Biology 8-10

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In each gamete following telophase II, how many copies of each gene is/are present? Group of answer choices A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2 E. 3

A. 1

In a dihybrid cross where both parents are heterozygous, the expected phenotypic ratio is Group of answer choices A. 9:3:3:1. B. 3:1. C. 1:1:1:1. D. 1:2:1. E. 1:1:1.

A. 9:3:3:1.

Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about human blood types? Group of answer choices A. Human blood genetics involves multiple alleles and an individual can have up to three different blood alleles. B. When inherited together, A and B blood types exhibit codominance. C. The allele representing blood type O is recessive. D. IA represents antigen A on red blood cells. E. A person with AB blood has two different antigens on their red blood cells.

A. Human blood genetics involves multiple alleles and an individual can have up to three different blood alleles.

Which of the following is true about an individual with the chromosomes shown in this figure? image A. The individual is heterozygous for all traits. B. All offspring will have the dominant phenotype for each trait. C. All offspring will have the recessive phenotype for each trait. D. The individual is homozygous for at least one trait. E The individual is homozygous for all traits.

A. The individual is heterozygous for all traits.

Determine if the following statement is true or false. A man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B can have a baby with blood type O. Group of answer choices A. True, because although A and B are the dominant blood types, both individuals could carry a type O allele. B. False, because type A and B are dominant blood types and these individuals cannot have offspring with the recessive blood type. C. False, the child must have type AB blood. D. True, because A and B are codominant. E. True, because only one O allele is needed.

A. True, because although A and B are the dominant blood types, both individuals could carry a type O allele.

You are looking at a cell under a microscope and see what appears to be several "X" structures being pulled to each side of the cell. What stage of meiosis are you looking at? Group of answer choices A. anaphase I B. anaphase II C. prophase II D. prophase I E. metaphase I

A. anaphase I

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuation in concentration during the cell cycle, are called Group of answer choices A. cyclins. B. kinetochores. C. centrioles. D. centromeres. E. proton pumps.

A. cyclins.

During crossing-over, Group of answer choices A. genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles. B. genetic material is exchanged between sister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles. C. nonsister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles. D. sister chromatids from each homologous chromosome of a tetrad are exchanged, resulting in new combinations of alleles. E. one homologous chromosome of a tetrad is exchanged with another tetrad, resulting in new combinations of alleles.

A. genetic material is exchanged between nonsister chromatids, resulting in new combinations of alleles.

Which of the following is mismatched? Group of answer choices A. identical alleles - heterozygous B. allele whose expression can be masked by an alternate allele - recessive C. the specific alleles that an individual has - genotype D. physical expression of a trait - phenotype E. allele that masks expression of alternate allele - dominant

A. identical alleles - heterozygous

Metaphase II is more similar to metaphase of mitosis than to metaphase I because Group of answer choices A. in metaphase II, chromosomes align separately at the spindle equator. B. in metaphase of mitosis, tetrads align separately at the spindle equator. C. in metaphase I, tetrads align together at the spindle equator. D. in metaphase I, chromosomes align separately at the spindle equator. E. in metaphase II, tetrads align separately at the spindle equator.

A. in metaphase II, chromosomes align separately at the spindle equator.

For the figure shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and whether the cell is haploid (n) or diploid (2n). image Group of answer choices A. metaphase I, 2n B. metaphase II, n C. anaphase I, 2n D. metaphase I, n E. metaphase II, 2n

A. metaphase I, 2n

The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of image Group of answer choices A. metaphase. B. telophase. C. interphase. D. anaphase. E. prophase.

A. metaphase.

Which of the following is a function only of mitosis? Group of answer choices A. organismal growth B. producing gametes C. reducing the chromosome number in gametes D. keeping the chromosome number constant from one generation to the next E. creating genetic variability

A. organismal growth

A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene Group of answer choices A. stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis. B. may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot. C. inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle. D. only activates enzymes in a cell that allows metastasis. E. promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.

A. stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis.

In fruit flys, long-wings (L) is dominant to short-wings (l) and a gray body color (G) is dominant to black body color (b). A long-winged Drosophila female with a gray body mates with a black, short-winged male fly (llgg). The phenotypic ratio of the offspring is 1:1:1:1. What is the genotype of the female fly? Group of answer choices A. LLgg B. LlGg C. llgg D. llGG E. LLGG

B. LlGg

Which statement best describes how homologous chromosomes are separated during meiosis I? Group of answer choices A. The two homologous chromosomes are not separated during meiosis I. B. The two homologous chromosomes separate into two different daughter cells. C. The nonsister chromatids of each homologous pairs separate into different daughter cells. D. The sister chromatids of each chromosome separate into different daughter cells. E. The two homologous chromosomes travel together into one new daughter cell.

B. The two homologous chromosomes separate into two different daughter cells.

Which of the following is a correct match? Group of answer choices A. separation of sister chromatids - anaphase I B. separation of sister chromatids - anaphase II C. separation of tetrads - anaphase II D. synapsis - prophase II E. synapsis - metaphase I

B. separation of sister chromatids - anaphase II

A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function. What would be the most likely result of this mutation? Group of answer choices A. the cell cycle halts and reverses back to the G0 stage B. the cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis C. the cell loses contact inhibition even when it is not surrounded by other cells D. the cell stops dividing permanently and will never re-enter the cell cycle E. the cell cycle accelerates

B. the cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis

Cancer occurs when Group of answer choices A. the DNA of a cell becomes mutated. B. the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs. C. apoptosis occurs. D. faulty spindle fibers are unable to pull chromatids apart. E. cells are unable to divide because of a mutation.

B. the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.

Camels have a diploid chromosome number of 70. At prophase II, each cell would contain how many tetrads? Group of answer choices A. 70 B. 280 C. 0 D. 35 E. 140

C. 0

In a monohybrid cross, how many traits are examined? Group of answer choices A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 E. 5

C. 1

Which pair of chromosomes on a karyotype would show you the sex of a baby? Group of answer choices A. 18th pair B. 21st pair C. 23rd pair D. 1st pair E. 6th pair

C. 23rd pair

Which of the following processes contributes to creating genetic variability in the offspring? Group of answer choices A. independent assortment of chromosomes B. pairing of homologous chromosomes C. All of the answers describe processes that contribute to genetic variability. D. having different alleles of the same gene E. crossing-over

C. All of the answers describe processes that contribute to genetic variability.

Which of the following statements is correct? Group of answer choices A. Meiosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes. B. Mitosis involves one division and produces two nonidentical gametes. C. Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical gametes. D. Mitosis involves two divisions and produces four identical gametes. E. Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four identical gametes.

C. Meiosis involves two divisions and produces four nonidentical gametes.

How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle? Group of answer choices A. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. B. The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA. D. The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. E. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

C. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.

Apoptosis Group of answer choices A. increases the number of somatic cells. B. is a process that repairs damaged DNA. C. can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells. D. occurs as telomeres increase in length. E. increases the number of gamete cells.

C. can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.

A heterozygote for a trait exhibiting incomplete dominance will Group of answer choices A. express the dominant trait. B. express both alleles. C. exhibit an intermediate phenotype. D. exhibit an intermediate genotype. E. express the recessive trait.

C. exhibit an intermediate phenotype.

If a homozygous black bull is mated with a homozygous white cow and the calf is gray, this would be an example of ________. However, if the calf has black and white spots, this would be an example of ________. Group of answer choices A. codominance; homology B. a sex-linked trait; a recessive trait C. incomplete dominance; codominance D. incomplete dominance; a sex-linked trait E. complete dominance; polygenic trait

C. incomplete dominance; codominance

The mitotic spindle is composed of ________, which originate from the __________. Group of answer choices A. asters; spindle equator B. centrosomes; aster C. microtubules; centrosome D. microtubules; chromatid E. microtubules; cleavage furrow

C. microtubules; centrosome

For the figure shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and the whether the cell is haploid (n) or diploid (2n). image Group of answer choices A. metaphase II, 2n B. prophase I, n C. prophase II, n D. prophase II, 2n E. metaphase I, n

C. prophase II, n

The G2 checkpoint prevents the cell cycle from continuing until Group of answer choices A. the chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle fibers. B. it is known for sure if the cell will divide. C. the DNA has finished replicating. D. the centrosomes have duplicated. E. all the organelles have been duplicated.

C. the DNA has finished replicating.

During meiosis, each pair of alleles on the homologous chromosomes sorts independently from all other pairs of alleles. This statement corresponds to Group of answer choices A. the law of segregation. B. gene theory. C. the law of independent assortment. D. the law of probability. E. the rule of multiplication.

C. the law of independent assortment.

One of the main goals of meiosis is Group of answer choices A. create cells that are genetically identical to their parent cell. B. to create a fertilized egg that has half the genetic material of the parents. C. to reduce the number of chromosomes by half in gametes. D. to reduce genetic diversity. E. to prevent genetic disorders.

C. to reduce the number of chromosomes by half in gametes.

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there? Group of answer choices A. 80 B. 40 C. 10 D. 30 E. 20

E. 20

In an experiment, cells grown in a petri dish divided until they formed a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. When cells were removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space began dividing until they had filled the empty space. What does this experiment show? Group of answer choices A. Cell division can be regulated by factors outside of the cell. B. Cells continue to grow as long as there is adequate space. C. When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing. D. All answers are valid and correct. E. The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.

D. All answers are valid and correct.

A cell is inhibited during the S phase of its cycle. It will not reproduce due to lack of Group of answer choices A. centromere formation. B. ATP availability. C. plasma membrane structure. D. DNA synthesis. E. centriole migration.

D. DNA synthesis.

Which of the following is a true statement? Group of answer choices A. Men pass their X-linked traits to their sons. B. The X and Y chromosomes are homologous. C. All traits on the sex chromosomes are associated with sexual development. D. Females can be heterozygous for sex-linked traits. E. Males inherit two copies of theSRY gene.

D. Females can be heterozygous for sex-linked traits.

If a true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a tall pea plant of unknown parentage, which of the following is correct? Group of answer choices A. Over several generations, no short individuals will appear. B. All of the offspring (F1) will be short. C. Some of the F1 generation will be short. D. Some short individuals may appear in the F2 generation. E. It is impossible to determine based on the information provided.

D. Some short individuals may appear in the F2 generation.

Megan has a widow's peak (dominant trait) and attached earlobes (recessive trait). Megan's dad has a straight hairline and unattached earlobes. What is Megan's genotype? Group of answer choices A. wwee B. WwEe C. WwEE D. Wwee E. WWEE

D. Wwee

Alleles are Group of answer choices A. two versions of the same gene. B. recessive genes. C. dominant genes. D. alternate versions of the same gene. E. sister chromatids.

D. alternate versions of the same gene.

For the figure shown here, indicate the correct stage of meiosis and whether the cell is haploid (n) or diploid (2n). image Group of answer choices A. neither anaphase I or anaphase II. B. anaphase II, 2n C. anaphase II, n D. anaphase I, n E. anaphase I, 2n

D. anaphase I, 2n

A mutation that causes an increase in function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer because a tumor suppressor protein Group of answer choices A. normally responds to growth factors. B. activates a signal transduction pathway. C. normally promotes the cell cycle. D. does not promote cell division. E. inactivates growth factors.

D. does not promote cell division.

Chromatin wrapped around histones form a bead-like structure known as a Group of answer choices A. the chromatin network. B. centrosome. C. nucleotide. D. nucleosome. E. mesosome.

D. nucleosome.

Skin color is coded for by several different genes which results in a range of skin colors from very dark to very light. This is an example of Group of answer choices A. a multifactorial trait. B. pleiotropy. C. codominance. D. polygenic inheritance. E. incomplete dominance.

D. polygenic inheritance.

In a one-trait testcross, a homozygous dominant individual is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual. Which phenotype will be absent in the F1 generation? Group of answer choices A. dominant trait. B. negative trait. C. homozygote. D. recessive trait. E. heterozygote.

D. recessive trait.

Crossing-over between sister chromatids does not result in recombination of genetic material, while crossing-over between nonsister chromatids does because Group of answer choices A. nonsister chromatids have the same genes, while sister chromatids have different ones. B. sister chromatids have the same genes, while nonsister chromatids have different ones. C. nonsister chromatids have the same alleles, while sister chromatids have different ones. D. sister chromatids have the same alleles, while nonsister chromatids have different ones. E. sister chromatids have the same alleles but different genes, while nonsister chromatids have different alleles but the same genes.

D. sister chromatids have the same alleles, while nonsister chromatids have different ones.

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein needed for the M-phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation? Group of answer choices A. the cell would prematurely enter anaphase B. the cell would never enter metaphase C. the cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 D. the cell would never leave metaphase E. the cell would never enter prophase

D. the cell would never leave metaphase

What would occur in a cell if the production of cyclins halted during the cell cycle? Group of answer choices A. organelles would not be duplicated in G1 B. the cell would not complete cytokinesis C. the cell would enter the G0 phase D. the cell would remain in the G2 phase and would not enter into mitosis E. the cell would continue to divide indefinitely

D. the cell would remain in the G2 phase and would not enter into mitosis

If a heterozygous dominant tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what is the expected phenotypic ratio? Group of answer choices A. all tall B. all short C. 3 tall:1 short D. 1 tall:2 short E. 1 tall:1 short

E. 1 tall:1 short

Which of the following is true with regards to the law of independent assortment? Group of answer choices A. Genes segregate during gamete formation. B. During fertilization, each new individual obtains two genes for each trait. C. Each individual has two factors for each trait. D. Gametes contain only one gene from each pair. E. Each pair of alleles assorts independently of the other allele pairs.

E. Each pair of alleles assorts independently of the other allele pairs.

Matt breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and four were albino. What do you know about the genotype of the father? Group of answer choices A. He must be homozygous recessive. B. He could be either heterozygous or homozygous dominant. C. There is not enough information to determine the father's genotype. D. He must be homozygous dominant. E. He must be heterozygous.

E. He must be heterozygous.

During which phase of mitosis are the sister chromatids separated and consequently become daughter chromosomes? Group of answer choices A. prophase B. metaphase C. interphase D. telophase E. anaphase

E. anaphase

If you were looking under the compound light microscope at an onion root tip, in what stage of the cell cycle would the majority of the cells be? Group of answer choices A. anaphase B. metaphase C. cytokinesis D. prophase E. interphase

E. interphase

Cells that do not receive the correct signals to move from G1 into S phase will enter G0 and therefore will Group of answer choices A. immediately move into the mitotic phase. B. stay in an undifferentiated state and become stem cells. C. be able to produce gametes through meiosis. D. never be able to undergo mitosis. E. not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go-ahead signal.

E. not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go-ahead signal.

Which of the following processes and products are paired correctly? Group of answer choices A. mitosis - 1n gamete B. spermatogenesis - 2n zygote C. oogenesis - 2n zygote D. meiosis - 2n zygote E. oogenesis - 1n gamete

E. oogenesis - 1n gamete

Which of the following only occurs once during meiosis? Group of answer choices A. cytokinesis B. spindle formation C. alignment of chromosomes at the spindle equator D. separation of genetic material E. pairing of homologous chromosomes

E. pairing of homologous chromosomes

Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by Group of answer choices A. producing kinases. B. increasing telomeres. C. inhibiting cytokinesis. D. causing cells to divide quickly. E. preventing spindle formation.

E. preventing spindle formation.

Linked genes Group of answer choices A. undergo crossing-over of sister chromatids at a high rate. B. never cross over during prophase I. C. always assort independently. D. are found on homologous chromosomes. E. tend to be close together on the same chromosome.

E. tend to be close together on the same chromosome.

A homologous pair is composed of Group of answer choices A. four sister chromatids, each with its own centromere. B. four sister chromatids attached at a common centromere. C. two sister chromatids with separate centromeres. D. four chromosomes with two sister chromatids each. E. two chromosomes with two sister chromatids each.

E. two chromosomes with two sister chromatids each.

A tetrad consists of Group of answer choices A. one duplicated chromosome consisting of two nonsister chromatids. B. one duplicated chromosome consisting of two sister chromatids. C. two homologous chromosomes consisting of a single DNA strand each. D. two homologous chromosomes each comprised of two nonsister chromatids. E. two homologous chromosomes each comprised of two sister chromatids.

E. two homologous chromosomes each comprised of two sister chromatids.


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