Biology 2107 Final Exam (Aka Death)

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(7.5) Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high energy foods?

they have a lot of electrons associated with hydrogen

(2.13) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19. How many electrons are needed to complete the valence shell of a fluorine atom?

1

(12-15) Huntington's disease is a dominant condition with late age of onset in humans. If one parent has the disease (and is heterozygous for the condition), what is the probability that his or her child will have the disease?

1/2

(13.9) If nondisjunction occurs in meiosis II during gametogensis, what will be the result at the completion of meisos?

1/4 of the gametes will be n + 1, one will be n - 1 and two will be n

(10.1-10) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?

10

(3.3) How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers long?

10

(12-11) In snapdragons, heterozygotes for one of the genes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers waht proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers?

100%

(13.3) Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes?

100%

(14.3) Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucloetides in this sample will be thymine?

12%

(2.15) Which of the following pairs has the most similar chemical properties?

12C & 14C

(10.1-11) If a cell has 8 replicated chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase?

16

(11-29) If a 2n cell has four chromosome pairs, how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible in gametes after meiosis?

16

(2.12) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorous atom?

16

(11-11) In a typical human body cell, how many sex chromosomes are there?

2

(2.14) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen?

2

(2.3-3) How many structural isomers are possible for a substance having the molecular formula C4H10?

2

(18.4) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events, under the influence of natural selection?

2--> 4--> 1-->3

(10.1-9) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokenisis?

20

(11-24) A 2n cell from an organism has 40 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be in a haploid gamete from this organism?

20

(10.2-11) In a typical human gamete, how many chromosomes are there?

23

(11-31) In a human cell that is haploid, how many chromosomes are there? How many autosomes , and how many are sex chromosomes?

23 chromosomes: 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome

(13.4) In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A recessive lethal allele that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?

2:1 male to female

(11-30) If a diploid cell has 12 chromosome pairs, how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible in gametes after meisosis?

2^12

(14.13) If one strand of DNA is 5' CGGTAC 3', the corresponding strand would be ?

3' GCCATG 5'

(3.38) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence

3'TAACGT5'

(3.39) If a DNA sample were composed of 20% thymine, what would be the percentage of cytosine?

30%

(12-12) Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?

4

(11-25) If a eukaryotic cell has 20 chromosomes and it undergoes meiosis, how many cells will result, and how many chromosomes will they contain?

4 cells, each with 10 chromosomes

(18.27) Modern geologists estimate that the age of the earth is about

4.5 billion years

(10.1-8) A cell ontaining 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes?

46

(10.2-12) In a typical human body cell, how many chromosomes are there?

46

(2.11) How many electrons does phosphorous have in its valence shell?

5

(14.9) At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' CCTAGGCTGCAATCC 5'. An RNa primer is formed starting at the T (middle T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence?

5' ACGUUAGG 3'

(12-5) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

50%

(10.1-15) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 4 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have _________ picograms at the end of S phase and ________ picograms at the end of G2

8 : 8

(2.3-7) Which is a hydroxyl functional group?

A

(2.3-6) Which is the best description of a carbonyl group?

A carbon atom joined to an oxygen by a double covalent bond

(10.2-9) In a eukaryotic cell that is undergoing cell division, what will become a new chromosome?

A chromatid

(2.30) Which of the following statements best describes a compound?

A compound contains two or more different elements in a fixed ratio

(10.2-13) Which type of eukaryotic cell contains two types of each chromosome?

A diploid cell

(11-14) Which type of eukaryotic cell contains two types of each chromosome?

A diploid cell

(13.11) Women with Turner syndrome have a genotype characterized as which of the following?

A karyotype of 45, X

(10.1-12) The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re-forming at oppossite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this?

A plant cell undergoing cytokinesis

(4.29) Resolution is

Ability of an optical instrument to show two close objects as separate

(5.36) The cytoplasm of a certain cell, such a neuron, already has a high concentration of K+ ions. How can K+ ions continue to enter the cell?

Active transport

(5.40) Which of the following requires adenosine triphosphate?

Active transport

(14.2) Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Phase with labeled proteins or DNA was allowed to infect bacteria. It was shown that the DNA, but not the protein, entered the bacterial cells, and was therfore concluded to be the genetic material.

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

(12-10) Mendel's law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the following events of Meiosis I?

Alignment of tetrads at the cell's equator

(4.3) All of the following are components of the modern cell theory except

All cells are eukaryotic

(1) Which of the following statements about the properties of living things is false?

All living things can move from one place to another

(4.9) The Golgi Apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity?

All of the following correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function

(3.26) Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded proteins?

Alzheimer's and Parkinson's

(10.1-6) Which term desribes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?

Anaphase

(12-9) Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division?

Anaphase I of Meiosis

(11-4) Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.

Anaphase II

(4.10) The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that

Ar least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope

(14.1) What does transformation involve in bacteria?

Assimilation of external DNA into a cell

(2.3-9) Which is a carbonyl functional group?

B

(1) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are they?

Bacteria and Archaea

(10.2-4) A bacterial cell splits into two new cells by a process called:

Binary fission

(6.5) Sucrose is a disaccharide, composed of the monosaccharides glucose and fructose. The hydrolysis of sucrose by the the enzyme sucrase results in?

Breaking the bond between glucose and fructose and forming new bonds from the atoms of water.

(2.3-11) Which is a carboxyl functional group?

C double bonded to O and single bonded to -OH (C)

(3.11) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

C18H32O16

(5.9) An animal cell lacking glycolipids on the external surface of its plama membrane would likely be imparied in which function?

Cell-cell recognition

(10.2-8) The site on a chromosome where microtubules attach during cell division is the:

Centromere

(11-21) During meiosis, maternal and paternal chromosomes can exchane genetic material at sites called:

Chiasmata

(4.22) Grana, Thykaloids, and Stroma are all components found in

Chloroplasts

(4.21) Which pair of organelles is responsible for supplying energy to eukaryotic cells?

Chloroplasts and mitochondria

(4.28) Which of the following relationships is false

Chloroplasts: chief site of lipid synthesis

(13.12) In order for chromosomes to undergo inversion or translocation, which of the following is required?

Chromosome breakage and rejoining

(4.35) Cilia differ from flagella in that

Cilia are typically more numerous and shorter than flagella

(5.42) The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it?

Contributes to the membrane potential

(2.7) What is the difference b/w covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons b/w atoms, and ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction b/w atoms

(13.8) What is the mechanism for the production of genetic recombinants?

Crossing over and independent assortment

(2.3-8) Which is an amino functional group?

D

(1) Living things inherit information from their parents encoded in:

DNA

(3.40) Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences b/w DNA and RNA?

DNA encodes hereditary information, whereas RNA does not; the bases in DNA form base-paired duplexes, whereas the bases in RNA do not; and DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides

(14.12) A new (daughter) DNA strand elongates only in the 5' to 3' direction because?

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3; end of the template

(14.15) In DNA replication, which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' ---> 3' direction?

DNA poymerase

(3.28) Which of the following best describes the flow information in eukaryotic cells?

DNA-->RNA-->Proteins

(6.2) Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell?

Dehydration reactions

(1) Which of the following best represents an example of technology?

Developing a test for genetic diseases based on knowledge about DNA

(1) Which of the following statements about genetics is true?

Differences among organisms reflect differences in their DNA

(2.3-5) Research indicates that Albuterol, a drug used to relax bronchial muscles, improving airflow and thus offering relief from asthma, consists only of one enantiomer, the R-form. Why is it important for this drug to consist of only one enantiomeric form, rather than a mixture of enanatiomers?

Different enantiomers may have different or opposite physiological effects

(5.23) Recognition proteins are most important for?

Distinguishing foreign cells from "self" cells

(5.41) Ions diffuse across membranes through specific ion channels:

Down their electrochemical gradients

(10.2-1) During cell division, all of the following typically occur EXCEPT:

Each daughter cell receives half of the hereditary information in the parent cell

(1) Which of the following is an example of how living things take in and use energy?

Eating a meal

(2.23) Which of the following is true of chemical bonds?

Electrons can be shared or completely transferred

(4.37) Most animal cells are

Embedded in an extracellular matrix

(6.14) What term is used to describe the transfer of energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic pathways?

Energy Coupling

(2.8) Which of the following best describes chemical equilibrium?

Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products

(4.4) Phospholipids are

Found in membrane cells

(11-19) How many daughter cells are produced from each parent cell during meiosis?

Four

(1) Which of the following is a kingdom within the domain Eukarya?

Fungi

(10.1-17) a major "restriction point" occurs here:

G1

(10.1-14) Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle was the nucleus with 6 picograms of DNA?

G2

(4.14) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted?

Golgi apparatus

(11-16) Sexual reproduction allows for:

Greater genetic diversity in offspring, compared to asexual reproduction

(2-2.8) Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong acid?

HCl

(12-4) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail lenth (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

HT

(11-17) Which of the following occurs during meiosis?

Haploid nuclei with unpaired chromosomes are produced from diploid parent nuclei with paired chromosomes

(14.18) Which of the following statements describes chromatin?

Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.

(11-5) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of Meisos I?

Homologous chromosomes are separated

(11-27) In Metaphase I ________ are aligned along the metaphase plate, and in Metaphase II _______ are aligned along the metaphase plate.

Homologous chromosomes; pairs of sister chromatids

(2.2-6) Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?

Hydrogen bonds

(5.12) Chloride ion channels are membrane structures that include which of the following?

Hydrophilic proteins

(5.32) Solutions that cause water to enter the cells by osmosis are called?

Hypotonic

(3.41) Suppose you have discovered a new virus and have isolated its nucleic acids. What feature could you look for to determine whether the nucleic acids of this virus are RNA or DNA?

If it is RNA, it will contain ribose

(1) Which of the following best describes the logic of hypothesis based science?

If my hypothesis is supported, I can expect certain test results

(13.1) A man with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) is expected to have any of the following EXCEPT?

Increased testosterone

(11-28) What process produces genetic diversity through random distribution of chromosomes?

Independent assortment

(5.10) Which of these are attached to the extracellular matrix?

Integrins

(2.16) Trace elements are those required by an organism on only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other organisms such as bacteria or plants?

Iodine

(10.2-3) Each of your body cells:

Is genetically identical to all others

(5.33) Supposed you have two glucose solutions separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If there is a concentration gradient of glucose across the membrane, then one of the solutions cannot be?

Isotonic

(14.17) Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome?

It consists of a single linear molecule of double stranded DNA plus proteins

(14.16) What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication?

It joins Okazaki fragments together

(11-7) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following?

Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes

(10.2-10) A photograph of all the stained, prepared chromosomes in a eukaryotic cell is referred to as a:

Karyogram or karyotype

(2.2-4) Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?

Kinetic energy in the drink decreases

(1) Which of these is reflective of the hierarchal organization of life from most to least inclusive?

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

(18.3) In the mid-1900s, the Soviet geneticist Lysenko believed that his winter wheat plants, exposed to ever -colder temperatures, could will themselves to change to give rise to ever more cold-tolerant winter wheat. Lysenko's attempts in his regard were most in agreement with the ideas of

Lamarck

(11-1) When during mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?

Late prophase or metaphase

(4.1) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that

Light microscopy allows one to view dynamic process in living cells

(13.2) Males are most often affected by sex-linked traits than females because?

Males are hemizygous for the X chromosome

(11-18) In eukaryotes, gametes are produced by:

Meiosis

(11-22) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis?

Meiosis produces haploid cells whereas mitosis produces diploid cells

(10.1-5) Which is the longest of the mitotic stages?

Metaphase

(11-2) Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle: alignment determines independent assortment.

Metaphase I

(4.23) Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA include

Mitochondria and Chloroplasts

(4.18) Which is one of the main energy transformers of cells?

Mitochondrion

(4.25) Of the following, which cell structure would most likely be visible with a light microscope that has been manufactured to be the maximum resolving power?

Mitochondrion

(4.26) Flagellated cells can

Move the cell through fluid

(2.2-9) Which of the following ionizes completely in solution is considered to be a strong base (alkali)?

NaOH

(18.18) The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have fairly similar skeletal structures, whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions. However, the genetic data suggest that all three kinds of organisms diverged from a common ancestor at about the same time. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these data?

Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in significant changes to whale forelimb anatomy compared to humans or bats?

(14.7) In E. Coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?

No replication fork will be formed

(1) The main difference between an autotroph and heterotroph is how they:

Obtain energy

(5.17) In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initally project to the outside of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis?

On the side surface of the vesicle

(10.2-5) The genetic material in bacteria consists of:

One circular DNA molecule and several small plastids

(11-32) What is an autosome?

One of the non-sex chromosomes

(2.3-12) Which is an acidic group that can dissociate and release the H+ into a solution?

Phosphate Group

(1) In which kingdom does a multicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic organism belong?

Plantae

Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, pancreas, digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this?

Pleiotropy

(18.16) Which of the following is NOT an observation of inference on which natural selection is based?

Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring

(11-23) Independent assortment of chromosomes at Metaphase I results in an increase in the number of:

Possible combination of characteristics in gametes

(14.10) Which of the following synthesizes short segments of RNA?

Primase

(10.2-6) How do prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes differ?

Prokaryotic chromosomes are not contained in a membrane-bound organelle

(14.6) Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of these reasons?

Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single orgin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

(10.1-3)Which term describes two centrosomes arranged at opposite poles of the cell?

Prometaphase

(10.1-4) Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

Prophase

(10.1-7) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

Prophase

(11-3) Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur.

Prophase I

(5.24) Cell membranes do all of the following EXCEPT?

Provide shape and structure to a cell

(14.4) Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter?

Purines pair with pyrimidines

(5.39) Cells use exocytosis to?

Release substances from the cell

(11-13) Meiotic cell division occurs in the ________ and produces ________

Reproductive organs; gametes

(1) Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?

Requires genetic variation Results in "descent with modification" Involves differential reproductive success

(4.12) Which of the following is associated with rough ER?

Ribosomes

(2.3-1) Which of the following people used the apparatus below the study formation of organic compounds?

S. Miller

(13.5) A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?

Somatic cells of a female only

(18.17) Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification?

South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of south America than to the temperate plants of Europe

(2.3-4) Shown above are the structures of glucose and fructose. These two molecules are?

Structural Isomers

(2.3-10) Which is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules?

Sulfhydrl Group

(12-2) Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular physical trait. This suggests:

That the parents were both heterozygous for one trait.

(14.14) What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?

The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand

(10.2-2) The repeating sequence of somatic cells that divide, grow, and divide again is called:

The cell cycle

(13.6) Which of the following statements is true?

The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.

(10.1-13) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursur, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, taxil must affect:

The fibers of the mitotic spindle

(12-3) Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have which of the following properties?

The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment

(14.11) The leading and the lagging strand differ in that:

The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

(2.1) The nucleus of a nitrogen atom contains 7 neutrons and 7 protons. Which of the following is a correct statement concerning nitrogen?

The nitrogen atom has a mass of 7 grams and an atomic number of 14

(14.8) What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication?

The nucleotide sequence of the template strand

(2.17) Knowing just the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?

The number of protons plus neutrons in the element

(14.5) Mendel and Morgan did not know about the structure of DNA; however, which of the following did their contributions was (were) necessary to Watson and Crick?

The particulate nature of the hereditary material

(1) Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?

The plant's height is 17 cm

(5.28) What happens when diffusion moves across the plasma membrane?

The process is relatively slow and is driven by concentration gradients

(11-6) Sister chromatids are separated from each other.

The statement is true for Mitosis and Meiosis II

(11-26) If the chromosome number were not halved when gametes are produced, what would happen?

The sygote would have double the number of chromosomes as the parents

(5.20) Phospholipds spontaneously form a bilayer in an aqueous solution. Why do the heads of the phospholipids point out and the tails point toward one another?

The tails are repelled by the aqueous environment.

(13.7) How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?

The two genes are linked

(6.13) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because?

Their enzymes have higher optimal temperatures.

(2.19) What is it about carbon-12, carbon-13, and carbon-14 that makes them all carbon?

They all have the number of protons that is a characteristic of carbon

(3.32) Which of the following statements about enzymes if FALSE?

They are monomers used to build proteins

(6.3) Which of the following is true concerning catabolic pathways?

They are usually coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in the form of ATP.

(10.2-7) What is the function of the histones that are found in a chromosome?

They bind the DNA into a supercoil structure as it condenses

(4.19) Which of the following provides evidence that mitochondria and chloroplasts were once free-living prokaryotic organisms?

They contain their own DNA

(2.3-2) Which of the following best describes the carbon atoms present in all organic molecules?

They were incorporated into organic molecules by plants They were processed into sugars through photosynthesis They are ultimately derived from carbon dioxide

(10.1-16) Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?

To allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangles and breaking.

(12-1) What is the most significant conclusion the Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?

Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of "blending".

(5.25) Which of the following types of membrane proteins are responsible for facilitated diffusion?

Transport proteins

(5.22) What structure in the membrane causes plasma membranes to resist freezing?

Unsaturated fatty acid tails

(4.17) Which of the following is a compartment that often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell?

Vacuole

(4.13) Which of the following "buds off" of the Golgi complex?

Vesicles

(5.31) Imagine an artificial cell made with a selectively permeable membrane that allows water to pass through but does not allow sugar to pass. If you fill this cell with a 1% sugar solution and then you place the cell in a 2% sugar solution, what happens?

Water leaves the cell

(1) Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?

Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due to the variable being tested or to some other factor

(11-12) The sex-determining chromosomes of a human male are the ___ and ___:

X and Y

(11-20) When gametes fuse during fertilization, a(n) ________ is produced.

Zygote

(1) All of the organisms on our GHC campus make up

a community

(2.6) Which of the following is considered to be a strong molecular interaction?

a covalent bond

(3.23) The hydrogenation of vegetable oil results in

a decrease in the number of double bonds between the carbon atoms

(2.2-2) The slight negative charge at one end of a water is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?

a hydrogen bond

(3.20) What is a triglyceride?

a lipid made of one glycerol and three fatty acids

(3.37) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?

a nitrogenous, a phosphate, and a pentose sugar

(1) What is a hypothesis?

a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable

(2.2-5) Water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the

absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form

(18.24) The emergence of many diverse species in an area from a common ancestor is called

adaptive radiation

(3.17) An oil may be converted into a substance that is solid at room temperature by

adding hydrogens, decreasing the number of double bonds in the molecules

(18.12) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on earth?

all organisms use essentially the same genetic code

(18.22) Uplift and formation of a mountain range divides a freshwater snail species into two isolated populations. Erosion eventually lowers the mountain range and brings the two populations together again, but when they mate, the resulting hybrids all produce sterile young. This scenario is an example of

allopatric speciation

(1) In science, a theory is

an explanation of an idea that is broad in scope and supported by a very large body of evidence

(18.25) Which of the following would tend to promote adaptive radiation?

an organism colonizes an isolated area that is habitable but relatively devoid of life

(2.4) Atoms whose outer electron shells contain 8 electrons tend to

be stable and chemically nonreactive, or inert

(18.10) Structures as different human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones because these bones developed from similar embryonic tissues. How do biologists interpret these similarities?

by identifying the bones as being homologous structures by proposing that humans, bats, and dolphins share a common ancestor somewhere in their past

(2.27) Radioactive isotopes

can be used to diagnose disease and date fossils

(3.9) In many cases, carbohydrates have the following ratio of elements

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of 1:2:1

(3.7) The fiber in your diet is actually

cellulose

(3.8) An example of a structural polysaccharide is

chitin

(2.18) Chlorine has an atomic number of 17, and argon has an atomic number of 18. From this information alone, you can predict that

chlorine is more chemically reactive than argon

(3.31) All of the following contain amino acids except

cholesterol

(18.7) The role that humans play in artificial selection is to

choose which organisms breed, and which do not

(2.2-13) If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the

concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than what it was a pH 5

(18.26) When unrelated organisms living under similar environmental demands evolve superficially similar structures, it is called

convergent evolution

(4.27) What primarily determines the shape of animal cells, which lack cell walls?

cytoskeleton

(3.2) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship b/w dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?

dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers macromolecular synthesis occurs though the removal of water and digestion occurs through the addition of water

(1) The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as

descriptive science

(3.24) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?

different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha (a) carbon

(3.12) Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. Lactose is classified as a

disaccharide

(1) You are looking into a microscope to find a prokaryotic cell. You are looking for a cell that

does not have a nucleus

(3.34) Every protein has a unique shape and function becuase

each protein has a unique sequence amino acids

(2.20) You have a substance and begin a set of experiments in which you break it down into other substances through chemical reactions. After a few successive reactions, you discover a set of products that can't be broken down further, no matter what type of chemical reaction you attempt. These substances are:

elements

(7.10) In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP+ Pi to ATP?

energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase

(12-13) Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether cactuses have spines, Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. The relationship between genes S and N is an example of:

epistasis

(18.2) Which of the following is the most accurate summary of Cuvier's consideration of fossils found in the vicinity of Paris?

extinction of species yes; evolution of species no

(3.18) What features of fats makes them hydrophobic?

fats have non-polar hydrocarbon chains

(7.6) During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence?

food → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen

(3.1) Unique chemical groups that confer special properties to an organic molecule are called

functional groups

(2.2-10) Which of the following solutions has the greatest has greatest concentration of hydrogen ions [H+] ?

gastric juice at pH 2

(1) Evolution is sometimes described as the change from preexisting life-forms to modern-day organisms. What actually changes, in every case of evolution, is the

genetic makeup of a population

(18.5) Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act on that population?

genetic variation among individuals

(3.4) Which of the following is not a polymer?

glucose

(3.13) Glycogen is used to store _____ in the _____ of mammals

glucose; liver

(2.28) Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could

have more neutrons than the usual nitrogen atom

(18.21) Under the biological species concept, a species is a group of organisms that

have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring

(18.19) DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that

humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor

(2.2-3) What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules?

hydrogen bonds

(18.6) If Darwin had been aware of genes, and of their typical mode of transmission to subsequent generations, with which statement would he most likely have been in agreement?

if natural selection can change the frequency of one gene in a population over the course of generations-- then given enough time and enough genes-- natural selection can cause sufficient genetic change to produce new species from exiting ones

(2.29) Electrons move about the nucleus of an atom in the same way that

insects fly around a bright lamp at night

(18.14) A high degree of endimism is most likely in environments that are

isolated and heterogenous (physically varied)

(3.15) (diagram question) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule?

it is a saturated fatty acid

(1) Organelles are:

like tiny organs within cells

(3.16) Which of the following is a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules?

lipids

(7.9) During oxidative phosphorylation, H2O is formed. Where does the oxygen for the synthesis of the water come from?

molecular oxygen (O2)

(1) Which of these is a correct representation of the hierarchy of biological organization from least to most inclusive?

molecule, intestinal cell organelle, intestinal cell, intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism

(3.6) The element nitrogen is present in all of the following except

monosaccharides

(1) Science cannot answer certain moral questions because

moral values differ among individuals

(2.21) As the difference in the electronegativity between atoms forming a chemical bond increases, the:

more polar the molecule

(13.10) If a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase of meiosis I, what will be the chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n)?

n + 1; n + 1; n - 1; n- 1

(2.5) When two atoms are equally electronegative, they will interact to form

non-polar covalent bonds

(2.2-12) Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

non-polar substances that repel water molecules

(3.42) Which of these biological molecules contain genetic information?

nucleic acids

(4.33) A bacterial cell's DNA is found in its

nucleoid reigon

(1) Which answer best describes the sequence of the scientific method?

observation, hypothesis, experiment, conclusion

(2.25) Water is a polar molecule becuase

oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen

(3.22) Which of the following lipids is a major component in cell membranes?

phospholipids

(2.2-1) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by

polar covalent bonds

(3.27) Alerting which of the following levels of structural organization could change the function of a protein?

primary secondary tertiary quaternary

(3.29) Enzymes are

proteins

(3.35) Proteins that are composed of more than one polypeptide chain are said to have

quaternary structure

(7.4) When a molecule of NAD+ gains a hydrogen atom (not a hydrogen ion) the molecule becomes

reduced

(1) Using its antennae, the male moth finds female moths by following a trail of airborne chemicals, called pheromones, upwind from the female producing them. This is an example of how living things

respond to stimuli

(18.20) Speciation, or the formation of new species is

responsible for the diversity of life

(1) Which of the following is true about scientific knowledge?

scientific knowledge is not absolute, because the possibility always exists that new experiments may one day prove it wrong

(3.36) In proteins, alpha helixes and beta pleated sheets are examples of

secondary structure

(3.19) Which of the following substances is a lipid?

steroids

(3.10) In the following chemical reaction, which molecule is the disaccharide? Glucose + fructose--> sucrose + water

sucrose

(1) The concept of evolution is based upon

survival and reproductive success of organisms with adaptive traits

(18.23) Speciation without geographic isolation is called

sympatric speciation

(3.30) At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R-groups) most important?

tertiary

(11-15) During which phase of mitosis does DNA and chromosome replication occur?

the S phase of interphase

(2.2-14) Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?

the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds

(2.10) Which statement is true of all anions?

the atom has more electrons than protons

(2.26) Sodium chloride (NaCl) crystals (table salt) forms as a result of

the attraction of oppositely charged ions for each other

(2.9) The reactivity of an atom arises from

the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell

(1) According to Darwinian theory, which of the following exhibits the greatest fitness for evolutionary success?

the individuals in a population that have the greatest reproductive success

(2.22) The number of atoms coming out of a chemical reaction must equal the number of atoms going into a chemical reaction. This follows the principles of:

the law of conservation of matter

(3.33) The tertiary structure of a polypeptide refers to

the overall three-dimensional structure

(18.13) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar fashion to perform the same function. Which information would best help distinguish between an explanation based on homology versus one based on convergent evolution?

the two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical

(1) Which of these provides evidence of the most common ancestry of life?

the universality of the genetic code

(1) A controlled experiment is one in which

there are at least two study groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment

(18.8) If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a significant cost for maintaining one of more antibiotic-resistance genes, then what should happen in an environment where antibiotics are not present?

these bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes

(3.21) What do wax and testosterone have in common?

they are both lipids

(3.14) All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true except that

they have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids

(2.2-11) Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?

they maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them

(18.9) If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that

they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related organisms

(18.15) (diagram question) If x indicates the fossils of two closely related species, neither of which is extinct, then their remains may be found in how many of these strata?

two strata

(18.11) Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whale have lost their limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses?

under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, the structures that were lost presented greater costs than benefits

(18.1) With what other ideas of his time was Cuvier's theory of catastrophism most in conflict?

uniformitarianism and gradualism

(3.25) The tertiary structure of a protein is the

unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide

(1) All organisms belonging to the kingdom Plantae

use photosynthesis to make the glucose they use as energy

(4.31) As cell size increases, the

volume increases faster than surface area

(2.2-15) Which of the following is hydrophobic material?

wax

(5.37) The gases O2 and CO2 enter or leave a plant cell by?

Simple diffusion

(7.8) Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of three molecules of glucose (C6H12)6) in cellular respiration?

2 ATP *

(4.24) A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from

A plant or an animal

(4.30) A scientist wants to magnify a pollen grain 8,000 times and examine the ridges and pores on its surface. Which one of the following instruments would work the best?

A scanning electron microscope

(5.8)In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein, it would have to be which of the following?

Amphipathic

(4.6) A nucleolus is

An area in the nucleus where ribosomes are made

(4.5) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

An endoplasmic reticulum

(5.34) Imagine that beaker A has a 10% sucrose solution, and beaker B has an 8% sucrose solution. This means that:

Beaker A is hypertonic relative to beaker B

(6.10)Which of the following terms best describes the reaction in figure 8.2?

Exergonic

(6.1) Which of the following is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?

Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe

(5.19) The __________ portion of the cell membrane is responsible for the isolating function of the membrane, while the ________ portion regulates exchange and communication with the environment.

Lipid ; Protein

(5.35) Osmosis moves water from a region of?

Low concentration of dissolved material to a region of high concentration

(4.16) Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes?

Lysosome

(5.27) Which of the following is an energy-requiring mode of transport that brings very specific substances into a cell?

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

(5.15) What is the voltage across a membrane called?

Membrane potential

(5.30) The diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane is called?

Osmosis

(5.18) Which of the following processes includes all others?

Passive transport

(5.26) When substances move through a plasma membrane and down gradients of concentration, this is called?

Passive transport

(5.16) An organism with a cell wall would have the most difficulty taking part in which process?

Phagocytosis

(5.38) The process in which white blood cells engulf bacteria is termed?

Phagocytosis

(4.32) Archea are composed of ___________ cells

Prokaryotic

(4.34) Secretory Proteins are

Released from the cell through the plasma membrane

(4.15) Which statement most accurately describes the interactions among ER, Ribosomes, and Golgi bodies in exporting protein from the cell?

Ribosomes manufacture proteins, which travel through the ER and are packaged by the Golgi bodies for export

(4.2) A biologist is studying kidney tubules in small animals. She wants specifically to examine the juxtaposition of different types of cells in these structures. The cells in question can be distinguished by external shape, size, and 3-dimensional characteristics. Which would be the optimum method for her study?

Scanning light microscopy

(5.14) You are working on a team that is designing a new drug. For this drug to work, it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells. Which of the following would be a factor that determines whether the molecule selectively enters the target cells?

Similarity of the drug molecule transported by the target cells.

(5.29) All of the following may influence that rate of simple diffusion across a selectively permeable membrane?

Size of the cell

(4.8) Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(4.11) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells?

Smooth er

(6.6) A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to a form a solution of simple sugars because?

The activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot be surmounted without an enzyme.

(6.7) According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of the following is correct?

The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme's active site.

(4.20) If all the lysosomes within a cell suddenly ruptured, what could occur?

The cell would begin to degrade

(5.6) Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?

The double bond form kinks in the fatty acid tails, forcing adjacent lipids to be further apart.

(5.7) When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that?

The hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are the weakest at this point.

(5.21) Which of the following accounts for the fluid aspect of the "fluid mosaic model" of plasma membrane?

The individual phospholipid molecules are not bonded to one another, and continually move laterally, so the movement of certain proteins and lipids is possible within the bilayer.

(7.2) When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom, what happens?

The more electronegative atom is reduced, and energy is released

(4.7) Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?

The need for a surface area of sufficient are to allow the cell's function

(5.13) A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish the body fluids, distilled water, equal to the volume of blood lost, is transferred directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?

The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid is hypotonic compared to the cells

(6.4) Which of the following statements is (are) true about enzyme-catalyzed reactions?

The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme.

(7.7) The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to

act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water

(7.1) What is the term for metabolic pathways that require energy in order to synthesize complex molecules?

anabolic pathways

(7.3) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the molecule becomes

oxidized

(1) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species and can interbreed with one another is called a:

population

(1) The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:

the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients

(1) Evolution is biology's core theme that ties together all the other themes. This is because evolution explains

the unity and diversity of life how organisms become adapted to their environment through the differential reproductive success of varying individuals why distantly related organisms sometimes resemble each other explains why some organisms have traits in common


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