominee A09
38. What is the classification for cross-country ski footwear from China? The footwear is welted, outer soles of plastic, rubber or composition leather and uppers of leather, valued at $7 per pair.
C. 6403.12.3000 HTS 6403.12.3000 eo nominee A09
36. A women's footwear has a closed toe and heel type not covering the ankle. The external surface area of the upper is 98.8% composition leather and 1.2% rubber/plastic. The outer sole is composed of plastic/rubber. The value per pair is $37.00. What is the classification for the footwear?
C. 6405.10.0060 GRI 1 A11
41. What is the classification of the baseball caps?
C. 6505.90.2060 HTS 6505.90.2060 eo nominee A09
32. What is the classification and duty rate for a shipment of glazed porcelain salt and pepper shaker sets made in Brazil and imported from Italy?
C. 6911.10.4100 / 6.3% HTS 6911.10.4100; General Note 4(c) A09
33. What is the classification for a shipment of glass tumblers with ribbon-like swirls cut into the side of the glass? The value of the tumblers is $4.00 each.
C. 7013.37.30 HTS Ch. 70 (eo nominee) A10
27. What is the classification for coiled flat springs made from sheet metal (stainless steel) that have the property of returning to their original form even after considerable displacement?
C. 7320.90.50 Section XV Notes 1, 2, and 3. Chptrs. 72 and 73 A11
46. Which CBP Form must be presented to CBP prior to the export of merchandise that may be the subject of an unused merchandise drawback claim?
C. 7553 191.35(a) A07
40. An Automatic Data Processing (ADP) System consists of a Central Processing Unit (CPU), a keyboard (input unit), and visual display unit (output unit). What is the classification for the ADP System?
C. 8471.49.0000 HTS 8471.49.0000 A11
38. What is the classification for a combination ball and needle roller bearing?
C. 8482.80.0040 GRI 1 A11
71. The operator of a foreign trade zone has _____ days to prepare a reconciliation report after the end of the zone/sub zone year unless the port director authorizes an extension for reasonable cause.
C. 90 146.25 A09
65. An importer has _____ days after liquidation to request a written explanation of how the value of the imported merchandise was determined?
C. 90 152.101(d) A09
50. The operator of a foreign trade zone has _____ to prepare a reconciliation report after the end of the zone/subzone year unless the port director authorizes an extension for reasonable cause.
C. 90 calendar days 146.25(a) A10
67. In the following scenario, what penalty action by CBP is appropriate? • A wearing apparel importer/ultimate consignee deliberately misdescribes and mislabels the imported merchandise in order to avoid quota/visa restrictions. • CBP discovers the violation in question within one year of the date of importation and entry. • This importer has also committed several identical violations during the past four years. • The value of these importations from China exceeds $10 million
C. A civil penalty for fraud 171 Appendix B(C) A07
74. A spurious trademark that is identical to or substantially indistinguishable from a registered trademark is _____.
C. A counterfeit trademark 133.21 A06
42. The following statements define an 'indirect material' EXCEPT:
C. A good used in the production of a good whether or not it is physically incorporated into the good General Note 12(i) A11
45. Which drawback type requires either a Single Entry Bond or a Continuous bond?
C. Accelerated Payment 191.92 A06
66. Which is NOT a requirement of a deferred tax payment application?
C. An estimate of the number of shipments in any given month 24.4(c) A06
71. Which punctuation marks are acceptable when entering business names into the SRE file?
C. Apostrophe, ampersand, and hyphen CD 5610-002A A06
50. Frozen orange juice concentrate fortified with calcium classified 2106.90.4800 is produced in Canada. The bill of materials shows the following:
C. Argentina 134.1(b); 102.11(a)(3); 102.1(e); 102.20(f); 102.11(b)(1) A09
43. Which of the following is NOT included as a physical access control for a broker under C-TPAT?
C. Background checks on visitors to the broker's office C-TPAT A08
15. A Government Agency establishes an ultimate consignee number with CBP by filing a properly executed:
C. CBP Form 5106 24.5(a) A10
47. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has decided to examine your shipment. The FDA took a sample, analyzed the sample, and has timely issued all applicable FDA notices to the importer. Unfortunately, FDA has refused admission of your shipment into the United States. FDA communicates this fact to Customs and Border Protection (CBP). Which of the following happens next?
C. CBP will issue a Notice to Redeliver (CBP Form 4815) within 30 days from the date the product was refused admission by the FDA 141.113(c)(3) A11
63. Which document is NOT accepted by CBP as proof of exportation from the U.S. for the cancellation of an export bond?
C. Certificate of Origin 113.55(a)(1) A07
13. What is the country of origin for the following goods? Cotton grown in the U.S. is sent to Korea where it is spun into yarn. The yarn is sent to China where it is woven into fabric and made into shirts. The shirts were sold to a U.S. buyer, shipped to Hong Kong for pressing and packing for export to the U.S.
C. China 102.21(c) A08
8. Which of the following are NOT eligible for Informal Entry?
C. Commercial shipments of quota merchandise 143.21 A06
59. Which is NOT acceptable for reduced duty under 9802.00.80 of the following operations performed on U.S. components?
C. Cutting garment parts 10.13; 10.14; 10.16 A09
64. Which one of the following actions CANNOT be taken on merchandise after liquidation of the entry becomes final?
C. Demand for return of merchandise 141.113(h) A08
18. Which of the following is TRUE for quotas expected to fill immediately upon opening?
C. Entries or withdrawals for consumption submitted timely and in proper form for the opening are all considered presented simultaneously for reporting purposes 132.12; 132.4 A06
45. The _____ of record is the person entitled to claim drawback.
C. Exporter 191.28 A07
76. Which is NOT a requirement for a petition for relief from a seizure?
C. Filing a petition within 60 days from the date of the mailing of the notice of seizure unless an extension of the filing deadline is granted 171.2(b)(1) A08
52. A petition for relief of a claim for liquidated damages should be addressed to the _____.
C. Fines, Penalties and Forfeitures officer whose name is given in the notice, by the bond principal 172.3 A09
41. How long must a broker retain records relating to a warehouse withdrawal?
C. Five years from the date of the last withdrawal 111.23(a)(2) A06
69. Any record required to be made, kept, and rendered for examination and inspection by CBP shall be maintained:
C. For 5 years 111.23 A11
21. Pursuant to the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, what information below is used to determine the classification as babies' garments and clothing accessories?
C. Height Chp. 61, Note 6(a) and Chptr. 62, Note 4(a) A11
13. Any additional expenses for cartage, storage or labor occasioned by reason of an entry by appraisement shall be borne by the _____.
C. Importer 143.14 A07
79. A shipment of shirts manufactured in Thailand and subject to absolute quota arrives in the U.S. You find that the quota for this merchandise from Thailand is closed, but the quota for Mexico is open. Which of the following describes the appropriate action for the importer?
C. Make a warehouse entry. 132.5(c) A10
53. According to the CBP Regulations which of the following is an INCORRECT statement regarding warehouse withdrawals for exportation?
C. Merchandise in bulk, and packaged articles which are customarily bought and sold by weight, gauge, or measure may not be withdrawn for exportation or transportation 144.37 A10
54. For NAFTA marking purposes, "domestic material" refers to a material whose country of origin is the same as the country in which the good is _____.
C. Produced 102.1(d) A06
6. Which of the following is NOT an allowable foreign trade zone status?
C. Prohibited merchandise status 146 Subpart D A06
73. Where is the definition of the expression "parts of general use" found?
C. Section XV Note 2 HTS Section XV, Note 2 A09
15. Which of the following statements regarding tariff-rate quotas is correct?
C. Tariff-rate quotas permit a specified quantity of merchandise to be entered or withdrawn for consumption at a reduced duty rate during a specified period 132.1(b) A06
51. Which is NOT a program where special tariff treatment may be provided under the Harmonized Tariff Schedules of the United States?
C. The European Economic Community Free Trade Agreement Harmonized Tariff Schedule, General Note 3(c)(i) A06
70. Which of the following is required to have a license to transact customs business?
C. The district permit qualifier of a customs broker 111.1 and 111.19 A11
13. An incorporated and physically domiciled internet company in the United States specializes in purchasing patio furniture. The company places consolidated orders with its overseas vendor to fill orders placed by the internet's individual customers located throughout the United States. The ultimate consignee is _____.
C. The internet company CD 3550-079A A11
53. On a formal entry, a broker may be listed as an ultimate consignee if:
C. They own the merchandise, or there is no known U.S. buyer and the accompanying documentation shows the broker premises as the location to which the merchandise is to be delivered CD 3550-079A A11
58. Which statement is TRUE regarding this shipment of fabric? • Cotton fiber of heading 5201 from Mali carded and combed and spun into yarn in Morocco • Elastomeric yarn formed in the US • Knit in Morocco into 95% cotton/5% elastomeric fabric • Fabric shipped from Morocco to the US
C. This fabric qualifies for preferential treatment under the United States-Morocco Free Trade Agreement HTS Chapter 98, Subchapter XIX, US Note 65 A08
29. On mail shipments of internet purchases, what information must be provided on the Customs declaration supplied by a foreign post office?
C. Value of the merchandise 145.11(a) A10
12. A broker presents a formal entry for merchandise which is subject to an antidumping case. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
C. When the Secretary of Commerce instructs CBP to liquidate the antidumping entry subject to a case, interest is calculated on each entry overpayment or underpayment for summaries required suspended prior to the dumping order 19 CFR 351.212(e) A09
54. When submitting an offer in compromise on behalf of a client to settle a claim for liquidated damages, or a penalty, the broker must also submit _____.
C. a tender of funds 161.5; 172.31 A09
27. With the exception of bulk and certain bulk-break cargo, the Importer Security Filings for immediate export or transportation and exportation in-bond shipments must be submitted no later than 24 hours _____.
C. before the cargo is laden aboard a vessel destined to the U.S. 149.2 A10
54. A _____ may be used to protect the revenue when filing multiple entries for the same importer.
C. continuous bond 133.12(b) A08
8. When a commercial transaction and subsequent entry is in foreign currency, the date that should be considered for conversion purposes is the date the goods were _____.
C. exported from the country of export 152.1(c); 159.32 A10
75. When the transaction is in a foreign currency, for conversion purposes the correct rate of exchange is the one in effect on the date the goods were _____.
C. exported from the country of export 152.1(c); 19 CFR 159.32 A07
2. What type of entry is required on an air shipment of textile articles valued at $1,500 and subject to quota and visa restraints?
C. formal entry 102.24(a) A10
69. Upon termination, an individual broker who is the qualifying member or officer of an association or corporation must provide written notice _____.
C. immediately to the Assistant Commissioner and send a copy to each port director where a permit has been granted 111.28(c) A08
35. Merchandise in bulk shall not be withdrawn from a bonded warehouse in quantities _____, unless by special authority of the Commissioner of CBP.
C. less than 1 ton in weight or the entire quantity imported, whichever is smaller 144.33 A08
37. The warehouse proprietor shall ensure that records be readily available for review at the warehouse and may keep records at another location for Customs review, but only if the proprietor first received written approval for storage from the _____.
C. port director 19.4(b)(4)(ii) A08
57. Any record relating to a drawback claim shall be kept until the _____.
C. third anniversary of the date of payment of the claim 163.4(b)(1) A07
77. Merchandise may remain in a bonded warehouse _____.
C. up to 5 years from the date of importation 144.5 A06
12. An A.T.A. carnet is valid for _____.
C. up to one year from the date of issue 114.23(a) A07
48. Merchandise transferred to a Foreign Trade Zone shall be given _____ status in order to be considered exported for purposes of drawback.
C. zone restricted 191.181 and 191.182 A07
7.Transit air cargo traveling to a final port of destination in the United States shall be delivered to Customs and Border Protection at its destination within ___ days from the date the receiving airline gives the receipt for the cargo at the port of arrival.
C.15 122.119(b) A11
2.Which is the CORRECT timeframe for an abatement or refund of duties to be made in the case of injury to, or destruction of, merchandise in a bonded warehouse due to accidental fire or other casualty? The accidental fire or other casualty must occur within
C.3 years from the date of importation 158.21(A) A11
75. Select the correct answer for the transaction value of shipment whose details are as follows:
Credit granted to all A09
4. In which four months are the quarterly Harbor Maintenance Fees payments due? A. March, June, September, and December B. October, January, April and August C. January, April, August, and October D. February, May, August, and November E. HMF Quarterly payments are not allowed
Credit will be granted for all answers A10
57. Tank tops manufactured and imported from Mexico are 52 % acetate and 48% percent rayon woven fabric with 100 percent rayon woven fabric trim. The fabric for the tank tops was woven in the U.S. from yarn produced in the U.S. The fabric for the trim however is Korean. Does the tank top originate under NAFTA?
Credit will be granted for all answers A10
60. A farm truck with grain box on it is being imported. A company in North Dakota shipped the truck cab and chassis manufactured in Japan, classified 8704.32.0010, to Canada to have the grain box mounted on it. The value of the truck when it entered Canada was $100,000. The cost of mounting the grain box onto the truck was $8,000. To pay the lowest amount of duty, which statement is CORRECT?
Credit will be granted for all answers A10
19. What is the merchandise processing fee for a shipment of strawberry jam from England and is valued at $10,000?
D. $ 25.00 24.23(b)(1)(i)(B) A10
71. What VALUE(S) and CLASSIFICATION(S) apply to an electron microscope with a documented U.S. value of $100,000 that was exported to Taiwan for a $2000 repair and then reimported into the U.S.?
D. $100,000 under 9802.00.5060 and $2000 under 9012.10.0000 HTS Ch. 98, Subchapter II, U.S. Note 3 A10
77. A shipment of merchandise valued between _____ and _____, which qualifies for informal entry may be entered, using reasonable care, by the owner or purchaser of the shipment or, when appropriately designated by the owner, purchaser, or consignee of the shipment, a Customs broker.
D. $200 and $2,000 143.26(a) A11
29. What DUTY will be owed on this merchandise?
D. $21,084 2008.11.1500 (131.8%) and 9908.20.10 (43.9%) A06
78. What is the transaction value of commercial samples invoiced as $5,000 worth of leather wallets, ex-works (outside of factory door), with actual foreign inland freight charges of $200?
D. $5,000 152 A11
19. What is the per unit transaction value of the finished product when it is entered into the U.S. Customs territory?
D. $5.80 152.103(b) A07
20. What is the CLASSIFICATION for frozen cauliflower?
D. 0710.80.9730 HTS Chapter 7 eo nominee A08
32. What is the CLASSIFICATION for coriander seeds?
D. 0909.20.0000 HTS Chapter 9 eo nominee A08
72. The port director may approve blanket applications to manipulate goods in a warehouse for up to _____.
D. 1 year 19.11(d) A07
50. A post-importation NAFTA duty refund claim may be filed within:
D. 1 year after the date of importation of the goods 181.31 A06
74. Mr. Smith, an individually licensed broker and Vice President of Quick Imports, resigns his position and employment. Quick Imports, a corporate Customs broker, shall obtain the employment of an individually licensed broker who will also serve as an officer of Quick Imports within _____ days of Mr. Smith's resignation before Quick Imports' license is revoked by operation of law.
D. 120 111.45(a) A10
1. When merchandise is withdrawn from a warehouse for rewarehousing, how many days are allowed after its arrival before entry must be made?
D. 15 calendar days 144.41 (g) A06
4. For the purpose of determining whether the country of origin of textiles and textile products subject to the provisions of 19 CFR 102.21 or 19 CFR 102.22, has been accurately represented to CBP, the release of any such textiles from CBP custody is conditional during the _____ day period following the date of release.
D. 180 141.113(b) A09
18. What is the CLASSIFICATION for toasted bread?
D. 1905.40.0000 HTS Chapter 19 eo nominee A08
37. What is the classification of frozen orange juice concentrate fortified with calcium?
D. 2106.90.4800 HTS 2106.90.4800; Chapter 21, Additional U.S. Note 1 A09
28. What is the CLASSIFICATION for "crude" chalk?
D. 2509.00.1000 HTS Chapter 25 eo nominee A08
42. What is the port code for the port of arrival?
D. 2713 HTS Statistical Annex C A09
40. Once you pass the brokers exam and you wish to apply for your broker's license, how much time do you have to apply for your broker's license?
D. 3 years 111.11(a)(4) A07
62. A surety is usually required to give at least _____ days written notice before terminating a Customs bond on which it is obligated.
D. 30 113.27(b) A06
48. An importer shall file an application on Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Form 4315 within ____ days from the date of discovery of merchandise damaged while in CBP custody.
D. 30 158.23 A11
26. What quota category applies when making entry for a shipment of 100% cotton knit socks made in China?
D. 332 Chapter 61, heading 6115 A07
35. The CLASSIFICATION for oil seals made of vulcanized rubber and used in an automotive engine is _______________.
D. 4016.93.5020 Ch. 40 eo nominae A06
31. What is the CLASSIFICATION for carrying cases specially shaped and fitted for the iPod digital audio player? The cases are composed of nonwoven textile fabric with an outer layer of polyvinyl chloride (PVC) plastic sheeting. The cases measure approximately 4" high by 2" wide by 1" deep and have an integrated plastic belt clip.
D. 4202.92.9060 Ch. 42 eo nominae; Ch. 39 Note 2(ij) A06
28. What is the classification of finger jointed and edged glued pine flat jambs?
D. 4418.90.4695 Chp. 44, Additional U.S. Note 1(b) A11
63. Each importer claiming preferential tariff treatment NAFTA for a good imported into the U.S. shall maintain in the U.S. all documentation relating to the importation of the merchandise for a period of _____ years after the date of entry.
D. 5 181.22(a) A10
73. If the final determination by the Fines, Penalties, and Forfeitures Officer is that the broker or other person is liable for a monetary penalty, the broker or other person must pay the monetary penalty, or make arrangements for the payment of the monetary penalty, within ____________ calendar days of the date of the written decision.
D. 60 111.92 A11
75. CBP may reject a type 03, non-ABI entry summary up to _____ calendar days following the summary filing date without supervisory approval.
D. 60 CD 3550-067 part 3 D A06
25. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a boy's knitted shirt made from 50% cotton and 50% polyester fibers?
D. 6105.20.2030 Ch. 61 eo nominae; GRI 3(c) A06
34. What is the classification of ladies knit cardigans that are 65% silk and 35% cotton? The construction of the cardigan consists of 8 stitches per 2 centimeters. All components of the cardigans are knit to shape.
D. 6110.90.9038 HTS Ch. 61 (eo nominee) A10
22. What is the classification for men's woven pants, invoiced as 50% cotton/50% lyocell (an artificial fiber)? The goods were made in China; visa for category 347 was provided.
D. 6203.49.2015 (category 647) HTS Section XI, Note 2(A) A09
19. What is the CLASSIFICATION for woven silk headbands?
D. 6217.10.1010 HTS Chapter 62 eo nominee A08
49. What is the classification of women's size three golf shoes with outer soles of rubber and uppers of cow leather and not welt construction.
D. 6403.19.5091 HTS Ch. 64, Statistical Note 1(c) A10
24. An entry of artificial flowers of plastic (as invoiced) manufactured and exported from China was filed. The Import Specialist issued a CBP Form 28 (Request for Information) and obtained a sample. The flowers received from the instant shipment were actually artificial, made of plastic and held with wire (finished product and not including parts). What is the correct classification of the referenced artificial flowers?
D. 6702.10.2000 GRI 1 A11
38. What is the CLASSIFICATION of crude or roughly trimmed granite that has one face surface worked and is NOT cut to size?
D. 6802.93.0010 Chapter 68 eo nomine A07
27. What is the classification of an alloy steel, non-welded gas line with an outside diameter of exactly 114.3 mm?
D. 7306.19.5110 HTS 7306.19.5110 eo nominee A09
35. What is the classification of an alloy steel, non-welded gas line with an outside diameter of exactly 114.3 mm?
D. 7306.19.5110 HTS Ch. 73 (eo nominee) A10
40. What is the classification of tie rods which are used exclusively with jet aircraft turbine engines? They are ¾" in diameter and 10" in length. They are hot rolled and hardened and made up of 50% Nickel, 46% Iron and 4% Cobalt.
D. 7508.90.5000 7508.90.5000; HTS Section XV Note 5(a) A10
39. What is the CLASSIFICATION for aluminum desktop stands made to support a multimedia 42" gas plasma video monitor classified in 8528.21.7001? The stands are imported separately from the video monitors.
D. 7616.99.5090 General Rules of Interpretation 2(b); 3(b) A06
20. What is the textile category for 100% silk baby garments from South Korea?
D. 839 HTS of the United States A11
36. The CLASSIFICATION for grain-dampening machines is:
D. 8437 Chapter 84, Note 2(b); heading 8437 A07
26. What is the classification for a diffusing apparatus used for the commercial extraction of sugar juice?
D. 8438.30.0000 GRI 3(a), Chptr. 84, Note 2(c) A11
45. What is the classification of a diffusing apparatus used for the commercial extraction of sugar juice?
D. 8438.30.0000 HTS Ch. 84, Note 2(c) A10
34. What is the classification of a 50 inch (127 centimeter) flat panel plasma high definition color television receiver with a built-in DVR (digital video recorder)?
D. 8528.72.6400 HTS 8528.72.6400 eo nominee A09
33. A lighted nylon safety vest is designed to fit over the upper torso. It is neither embedded nor completely covered in plastics. The safety vest fits over the upper torso and features a hook and loop strip front closure and open sides except for a 3 inch seam near the bottom. There are two 2-inch wide reflective plastic strips sewn from the front to the back of the vest and one 2-inch wide reflective strip around the waist. The reflective plastic strips on the outside contain 12 flashing lights that run by battery. It contains an inside pocket that holds a battery pack with an on/off switch, and a switch to arrange the light at either regular intervals or on a continuous basis. The lighted wearer is visible from a longer distance than someone who is wearing a "regular" safety product without a self contained light source. What is the classification for the vest?
D. 8531.80.0050 GRI 3(c) A11
31. What is the CLASSIFICATION for an ambulance with a 6.8-liter gasoline engine?
D. 8703.24.0010 Chapter 87 eo nomine A07
25. What is the classification of an automobile exhaust pipe?
D. 8708.92.5000 Chp. 73 and 87 Notes A11
37. A bicycle equipped with and propelled by both pedals and/or a 250-watt or 350-watt brushless, geared hub motor powered by a 36-volts battery affixed behind the seat tube. The approximate dimensions are 62 inches in length, by 10 inches in width and 44 inches in height, with a weight of approximately 60 pounds and a top motor-assisted speed of 16 mph. What is the classification number (HTS) for the bicycle?
D. 8711.90.0000 / Free GRI 1 A11
63. Upon a written request from the importer, CBP shall provide a written explanation of how the value of the imported merchandise was determined within _________ after liquidation.
D. 90 days 152.101(d), 152.2 and 141.113(a)(5) A11
48. What is the correct classification of camera filters?
D. 9002.20.4000 HTS Ch. 90 (eo nominee) A10
11. Which Special Program Indicators (SPI) may be EXEMPT from the merchandise processing fee (MPF)?
D. A HTS General Note 3(c) A10
10. Which statement about importations by or for the account of the U.S. Government is incorrect?
D. A bond is always required in support of an immediate delivery application for release 10.101 (d) A06
66. Company A imports widgets, and then sells to Company B. Company B exports the widgets and is now filing for unused merchandise drawback. Which document is required to document the transfer, assign the right to drawback, and identify the widgets?
D. A certificate of delivery 191.10(a) A11
42. Which is NOT required when submitting an application for a permit to conduct customs business?
D. A credit report not more than 3 months old 111.19(b) A06
15. Which article is NOT exempt from country of origin marking requirements when imported into the United States?
D. A lithograph printed poster produced in Italy 134.2 A08
51. Which is the INCORRECT statement related to Fines, Penalties, and Forfeitures?
D. A supplemental petition for mitigation may be filed only after the mitigated penalty forfeiture remission amount designated in the decision is paid 171.61 A09
56. CBP can mitigate monetary penalties proposed under Section 592 of the Trade Act of 1930 for any of the following reasons EXCEPT:
D. A violator's previous investigation by the Office of Immigration and Customs Enforcement 171 Appendix B G A06
70. What ABI-INDICATOR is used in block 2 of the CBP Form 7501 when paying duties and fees on an ABI "live" entry/entry summary with cash or check?
D. ABI/N/L CBP Form 7501 Instructions A08
9. In the following scenario, what type of ruling is the importer entitled to? • CBP has rejected the importer's claim as to the tariff classification of green olives grown in Spain. • Entries filed for these ongoing shipments have NOT been liquidated. • Proposed rate advances (CBP Form 29) will result in substantial duty increases. • A ruling has NOT been requested or issued on these import transactions.
D. An Internal Advice request submitted through the CBP port of entry 177.11(b)(2) A07
19. A person transacting customs business without holding a valid broker's license is subject to a penalty of:
D. An amount not to exceed $10,000 for each violation and not to exceed an aggregate of $30,000 for all violations 111.91(b) A09
69. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding a claim for liquidated damages that has been cancelled upon payment of a lesser amount?
D. Any payment made in compliance with any decision to cancel a claim for liquidated damages upon payment of a lesser amount is a protestable action as defined under the provisions of 19 U.S.C. 1514 172.22(a) and (b) A07
72. Which one of the following choices does NOT qualify as a "related person" for purposes of valuing imported merchandise?
D. Any person directly or indirectly, owning, controlling or holding with power to vote, less than five percent of the outstanding voting stock or shares of any organization and such organization. 152.102(g)(6) A10
8. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding the processing of a single entry for a single shipment that was split by the carrier into multiple portions that arrived into the U.S. separately?
D. Any portion of a split shipment that does not arrive at the port of entry within 15 calendar days of the arrival of the first portion must be entered separately 141.57 A09
25. An entry is made on February 1, 2010 of food product merchandise. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) issues a notice of sampling on February 5, 2010, but does not issue a "Notice of Refusal" nor "Notice that Merchandise May Proceed" within 30 days of release. For the "Notice to Redeliver" (CBP Form 4647) to be considered timely, when is the latest the CBP Form 4647 must be issued by CBP?
D. April 2, 2010 141.113(c) A10
46. For drawback claims filed under 19 U.S.C. 1313(j), the Notice of Intent to Export, Destroy, or Return Merchandise must be filed _____, given that no other filing period or waiver has been granted.
D. At least 2 working days prior to the date of intended exportation 191.35 A06
14. A CBP Form 7501 identifies Big Dragon Imports, a Taiwanese nonresident as the importer of record. PRC International Group, Inc., an incorporated legal entity in the Customs territory of the U.S. is the ultimate consignee. The Chinese overseas manufacturer of the imported commodity, Red Garments, is subject to an antidumping duty order of 15.2%. West Texas CHB, Inc. acts as the licensed broker in the entry of the merchandise. _____ must file the Reimbursement Certificate of Antidumping or Countervailing Duties prior to liquidation.
D. Big Dragon Imports 19 CFR 351.402(f)(2) A09
24. What is the classification of a multimedia video system consisting of an interactive, flat screen display of Japanese origin, and a Canadian-made projector? If imported separately, they would be classified under 8528.51.0000 and CA8528.69.4500, respectively? The two components are of equal value, and both are equally essential.
D. CA8528.69.4500 HTS General Rules of Interpretation (GRI) 3(c) A09
31. A corporate broker continually misuses their license, permit and filer code. Which of the below-identified actions may CBP NOT pursue against the broker?
D. CBP may immediately revoke the corporate broker's permit. 111 Subpart D A10
39. Pursuant to heading(s) 6103 and 6104 of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States, which of the following may NOT be classified as a suit?
D. Coat with two trousers Chp. 61, Note 2 A11
72. An appeal from the order of the Secretary of Homeland Security, or his designee, suspending or revoking a license or permit, or assessing a monetary penalty, may be filed by the broker in the ________________.
D. Court of International Trade. 111.75 A11
54. What is NOT eligible to be entered for warehousing?
D. Dangerous and highly flammable merchandise. 144.1(a) A10
30. Which one of the below-identified related document identifiers is authorized to certify a source document for Remote Location Filing?
D. Declarants Reference Number (C36) CATAIR, Appendix B, Pages B-14 and B-15 A10
40. A broker must exercise _____ in making financial settlements, answering correspondence, and preparing and filing records relating to any customs business matters he or she handles as a broker.
D. Due diligence 111.29 A06
14. Quick Imports, a Customs broker incorporated in Texas, is purchased by an unlicensed person (i.e., freight forwarder). The freight forwarder dissolves the corporate Customs broker, and reincorporates in Delaware. The dissolution of Quick Imports, Inc. requires that a new federal identification number be obtained. The new owners intend to conduct "Customs businesses" under the name of East West Imports, Inc.
D. East West Imports, Inc. may engage in "Customs business" using Quick Imports, Inc. former Customs broker's license, filer code and permits. 111.11 A10
66. Which is NOT a program providing special tariff treatment?
D. Eastern Bloc Human Rights and Tariff Reduction Act HTS General Note 3(c)(i) A10
32. A _____ shall be presented to CBP to obtain release of a shipment of pesticides.
D. Environmental Protection Agency form 3540-1 12.112 & 12.113 A10
73. In addition to CBP, the Food and Drug Administration, and the U.S. Department of Agriculture-Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service, which of the following regulates meat and meat-food products offered for entry into the U.S.?
D. Food Safety and Inspection Services 12.8(a) A07
78. Which one of the following items, imported in October, 2009, falls within quota/visa category 459?
D. Knitted 100 percent wool scarves HTS 6117.10.1000 A10
SEE THE QUESTION////40. Construct the Manufacturer Identification Number.
D. MOCLOUNI555MAC 102.21(b)(5); CBP Form 7501 Instructions A09
59. A client intends to submit the Importer Security Filing (ISF). Which of the following must be linked to one another at the line item level for shipments intended to be entered into the U.S. Customs territory at the lowest bill of lading level, if applicable?
D. Manufacturer (or supplier), country of origin, and the sixth digit harmonized tariff schedule number 149.3(a) A11
53. What will a travel kit, imported into the U.S. from Singapore, qualify for under the U.S. - Singapore Free Trade Agreement if it is classified under HTS 9605.00.0000, and contains components that originate in the U.S. or Singapore except for the following non-originating items? • A plastic case classified under HTS 3923.10 • Sewing thread classified under HTS 5204.20 • Sewing needles classified under HTS 7319.90 • Toothpaste classified under HTS 3306.10 • A toothbrush classified under HTS 9603.21
D. No preferential treatment because the non-originating toothbrush classified in HTS 9603.21 does not make the tariff shift required by the specific rule of origin General Note 25(b)(iii); General Note 25(o), Chapter 96, Rule 9 A07
5. For the following U.S. importation, which is a dutiable charge? • The Importer of record is the Canadian Shipper/Manufacturer. • The terms of sale are CIF, Duty Paid, and Packed. • The method of appraisement is Transaction Value.
D. Packing Charges 152.103(b)(1)(i) A07
57. Which of the following ports of entry is not subject Harbor Maintenance Fee payment?
D. Port 4904 - Fajardo, Puerto Rico 24.24 A11
6. Which of the following imported items are goods subject to the provisions of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule?
D. Samples for soliciting orders Harmonized Tariff Schedule (HTS) General Note 3(e) A10
64. Which shipment, not imported for sale or for sale on approval, does NOT qualify for entry under a Temporary Importation Bond?
D. Samples imported for use in taking orders for merchandise by a salesperson who will take the samples out of the U.S. when he/she is finished taking orders Chapter 98, Subchapter XIII A07
70. What is the correct input of "The 2nd National Savings and Loan Association of Texas" into the SRE file of ACS?
D. Second National Savings & Loan Association of TX Directive 5610-002A A09
12. What is the latest date CBP can demand that the following shipment be returned to CBP custody? A shipment of textile products claiming country of origin Hong Kong was released on March 8, 2007. The summary was filed on March 21, 2007. Subsequent to the summary date, CBP officials learned that the summary should have listed China as the country of origin.
D. September 4, 2007 141.113(b) A08
14. Which of the following choices is NOT considered to be an assist?
D. Service on a machine by an employee of the buyer, performed while the employee is domiciled in the United States 152.102(a)(1) and (2) A08
7. What is the retention period for a Power of Attorney (POA) by a Customs broker?
D. The POA must be retained until revoked and must be retained for 5 years after the date of revocation or for 5 years after the date the client ceases to be an active client. 111.23(a)(2) A10
42. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding C-TPAT?
D. The broker should convey to their business partners that seals used to secure loaded containers and trailers bound for the U.S. must meet or exceed the current PAS ISO 17712 standards for medium security seals C-TPAT A08
69. The broker must input _____ as the Ultimate Consignee on a CBP Form 3461 for a formal entry when the importer of record is located in Ireland and does not have an office in the U.S., and the eventual buyer is unknown.
D. The identification number for the proprietor of the U.S. premises where the merchandise is to be delivered CD 3550-079A A06
54. Imported merchandise was released by CBP and placed in a bonded warehouse on January 1. The merchandise was withdrawn from the warehouse under ten separate withdrawals beginning on March 15 and ending on December 2. Which of the following is correct?
D. The warehouse entry must be liquidated within one year of December 2 E. Liquidation will be suspended until all merchandise covered by the entry is accounted for 159.52 A11
57. Which of the following would NOT contribute to a CBP decision to seize merchandise under Section 592?
D. There is a prior disclosure of the violation 162.75(a) and (b) A06
73. What is the record retention period for a drawback claim?
D. Third anniversary of the date of payment of the claim 163.4(b)(1) and 191.15 A08
47. What is the retention period for all drawback certificates?
D. Three years from the date of payment of the drawback claim 181.49 A06
10. For an entry that contains a product subject to an antidumping (ADD) order with a current cash deposit rate of 0.00%, you must file a _____ entry and _____.
D. Type 03 / declare the ADD case on the correct line with a 0.00% deposit rate and pay no deposit at time of filing CBP Form 7501 Instructions (8-30-2005) A07
23. Who is the ultimate consignee for a formal entry when U.S. Company (1) places an order with an overseas shipper and then sells the goods to U.S. Company (2) in a domestic transaction prior to the importation? The invoice issued by the overseas shipper states "sold to: U.S. Company (1)" and "ship to: U.S. Company (2)." The consignee on the bill of lading is U.S. Company (2).23. Who is the ultimate consignee for a formal entry when U.S. Company (1) places an order with an overseas shipper and then sells the goods to U.S. Company (2) in a domestic transaction prior to the importation? The invoice issued by the overseas shipper states "sold to: U.S. Company (1)" and "ship to: U.S. Company (2)." The consignee on the bill of lading is U.S. Company (2).
D. U.S Company 1 CD 3550-079A 6.3 and 8.4 A10
69. You have a shipment of canoes to enter, from the White Water Co., of Edmonton, Alberta, Canada. This particular sale has been made to White Water's retail outlet in Buffalo, New York, The Outback, a related party. The canoes are invoiced at U.S. $500/each. A 5% variation in price is considered a "close approximation" in this industry. The only information available to consider for this related party sale is a test value from an unrelated seller of similar merchandise, to another unrelated U.S. importer for U.S. $450. That sale occurred at approximately the same time as the one before you. There were no adjustments necessary with respect to the commercial levels and the quantity of the merchandise being appraised, and the basis of appraisement for the similar sale was transaction value, at the $450 price. Based on this information, the correct value and basis of appraisement is:
D. U.S. $450, Transaction Value of Identical or Similar merchandise. 152.103(j)(2)(i) A10
14. A foreign business entity may NOT be the ultimate consignee _____.
D. When the commercial invoice identifies the merchandise as new pneumatic tires, of rubber for use on motor cars with a value of $2,000 CD 3550-079A A11
43. Which circumstance would warrant the issuance of a filer code to a licensed customs broker?
D. XYZ Corporation, a licensed corporate Customs broker, wants a filer code to make entry for the account of one of its incorporated business divisions 111.11(a)(4) and 111.15 A07
67. A broker files a drawback claim on behalf of its client on February 1, 1999. The exports on the claim range from April 1, 1998 to January 4, 1999. In April, 2000, the client asks the broker to amend the claim. The drawback entries covered by the claim have not yet been liquidated. May the broker file the amended claim?
D. Yes, because unliquidated drawback claims may be amended within 3 years after the date of exportation or destruction of the articles which are the subject of the original drawback claim 191.52(c) A11
79. A textile or apparel product is defined as _____.
D. any good classifiable in Chapters 50 through 63 of the HTSUS, and any good listed in 19 CFR 102.21(b)(5) 102.21(b)(5) A08
23. Steel not complying with the definition of stainless steel is considered an alloy if it _____.
D. contains by weight 0.3 percent tungsten HTS Chapter 72 Note 1(f) A08
62. When there is a single entry bond and the entry summary documentation is not filed timely, the Port Director shall _____.
D. initiate a claim for liquidated damages equal to the entire amount of the bond 142.15 A07
"77. When considering test values in a related party transaction, the appraising officer must have: 1. Previously established Customs values determined pursuant to 19 USC 1401 a(c),(d) and (e). 2. Goods produced in the same country as the merchandise under appraisement 3. Goods exported from the same country as the merchandise under appraisement 4. Goods exported at or about the same time as the merchandise under appraisement
D. only (1), (2) and (4) above 152.103 A09
53. An administrative appeal to an adverse decision rendered on a petition for relief from a seizure, penalty, or liquidated damage case must be submitted in the form of a(n) _____.
D. supplemental Petition 172.41 A09
65. Liquidation refers to _____.
D. the final computation of duties accruing on an entry 159.1 A06
3.All of the following classes of merchandise, classifiable under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States require additional information on invoices presented at the time of entry summary, EXCEPT:
D.Spirits and vinegar 141.89(a) A11
9.Which criteria below is NOT an eligibility requirement for remote location filing (RLF)?
D.The licensed broker must submit line release or immediate deliver entries under RLF 143.44(e) A11
6. An importer is entering $20,000 worth of gold jewelry which had previously been imported from Thailand and then re-exported for repairs under warranty. The broker classifies the repaired jewelry in 9802.00.4040 with a secondary classification of 7113.19.5080.
Due to printing error by U.S. ITC A09
3. What is the TOTAL AMOUNT DUE for a shipment of merchandise that arrives by vessel in Portland, OR from China, is classified under 9405.20.8010 with an ad valorem duty rate of 3.9%, has an entered value of $7,993.00, and is filed non-ABI by a Customs broker?
E. $ 349.72 24.23(b)(1)(i), (ii); 24.24(a) A06
4. The duty due on Japanese bovine leather classified as 4107.19.6010 and valued at $25,000 is _____.
E. $11,250 HTS 4107.19.6010; Ch. 99, Subchapter III, U.S. Note 3 A08
39. A broker must provide written notification to CBP within _____ calendar days after any new employee has been employed by the broker for _____ consecutive days.
E. 10 / 30 111.28(b)(1)(ii) A07
10. A broker has _____ days from the date of reject to resubmit a summary that is rejected for failure to post bond/cash for merchandise subject to antidumping and/or countervailing duty cases.
E. 10 working Directive 3550-067 A09
30. What is the RATE OF DUTY for fresh shallots imported from France?
E. 100% 0703.10.4000 and 9903.02.31 A06
61. The bond amount for professional equipment entered temporarily under HTSUS 9813.00.50 is _____.
E. 110% of the estimated duties including fees 10.31(f) A06
8. For purposes of verifying the country of origin, textiles and textile products are deemed conditionally released during the _____ days following the date of release.
E. 180 141.113(b) A08
38. What is the classification of chocolate coated peanuts from Canada? The quantity of chocolate will range from a minimum of 20% to a maximum of 50% of the finished product. The composition of the roasted peanuts is 98% peanuts, 1% sucrose, and 1% vegetable oil; while the chocolate consists of 45% sugar, 24% milk powder, 17% cocoa mass, 13% cocoa butter, and up to 1% lecithin, vanillin and salt. The raw peanuts will be sourced in Argentina, China, Mexico, and Nicaragua. Refineries in the U.S. or Canada will supply the vegetable oil and the sugar will be from Canadian origin. The chocolate will be made in the U.S.; also the chocolate liquor used is from the U.S.
E. 1806.90.9011 HTS Ch. 18 (eo nominee) A10
32. What is the CLASSIFICATION for dried potato flakes? They are composed of dried potato flakes, sodium acid pyrophosphate (a preservative), sodium bisulfite (a preservative), monoglycerides (an anti-sticking agent), citric acid (an antioxidant), and butylated hydroxyanisole (an antioxidant and preservative).
E. 2005.20.0070 Ch. 20 eo nominae; Ch. 7 Note 3(c); Ch. 11 Note 1(d) A06
SEE THE QUESTIORNS.... 28. What is the CLASSIFICATION for this merchandise?
E. 2008.11.1500 / 9904.20.10 Ch. 20 eo nominae; HTS General Note 15; Ch. 20 Additional U.S. Note 5 A06
23. What is the CLASSIFICATION for peaches preserved in syrup, packed in retail containers each holding less than 1.4 kg, and entered on July 31?
E. 2008.70.2020 Ch. 20 eo nominae; Ch. 20 Note A06
28. What is the classification heading for the following product described as a "non-standardized cheese sauce mix" in a powder form? The product consists of whey protein concentrate powder, blended condensed skim milk powder, condensed buttermilk powder, sweet whey, curd cheese, cheddar cheese, sodium, citric acid, color mix and lactic acid. The powder is mixed with butter and milk to make the sauce although the product is palatable solely with the addition of milk.
E. 2103 HTS Heading 2103; GRI 1 A09
22. What is the CLASSIFICATION for papaya nectar that consists of water, more than 35% papaya pulp concentrate, sugar, citric acid, guar gum, color and ascorbic acid, and is in 12 oz. cans for retail sale and immediate consumption?
E. 2202.90.9090 Ch. 22 eo nominae A06
32. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a plastic waterbed mattress?
E. 3926.90.7700 Chapter 39 eo nomine A07
30. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a truckload of 2"x4"x8' lumber from Canada that consists of 50% hemlock boards and 50% fir boards? The boards are commingled with each other in the bundles. The lumber is stud grade, square cut, finished on all four sides and not treated.
E. 4407.10.0165 Chapter 44; GRI 3(c) A07
68. Payments received by the broker from a client for duty, tax, or other debt or obligation owing to the Government after the due date must be transmitted to the Government within _____.
E. 5 working days from receipt by the broker 111.29(a) A08
69. When no extension of the period is authorized, merchandise cannot remain in a bonded warehouse longer than _____ from the date of importation.
E. 5 years 144.5 A09
41. For a broker facility where there is in excess of _____ employees, a security identification system must be in place for positive identification and access control purposes, under which company management or security personnel will maintain and adequately control the issuance and return of employee photo identification badges, or equivalent control.
E. 50 C-TPAT), Physical Access Controls, Employees A08
76. A CBP Form _____ must be submitted to CBP to reactivate an Importer of Record number that has not been used for 1 year and has no outstanding transactions associated with it.
E. 5106 24.5(e) A07
28. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a woman's 82% silk, 13% polyester, 5% spandex knit tank top?
E. 6109.90.4020 Chapter 61 eo nomine A07
21. What is the correct classification of a woman's knit sweater constructed from 50% acrylic (man-made)/50% wool fabric that measures 11 stitches per two centimeters counted in the horizontal direction?
E. 6110.30.1560 HTS Chapter 61, Statistical Note 3; Section XI, Note 2(A) A09
31. What is the CLASSIFICATION of a ladies 100% polyester knit pullover with long sleeves, ribbed knitted bottom and a crew neck? The stitch count is 8 stitches per 2 centimeters in the horizontal direction.
E. 6110.30.3020 HTS Chapter 61, Statistical Note 3 A08
30. What is the CLASSIFICATION of a pair of ladies running shoes, not covering the ankle, with a bovine leather upper and an outer sole of rubber, valued at $9.50 per pair?
E. 6403.99.9031 HTS Chapter 62 Subheading Note 1 A08
25. What is the CLASSIFICATION of a 16 inch by 16 inch granite floor tile? The tile is polished on one side and is 5/8 inch thick.
E. 6802.93.0025 HTS Chapter 68 eo nominee A08
78. Each transfer of merchandise from a Foreign Trade Zone to the Customs territory for transportation to and exportation from a different port, will be made under an entry for transportation and exportation using CBP Form _____.
E. 7512 146.67(c) A09
25. What is the CLASSIFICATION for red steel livestock identification ear tags engraved with numbers?
E. 8310 GRI 1; Section XXII, Subchapter XVII, Note 2(s) A07
31. What is the classification of an electric motor valued at $50.00 and is used solely to start internal combustion engines?
E. 8511.40.0000 HTS 8511.40.0000 eo nominee A09
34. The CLASSIFICATION for a leather-upholstered seat for an aircraft is _____.
E. 9401.10.4000 Ch. 94 eo nominae A06
33. What is the CLASSIFICATION for low-powered, handheld transceivers ("walkie-talkies") manufactured for children? The walkie-talkies are designed to look like miniature CB radios. They are sold in pairs, made of brightly colored plastic, and have flexible antennas, a send button, a Morse-code button, a volume control, and a plastic belt clip. Included are two matching hands-free headsets that fit over the ear, an earphone and a short boom microphone. The walkie-talkies operate on a frequency of 49.82 to 48.90 megahertz (MHz) and have a range of about 200 feet. The blister package indicates a "retail value" of $10.00 for the set and states that the walkie-talkies are "For use by children ages 4 and up."
E. 9503.70.0000 Ch. 95 eo nominae; Section XVI Note 1(p) A06
26. What is the classification for French King Louis XIV's personal writing desk made in 1710 of cherry wood?
E. 9706.00.0040 HTS 9706.00.0040 eo nominee A09
36. What is the CLASSIFICATION for an automobile imported for personal transportation by or for any person arriving into the United States who is NOT a returning resident?
E. 9804.00.35 Ch. 98 eo nominae A06
43. Most types of articles imported under a Temporary Importation Under Bond (TIB) have one year from the date of importation to be exported or destroyed; moreover, the one year time frame may be extended up to two times for a total of three years fro the date of importation. This time frame does not apply to articles that are imported under HTS _____.
E. 9813.00.75 HTS Ch. 98, Subchapter XIII, U.S. Note 1(a) A10
41. Articles sewn or otherwise assembled in a designated beneficiary Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership country with thread formed in the United States from fabrics wholly formed in the United States. The articles are cut in one or more such countries from yarns wholly formed in the United States, or from components knit to shape in the United States from yarns wholly formed in the United States, or both including fabrics not formed from yarns if such fabrics are classifiable under heading 5602 or 5603 of the tariff schedule and are wholly formed in the United States. What is the classification for these articles?
E. 9820.11.06 GRI 1 A11
1.Which of the below-identified statements concerning Powers of Attorney (POA) is false?
E. A Customs broker does not need to be in possession of a POA where the importer of record is the Department of Justice and the broker is making entry on behalf of the Department of Justice 141.32 A10
7. What is the correct declaration used on a Temporary Importation Under Bond (TIB) entry?
E. A declaration that the articles are not to be put to any other use and that they are not imported for sale or sale on approval 10.31(a)(3)(iii) A08
1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a blanket Toxic Substances Control Act certification?
E. An approved blanket certification is valid for two years. 12.121(a) A09
12. Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. is an express consignment operator who is also a licensed person and only permitted within the Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Districts of Dallas, Houston, and El Paso. Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. intends to make entry for its customer, West Texas Drilling, of a shipment from Mexico subject to an antidumping duty order at the Port of Laredo. Using the aforementioned narrative, Which of the following is the CORRECT way to advise the broker?
E. As the licensed broker, Quick Freight Logistics, Inc. may not file a CBP Form 3461 within the District limits of Laredo 111.19 A11
68. The preferred method of payment for users of statement processing is by _____.
E. Automated clearinghouse 24.1(a)(8) A06
65. Company A imported shoes from Italy on November 12, 2009. Company A sells the shoes to Company B on November 25, 2009. Company B exports the shoes to Germany. In order for Company A to claim drawback on the imported shoes, they must obtain a _______.
E. Certification from the exporter waving the right to drawback 191.33(a)(2) A11
17. When imported merchandise exceeds a tariff-rate quota, the importer may NOT:
E. Commingle the merchandise and classification with non-quota class goods 132.5 A06
67. Which of the following is NOT required on a commercial invoice?
E. Date of importation 141.86 and 142.6(a) A08
70. What can be done with articles that are forfeited for violation of copyright laws?
E. Destroy the articles 133.52(b) A07
73. East West Trading Company is a large incorporated importer of automotive parts for use by its parent company, NED, Inc., also located in the U.S. in the assembly of automobiles. East West Trading Company arranges for all of the imports for NED, Inc. All of the below-identified statements are correct EXCEPT."
E. East West Trading Company may obtain an entry filer code and file an entry summary wherein NED, Inc. is identified as the importer of record. 111.1 A10
60. With respect to the conversion of foreign currency, for the currency of certain foreign countries, there will be published in the Customs Bulletin, for the quarter beginning January 1, and for each quarter thereafter, the rate or rates first certified by the _____ for such foreign currency for a day in that quarter.
E. Federal Reserve Bank of New York 159.34 A11
13. A shipment of tuna valued at $15,000 is subject to tariff-rate quota restrictions. At the time of importation a high tariff rate is in effect, but a lower rate is expected later. To take advantage of the lower rate, the filer can _____.
E. File a warehouse entry type 21 and, when the lower rate becomes effective, withdraw the merchandise with a warehouse withdrawal type 32 and pay the lower duty rate 132.5(c) A06
68. What does ATA Carnets NOT cover?
E. Giveaways 114.22 A09
80. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a textile or apparel product?
E. Hair-nets classified under HTS 6505.10.0000 102.21(b)(5) A08
13. A shipment valued at $175 arrives by a commercial carrier. The shipment qualifies for informal entry and meets the requirements of 19 CFR 10.151 and 10.152. The bill of lading representing the entry must contain all of the following EXCEPT:
E. Harmonized tariff number. 142.23(j) A10
8. Which is NOT a requirement for a broker to participate in Remote Location Filing?
E. Having a certificate to obtain a distribution of dumping and subsidy offsets for the entry he intends to file using Remote Location Filing RLF Eligibility Requirements A07
75. A broker in possession of a single district permit issued from Laredo attempts to remotely file (i.e., remote location filing) a consumption entry at the Port of Gary, Indiana. Upon review of the documentation, CBP determines and informs the broker that the merchandise is subject to and included within the scope an antidumping duty order. The broker may ONLY do which of the below-identified action.
E. If authorized to do so by the grantor of the power of attorney, the broker may obtain the services of another broker permitted within the district of Chicago and whose place of business is located at the port of Davenport, Iowa to make entry on behalf of the importer of record. Remote Location Filing Eligibility Requirements A10
6. What type of action is appropriate for transport of merchandise in-bond from the port of Newark, NJ to Los Angeles, CA?
E. Immediate Transportation 18.1 A08
5.A shipment of fresh cheddar cheese, classified under HTS 0406.10.2400, arrives in Los Angeles on December 28, 2010. An immediate transportation entry was accepted at Los Angeles on December 29, 2010. The merchandise arrives at Dallas/Ft. Worth on December 31, 2010. The entry is filed in Dallas/Ft. Worth, without entry summary, on December 31, 2010, and no entry date is requested on the submitted entry documentation. Customs and Border Protection authorized the release of the merchandise on January 3, 2011. The entry summary is submitted in proper form, with duties attached, on January 10, 2011. What is the date of entry?
E. January 10, 2011 132.1, 141.68(d), Chptr.4 A11
20. A shipment of merchandise arrives within the Customs territory of the U.S. on December 22, and is unloaded on December 23. The broker advises the client to take advantage of the immediate delivery procedures to secure the lower duty rate which will be effective January 1. The client agrees, and the merchandise is released under a special permit for immediate delivery on December 28. An entry summary is filed on January 3, with estimated duties attached. What is the date of entry for this shipment?
E. January 3 141.68(c) A10
5. What is the date of exportation for the following? Oil was produced in Algeria on June 4 and was shipped via pipeline to a storage facility in Morocco on June 6. On June 20, the owners of the oil found a buyer in Houston Texas. On June 28 the oil was loaded onto a U.S. bound tanker and the ship set sail from Casablanca on June 30.
E. June 30 152.1(c); HTS General Statistical Note 1(b)(i) A09
9. A U.S. resident importer and manufacturer sends electrical conduit for processing to Mexico with the intention to return the conduit to the U.S. for entry under HTSUS subheading 9802.00.60. It is determined that additional proof of exportation is required to prove actual exportation of the articles from the U.S. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable document?
E. Manufacturers affidavit 10.9(b) A10
52. Customs and Border Protection has issued a Notice of Detention on a shipment of potato chips suspect of being subject to Gray Market Lever-Rule protection. Goods subject to Lever-Rule protection are goods physically and materially different from the goods authorized by the U.S. trademark for importation. The potato chips have been approved entry by all applicable other government agencies. This means the goods:
E. May be brought into compliance and allowed entry if a label informing the ultimate purchaser that the goods are physically and materially different and its importation is not authorized by the U.S. trademark holder 133.23(d)(3), 133.25 and 133.23(b) A11
56. What is the correct symbol to use when claiming duty free preference under the US-CAFTA-DR for merchandise originating in the Dominican Republic?
E. P or P+ HTS General Note 3(c)(i) and General Note 29 A08
15. Which of the following U.S. imports does NOT require country of origin marking?
E. Plastic scrap 134.33 A07
51. Which of the following is within the Customs territory of the United States?
E. Puerto Rico 101.1 A11
37. House slippers that qualify as a product of Costa Rica are imported into the U.S. under HTSUS # 6403.99.9005. The appropriate Special Program Indicator (SPI) would be _____; which would entitle the importer to the most favorable duty rate of _____.
E. R / free General Note 17 A07
52. Once merchandise is admitted into a foreign trade zone under privileged foreign status the status is binding EXCEPT for which one of the following?
E. Recoverable waste 146.41(e) & 146.42(b) A10
49. Which is NOT a member of the Association of South East Asian Nations?
E. Taiwan General Note 4(a) A07
68. Which of the following is NOT specifically established for recordkeeping as related to direct identification manufacturing?
E. That the finished articles on which drawback is claimed were exported or destroyed within 7 years after the importation of the duty-paid merchandise, without having been used in the United States prior to such exportation or destruction 191.26(a)(IV) A11
"62. Which statement is TRUE regarding this shipment of blazers? • Brown cotton fabric woven in US of US yarn • White cotton fabric woven in India of Indian yarn • Visible lining fabric formed and finished in Dominican Republic • Sewing thread formed and finished in Nicaragua • Pocket bag fabric woven and finished in Guatemala of US yarn • Cut and assembled in Honduras into a men's blazer with brown fabric forming the body of the jacket and white fabric forming the sleeves • Blazer shipped from Honduras to US
E. The blazers qualify for Dominican Republic-Central America-United States Free Trade Agreement preference HTS General Note 29(n) A08
7. What date is used when converting foreign currency?
E. The date merchandise is exported 159.32 A06
55. For purposes of a warehouse entry, when packages which are not uniform in contents, quantities, values, or rates of duty are grouped together as one item on an entry summary, which of the following items does NOT have to be included in the specifications list furnished with the entry summary?
E. The date of importation of each class of merchandise. 144.11(d) A10
66. What is the maximum penalty without prior disclosure that can be assessed for gross negligence if there is a loss of duties, taxes and fees?
E. The lesser of the domestic value of the merchandise or four times the loss of duties, taxes, and fees 162.73(a)2)(i) A08
72. Whenever a person does not comply with a CBP summons, the issuing officer may request the appropriate U.S. Attorney to seek an order requiring compliance from the ____.
E. U.S. District Court for the district in which the person resides or is doing business 163.9 A08
55.All of the following are "records" EXCEPT _____. A. Power of Attorney CBP Form 5291 B. Certificate of Eligibility C. End Use Certificate D. Re-melting Certificate E. Universal Waiver Certificate
E. Universal Waiver Certificate 163.1 A07
38. What is the proper status for merchandise entered for warehousing and transferred to a foreign trade zone for exportation?
E. Zone-restricted 146.44(d) A08
79. Merchandise subject to _____ requirements does NOT require a single entry bond in an amount which is not less than 3 x total entered value?
E. antidumping/countervailing duty Directive 3510-005 A09
55. When CBP notifies a principal of a claim for liquidated damages, the surety or sureties involved will be notified _____.
E. at the same time as the initial notification to the principal 172.1(a) A08
44. To qualify for preferential tariff treatment under the Caribbean Basin Trade Partnership Act for textile goods, an imported article must NOT _____.
E. be an apparel article in Chapter 42, 52 or 54 10.222 A09
42. When hiring a new employee, the broker must submit all the following information to CBP except the employee's _____.
E. misdemeanor arrest record 111.28(b)(1)(i) and (ii) A07
16. The importer may substitute an entry for a warehouse entry at any time within _____ from the date of importation provided that the merchandise _____.
E. one year / has remained in continuous CBP custody 143.16 A07
64. When using statement processing which one of the following alternatives is correct?
E. quota-class merchandise must use only ACH payment, not cash or checks 24.25 A09
11. The Interim (a)(1)(A) List in the Appendix to Part 163 of Title 19 of the CFR consists of a listing of _____.
E. records required for entry of merchandise 163 Appendix A08
55. The liquidated damages amount for failing to redeliver restricted or prohibited merchandise that fails to comply with the laws or regulations governing admission into the U.S. is _____.
E. three times the value of the merchandise or any amount as may be authorized by law or regulation 113.62 A09
21. To comply with manufacturing drawback (direct identification and substitution), the use of domestic merchandise taken in exchange for imported merchandise of the same kind and quality shall be treated as use of the imported merchandise if no certificate of delivery is issue covering the transfer of the imported merchandise. This provision is known as a/an _____?
E. tradeoff 191.11(a) A10
67. The recordation of a copyright shall remain in effect for _____ year(s) unless the copyright ownership expires before that time.
E. twenty 133.34(b) A09
49. Which statement is INCORRECT for the identification of goods which are "wholly obtained or produced" under the NAFTA? A good originates in the territory of a NAFTA country where the good is _____."
E. used goods collected in the territory of one or more of the NAFTA countries 181 Appendix , Part II, Section 4 (1) A09
74. Bills resulting from dishonored checks or dishonored ACH transactions are due _____.
E. within 15 days of the date of issuance of the bill 24.3(e) A07
6.Which entry type code is excepted from liquidation?
E.23 159.2 A11
37. What is the CLASSIFICATION for a 17" diagonal TFT flat panel LCD computer monitor with built-in speakers, a microphone, and multimedia inputs for audio, personal computer (analog RGB), composite video (NTSC) and S-video?
E.8528.21.7001 Ch. 85 eo nominae A06
11.A domestic express consignment courier, who is an unlicensed person and possesses no financial interest of the imported merchandise, may engage in which of the following role and/or responsibility?
E.Obtain a valid power of attorney from an importer CD 3550-079A A11
