C400 Review
What are the doctrinal key outputs of receipt of mission?
Commander's initial guidance and initial allocation of time
What are the four stability Mechanisms?
Compel, Control, Influence, Support.
What are the principles of mission command?
Competence, Trust, Shared understanding, CDR Intent, Mission Orders, Disciplined Initiative, Risk Acceptance (ADP 3-0, 3-39)
Given the amount of data available in the contemporary operating environment, which of the considerations are MOST IMPORTANT for a staff officer to develop to support the commander's understanding when updating running estimates?
Conclusions and recommendations
After the COA decision brief, what must the staff do if the commander modifies a proposed COA or gives the staff an entirely different COA?
Conduct war game of the new/updated COA
If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy recon, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation?
Counter recon
What does the application of combined arms allow commanders to do?
Create an effect greater than using elements separately or sequentially.
What term describes the situation where, while war gaming a COA the staff recognize a point, based on friendly and threat conditions, when the commander will have to make an informed judgement regarding the BCT's actions for the penetration to be successful?
Decision Point
What are the Tenets of ULO?
Depth, Simultaneity, Synchronization, Flexibility
What are the four Defeat Mechanisms?
Destroy, Dislocate, Disintegrate, and Isolate.
According to opposing force tactics, the standard functional organization of a detachment for defense is?
Disruption element, Main defensive element, Support element, and Reserve element.
What are the Functional Cells within a BCT/DIV staff?
Intelligence, Movement and Maneuver, Fires, Protection, and Sustainment.
What is the purpose of a battle handover line (BHL)?
It indicates where transfer of responsibility for the close fight passes from the withdrawing force to the defending force.
What is a CAB Squadron constraint?
Limited sustainment assets that regularly operate over protracted distances.
What components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support?
Main effort and supporting effort
What are the principles of ULO?
Mission Command, Develop the situation through Action, Combined Arms, Adhere to law of war, establish and maintain security, create multiple dilemmas for the enemy
What are the types of Offensive Operations?
Movement to Contact, Attack, Exploitation and Pursuit
During a catastrophic event when the demand for resources exceeds the National Guard capacity, request for federal Army forces are supported by?
NORTHCOM and INDOPACOM
Where are stability operations conducted?
OCONUS
Which element of decisive action is the most decisive form of warfare and the ultimate means of forcing your will on enemy forces?
Offense
Describe how the Army's strategic roles relate to the joint phasing model.
Phase 0 = Shape (Army Shape) Phase 1 = Deter (Army Prevent) Phase 2 = Seize (Army Prevail) Phase 3 = Dominate (Army Prevail) Phase 4 = Stabilize (Army Consolidate gains) Phase 5 = Civil (Army Consolidate)
Which integrating cell develops sequel plans?
Plans cell
Arriving in your area of operations ahead of your attacker, you study the terrain to find positions that allow the massing of fires on likely approaches and combines natural and man-made obstacles to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas. What characteristic of defense is being described?
Preparation
What are Primary/Key Task for DSCA?
Provide support for domestic CBRN incidents, ...
What three elements does the initial commander's intent contain?
Purpose of the operation, initial key tasks, and desired end state.
Why would a unit transition from the offense?
Reached the LOA, Complete Victory, Culminating Point, Change of Mission
What is the main difference between security and recon operations?
Recon ops are enemy and terrain oriented, whereas security ops orient on the protected force or facility.
What type of recon management should the commander employ to improve the chances the recon element collects the required information?
Redundancy
What is a general consideration when planning sustainment for recon operations?
Refer to FM 3-98, para 8-60
What are the Characteristics of the Offense?
SCAT - Surprise - Concentration - Audacity - Tempo
What do planners use to examine each prospective COA for validity?
Screening Criteria
Are Multinational forces generally OPCON or TACON to another command?
TACON
What is the difference between Area of Influence and Area of Interest?
The Area of Interest is the area of concern to the commander, including the area of influence, areas adjacent thereto, and extending into enemy territory. The Area of Influence is a geographical area wherein a commander is directly capable of influencing operations by maneuver or fire support systems normally under the commander's command and control.
As the staff transitions from COA approval to orders production, what is the best source for the OPORD concept of the operations?
The COA Statement
Command Forces, Control Operations, and Drive the Ops Process are tasks associated with?
The Command and Control warfighting function.
Describe the National Response Framework's (NRF) significance to DSCA.
The NRF details national response principles, partner roles, emergency support functions, and structures for coordinating a national disaster response.
Describe the operations process.
The Ops Process is a continual cycle of Plan, Prepare, Execute and Assessing. This process is commander driven where they understand, visualize, Describe, Direct, and lead.
What are the inherent strengths of defensive operations?
The defender is able to occupy positions prior to being attacked and prepare defenses in the time available.
Doctrinally, what conditions best describe stability?
The populace believing their government is legitimate and their living situation is acceptable and predictable.
What are Unified Land Operations?
The simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, and defense support to civil authorities across multiple domains... is the Army contribution to shape OE, prevent conflict, LSCO, consolidate gains. These are all done to win (Army's contribution) through Decisive Action.
What is Unified Action?
The synchronization, coordination, and/or integration of the activities of government and non-government entities w/ military operations to achieve unity of effort.
What are the two sub-categories of a fragile state?
The two sub-categories of a fragile state are crisis and vulnerable.
What might the commander be planning to do if, following a successful defense during which the enemy force suffered severe losses, the commander directs recon assets forward to maintain contact with the enemy and requests an updated status of adjacent friendly units?
The unit will transition to offensive operations.
What is the purpose of US Army offensive operations?
To destroy enemy forces
Why do commanders use defeat mechanisms?
To help commanders describe an operational approach.
Units assigned responsibilities for governance, law and order, and providing essential services are referred to as what?
Transitional military authority or TMA.
Where does USNORTHCOM conduct DSCA and where does USINDOPACOM conduct DSCA?
USNORTHCOM is responsible for CONUS and Alaska, USINDOPACOM is responsible for Hawaii, Guam, America Samoa, and all other pacific territorial islands
What is the simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability and defense support of civil authorities across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action?
Unified Land Operations
Problem solving in the Army is a process designed to do what?
Use a systematic approach to identify issues, develop a plan, and implement the solution.
After COA approval, how does the staff inform subordinate units on guidance for preparation and rehearsal instructions not included in unit SOPs?
Warning Order (WARNORD)
How is the Area of Operations divided up in terms of space?
Within the Commander's Area of Operations, they will have a Deep Area, Close Area, Rear Area, and Support Area.
How does the Army support force when it takes action to deter adversaries?
by preventing conflict
What term means sustained combat operations involving multiple corps and DIVs?
large-scale ground combat operations
What are the two types of Enemy OPFOR attacks?
Integrated and Dispersed attack.
Describe Dual Status command in relation to DSCA.
(ADP 3-28, para 3-57)
What is the 8 step training model?
1. Plan 2. Train the Trainers 3. Recon the Site 4. Issue the Order 5. Rehearse 6. Execute 7. Evaluate the Training 8. Retrain
Whenever state National Guard forces respond in support of another state each JFHQ-State (supporting and supported) ensures certain coordination requirements are met. Most commitments of forces are for how long?
30 days
If, during COA development a staff determine that they must destroy an enemy recon company in order to create or preserve conditions for success, what type of operation would this most likely be a part of?
A Shaping Operation
What is a crisis state?
A crisis state is a state that does not exert effective control over its sovereign territory.
What is an Essential Task?
A specified or implied task that must be executed to accomplish the mission.
What is a Specified Task?
A task specifically assigned to a unit by its higher HQ.
What is an Implied Task?
A task that must be performed to accomplish a specified task or mission but is not stated in the Higher HQ order.
What is a vulnerable state?
A vulnerable state is a state that cannot or does not want to provide security and basic services to significant portion of its population.
Army units must do what to prevent the perception of favoritism to an ethnic or political group during the conduct of Army Stability operations?
ADP 3-07, para. 2-76
What are variations of the Attack?
Ambush, Counterattack, Demonstration, Feint, Raid, and Spoiling Attack
Which defensive operation concentrate on denying the enemy access to terrain for a specific time rather than destruction of the enemy by concentrating the bulk of defending forces in mutually supporting prepare positions?
Area Defense
Given the inherently complex and uncertain nature of operations, particularly stability operations, what planning process assist organizations in understanding the root causes of instability?
Army Design Methodology.
What type of offensive operation would an ABCT most likely use if the unit knows some or all of the enemy's disposition?
Attack
While in the defense, why would the BCT commander direct an uncommitted force to attack an enemy force that appears to be at a reduced strength?
Attacking with an uncommitted force is a preferred method of transitioning to the offense.
What are some tactical mission tasks?
Block, Attack by Fire, XXX (FM 1-02.1
What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government?
Building host-nation capacity and capabilities.
At the conclusion of which step of MDMP have the staff prepared COA statements and sketches, a tentative task organization, a broad concept of the operations, revised planning guidance, and updated assumptions?
COA Development
Which operational cell conducts RDSP?
CUOPS
In OPFOR tactics, what is a formation that prevents enemy recon or small groups from penetrating friendly positions and force the enemy to prematurely deploy and loose his momentum in the attack?
Combat security outpost (CSOP)
UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating what?
Enemy forces that are well covered or concealed
What are Forms of Maneuver?
Envelopment, Frontal Assault, Infiltration, Penetration, and Turning Movement.
What are the Army's Minimum-essential stability tasks?
Establish civil security and restore essential services are the Minimum-essential stability tasks.
What must the staff weigh each COA against during COA comparison?
Evaluation criteria approved by the commander and staff.
Which process will BCT staff use to identify strengths and weaknesses of COAs enabling selection of a COA w/ the highest probability of success for further development into an OPLAN or OPORD?
FM 6-0, para 9-176
If a commander was able to converge indirect fires, direct fires, and EW simultaneously against a heavily fortifies enemy position what is the most likely result of this?
Fire Superiority
Which integrating cell develops branch plans?
Future Operations Cell (FUOPS)
When commander have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do which of the following?
Give detailed direction
What allows/authorizes a local commander to temporarily support a local community's civil authority's request for military assistance in an emergency situation for a limited duration w/o higher authority approval?
Immediate Response Authority (IRA)
Where are DSCA operations conducted?
Inside the Continental United States.