CCNA 200-125
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 07104371. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782 The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4 Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table? A. the EIGRP route B. the OSPF route C. the RIPv2 route D. all three routes E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
A
How does a Layer 2 switch differ from a hub? A. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices. B. A switch always induces latency into the frame transfer time. C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model. D. A switchdecreases the number of collision domains.
A
How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table? A. it discards the packet. B. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router. C. it routes the packet to the default route. D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router.
A
In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked ? A. the Tos byte B. the Qos byte C. the Cos byte D. the Dscp byte
A
What type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch? A. Dynamic B. Manual C. Automatic D. Static
A
Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2? A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255 B. virtual MAC addresses C. tracking D. preemption
A
Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use? A. NAT pool B. dynamic NAT C. static NAT D. one-way NAT
A
Which adverse situation can occur if an Ethernet cable is too long? A. late collisions B. giants C. interface resets D. runts
A
Which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignments? A. show ip dhcp pool B. show ip dhcp database C. show ip dhcp import D. clear ip dhcp server statistics
A
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolates users according to policy? A. network services virtualization B. access control. C. path isolation D. policy enforcement
A
Which option is the master redundancy scheme for stacked switches? A. 1:N B. 1:1 C. N:1 D. 1+N
A
Which statement about upgrading a cisco ios device with TFTP is True ? A. The Cisco IOS device must be on the same lan as the TFTP server B. The operation is performed in passive mode C. The operation is performed in an unencrypted format D. The operation is performed in active mode
A
which command can you enter to re enable cisco discovery protocol on a local router after it has been disabled ? A. Router (config)# cdp run B. Router (config-if)# cdp run C. Router (config)# cdp enable D. Router (config-if)# cdp enable
A
which technology supports multiple dynamic secure connections an unsecure transport network ? A. DMVPN B. VPN C. Site-to-site VPN D. client VPN
A
How many primary IPv4 addresses can be assigned to an interface? A. unlimited B. 8 C. 2 D. 1
A Explanation: CiscoIOS software supports multiple IP addresses per interface. You can specify an unlimited number of secondary addresses.
Which statement about DHCP address pools is true? A. A network must be defined before you can configure a manual binding. B. Only one DNSserver can be identified for an individual DHCP group. C. You can use a subnet mask of prefix length to define a network. D. The domain name of the DHCP pool is specified in the global configuration of the router.
C
Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch? A. automatic B. manual C. dynamic D. static
C
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports? A. Trunk Ports B. Access Ports C. Dynamic Auto D. Dynamic Desirable
C Explanation: The 'dynamic auto' will configure the port to accept incoming negotiation and will accept becoming either a trunk or an access port. Dynamic Auto allows the port to negotiate DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) if the other side is set to trunk or desirable. Otherwise it will become an access port.
How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address? A. 32 B. 48 C. 64 D. 128
C Explanation: ipv6 64 bits for Network ID and 64 bits for Interface ID 64+64=128
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send? A. error conditions only B. warning and error conditions only C. normal but significant conditions only D. all levels except debugging E. informational messages only
E
Which set of conditions comprises a successful ping attempt between two connected routers configured with IP addresses on the same subnet? A. The destination host receives an echo reply from the source host within one second and the source host receives an echo request from the destination host. B. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host within one second. C. The destination host receives an echo replyfrom the source host within one second and the source host receives an echo reply from the destination host within two seconds. D. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host and the source host receives an echo request from the destination host within one second. E. The destination host receives an echo request from the source host and the source host receives an echo reply from the destination host within two seconds.
E
While troubleshooting a DCHP client that is behaving erratically, you discover that the client has been assigned the same IP address as a printer that is a staticIP address. Which option is the best way to resolve the problem? A. Configure static route to the client. B. Assign the client the same IP address as the router. C. Move the client to another IP subnet D. Move the printer to another IP subnet. E. Reserve the printer IP address.
E
Which option must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? A. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. D. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server. E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway. F. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
F
To enable router on a stick on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform ? choose two A. configure full duplex and speed B. configure a default to route traffic between subinterfaces C. configure the subinterface with an ip address D. configure encapsulation dot1q E. configure an ip route to the vlan destination network
CD
Which two options are fields in an ethernet frame ? choose two A. destination ip address B. source ip address C. type D. frame check sequence E. header
CD
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.) A. VLANscannot span multiple switches. B. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. C. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A new switch has no VLANs configured. F. A switch maintainsa separate bridging table for each VLAN.
CDF
which two statements about data vlans on access ports are true ? A. they can be configured as trunk ports B. 802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface C. Exactly one vlan can be configured on the interface D. Two or more vlans can be configured on the interface E. They can be configured as host ports
CE
From which PPPoE server configuration does a PPPoE client get an IP address? A. AAA authentication B. DHCP C. dialer interface D. virtual-template interface
D
On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication? A. interface port B. access port C. switch port D. trunk port
D
What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line ? A. Low cost B. Full-mesh capability C. Flexibillity of design D. Simply configuration
D
What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol ? A. it discovers the routers, switches and gateways. B. it is network layer protocol C. it is physical and data link layer protocol D. it is Cisco proprietary protocol
D
When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device? A. In the global config B. Under serial interface C. Under the routing protocol D. Under the multilink interface
D
Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication? A. IEEE 802.1x B. RARP C. CSMA/CA D. CSMA/CD
D
Which configuration can be used with PAT to allow multiple inside address to be translated to a single outside address ? A. Dynamic Routing B. DNS C. Preempt D. overload
D
Which definition of default route is true? A. A route that is manually configured. B. A route used when a destination route is missing. C. A route to the exact /32 destination address D. Dynamic route learned from the server.
D
Which function does traffic shaping perform? A. it buffers traffic without queuing it B. it queues traffic without buffering it C. it drops packets to control the output rate D. it buffers and queues excess packets
D
Which network configuration can you use to segregate broadcast traffic for two different departments in your organization? A. Configure two VTP domains and configure the switches in transparent mode. B. Enable spanning-tree load balancing. C. Implement switch port security on designated ports. D. Configure a separate VLAN for each department.
D
Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment? A. CLNS B. TCPv6 C. NHRP D. NDP E. ARP
D
Which table displays the MAC addresses that are learned on a switch? A. FIB B. ARP C. TCAM D. CAM
D
which NTP type designates a router without an external referee clock as an authoritative time source ? A. Client B. Server C. peer D. master
D
Which APIC-EM tool allows an administrator to verify ACLs throughout the network? A. Cisco Intelligent WAN application B. traceroute C. Network Topology D. Path Trace
D Explanation: One of the most important features of the APIC-EM controller is the capability to manage policies across the entire network. APIC-EM ACL Analysis and Path Trace provide tools to allow the administrator to analyze and understand ACL policies and configurations. Administrators are hesitant to change ACLs, for fear of breaking them and causing new problems. Together, ACL Analysis and Path Trace enable the administrator to easily visualize traffic flows and discover any conflicting, duplicate, or shadowed ACL entries.
Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations? A. access. B. protect. C. restrict. D. shutdown.
C
How does a Cisco switch respond if you boot it without a valid configuration in the NVRAM? A. it enters setup mode. B. it uses the running -configuration C. It prompts you to restore the startup configuration D. it enters user EXEC mode.
B
What is the default encapsulation type for Cisco WAN serial interfaces? A. Frame Relay B. HDLC C. PPP D. SDLC
B
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP ? A. on the switch trunk interface. B. on the router closest to the client. C. on the router closest to the server. D. on every router along the path.
B
Which Command can you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices? A. Show cdp neighbors B. Show cdp neighbors detail C. show cdp traffic D. show cdp interface
B
Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates? A. static B. RIPng C. OSPFv3 D. IS-IS for IPv6
B
Which NTP concept indicates the distance between a device and the reliable time source? A. clock offset B. stratum C. reference D. dispersion
B
Which VLAN bridge priority value will make a switch as root for a given VLAN from the below options by the spanning-tree vlan vlan-id root command? A. 16384 B. 8192 C. 28672 D. 32768
B
Which action can change the order of entries in a named access list? A. opening the access list in Notepad. B. resequercing C. removing an entry D. adding an entry
B
Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27? A. Class C B. Class B C. Class D D. Class A
B
Which command can you enter in a network switch configuration so that learned mac addresses are saved in configuration as they connect ? A. Switch(confg-if)#Switch port-security B. Switch(confg-if)#Switch port-security Mac-address sticky C. Switch(confg-if)#Switch port-security maximum 10 D. Switch(confg-if)#Switch mode access
B
Which command can you enter to configure an IPv6 static route? A. router(config)#ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 1 B. router(config)#ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 201 C. router(config)#ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/1 D. router(config)#ipv6 route static resolve default
B
Which command displays the number of times that an individual router translated an inside address to an outside address? A. show ip protocol B. show ip nat translation C. show counters D. show iproute E. show ip nat statistics
B
Which command is used to show the interface status of a router? A. show interface status B. show ip interface brief C. show ip route D. show interface
B
Which configuration enables OSPF for network 192.168.1.0/24? A. router ospfrouter-id 192.168.1.0 B. router ospf 1network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 C. router ospf 1neighbor 192.168.1.0 D. router ospf 1area 0 virtual-link 192.168.1.0
B
Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at least two times the metric? A. equal cost load balancing B. unequal cost load balancing C. Path selection D. path count
B
Which information is used to install the best route to a destination in IP routing table? A. the tunnel ID B. the prefix length C. the interface number D. the autonomous system
B
Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking? A. System network architecture B. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol C. Open system Interconnect D. Open network architecture
B
Which option is the industry-standard protocol for etherChannel? A. Cisco Discovery protocol B. PAgp C. LACP D. DTP
B
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command? A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router. B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router. C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2. D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
C
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information? A. in the CAM table B. in the VLAN database C. in the DHCP binding database D. in the MAC address table
C
Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable auto mode? A. trunk B. access C. dynamic desirable D. dynamic auto
C
Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network? A. interface ip address verification. B. MAC address table verification C. neighbor discovery verification D. routing table entry verification
C
Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs? A. server B. off C. client D. transparent
C
Which address block identifies all link-local address A. fc00::/7 B. fc00::/8 C. fe80::/10
C
Which functionality does an SVI provide? A. OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches B. remote switch administration C. traffic routing for VLANs D. OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches
C
Which keyword enables an HSRP router to take the active role immediately when it comes online? A. IP address B. Priority C. Preempt D. Version
C
Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true ? A. they must be configured on all IPv6 interface B. They must be globally unique C. They must be manually configured D. They are advertised globally on the network
B
Which statement describes the effect of the exec-timeout 30 command? A. The router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 seconds. B. The router disconnects the user session if it is inactive for 30 minutes. C. The router maintains a user session indefinitely after it is active for 30 minutes. D. The router disconnects a user session if it is inactive for 30 seconds.
B
Which technology can provide security when connection multiple sites across the internet? A. EBGP B. DMVPN C. Site-to-site vpn D. MPLS
B
Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address? A. Teredo B. 6to4 C. 4to6 D. GRE E. ISATAP
B
Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules ? A. The A.CL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM. B. The ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM C. The Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler. D. The Cisco IWAN application.
B
which command can you enter to create a NAT Pool of 6 addresses ? A. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.74 prefix-length 24 B. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.66 175.17.12.72 prefix-length 8 C. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.74 prefix-length 16 D. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.76 prefix-length 8
B
which major ipv6 address type is supported in ipv4 but rarely used ? A. Broadcast B. multicast C. unicast D. anycast
B
which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252? A. /29 B. /30 C. /31 D. /32
B
Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches? A. star B. hub and spoke C. point-to-point D. full mesh
B Explanation: In a Hub-and-spoke Site-to-Site Wide Area Network (WAN) network topology, one physical site act as Hub (Example, Main Office), while other physical sites act as spokes. Spoke sites are connected to each other via Hub site. In Huband-spoke Wide Area Network (WAN) topology, the network communication between two spokes always travels through the hub.
Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model ? A. Show snmp pending B. show snmp group C. snmp server contact D. show snmp engineID
B Explanation: show snmp group To display the names of groups on the router and the security model, the status of the different views, and the storage type of each group, use the show snmp group show snmp group EXEC command.
How can you manually configure a switch so that it is selected as the root Switch? A. increase the priority number B. lower the port priority number C. lower the priority number D. increase the port priority number
C
How many bits represent the network ID in iPv6? A. 32 B. 48 C. 64 D. 128
C
In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostname of a device? A. line mode B. interface mode C. global mode D. router mode
C
Which options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on an IPv4 network router? (Choose two.) A. enabling RIP on the router B. allowing unicast updates for RIP C. enabling RIP authentication D. connecting RIP to a WAN interface E. enabling automatic route summarrization
AB
Which two statements about switch stacking are true? (Choose two) A. The stack is powered by a single power cable B. The switches are connected in a daisy-chain fashion C. The first and last switch in the stack must be connected to one another D. The switches are connected by crossover cables E. The switches must be fully meshed
AB
Which two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.) A. determines the next hop on the path B. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces C. computes the destination host address D. forwards ARP requests E. updates the destination IP address
AB
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three) A. to speed up convergence B. to reduce routing overhead C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
ABE
Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two ) A. It must be manually enabled after RIP is configured as the routing protocol B. It uses multicast address 224.0.0.2 to share routing information between peers C. its default administrative distances 120 D. It is a link-state routing protocol E. It is an EGP routing protocol
AC
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three) A. Session B. transport C. presentation D. application E. data-link
ACD
which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device ? A. Device administration packets are encrypted in their entirety B. it allows the user to remotely access devices from other vendors C. it supports access level authorization for commands D. it ensures that user activity is untraceable E. it allows users to be authenticated against a remote server F. it provides a secure accounting facility on the device
ACE
Under which two circumstances is network traffic most likely to use an Exterior Gateway Routing Protocol? (Choose two) A. When an employee connects to an employer branch office in a different city. B. When network traffic is routing to a different building on a corporate campus. C. When an employee is browsing the public internet. D. When an employee checks email while working onsite at the data center. E. When a user browsing the web site of a business partner.
AD
which two statements about vtp are true ? A. all switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name B. all switches must be configured with a unique vtp domain name C. all switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation D. all switches must use the same VTP Version E. The VTP Server must have the highest revision number in the domain
AD
Which three features are represented by the letter A in AAA authentication? (Choose three.) A. authorization B. accountability C. authority D. authentication E. accounting F. accessibility
ADE
Which three options are types of slow VLAN connectivity? (Choose three.) A. slow broadcast domain connectivity B. slow routing domain connectivity C. slow default gateway connectivity D. slow application domain connectivity E. slow collision domain connectivity F. slow inter-VLAN connectivity
ADE
Which Two options are features of the extended ping command? A. it can send packets from a specified interface or ip address B. it can resolve the destination host name C. it can ping multiple hosts at the same time D. it can count the number of hops to the remote host E. it can send a specified number of packets
AE
Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.) A. a Layer 3 switch B. a hub C. a bridge D. an access point E. a router
AE
Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true?(choose two) A. The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed. B. It is used for an ISATAP tunnel C. The embedded IPv4 address is an RFC 1918 address D. The MAC address 20:02:b0:10:be:ef is embedded into the IPv6 address E. It is used for a 6to4 tunnel
AE
Which two statements about UDP are true? (Choose two) A. It can transmit data at a rate higher than the path capacity B. It uses a three-way handshake to ensure that traffic is transmated properly C. It guarantees packet delivery D. it includes protection against duplicate packets E. it can be used for multicast and broadcast traffic
AE
which three options are fields in a basic ethernet data frame ? A. preamble B. time to live C. version D. header checksum E. length type F. frame check sequence
AEF
In which two ways can you prevent recursive routing in a tunneled environment? (Choose two) A. Configure routes through the tunnel with a lower metric than other routes. B. Configure route filtering to prevent the tunnel endpoints from learning each other through the tunnel. C. Enable QoS on the link. D. Configure routes through the tunnel with a higher metric than other routes. E. configure GRE keepalives on the tunnel interface.
BD
Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two) A. transferring spirt horizon traffic between zones B. Forwarding name resolution requests to an external DNS server C. assigning IP addresses to local clients D. resolving names locally E. copying updatedIOS images to Cisco switches
BD
Which statement about NTP is true? A. The default authentication key number is 1. B. The default source address of an NTP message is the interface connected to the next-hop for the server peer address. C. The default stratum number is 5. D. Each device is enabled as a server by default and propagates NTP messages to all peers on its default LAN.
b
