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All of the following are bradycardic rhythms except: a. Atrial fibrillation b. First-degree heart block c. Mobitz Type I d. Third-degree heart block

A

An individual has been ill, and the monitor reveals sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 135. What is the primary goal in treating this individual? a. Determine the underlying cause. b. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion. c. Transfuse packed red blood cells. d. Administer Adenosine

A

The following are included in the ACLS Survey: a. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Differential Diagnosis b. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation c. Assessment, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation d. Airway, Breathing, CPR, Differential Diagnosi

A

The following drug(s) may be used in an ACS individual for cardiac reperfusion: a. Fibrinolytic therapy b. Epinephrine c. Atropine d. Both A and C

A

The following medication(s) can be used to treat hypotension during the post-cardiac arrest phase: a. Dopamine b. Milrinone c. Amiodarone d. Both A and B

A

What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent? a. Ventricular contraction b. AV valve closure c. Atrial contraction d. Septum relaxation

A

Which of the following is not an example of an advanced airway? a. Oropharyngeal airway b. Esophageal-tracheal tube c. Laryngeal mask airway d. Combitube

A

You should_____ in an individual with ventricular fibrillation immediately following a shock. a. Resume CPR b. Check heart rate c. Analyze rhythm d. Give amiodarone

A

A 79-year-old individual is in SVT. BP is 80/50, and he is complaining of chest discomfort and feels like passing out. What is the next appropriate step? a. Carotid massage b. Synchronized cardioversion c. Amiodarone d. Lidocaine

B

A person with alcoholism collapses and is found to be in Torsades de Pointes. What intervention is most likely to correct the underlying problem? a. Rewarm the individual to correct hypothermia. b. Administer magnesium sulfate 1 to 2 gm IV diluted in 10 mL D5W to correct low magnesium. c. Administer glucose to correct hypoglycemia. d. Administer naloxone to correct narcotic overdose.

B

Before placement of an advanced airway, the compression to ventilation ratio during adult CPR is: a. 30:1 b. 30:2 c. 15:1 d. 20:2

B

CPR is initiated on an Adult and the person's pulse returns, but he is not breathing. What ventilation rate should be used for this person? a. 6-8 breaths per minute b. 10-12 breaths per minute c. 18-20 breaths per minute d. Depends on his color

B

What is high-quality CPR? a. 80 compressions per minute at a depth of at least one-inch (2.5 cm) b. 100 to 120 compressions per minute at a depth of 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm) c. 80 compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches (5 cm) d. 100

B

What is the longest a rescuer should pause to check for a pulse? a. 20 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 5 seconds d. Less than two seconds

B

What is the recommended method to monitor breathing during ACLS care? a. Look, listen, and feel b. Capnography c. Venous blood gas d. Monitoring chest rise

B

Where does the electrical impulse for normal cardiac activity originate? a. Unknown b. SA node c. AV node d. Purkinje fibers

B

You are transporting an individual who goes into cardiac arrest during transport. IV access is unsuccessful. What is the next step? a. Terminate resuscitation. b. Obtain intraosseous access. c. Place a central line. d. Administer all medications through ET tube.

B

You have just administered a drug for an individual in supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). She complains of flushing and chest heaviness. Which drug is the most likely cause? a. Aspirin b. Adenosine c. Amiodarone d. Amitriptyline

B

_____ access is preferred in arrest due to easy access and no interruption in CPR. a. Central b. Peripheral c. Intraosseous d. Endotracheal

B

A 55-year-old male has stroke symptoms, and the CT scan shows multilobar infarction (more than one-third of the cerebral hemisphere). What therapy is contraindicated? a. Oxygen b. Monitoring glucose c. Thrombolytic therapy d. Blood pressure monitoring

C

Arrange the BLS Chain of Survival in the proper order: a. Look, listen, and feel b. Check responsiveness, call EMS and get AED, defibrillation, and recovery c. Check responsiveness, call EMS and get AED, chest compressions, early defibrillation, and recovery d. Call for help, shock, check pulse, shock, and transport

C

Choose the correct sequence of electrical activity in the heart for normal sinus rhythm? a. SA node, Purkinje, AV node, Bundle of His b. Purkinje, Bundle of His, AV node, SA node c. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers d. AV node, SA node, Bundle of Hers, Purkinje fibers

C

The following antiarrhythmic drug(s) can be used for persistent ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, except: a. Amiodarone b. Lidocaine c. Atropine d. Epinephrine

C

The following are possible effects of hyperventilation: a. Increased intrathoracic pressure b. Decreased venous return to the heart c. Both A and B d. None of the above

C

The normal sinus rhythm of the heart starts in the: a. Left ventricle b. Atrioventricular node c. Sinoatrial node d. Right ventricle

C

What is the first step in the assessment of an individual found "down"? a. Check their blood pressure. b. Check their heart rate. c. Check to see if they are conscious or unconscious. d. Check their pupil size.

C

Which of the following is not a potential cause of PEA? a. Toxins b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyperventilation d. Trauma

C

Which of the following is the correct next step in management after delivery of a shock? a. Check pulse. b. Ventilate only. c. Do chest compressions. d. Shock again.

C

Which of the following is true regarding BLS? a. It is obsolete. b. Recent changes prohibit mouth-to-mouth. c. It should be mastered prior to ACLS. d. It has little impact on survival.

C

You are treating an individual who presented in ventricular fibrillation. After CPR and one attempt at defibrillation, his new rhythm is third- degree AV block. What is the next step in management? a. Repeat defibrillation b. Vasopressin c. Transcutaneous pacing d. High dose epinephrine

C

After activating EMS and sending someone for an AED, which of the following is correct for one-rescuer BLS of an unresponsive individual with no pulse? a. Start rescue breathing. b. Apply AED pads. c. Run to get help. d. Begin chest compressions.

D

An individual presents with symptomatic bradycardia. Her heart rate is 32. Which of the following are acceptable therapeutic options? a. Atropine b. Epinephrine c. Dopamine d. All of the above

D

Select the proper pairing regarding CPR for an adult: a. Chest compressions 60 to 80/minute; 2 inches deep (5cm) b. Chest compressions 80/minute; 1.5 inches deep (4cm) c. Chest compressions 100/minute; 3 inches deep (8cm) d. Chest compression 100 to 120 per minute; 2 to 2.4 inches deep (5-6cm)

D

The following are classic signs of an acute stroke except: a. Facial droop b. Arm drift c. Abnormal speech d. Seizure

D

The primary focus of treating cardiac arrest is: a. Effective CPR b. Early defibrillation c. Drug administration d. Both A and B

D

What piece of data is critical to obtain in all stroke individuals? a. Date of birth b. Hemoglobin A1c c. Bilateral arm blood pressure d. Time last seen normal

D

Which of the following is a shockable rhythm? a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Ventricular tachycardia (pulseless) c. Torsades de Pointes d. All of the above

D

Which of the following is first-line treatment for ACS? a. Morphine b. Aspirin c. Nitroglycerin d. All of the above

D

Which of the following is not found within the 8 D's of stroke care? a. Detection b. Dispatch c. Delivery d. Defibrillate

D

_____ joules (J) are delivered per shock when using a monophasic defibrillator. a. 380 b. 320 c. 340 d. 360

D

True or False: The goal of stroke care is to complete the ED initial evaluation within 10 minutes, the neurologic evaluation within 25 minutes of arrival, and have the head CT read within 45 minutes of arrival.

True


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