Chapter 63: Management of Patients with Neurologic Trauma
Level of consciousness (LOC) can be assessed based on criteria in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). Which of the following indicators are assessed in the GCS? Select all that apply. A) Eye opening B) Verbal response C) Motor response D) Intelligence E) Muscle strength
A) Eye opening B) Verbal response C) Motor response
A client who has been severely beaten is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse suspects a basilar skull fracture after assessing: A) raccoon's eyes and Battle sign. B) nuchal rigidity and Kernig's sign. C) motor loss in the legs that exceeds that in the arms. D) pupillary changes.
A) raccoon's eyes and Battle sign. Explanation: A basilar skull fracture commonly causes only periorbital ecchymosis (raccoon's eyes) and postmastoid ecchymosis (Battle sign); however, it sometimes also causes otorrhea, rhinorrhea, and loss of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve) function. Nuchal rigidity and Kernig's sign are associated with meningitis. Motor loss in the legs that exceeds that in the arms suggests central cord syndrome. Pupillary changes are common in skull fractures with associated meningeal artery bleeding and uncal herniation.
For a patient with an SCI, why is it beneficial to administer oxygen to maintain a high partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2)? A) So that the patient will not have a respiratory arrest B) Because hypoxemia can create or worsen a neurologic deficit of the spinal cord C) To increase cerebral perfusion pressure D) To prevent secondary brain injury
B) Because hypoxemia can create or worsen a neurologic deficit of the spinal cord
A client is admitted with a cervical spine injury sustained during a diving accident. When planning this client's care, the nurse should assign highest priority to which nursing diagnosis? A) Impaired physical mobility B) Ineffective breathing pattern C) Disturbed sensory perception (tactile) D) Dressing or grooming self-care deficit
B) Ineffective breathing pattern
Which term refers to muscular hypertonicity in a weak muscle, with increased resistance to stretch? A) Akathisia B) Spasticity C) Ataxia D) Myoclonus
B) Spasticity Explanation: Spasticity is often associated with weakness, increased deep tendon reflexes, and diminished superficial reflexes. Akathisia refers to restlessness, an urgent need to move around, and agitation. Ataxia refers to impaired ability to coordinate movement. Myoclonus refers to spasm of a single muscle or group of muscles.
Which are characteristics of autonomic dysreflexia? A) severe hypotension, tachycardia, nausea, flushed skin B) severe hypertension, tachycardia, blurred vision, dry skin C) severe hypotension, slow heart rate, anxiety, dry skin D) severe hypertension, slow heart rate, pounding headache, sweating
D) severe hypertension, slow heart rate, pounding headache, sweating Explanation: Autonomic dysreflexia is an exaggerated sympathetic nervous system response. Hypertension, tachycardia, bradycardia, and flushed skin would occur.
The nurse is planning to provide education about prevention in the community YMCA due to the increase in numbers of spinal cord injuries (SCIs). What predominant risk factors does the nurse understand will have to be addressed? Select all that apply. A) Young age B) Male gender C) Older adult D) Substance abuse E) Low-income community
A) Young age B) Male gender D) Substance abuse
A client has been diagnosed with a concussion and is to be released from the emergency department. The nurse teaches the family or friends who will be caring for the client to contact the physician or return to the ED if the client A) reports a headache. B) vomits. C) reports generalized weakness. D) sleeps for short periods of time.
B) vomits. Explanation: Vomiting is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and should be reported immediately. In general, the finding of headache in a client with a concussion is an expected abnormal observation. However, a severe headache, weakness of one side of the body, and difficulty in waking the client should be reported or treated immediately.
The nurse is discussing spinal cord injury (SCI) at a health fair at a local high school. The nurse relays that the most common cause of SCI is A) Falls B) Sports-related injuries C) Acts of violence D) Motor vehicle crashes
D) Motor vehicle crashes Explanation: The most common causes of SCIs are motor vehicle crashes (46%), falls (22%), violence (16%), and sports (12%). Males account for 80% of clients with SCI. An estimated 50% to 70% of SCIs occur in those aged 15 to 35 years.
A client admitted with a cerebral contusion is confused, disoriented, and restless. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority? A) Disturbed sensory perception (visual) related to neurologic trauma B) feeding self-care deficit related to neurologic trauma C) Impaired verbal communication related to confusion D) Risk for injury related to neurologic deficit
D) Risk for injury related to neurologic deficit Explanation: Because a cerebral contusion causes altered cognition, the nurse should identify Risk for injury related to neurologic deficit as the primary nursing diagnosis and focus on interventions that promote client safety and prevent further injury.
Autonomic dysreflexia can occur with spinal cord injuries above which of the following levels? T6 S2 L4 T10
T6
A patient is admitted to the emergency room with a fractured skull sustained in a motorcycle accident. The nurse notes fluid leaking from the patient's ears. The nurse knows this is a probable sign of which type of skull fracture? A) Basilar B) Simple C) Comminuted D) Depressed
A) Basilar Explanation: Basilar skull fractures are suspected when cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) escapes from the ears (CSF otorrhea) and/or the nose (CSF rhinorrhea).
The nurse working on the neurological unit is caring for a client with a basilar skull fracture. During the assessment, the nurse expects to observe Battle's sign, which is a sign of basilar skull fracture. Which of the following correctly describes Battle's sign? A) Ecchymosis over the mastoid B) Bruising under the eyes C) Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the nose D) Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ears
A) Ecchymosis over the mastoid Explanation: With fractures of the base of the skull, an area of ecchymosis (bruising) may be seen over the mastoid and is called Battle's sign. Basilar skull fractures are suspected when cerebrospinal fluid escapes from the ears or the nose.
The nurse is caring for a client with a head injury. The client is experiencing CSF rhinorrhea. Which order should the nurse question? A) Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube B) Urine testing for acetone C) Serum sodium concentration testing D) Out of bed to the chair three times a day
A) Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube Explanation: Clients with brain injury are assumed to be catabolic, and nutritional support consultation should be considered as soon as the client is admitted. Parenteral nutrition via a central line or enteral feedings administered via an NG or nasojejunal feeding tube should be considered. If cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea occurs, an oral feeding tube should be inserted instead of a nasal tube. Serial studies of blood and urine electrolytes and osmolality are done because head injuries may be accompanied by disorders of sodium regulation. Urine is tested regularly for acetone. An intervention to maintain skin integrity is getting the client out of bed to a chair three times daily.
The most important nursing priority of treatment for a patient with an altered LOC is to: A) Maintain a clear airway to ensure adequate ventilation. B) Stabilize the blood pressure and heart rate to ensure adequate perfusion of the brain. C) Prevent dehydration and renal failure by inserting an IV line for fluids and medications. D) Position the patient to prevent injury and ensure dignity.
A) Maintain a clear airway to ensure adequate ventilation. Explanation: The first priority of treatment for the patient with altered LOC is to obtain and maintain a patent airway. The patient may be orally or nasally intubated (unless basilar skull fracture or facial trauma is suspected), or a tracheostomy may be performed. Until the ability of the patient to breathe on his or her own is determined, a mechanical ventilator is used to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation.
When caring for a client who is post-intracranial surgery what is the most important parameter to monitor? A) Extreme thirst B) Body temperature C) Intake and output D) Nutritional status
B) Body temperature Explanation: It is important to monitor the client's body temperature closely because hyperthermia increases brain metabolism, increasing the potential for brain damage. Therefore, elevated temperature must be relieved with an antipyretic and other measures. Extreme thirst, intake and output, and nutritional status are not the most important parameters to monitor.
A patient was body surfing in the ocean and sustained a cervical spinal cord fracture. A halo traction device was applied. How does the patient benefit from the application of the halo device? A) It is the only device that can be applied for stabilization of a spinal fracture. B) It allows for stabilization of the cervical spine along with early ambulation. C) It is less bulky and traumatizing for the patient to use. D) The patient can remove it as needed.
B) It allows for stabilization of the cervical spine along with early ambulation. Explanation: Halo devices provide immobilization of the cervical spine while allowing early ambulation.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the emergency department with a diagnosed epidural hematoma. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for? Hypophysectomy Application of Halo traction Burr holes Insertion of Crutchfield tongs
Burr holes Explanation: An epidural hematoma is considered an extreme emergency; marked neurologic deficit or even respiratory arrest can occur within minutes. Treatment consists of making openings through the skull (burr holes) to decrease intracranial pressure emergently, remove the clot, and control the bleeding.
When planning care for a client with a head injury, which position should the nurse include in the care plan to enhance client outcomes? A) Trendelenburg's B) Flat C) 30-degree head elevation D) Side-lying
C) 30-degree head elevation Explanation: For clients with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the head of the bed should be elevated to 30 degrees to promote venous outflow. Trendelenburg's position is contraindicated because it can raise ICP. Flat or neutral positioning is indicated when elevating the head of the bed would increase the risk of neck injury or airway obstruction. A side-lying position isn't specifically a therapeutic treatment for increased ICP.
The nurse is caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI). Which clinical finding, observed during the reassessment of the client, causes the nurse the most concern? A) Urinary output increase from 40 to 55 mL/hr B) Heart rate decrease from 100 to 90 bpm C) Temperature increase from 98.0°F to 99.6°F D) Pulse oximetry decrease from 99% to 97% room air
C) Temperature increase from 98.0°F to 99.6°F Explanation: Fever in the client with a TBI can be the result of damage to the hypothalamus, cerebral irritation from hemorrhage, or infection. The nurse monitors the client's temperature every 2 to 4 hours. If the temperature increases, efforts are made to identify the cause and to control it using acetaminophen and cooling blankets to maintain normothermia. The other clinical findings are within normal limits.
A client with weakness and tingling in both legs is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. On admission, which assessment is most important for this client? Evaluation for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) Evaluation of pain and discomfort Evaluation of nutritional status and metabolic state Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume
Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume Explanation: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, polyneuritis commonly causes weakness and paralysis, which may ascend to the trunk and involve the respiratory muscles. Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity, tidal volume, and negative inspiratory force are crucial in detecting and preventing respiratory failure — the most serious complication of polyneuritis. A peripheral nerve disorder, polyneuritis doesn't cause increased ICP. Although the nurse must evaluate the client for pain and discomfort and must assess the nutritional status and metabolic state, these aren't priorities.
A patient comes to the emergency department with a large scalp laceration after being struck in the head with a glass bottle. After assessment of the patient, what does the nurse do before the physician sutures the wound? a) Irrigates the wound to remove debris b) Administers an oral analgesic for pain C) Administers acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headache D) Shaves the hair around the wound
a) Irrigates the wound to remove debris Explanation: Scalp wounds are potential portals of entry for organisms that cause intracranial infections. Therefore, the area is irrigated before the laceration is sutured to remove foreign material and to reduce the risk for infection.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who had surgery to decrease intracranial pressure after suffering a head injury. Which assessment finding is promptly reported to the physician? A) The client has periorbital edema and ecchymosis. B) The client's vital signs are temperature, 100.9° F; heart rate, 88 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 138/80 mm Hg. C) The client's level of consciousness has improved. D) The client prefers to rest in the semi-Fowler's position.
B) The client's vital signs are temperature, 100.9° F; heart rate, 88 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 18 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 138/80 mm Hg. Explanation: The assessment finding promptly reported to the physician is the information which may cause complications. It is important to report the elevation in client temperature (100.9° F) because hyperthermia increases brain metabolism, increasing the potential for brain damage. It is not unusual for the client to experience periorbital edema and ecchymosis secondary to the head injury and surgery. Improved level of consciousness is a positive outcome of the treatment provided. There is no complication related to semi-Fowler's position.
A client was hit in the head with a ball and knocked unconscious. Upon arrival at the emergency department and subsequent diagnostic tests, it was determined that the client suffered a subdural hematoma. The client is becoming increasingly symptomatic. How would the nurse expect this subdural hematoma to be classified? A) chronic B) acute C) subacute iD) intracerebral
B) acute Subdural hematomas are classified as acute, subacute, and chronic according to the rate of neurologic changes. Symptoms progressively worsen in a client with an acute subdural hematoma within the first 24 hours of the head injury.
Which of the following types of hematoma results from venous bleeding with blood gradually accumulating in the space below the dura? A) Epidural B) Subdural C) Intracerebral D) Cerebral
B) Subdural Explanation: A subdural hematoma results from venous bleeding, with blood gradually accumulating in the space below the dura. An epidural hematoma stems from arterial bleeding, usually from the middle meningeal artery, and blood accumulation above the dura. An intracerebral hematoma is bleeding within the brain that results from an open or closed head injury or from a cerebrovascular condition such as a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. A cerebral hematoma is bleeding within the skull.
Which term refers to the shifting of brain tissue from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure? A) Autoregulation B) Cushing's response C) Herniation D) Monro-Kellie hypothesis
C) Herniation Explanation: Herniation refers to the shifting of brain tissue from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure. Autoregulation is an ability of cerebral blood vessels to dilate or constrict to maintain stable cerebral blood flow despite changes in systemic arterial blood pressure. Cushing's response is the brain's attempt to restore blood flow by increasing arterial pressure to overcome the increased ICP. The Monro-Kellie hypothesis is a theory that states that, due to limited space for expansion within the skull, an increase in any one of the cranial contents causes a change in the volume of the others.
A patient sustained a head injury and has been admitted to the neurosurgical intensive care unit (ICU). The patient began having seizures and was administered a sedative-hypnotic medication that is ultra-short acting and can be titrated to patient response. What medication will the nurse be monitoring during this time? A) Lorazepam (Ativan) B) Midazolam (Versed) C) Phenobarbital D) Propofol (Diprivan)
D) Propofol (Diprivan) Explanation: If the patient is very agitated, benzodiazepines are the most commonly used sedative agents and do not affect cerebral blood flow or ICP. Lorazepam (Ativan) and midazolam (Versed) are frequently used but have active metabolites that my cause prolonged sedation, making it difficult to conduct a neurologic assessment. Propofol ( Diprivan), on the other hand, a sedative-hypnotic agent that is supplied in an intralipid emulsion for intravenous (IV) use, is the sedative of choice. It is an ultra-short acting, rapid onset drug with elimination half-life of less than an hour. It has a major advantage of being titratable to its desired clinical effect but still provides the opportunity for an accurate neurologic assessment (Hickey, 2009).
A nurse is caring for a 16-year-old adolescent with a head injury resulting from a fight after a high school football game. A physician has intubated the client and written orders to wean him from sedation therapy. A nurse needs further assessment data to determine whether: A) nutritional protocol will be effective after the client sedation therapy is tapered. B) she'll have to apply restraints to prevent the client from dislodging the endotracheal (ET) tube. C) to continue IV administration of other scheduled medications. D) payment status will change if the client isn't sedated.
B) she'll have to apply restraints to prevent the client from dislodging the endotracheal (ET) tube. Explanation: When the client isn't sedated, he may make attempts to remove the ET tube without realizing what he's doing. The nurse needs to obtain information to determine whether it's necessary to request an order for restraints. The nurse doesn't need to obtain additional data to determine if the nutritional protocol will continue to reflect the client's needs because this aspect of care won't change. The client doesn't require additional assessments to continue I.V. administration of medications. I.V. medication clearly needs to continue because the client is intubated. The staff nurse doesn't need to monitor payment status because client sedation shouldn't affect payment status.
The nurse is caring for a client immediately following a spinal cord injury (SCI). Which is an acute complication of SCI? A) Cardiogenic shock B) Tetraplegia C) Spinal shock D) Paraplegia
C) Spinal shock Explanation: Acute complications of SCI include spinal and neurogenic shock and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The spinal shock associated with SCI reflects a sudden depression of reflex activity in the spinal cord (areflexia) below the level of injury. Cardiogenic shock is not associated with SCI. Tetraplegia is paralysis of all extremities after a high cervical spine injury. Paraplegia occurs with injuries at the thoracic level. Autonomic dysreflexia is a long-term complication of SCI.
The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient brought in by the rescue squad after falling from a second-story window. The nurse assesses ecchymosis over the mastoid and clear fluid from the ears. What type of skull fracture is this indicative of? A) Occipital skull fracture B) Temporal skull fracture C) Frontal skull fracture D) Basilar skull fracture
D) Basilar skull fracture Explanation: A fracture of the base of the skull is referred to as a basilar skull fracture. Fractures of the base of the skull tend to traverse the paranasal sinus of the frontal bone or the middle ear located in the temporal bone. Therefore, they frequently produce hemorrhage from the nose, pharynx, or ears, and blood may appear under the conjunctiva. An area of ecchymosis (bruising) may be seen over the mastoid (Battle's sign). Basilar skull fractures are suspected when CSF escapes from the ears (CSF otorrhea) and the nose (CSF rhinorrhea).
The nurse is caring for a client who was discovered unconscious after falling off a ladder. The client is diagnosed with a concussion. All testing is normal, and discharge instructions are compiled. Which instructions have been compiled for the spouse? A) Acetaminophen may be administered for aches. B) Observe for any signs of behavioral changes. C) A light meal may be eaten if desired. D) Follow up with regular physician is encouraged.
B) Observe for any signs of behavioral changes. Explanation: All of the options are typical for a client being discharged with a concussion. The instruction that is emphasized is to observe for any signs of behavior changes, which may indicate an increase in the client's intracranial pressure. A concussion results in diffuse or microscopic injury to the brain with symptoms that may evolve.
Clinical manifestations of neurogenic shock include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Bradycardia B) Warm skin C) Tachycardia D) Profuse bilateral sweating E) Venous pooling in the extremities
A) Bradycardia B) Warm skin E) Venous pooling in the extremities Explanation: Loss of sympathetic innervation causes a decrease in cardiac output, venous pooling in the extremities, and peripheral vasodilation resulting in mild hypotension, bradycardia, and warm skin. In addition, the patient doe not perspire on the paralyzed portions of the body because sympathetic activity is blocked.
You are a neurotrauma nurse working in a neuro ICU. What would you know is an acute emergency and is seen in clients with a cervical or high thoracic spinal cord injury after the spinal shock subsides? A) Tetraplegia B) Areflexia C) Autonomic dysreflexia D) Paraplegia
C) Autonomic dysreflexia
A client has sustained a traumatic brain injury with involvement of the hypothalamus. The health care team is concerned about the complication of diabetes insipidus. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing intervention to monitor for early signs of diabetes insipidus? A) Assess frequent vital signs. B) Reposition frequently. C) Assess for pupillary response frequently. D) Record intake and output.
D) Record intake and output. Explanation: A record of intake and output is maintained for the client with a traumatic brain injury, especially if the client has hypothalamic involvement and is at risk for the development of diabetes insipidus. Excessive output will alert the nurse to possible fluid imbalance early in the process.
A client with weakness and tingling in both legs is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with a tentative diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. On admission, which assessment is most important for this client? A) Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume B) Evaluation for signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) C) Evaluation of pain and discomfort D) Evaluation of nutritional status and metabolic state
A) Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity and tidal volume Explanation: In Guillain-Barré syndrome, polyneuritis commonly causes weakness and paralysis, which may ascend to the trunk and involve the respiratory muscles. Lung auscultation and measurement of vital capacity, tidal volume, and negative inspiratory force are crucial in detecting and preventing respiratory failure — the most serious complication of polyneuritis. A peripheral nerve disorder, polyneuritis doesn't cause increased ICP. Although the nurse must evaluate the client for pain and discomfort and must assess the nutritional status and metabolic state, these aren't priorities.
The nurse in the neurologic ICU is caring for a client who sustained a severe brain injury. Which nursing measures will the nurse implement to help control intracranial pressure (ICP)? A) Position the client in the supine position B) Maintain cerebral perfusion pressure from 50 to 70 mm Hg C) Restrain the client, as indicated D) Administer enemas, as needed
B) Maintain cerebral perfusion pressure from 50 to 70 mm Hg Explanation: The nurse should maintain cerebral perfusion pressure from 50 to 70 mm Hg to help control increased ICP. Other measures include elevating the head of the bed as prescribed, maintaining the client's head and neck in neutral alignment (no twisting or flexing the neck), initiating measures to prevent the Valsalva maneuver (e.g., stool softeners), maintaining body temperature within normal limits, administering O2 to maintain PaO2 greater than 90 mm Hg, maintaining fluid balance with normal saline solution, avoiding noxious stimuli (e.g., excessive suctioning, painful procedures), and administering sedation to reduce agitation.
A nurse completes the Glasgow Coma Scale on a patient with traumatic brain injury (TBI). Her assessment results in a score of 6, which is interpreted as: A) Mild TBI. B) Moderate TBI. C) Severe TBI. D) Brain death.
C) Severe TBI. Explanation: A score of 13 to 15 is classified as mild TBI, 9 to 12 is moderate TBI, and 3 to 8 is severe TBI. A score of 3 indicates severe impairment of neurologic function, deep coma, brain death, or pharmacologic inhibition of the neurologic response; a score of 8 or less typically indicates an unconscious patient; a score of 15 indicates a fully alert and oriented patient.
A client presents to the emergency department stating numbness and tingling occurring down the left leg into the left foot. When documenting the experience, which medical terminology would the nurse be most correct to report? A) Sciatic nerve pain B) Herniation C) Paralysis D) Paresthesia
D) Paresthesia Explanation: When a client reports numbness and tingling in an area, the client is reporting a paresthesia. The nurse would document the experience as such or place the client's words in parentheses. The nurse would not make a medical diagnosis of sciatic nerve pain or herniation. The symptoms are not consistent with paralysis.
Which condition occurs when blood collects between the dura mater and arachnoid membrane? A) Intracerebral hemorrhage B) Epidural hematoma C) Extradural hematoma D) Subdural hematoma
D) Subdural hematoma Explanation: A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and brain, space normally occupied by a thin cushion of fluid. Intracerebral hemorrhage is bleeding in the brain or the cerebral tissue with the displacement of surrounding structures. An epidural hematoma is bleeding between the inner skull and the dura, compressing the brain underneath. An extradural hematoma is another name for an epidural hematoma.
A patient sustained a head trauma in a diving accident and has a cerebral hemorrhage located within the brain. What type of hematoma is this classified as? A) An epidural hematoma B) An extradural hematoma C) An intracerebral hematoma D) A subdural hematoma
C) An intracerebral hematoma Explanation: Intracerebral hemorrhage (hematoma) is bleeding within the brain, into the parenchyma of the brain. It is commonly seen in head injuries when force is exerted to the head over a small area (e.g., missile injuries, bullet wounds, stab injuries). A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a collection of blood between the dura and the brain, a space normally occupied by a thin cushion of cerebrospinal fluid. After a head injury, blood may collect in the epidural (extradural) space between the skull and the dura.
Which finding indicates increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) in the client who has sustained a head injury? A) Increased pulse B) Increased respirations C) Widened pulse pressure D) Decreased body temperature
C) Widened pulse pressure Explanation: Signs of increasing ICP include slowing of the heart rate (bradycardia), increasing systolic blood pressure, and widening pulse pressure (Cushing reflex). As brain compression increases, respirations decrease or become erratic, blood pressure may decrease, and the pulse slows further. This is an ominous development, as is a rapid fluctuation of vital signs. Temperature is maintained at less than 38°C (100.4°F). Tachycardia and arterial hypotension may indicate that bleeding is occurring elsewhere in the body.
At which of the following spinal cord injury levels does the patient have full head and neck control? A) C5 B) C4 C) C3 D) C2
A) C5 Explanation: At the level of C5, the patient should have full head and neck control, shoulder strength, and elbow flexion. At C4 injury, the patient will have good head and neck sensation and motor control, some shoulder elevation, and diaphragm movement. At C2 to C3, the patient will have head and neck sensation, some neck control, and can be independent of mechanical ventilation for short periods of time.
A patient sustained a head trauma in a diving accident and has a cerebral hemorrhage located within the brain. What type of hematoma is this classified as? A) An epidural hematoma B) An extradural hematoma C) An intracerebral hematoma D) A subdural hematoma
C) An intracerebral hematoma Intracerebral hemorrhage (hematoma) is bleeding within the brain, into the parenchyma of the brain. It is commonly seen in head injuries when force is exerted to the head over a small area (e.g., missile injuries, bullet wounds, stab injuries). A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a collection of blood between the dura and the brain, a space normally occupied by a thin cushion of cerebrospinal fluid. After a head injury, blood may collect in the epidural (extradural) space between the skull and the dura.
A client was running along an ocean pier, tripped on an elevated area of the decking, and struck his head on the pier railing. According to his friends, "He was unconscious briefly and then became alert and behaved as though nothing had happened." Shortly afterward, he began complaining of a headache and asked to be taken to the emergency department. If the client's intracranial pressure (ICP) is increasing, the nurse should expect to observe which sign first? A) Pupillary asymmetry B) Irregular breathing pattern C) Involuntary posturing D) Declining level of consciousness (LOC)
D) Declining level of consciousness (LOC) Explanation: With a brain injury such as an epidural hematoma (a likely diagnosis, based on this client's symptoms), the initial sign of increasing ICP is a change in LOC. As neurologic deterioration progresses, manifestations involving pupillary symmetry, breathing patterns, and posturing will occur. (pg 2001)
A client with a concussion is discharged after the assessment. Which instruction should the nurse give the client's family? A) Have the client avoid physical exertion B) Emphasize complete bed rest C) Look for signs of increased intracranial pressure D) Look for a halo sign
C) Look for signs of increased intracranial pressure Explanation: The nurse informs the family to monitor the client closely for signs of increased intracranial pressure if findings are normal and the client does not require hospitalization. Signs of increased intracranial pressure include headache, blurred vision, vomiting, and lack of energy or sleepiness. The nurse looks for a halo sign to detect any cerebrospinal fluid drainage.
A client with tetraplegia has a spinal cord injury (SCI) at C4. He experiences severe orthostatic hypotension with any elevation of his head. Which of the following interventions will the nurse employ to reduce the hypotension? A) Apply anti-embolic stockings prior to elevation of the head. B) Avoid binders around the abdominal area. C) Practice with the client raising the head in one smooth, quick motion. D) Avoid vasopressor medication for 2 hours prior to the client sitting up.
A) Apply anti-embolic stockings prior to elevation of the head. Explanation: Anti-embolic stockings will improve venous return from the legs. An abdominal binder will also encourage venous return. The nurse should allow time for a slow progression from laying to sitting. Vasopressor drugs may be used to treat the profound vasodilation.
A client with spinal trauma tells the nurse she cannot cough. What nursing intervention should the nurse perform when a client with spinal trauma may not be able to cough? A) Administer oxygen as prescribed. B) Use mechanical ventilation. C) Let the airway stay as it currently is. D) Suction the airway.
D) Suction the airway. Explanation: Suctioning the airway helps remove secretions. An artificial airway increases the production of respiratory secretions. To prevent hypoxemia, the client may need more oxygen than is available in the room air. An endotracheal tube provides an airway from the nose or mouth to an area above the mainstem bronchi. Mechanical ventilation provides a means to regulate the respiratory rate, volume of air, and percentage of oxygen when a client fails to breathe independently.
A nurse is reviewing a CT scan of the brain, which states that the client has arterial bleeding with blood accumulation above the dura. Which of the following facts of the disease progression is essential to guide the nursing management of client care? A) Symptoms will evolve over a period of 1 week. B) The crash cart with defibrillator is kept nearby. C) Bleeding continues into the intracerebral area. D) Monitoring is needed as rapid neurologic deterioration may occur.
D) Monitoring is needed as rapid neurologic deterioration may occur. Explanation: The nurse identifies that the CT scan suggests an epidural hematoma. A key component in planning care is the understanding that rapid neurologic deterioration occurs. Symptoms evolve quickly. A crash cart may be kept nearby, but this is not the key information. An intracerebral hematoma is bleeding within the brain, which is a different area of bleeding.
The nurse learns a client was reported to have a history of basilar skull fracture with otorrhea. What assessment finding does the nurse anticipate? A) The client has ecchymosis in the periorbital region. B) The client has an elevated temperature. C) The client has cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ear. D) The client has serous drainage from the nose.
C) The client has cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the ear. Explanation: Otorrhea means leakage of CSF from the ear. The client with a basilar skull fracture can create a pathway from the brain to the middle ear due to a tear in the dura. As a result, the client can have cerebral spinal fluid leak from the ear. The nurse may assess clear fluid in the ear canal. Ecchymosis and periorbital edema can be present as a manifestation of bruising from the head injury. An elevated temperature may occur from the head injury and is monitored closely. The client may have serous drainage from the nose especially immediately following the injury.
While riding a bicycle in a race, a patient fell into a ditch and sustained a head injury. Another cyclist found the patient lying unconscious in the ditch and called 911. What type of concussion does the patient most likely have? A) Grade 1 concussion B) Grade 2 concussion C) Grade 3 concussion D) Grade 4 concussion
C) Grade 3 concussion Explanation: There are three grades of concussion or mild traumatic brain injury defined by the American Academy of Neurology when the injury is sports related (Ruff, Iverson, Barth, et al., 2009). A grade 1 concussion has symptoms of transient confusion, no loss of consciousness, and duration of mental status abnormalities on examination that resolve in less than 15 minutes. A grade 2 concussion also has symptoms of transient confusion and no loss of consciousness, but the concussion symptoms or mental status abnormalities on examination last more than 15 minutes. In a grade 3 concussion, there is any loss of consciousness lasting from seconds to minutes (Ruff et al., 2009).
A client with tetraplegia cannot do his own skin care. The nurse is teaching the caregiver about the importance of maintaining skin integrity. Which of the following will the nurse most encourage the caregiver to do? A) Maintain a diet for the client that is high in protein, vitamins, and calories. B) Avoid range of motion exercises for the client because of spasms. C) Keep accurate intake and output. D) Watch closely for signs of urinary tract infection.
A) Maintain a diet for the client that is high in protein, vitamins, and calories Explanation: To maintain healthy skin, the following interventions are necessary: regularly relieve pressure, protect from injury, keep clean and dry, avoid wrinkles in the bed, and maintain a diet high in protein, vitamins, and calories to ensure minimal wasting of muscles and healthy skin.
A client with paraplegia asks why exercises are done to the lower extremities every day. Which response will the nurse make? A) "They help stabilize total body functioning." B) "They aid in restoring your skeletal integrity." C) "They prepare you to function in the absence of your leg function." D) "They help prevent the development of contractures."
D) "They help prevent the development of contractures." Explanation: Clients are at high risk for the development of contractures as a result of disuse syndrome due to the musculoskeletal system changes brought about by the loss of motor and sensory functions below the level of injury. Range-of-motion exercises must be provided at least four times a day, and care is taken to stretch the Achilles tendon with exercises to prevent footdrop. Range-of-motion exercises are not done to stabilize total body functioning or restore skeletal integrity. Exercise programs are used to prepare to function in the absence of leg function.