Bontrager Ch 6 Lower Limb
Describe osteomalacia (rickets)
"Bone softening" caused by lack of bone mineralization secondary to a deficiency of calcium, phosphorus, or vitamin D in the diet or the inability to absorb these minerals. Bowing defects in weight-bearing parts often result. Called rickets in children and commonly results in bowing of the tibia.
The lateral malleolus extends about ______ more ______ than the medial malleolus.
1/2 inch (cm) ; distal
Grids should be used with body parts measuring more than ______
10 cm
A line drawn through the mid portions of the two malleoli would be approx. _____ to _____ from the coronal plane. So what does this mean??
15 to 20 degrees -the lower leg and ankle must be rotated 15-20 degrees to bring the intermalleolar line parallel to the coronal plane
How many bones in the foot?
26
Smallest cuneiform bone
2nd or Intermediate cuneiform
When you are radiographing with IRs directly on the tabletop, to maint a constant SID, inc the tube height compared with radiographs taken in the IR bucky tray. What is this difference generally??
3-4 inches
SID
40 inches but 44 clinically
a partial flexion of --- pulls the patella downward; with a -- degree flexion the patella moves farther over the distal portion of the femur
45 90
In an anatomic position the femoral shaft is at an angle of ______ to ______ from vertical for an average adult. The angle is greater on ______ (women/men)
5 to 15 degrees ; Women
Describe Exostosis
AKA osteochondroma. Benign, neoplastic bone lesion caused by consolidated overproduction bone at a joint(usually the knee). Tumor grows parallel to the bone and away from the adjacent joint. Tumor growth stops as soon as epiphyseal plates close. Pain if tumor is large enough to irritate surrounding soft tissues.
Describe joint effusions.
Accumulated fluid (synovial or hemorrhagic) in the joint cavity. Signs of an underlying condition (such as fracture, dislocation, soft tissue damage)
Two ligaments are strong bands at the sides of the knee that prevent ______ and ______ movements at the knee. ALSO NAME THE LIGAMENTS
Adduction ; Abduction -lateral collateral ligament -medial collateral ligament
Present on the posterolateral aspect of the medial condyle is a slightly raised area that receives the tendon of an adductor muscle.
Adductor Tubercle
Describe Reiter's syndrome
Affects the sacroiliac joints and lower limbs of young men. Radiographic hallmark is a specific area of bony erosion at the Achilles tendon insertion on the posterosuperior margin of the calcaneus. Usually bilateral, and arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis are characteristic of this syndrome. Caused by previous infection of the gastrointestinal tract, such as salmonella, or by a STI
Two ligaments are strong cords that cross each other that prevent ______ and ______ movement within the knee. NAME THE LIGAMENTS
Anterior ; Posterior -posterior cruciate ligament -anterior cruciate ligament
Along the anterior surface of the body of the tibia, extending from the tibial tuberosity to the medial malleolus, is a sharp ridge called the ______ ______
Anterior Crest or Border
The ______ ______ is an expanded process at the distal anterior and lateral tibia that has been shown to articulate with the superolateral talus, while partially overlapping the fibula anteriorly.
Anterior Tubercle
The patella is located ______ to the distal femur
Anteriorly
Name the two bones the calcaneus articulates with:
Anteriorly with the Cuboid and superiorly with the Talus
The extreme proximal aspect of the head is pointed and is known as the ______ of the head of the fibula
Apex
The total knee joint is a synovial type enclosed in an ______ ______.
Articular capsule or Bursa
Describe Osteoid osteomas
Benign bone lesions that occur in teenagers or young adults. Localized pain that worsens at night and relieved by over the counter anti-inflammatory or pain medications. Tibia and femur are most likely locations for these lesions.
Describe osteoclastomas (giant cell tumors)
Benign lesions that typically occur in the long bones of young adults. Occur in the proximal tibia or distal femur after epiphyseal closure. Appear radiographically as large "bubbles" separated by strips of bone.
Describe bone cysts
Benign, neoplastic bone lesions filed with clear fluid. Often occur near knee joints in children and adolescents. Not detected on radiographs until a pathologic fracture occurs. They appear as lucent areas with a thin cortex and sharp boundaries
Name the four bones the Cuboid articulates with:
Calcaneus (proximally), Lateral/3rd Cuneiform (medially), 4th and 5th Metatarsal (distally). Occasionally also the navicular.
The proximal portion of the fifth metatarsal, including the tuberosity is a _________ for the foot.
Common trauma site
Describe chondromalacia patellae
Commonly known as "runner's knee". Softening of the cartilage under the patella which results in wearing away of this cartilage. Cases pain and tenderness in the area. Cyclists and runners are vulnerable to this condition.
Between the middle and distal phalanges is the _______ joint and between the the proximal and middle phalanges is the _______ joint.
Distal Interphalangeal (DIP) ; Proximal Interphalangeal (PIP)
How much should you adjust your technique for a body part enclosed in a cast?
Fiberglass cast -Increase kv 3-4 Small to medium cast -Increase kv 5 to 7 Large plaster cast- Increase kv 8-10
Distal tibiofibular joint is classified as a ______ joint with fibrous interconnections between the surfaces of the tibia and fibula.
Fibrous
The lateral aspect of the distal extremity of the tibia forms a flattened, triangular ______ ______ for articulation with the distal fibula
Fibular Notch
Most sprained ankles result from an accidental forced ______ or ______.
Inversion ; Eversion
The articular cavity of the _____ joint is the largest joint space of the human body.
Knee
The lisfranc ligament is a large band that spans the articulation of the ______ cuneiform and the first and second ______ base.
Medial ; Metatarsal
The medial elongated process of the tibia that extends down alongside the medial talus is called the ______
Medial Malleolus
The medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur which can be palpated are rough prominences for attachments of the __&___....
Medial and lateral collateral ligaments
These articular disks of the knee are made of fibrocartilage disk that act as shock absorbers to reduce some of the direct impact and stress that occur at the knee joint.
Medial and lateral menisci
Describe Osteoarthritis (Degenerative joint disease--DJD)
Most common type of arthritis and considered part of normal aging. Non-inflammatory disease caused by gradual deterioration of the articular cartilage with hypertrophic bone formation.
Describe multiple myeloma
Most common type of primary cancerous bone tumor. Affects persons 40-70. Occur in various parts of the body. Tumors arise from bone marrow or marrow plasma cells. Not a truly exclusive bony tumor. Highly malignant and usually fatal within a few years. Radiographic appearance of multiple "punched-out" osteolytic lesions scattered throughout the affected bones
Name the four bones the 2nd or Intermediate Cuneiform bone articulates with:
Navicular (proximally), 2nd Metatarsal (distally) and the medial/1st and lateral/3rd Cuneiform bones on either side
Name the tarsal that is flattened, oval-shaped, and is located on the medial side of the foot between the talus and the three cuneiform bones
Navicular.
The tapered area just below the head is the ______ of the fibula.
Neck
Tibial tuberosity separating from the body of the tibia is a condition called ________ _______
Osgood-Schlatter
Nuclear medicine bone scans are particularly useful in demonstrating ______ and ______ bone lesions.
Osteomyelitis ; Metastatic
Name the 3 groups of bones in the foot and how many bones in each group.
Phalanges (14), Metatarsals (5) Tarsals (7)
The transverse arch is located primarily along the ______ surface of the ---------- and the ______ joints.
Plantar ; distal tarsals and Tarsometatarsals
The sole of the foot is the posterior surface or ______ ______.
Plantar surface
Posteroanterior projection of the foot can also be called a ______ projection.
Plantodorsal (PD)
A moderate sprain of the Lisfranc ligament is characterized by an abnormal ______ between the first and second metatarsal
Separation
The anterior crest of the tibia is often referred to as:
Shin or Shin Bone
Opening in the middle of the subtalar joint due to the calcaneal sulcus (and a similar groove on the talus) is called the...:
Sinus Tarsi or Tarsal Sinus
Opening in the middle of the subtalar/talocalcaneal joint is the ______.
Sinus tarsi/Tarsal sinus
Distal tibiofibular is of the syndesmosis type and is only ______ moveable or ________.
Slight ; Amphiarthrodial
The menisci are believed to function in producing ______ ______
Synovial fluid
The weight of the body is transmitted through this bone through the important ankle and talocalcaneal joints
Talus
Name the four bones the navicular bone articulates with:
Talus (posteriorly) 1st 2nd 3rd Cuneiform bones (anteriorly) and occasionally the cuboid
Centering point for AP and oblique foot projections?
The base of the third metatarsal or the third tarsometatarsal joint.
The weight bearing bone of the lower leg is the:
Tibia
Name the four bones that the Talus articulates with:
Tibia and Fibula (superiorly), Calcaneus (inferiorly), Navicular (anteriorly)
Name the three bones that make up the ankle joint:
Tibia, Fibula, Talus
The distal tibial joint surface that forms the roof of the ankle mortise joint is called the ______ ______
Tibial Plafond (under the tibia)
The upper articular surface of the condyles of the tibia include two smooth concave articular facets commonly called _____ ______ witch articulate with the femur
Tibial Plateau
The rough-textured prominence located on the mid anterior surface of the tibia just distal to the condyles.
Tibial tuberosity
Inversion movement of the foot can also be called______.
Varus
the rounded distal portions of the medial/lateral condyles contain smooth what?
articular surfaces for articulation with the tibia
another name for the talus
astragalus
fat pad posterior to the patellar ligament which aids in protecting the anterior aspect of the knee joint
infrapatellar fat pad
does the patella attach right onto the patellar surface?
no; it is embedded in the tendon of the large quadriceps femoris muscle
what is the heel?
the posterior portion of the calcaneus
give a distinguishing difference btw the medial/lateral condyles..
the presence of the adductor tubercle (slightly raised area receiving the tendon of an adductor muscle) on the posterolateral aspect of the medial condyle
what are sometimes referred to as the ankle bones?
the seven tarsal bones
what do the arches that the bones of the foot are arranged in provide for?
they provide a strong, shock absorbing support for the weight of the body
what is significant about the articular facets making up the tibial plateau?
they slope posteriorly 10-20 degrees in relation to the long axis of the tibia
name the four major ligaments that the knee joint is highly dependent on for stability
1. fibular (lateral) collateral ligament LCL 2. tibial (medial) collateral ligament MCL 3. posterior cruciate ligament PCL 4. anterior cruciate ligament ACL
The distal fibula is located about ______ posterior in relation to the distal fibula.
1/2 inch (1 cm)
Largest cuneiform bone
1st or Medial cuneiform
A tear of the tibial MCL frequently is associated with a tear of the _______ and a tear of the ______ meniscus
ACL ; Medial
Describe fractures
Breaks in the structure of the bone caused by force.
The deep depression between the posterior and middle articular facets of the of the calcaneus is called:
Calcaneal sulcus
The largest and strongest bone of the foot?
Calcaneus
Name the seven tarsal bones of the foot.
Calcaneus (os calcis), Talus (astragulus), Cuboid, Navicular (scaphoid), 1st 2nd 3rd Cuneiforms
what is the pnemonic for the tarsal bones?
Come To Colorado (the) Next Three Christmases
The ______ is located on the lateral aspect of the foot, distal to the calcaneus and proximal to the fourth and fifth metatarsals.
Cuboid
The three _____ are located on the medial and mid aspects of the foot between the first three metatarsals distally and the navicular proximally.
Cuneiforms (means wedge shaped)
The AP projection of the foot is the same as a ______ projection.
Dorsoplantar (DP)
Top or anterior surface of the foot is called the ______
Dorsum
The knee joint proper is a complex joint that primarily involves the ______ joint and also ________ joint.
Femorotibial ; Patellofemoral
The patella articulates only with the ______
Femur NOT WITH THE TIBIA
Describe gout
Form of arthritis. Uric acid in excessive quantities appear in the blood and deposit in the joints. Common initial attack at 1st MTP joint and later attacks in 1st MCP. Occurs in men and rarely occur before the age of 30.
The cross sectional images of CT are excellent for determining the extent of ______ and for evaluating ______ ______.
Fractures ; Bone Mineralization
Anything proximal to the knee such as the midfemur or distal femur requires the use of a ______.
Grid
Name the three parts of the metatarsals.
Head, Body (shaft), Base
The proximal extremity of the fibula is expanded into a ______, which articulates with the lateral aspect of the posteroinferior surface of the lateral condyle of the _______
Head--neck ; Tibia
Describe Osteogenic sarcomas (osteosarcomas)
Highly malignant primary bone tumors that occur from childhood to young adulthood (age20). This neoplasm appears on long bones and cause gross destruction of bone.
Describe Osgood-Schlatter disease
Inflammation of the bone and cartilage of the anterior proximal tibia. Most common in boys 10-15 years old. Caused by injury when the patellar tendon detaches part of the tibial tuberosity. Severe cases require immobilization by plaster cast.
Distal to the patella, the ______ ______ is separated by a large infrapatellar fat pad.
Infrapatellar bursa
The posterior view of the distal femur demonstrates the two condyles that are separated distally and posteriorly by the deep ______ ______ above which is the _____ _____.
Intercondylar Fossa (or notch) ; Popliteal Surface
The patellar surface of the femur is also known as the ______ ______
Intercondylar Sulcus ( some literature also refers to it as the trochlear groove)
Another name for the intercondylar eminence:
Intercondylar Tubercles (medial and lateral)
Two small pointed prominences located on the superior surface of the tibial head between the two condyles
Intercondylar eminence
Between of proximal and distal phalanx is the ______ joint.
Interphalangeal (IP)
Arthrography is sometimes used to image large diarthrodial joint such as the ______.
Knee
The expanded distal end of the slender fibula, which extends well down alongside the talus, is called the ______
Lateral Malleolus
A true lateral requires the ______ _______ to be about 1/2 inch (1cm) posterior to the medial malleolus. OR
Lateral Malleolus OR the fibula lies in the posterior half of the tibia
Between the lateral and medial processes of the tuberosity of the calcaneus, which is the larger of the two?
Lateral process is larger.
The smaller fibula is located ______ and ______ to the larger tibia
Laterally and posteriorly
The base of the fifth metatarsal expands _______ into a prominent rough_________ which provides for the attachment of a _______.
Laterally; tuberosity, tendon
CT often is used on the lower limbs to evaluate soft tissue involvement of ______.
Lesions
MRI is invaluable in detecting ______ damage or ______ tears of the knee joint capsule.
Ligament ; Meniscal
______ joint injuries may be missed if weight-bearing AP and Lateral projections are not performed.
Lisfranc
The bones of the foot are arranged in ______ and ______ arches.
Longitudinal ; Transverse
The medial condyle extends ______ than the lateral condyle when the femoral shaft is vertical.
Lower or more distally
Describe chondrosarcomas
Malignant tumors of the cartilage that usually occurs in the pelvis and long bones of men older than 45 years.
The ______ and ______ _______ are the two large processes that make up the medial and lateral aspects of the proximal tibia
Medial ; Lateral Condyles
The ankle joint requires strong collateral ligaments that extend from the ______ and ______ to the ______ and ______.
Medial malleolus ; Lateral malleolus ; Calcaneus ; Talus
Disease or traumatic damage to the ______ , ______, and ______ ______ may be evaluated with arthrography by injecting contrast.
Menisci ; Ligaments ; Articular cartilage
Sesamoid bones are almost always present on the posterior or plantar surface of the foot at the head of the first _______ near the first _______ joint .
Metatarsal ; MTP
The five bones of the instep are the _______ bones.
Metatarsals
Each of the joints at the head of the metatarsal is a ________ joint, and each of the joints at the base of the metatarsal is a ________ joint.
Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) ; Tarsometatarsal (TMT)
The inferior portions of the tibia and fibula that form a deep three-sided opening (socket) is called a ______
Mortise
A 15 degree internally rotated AP oblique projection is called a _______
Mortise position
All three cuneiform bones articulate with the _____ proximally.
Navicular
Name the four bones the Medial or 1st Cuneiform bone articulates with:
Navicular (proximally), 1st and 2nd Metatarsals (distally), Second/Intermediate Cuneiform (laterally)
Name the six bones the lateral/3rd Cuneiform bone articulates with:
Navicular (proximally), 2nd 3rd 4th Metatarsals (distally), Intermediate/2nd Cuneiform (medially), Cuboid(laterally)
Describe Paget's Disease (osteitis deformans)
One of the most common diseases of the skeletal system. Common in midlife and is twice as common in men than woman. Is a non-neoplastic bone disease that disrupts new bone growth, resulting in over-production of very dense yet soft bone. Bone destruction creates lytic or lucent areas followed by reconstruction of bone by which sclerotic or dense area is created. Appears radiographically as cotton wool. Typically occur in the skull, pelvis, femur, tibias, vertebrae, clavicles, and ribs. Long bones generally bow or fracture and associated joint may develop arthritic changes. Pelvis is most common initial site of this disease.
Largest sesamoid bone in the body?
Patella or the kneecap
The tibial tuberosity is the distal attachment of the_____ _____
Patellar Tendon
besides the lateral and medial processes there are two more ridges of bone on the calcaneus that varies in size and shape and one is visualized laterally on an axial projection?
Peroneal Trochlea sometimes called the Trochlear Process
Describe ewing's sarcoma
Primary malignant bone tumor that arises from bone marrow in children and young adults. Low grade fever and pain. Bone has stratified formation, "onion-peel" appearance on radiographs. Occurs in diaphysis of long bones. Prognosis is poor once evident on radiographs.
Describe Enchondroma
Slow-growing benign cartilaginous tumor found in small bones of hands and feet. in young adults and adolescents. Well define radiolucent appearing tumors with thin cortex and often lead to pathologic fracture with only minimal trauma.
The distal extremity of the tibia is ___larg/smal___ than the proximal extremity and ends in a short pyramid-shaped process called the _____ _______
Smaller ; Medial Malleolus
Lisfranc joint injuries range from ______ to ______-______ of the bases of the first and second metatarsals
Sprains ; Fracture-Dislocations
Because no transverse ligaments exists between the first and second metatarsal bases, this region is prone to ______ injury caused by MVC, twisting falls and falls from high places.
Stress
The articulation between the calcaneus and the talus superiorly is called:
Subtalar joint (talocalcaneal joint)
Name of the medial aspect of the calcaneus, is large and prominent bony process.
Sustentaculum Tali (means support for the Talus)
The middle articular facet of the calcaneus is the superior portion of the prominent which provides medial support for this imp weight bearing joint
Sustentaculum Tali (provides medial support)
The ankle joint is a __s____ joint of the __s____ type with ______ and ______ movements only.
Synovial ; Sellar ; Flexion ; Extension (dorsiflexion and plantar flexion)
Name the only tarsal that is directly involved with the ankle joint.
Talus
Second largest tarsal bone
Talus
Define suprapatellar bursa:
The articular cavity or bursa of the knee joint that extends upward under and superior to the patella.
The bones of the lower limb are divided into:
The foot, leg (tibia and fibula), and distal femur.
Common site of bone spurs on the calcaneus
The most inferior-posterior process called the tuberosity.
What are two differences between the phalanges of the foot and the hand?
The phalanges of the foot are smaller and more limited in their movement.
Eversion movement of the foot can also be called ______.
Valgus
what is the styloid process of the fibula?
another name for the apex
how do sesamoid fx feel?
at the plantar location, they are painful and cause discomfort when weight is placed there
why are sesamoid bones imp radiographically?
bc fracturing these small bones is possible
why does the patella appear to be upside down?
bc its pointed apex is located along the inferior border and its base is the superior border
why is this 10-20 degree slope an imp anatomic consideration?
bc when an AP knee is positioned, the CR must be ANGLED in relation to the IR/tabletop to be parallel to the tibial plateau in order for an OPEN jt space to be demonstrated
where is the femorotibial jt
between the two condyles of the femur and the corresponding condyles of the tibia
describe shape and layout of a meniscus
crescent thicker at their external margins tapering to a thin center
For exams distal to the knee, IRs without grids generally are used. With film screen imaging, what kind of screens are used for adult extremities to obtain better detail?
detail screens
Define infrapatellar bursa
distal to the patella is this bursae separated by a large infrapatellar fat pad
as the lower leg is flexed, the patella moves how?
downward and is drawn inward into the interconylar groove/sulcus
where are sesamoid bones typically located?
embedded in certain tendons, often present near various joints
these are rough prominences on the outermost tips of the large medial/lateral condyles
epicondyles
this angle would be smaller or larger on a short person with a wider pelvis
greater
describe articulation of proximal tibiofibular jt
head of fibula + lateral condyle of tibia
why doesn't the medial condyle extend lower than the lateral condyle in an erect anatomic position?
in an erect anatomic position wherein the distal femoral condyles are parallel to the floor, the femoral shaft is at an angle of 5-15 degrees from vertical
why is the presence of this adductor tubercle on the medial condyle imp in critiquing a lateral knee for rotation?
it allows the viewer to determine whether the knee is under rotated/over rotated to correct a positioning error when the knee is not in a true lateral position
which muscle does the patella serve as a pivot to increase the leverage of...
large quadriceps femoris aka the tendon which attaches to the tibial tuberosity of the lower leg
name the three specific articular facets that appear at this joint with the talus (subtalar/talocalcaneal)
larger posterior articular facet, smaller anterior articular facet, and smaller middle articular facet
the longitudinal arch has two components called...however, most of the arch is located on the---------- aspects of the foot
lateral and medial ---medial/midaspects
the enlarged distal end of the fibula can be felt as a distinct "bump" on the lateral aspect of the ankle joint called
lateral malleolus
this angle would be smaller or larger on a tall person with a narrow pelvis
less
at the widest point of the calcaneus' tuberosity there are two small rounded process called
medial and lateral processes
when naming these sesamoid bones of the foot what is the medial one and what is the lateral one called?
medial-tibial lateral-fibular
fribrocartilage disks btw articular facts of the tibia (tibial plateau) and the femoral condyles
medial/lateral menisci
where are sesamoids located in the upper limb?
most often on palmer surface near the MCP joints at the interphalangeal joint of thumb
As the leg is flexed, the patella moves how in conjunction to the patellar surface.
moves distally over the patellar surface
pts with mcl/acl injuries go through 2 possible modalities to visualize these soft tissue structs of the knee
mri knee arthrography
can you see the mortise in a true frontal ap projection of the ankle?
no due to overlapping portions of the distal fibula and tibia by the talus
Even though the fibular (lateral) collateral ligament extends from the femur to the lateral proximal fibula...does the fibula count as part of the knee jt
no! Does not ARTICULATE with any aspect of the femur
the sesamoid bones of the foot are typically located where?
on the posterior/plantar surface at the head of the first metatarsal near the first MTP joint
this acts to protect the anterior aspect of the knee jt
patella
describe the patellofemoral jt
patella articulates with the anterior surface of the distal femur
how is the patella positioned in conjuction to the patellar surface when the leg is fully extended?
patella is superior to the patellar surface
in addition to the four ligaments, there is an anteriorly located ligament (plus minor others) that help to maintain the integrity of the knee joint
patellar ligament
area btw the patella and the patellar surface/interconylar sulcus/trochlear groove=
patellofemoral joint/femoropatellar jt
the posterior surface of the distal femur just proximal to the interconylar fossa is...
popliteal surface
describe the posterior and anterior surface of the patella
post-smooth/oval shaped for articulation with femur ant-convex/rough
strong rounded cords that cross each other as they attach to their respective anterior and posterior aspects of the intercondylar eminence of the tibia.
posterior and anterior cruciate ligaments
patients are generally imaged on a tabletop for lower limb but those with severe trauma/difficult to move...
radiographed directly on a cart
describe bone spurs
sharp outgrowths of bone that can be painful on weight bearing
what are sesamoid bones?
small, detached bones often found in the feet/hands
what is the patellar surface?
smooth, shallow, triangular depression at the distal portion of the anterior femur that extends up under the lower part of the patella
how are the tarsals mobility wise compared to the carpals?
tarsals are less mobile bc they provide a basis of support for the body in an erect position compared with the more mobile carpals of the hand/wrist
what is the largest tendon? Where is it attached?
the achilles tendon attached to the rough/striated process of the calcaneus aka the tuberosity
so, because the femur is at an angle of 5-15 degrees from vertical, the condyles are arranged how?
the condyles which are at a 5-7 degree angle vertically NOW can be parallel to the floor
So the medial condyle extends more distally than the lateral when the femoral shaft is vertical, but how do they lie in an erect anatomic position?
the distal femoral condyles are parallel to the floor
what is the instep?
the foot between the ball and ankle the arched middle part of the foot because whenever you step, it goes in!
what explains why the CR must be angled 5-7 degrees cephalad for a lateral knee?
the medial condyle extends more distally than the lateral condyle WHEN THE FEMORAL SHAFT IS VERTICAL so it must be angled so the two condyles can be directly superimposed when the femur is parallel to the IR
which epicondyle of the femur is more prominent?
the medial epicondyle! just like the medial epicondyle is more prominent in the humerus
what socket does the superior talus fit into?
the mortise
how is the patella located in conjunction to the actual knee joint?
the most distal part of the patella is superior/proximal to the actual knee jt by .5"
where is the ball of your foot?
the pad up by toes when you are on your tippy toes
what tarsals specifically make up the transverse arch?
the wedge shaped cuneiforms (and cuboid)!
leg bones
tibia/fibula
the distal phalanges of the second through fifth toes are very small and may be difficult to identify as separate bones on a radiograph t/f
true
the most posterior inferior part of the calcaneus contains a process called what?
tuberosity
compare the tarsals of the upper limb with the lower limb numbers
upper- 8 carpals lower- 7 tarsals
is red bone marrow in the hips a radiosensitive region?
yes
