Chapter 8 joints, Chapter 9 muscle tissue, Chapter 7 skeleton, (A&P) Chapter 09: Skeletal System: Articulations, (A&P) Chapter 07: Skeletal System (Bone Structure and Function), Chapter 8 (joints), Chapt 7 A&P, CH 6 BONES, A&P Lecture Test 2, Labelin...
Transverse foramina are found in _____vertebrae A. cervical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. sacral E. antebrachial
A. cervical
Calcidiol circulates in the blood and is converted to calcitriol in the A. kidney. B. skin. C. liver. D. bone.
A. kidney.
26. The optic foramen is an opening in the sphenoid bone for the passage of the A) infraorbital nerve. B) optic nerve. C) supraorbital nerve. D) ophthalmic vein. E) vagus.
Answer: b
5. Which of the following bones is paired? A) vomer B) temporal C) sphenoid D) mandible E) maxilla
Answer: b
68. The obturator foramen is found in the A) skull. B) scapula. C) sacrum. D) coxa. E) vertebrae.
Answer: d
The ____ region of the vertebral column is located in the neck. A. sacral B. cervical C. lumbar D. thoracic E. coccygeal
B. cervical
The glenohumeral ligaments are A. strong and distinct. B. weak and indistinct.
B. weak and indistinct.
The role of calcium ions and muscle contraction is to
Bind to regulatory sites of troponin to remove contraction inhibition
Which of the following is not a carpal? A. scaphoid B. hamate C. Navicular D. pisiform E. trapezium
C. Navicular
The wrist is composed of eight bones called ________.
CARPALS
Which of the following statements is false or incorrect
Cardiac muscle fibers depends mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP
Which of the following statements defines synchondroses
Cartilaginous joints were hyaline cartilage unites the end of the bones
bones composing the shoulder girdle
Clavicle and scapula
clavicle
Collarbone
Meniscus
Crescent shaped fibro-cartilage. Attached to fibrous capsule
What type of cartilage is located between the bones in a symphysis? A. Elastic cartilage B. Reticular cartilage C. Hyaline cartilage D. Fibrocartilage E. Sutural cartilage
D. Fibrocartilage
When two bones grow together across a joint to form a single bon, this is called a A. suture B. synesmosis C. gomphosis D. synostosis E. symphisis
D. synostosis
Which of the following joints is most moveable? A. suture B. syndesmosis C. symphysis D. synovial E. synchondrosis
D. synovial
The patellar ligament attaches the patella to the A. femur. B. quadriceps muscle. C. fibula. D. tibia. E. hamstring muscles.
D. tibia.
This type of joint is multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement: A. saddle B. hinge C. pivot D. plane E. ball and socket
E. ball and socket
In a farm accident, a man has his arm severed midway between his wrist and his elbow. Which of the following bones was severed? A. radius B. humerus C. clavicle D. ulna E. both the radius and the ulna
E. both the radius and the ulna
The zones found in an epiphyseal plate are a: Calcified cartilage b: Hypertrophic cartilage c: Ossification d: Resting cartilage e: Proliferating cartilage The correct order for these zones, beginning with the edge closest to the epiphysis and proceeding toward the diaphysis, is A. c - a - b - e - d B. d - b - e - a - c C. e - d - a - c - b D. c - d - e - a - b E. d - e - b - a - c
E. d - e - b - a - c
Which of the following is not part of the ethmoid bone?
Greater wing
calcaneus
Heel bone
long, short, flat, and irregular.
How our bones classified?
Which of the following is a correct statement about the development of joints
Joints develop in parallel to bones
Synovial Joints
More complex joint, freely moveable. Fluid inside joint.
A sudden, involuntary twitch in smooth or skeletal muscle that is usually due to a chemical imbalance, is called a
Muscle spasm
Which of the following statements is most accurate
Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction
The _________ covers the anterior surface of the knee.
PATELLA
The scapulae and clavicles together form the _________.
PECTORAL GIRDLE.
The pelvic girdle (hip bones), sacrum, and coccyx together form the _________.
PELVIS
Causes RANKL to be produced
PTH
*What chemical causes an increase in the blood calcium level? a. growth hormone b. sex hormones c. parathyroid hormone d. calcitonin e. Vitamin D
Parathyroid hormone
*A connective tissue sheath around cartilage is the ______. a. endosteum b. perichondrium c. periosteum d. epiphyseal line e. ligament
Perichondrium
Synarthrotic joints
Permit essentially no movement
The cruciate ligament so the knee
Prevent hyperextension of the knee
Muscle tissue has all of the following except
Secretion
bones that articulate with the clavicle
Sternum and Scapula
Which of the following statements is true
Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue
The ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
Which of the following is a true statement
The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius
What produces the straightens of the skeletal muscle cell
The arrangement of the myofilaments
long
The bones of the fingers and toes (phalanges) are categorized as _____ bones.
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surface of the diathroses in contact
The number of bones in the joint
f. - b. - a. - c. - d. - e.
The steps in the process of endochondral ossification are
Distinguish between the true pelvis and the false pelvis
The true pelvis is the region inferior to the pelvic brim, which is encircled by bone. The false pelvis is the area medial to the flaring iliac bones and lies superior to the pelvic brim
E. d - e - b - a - c
The zones found in an epiphyseal plate are
point where scapula and clavicle connect
acromion
The type of lamellae found in osteons (Haversian systems) is
concentric
raised area on lateral surface of humerus to which deltoid muscle attaches
deltoid tuberosiry
Long bones grow in length at the
epiphyseal plate
Which of the following is NOT a cartilaginous joint?
fontanelles
Woven bone
has its collagen fibers randomly oriented
The primary function of osteoblasts is to
lay down bone matrix
canal-like structure
meatus
knee cap
patella
The pituitary gland (hypophysis) rests in the
sella turcica (hypophyseal fossa).
canaliculae
small canals that branch out from the blood vessels and nourish the osteocytes
how are the thoracic vertebrae, 11 and 12, different from other thoracic vertebrae
the transverse processed do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs
The thoracic cage is composed of ________ PAIRS of ribs.
12 - (24 ribs in al)
the adult skeleton of most men and women contains a total number of ____bones
206
the number of separate bones in the vertebral column of an adult is ____
26
A sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From the following list of structures, select the order in which they were penetrated. (1) tendon or muscle (2) ligament (3) fibrous capsule (4) skin (5) synovial membrane
4, 1, 2, 3, 5
the number of vertebrae that fuse to form the sacrum is ____
5
At which of the following ages would calcium loss from bone be more than calcium deposits into bone, even when a high calcium diet is eaten?
50 years old
What is the total number of carpals in the wrist?
8
The giant protein titin maintains the organization of the blank assisting in muscle stretching
A band
The Sarcolemma is the A cell membrane of a muscle fiber B cytoplasm of muscle cells C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
A cell membrane of a muscle fiber
Lack of Acetyl cholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in A continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane B relaxation of the muscle C rapid degradation of acetylcholine D a decrease in acetylcholine production by the motor neuron E continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane
A continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane
The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as A contractility B excitability C extensibility D elasticity E flexibility
A contractility
The functional unit of the skeletal muscle is called
A sacromere
The hyoid bone is unique because A) it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone B) it has an unusual shape C) it is covered with mucosa D) it has no specific function E) it largely consists of cartilage
A) it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate w
Which ligament is responsible for holding the head of the radius in place? A. Anular ligament B. Ulnar collateral ligament C. Radial collateral ligament D. Transverse humeral ligament E. Deltoid ligament
A. Anular ligament
Which are not considered to be features of a synovial joint? A. Muscles B. Nerves C. Blood vessels D. Articular cartilage E. Synovial fluid
A. Muscles
Which is a sesamoid bone? A. Patella B. Cuboid C. Talus D. Sphenoid E. Scaphoid
A. Patella
Which sex tends to lose more bone mass with aging? A. Women B. Men
A. Women
Which bone forms by intramembranous ossification? A. Zygomatic B. Radius C. Axis D. Hamate E. First metatarsal
A. Zygomatic
A movement throughout 360 degrees that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction is called A. circumduction B. rotation C. hyperextension D. supination E. pronation
A. circumduction
In fibrous joints, the articulating surfaces are held together by A. dense regular connective tissue. B. areolar connective tissue. C. dense irregular connective tissue. D. fibrocartilage. E. articular cartilage.
A. dense regular connective tissue.
Turning the ankle so that the plantar surface faces laterally is A. eversion B. inversion C. supination D. retraction
A. eversion
A joint that has no joint cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as a A. fibrous joint B. synovial joint C. complex joint D. cartilaginous joint E. partial joint
A. fibrous joint
Clenching the fingers to make a fist, then relaxing and straightening them, is an example of __________ followed by __________. A. flexion; extension B. extension; flexion C. adduction; abduction D. abduction; adduction E. extension; hyperextension
A. flexion; extension
In the body, a joint serves as a ________ for a long bone. A. fulcrum B. lever C. effort arm D. resistor
A. fulcrum
The fixed point around which a lever rotates is the A. fulcrum. B. condyle. C. resistance node. D. effort arm. E. multiaxis.
A. fulcrum.
One of the weakest parts of the shoulder is the part that lacks tendons of the rotator cuff. This weak area is the ______ aspect of the shoulder. A. inferior B. superior C. anterior D. posterior
A. inferior
Interstitial growth of cartilage increases its ______ and occurs in the _______ region of the cartilage. A. length; internal B. length; peripheral C. width; internal D. width; peripheral
A. length; internal
To trigger bone growth, growth hormone stimulates the A. liver to produce somatomedin. B. liver to produce calcitonin. C. brain to produce serotonin. D. parathyroid to produce parathyroid hormone. E. thyroid to produce calcitriol.
A. liver to produce somatomedin.
The bones of the fingers and toes (phalanges) are categorized as _____ bones. A. long B. irregular C. short D. flat E. sesamoid
A. long
The articular capsule of the temporomandibular joint is exceptionally A. loose. B. tight.
A. loose.
Which of the following bones contain a sinus? A. maxilla B. nasal bone C. occipital bone D. zygomatic bone E. temporal
A. maxilla
The elbow contains _____ articular capsule(s). A. one B. two C. three
A. one
The coracoclavicular ligament is a ______ ligament that connects the clavicle to part of the _______. A. strong; scapula B. strong; sternum C. weak; scapula D. weak; sternum
A. strong; scapula
The epiphyseal plate of a growing bone is actually a temporary joint called a A. synchondrosis B. synostosis C. syndesmosis D. symphysis E. suture
A. synchondrosis
Severe anemia may trigger an adaptive conversion of A. yellow marrow to red marrow. B. red marrow to yellow marrow. C. spongy bone to compact bone. D. bone marrow to spongy bone.
A. yellow marrow to red marrow.
sternum (breast bone).
An example of a flat bone would be the:
tarsals
Ankle Bones
78. A patient in a skiing accident is told that the lateral side of the ankle joint has been crushed. The bone that has been injured is the A) femur. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) calcaneus. E) talus.
Answer: c
80. The heel of the foot is formed by the A) talus. B) patella. C) cuboid bone. D) navicular bone. E) calcaneus.
Answer: e
Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps various parts of muscle fibers
Aponeurosis
A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n): A) impacted fracture B) compression fracture C) spiral fracture D) depressed fracture E) simple fracture
B) compression fracture
When during human development does the process of ossification begin? A. 12 weeks after birth B. 12th-13th week of embryonic development C. 8th-9th month of fetal development D. 3-4 months of age E. 10-25 years of age
B. 12th-13th week of embryonic development
During bone repair, how long does the stage of the bony callus last? A. 12-24 hours B. 3-4 months C. 1-2 years D. 8-10 days E. 1-2 weeks
B. 3-4 months
In addition to its hinge function, when the knee is _______ it allows for some slight ________. A. flexed; circumduction B. flexed; rotation C. extended; supination D. extended; gliding
B. flexed; rotation
When the arm is raised anteriorly, the movement at the shoulder is A. extension. B. flexion. C. abduction. D. adduction. E. rotation.
B. flexion.
function of bone
Blood cell production Movement Support and protection Storage of mineral and energy reserves
In appositional bone growth, new bone is deposited around a
Blood vessel
osteoclasts
Bone cells called __________ break down bone by secreting hydrochloric acid and enzymes that dissolve the matrix.
appositional growth.
Bone growth in which the bone increases in diameter is called:
A compound fracture can be described as when: A) the bone is crushed B) the broken bone ends are forced into each other C) the broken bone is exposed to the outside D) the bone is broken into many fragments E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously
C) the broken bone is exposed to the outside
In the human body, joints start to form by the _________ week of embryonic development. A. 4th B. 8th C. 6th D. 10th E. 12th
C. 6th
The glenohumeral joint exhibits A. a high degree of stability and a wide range of motion. B. a high degree of stability but a narrow range of motion. C. a low level of stability but a wide range of motion. D. a low level of stability and a narrow range of motion.
C. a low level of stability but a wide range of motion.
The fibrocartilage rim that deepens the hip socket is the A. coxal retinaculum. B. obturator membrane. C. acetabular labrum. D. glenoid labrum.
C. acetabular labrum.
The upper limb and its girdle are attached rather loosely to the rest of the body. This arrangement A. results in a disjointed appearance B. limits fine coordination of the hands C. allows a wide range of movements D. restricts that amount of weight the upper limb can support E. results in a limited range of motion
C. allows a wide range of movements
Bone growth in which the bone increases in diameter is called A. interstitial growth. B. epiphyseal growth. C. appositional growth. D. endosteal growth. E. cancellous bone growth.
C. appositional growth.
The atlantoaxial joint is between the A. sacrum and coax B. two pubic bones C. atlas and axis D. alveolar process and tooth E. two parietal bones
C. atlas and axis
Sutures are joints that are found A. throughout the axial and appendicular skeletons. B. between all bones and teeth of the skull. C. between certain bones of the skull. D. only where a facial bone articulates with a cranial bone.
C. between certain bones of the skull.
Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a A. cleft lip B. cleft chin C. cleft palate D. deviated septum E. clogged sinus
C. cleft palate
Structurally, a syndesmosis is a _________ joint; functionally, it is a __________. A. cartilagenous; diarthrosis B. cartilagenous; amphiarthrosis C. fibrous; amphiarthrosis D. fibrous; synarthrosis E. ball and socket; pivot
C. fibrous; amphiarthrosis
Which of the following does NOT occur due to the effects of aging on the joints? A. decreased range of motion B. decreased flexibility C. increased production of synovial fluid D. weakening of muscles E. decreased tissue repair
C. increased production of synovial fluid
The _________ at the inferior end of the sacrum is composed of several fused vertebrae.
COCCYX
is composed of tubular units called osteons.
Compact bone:
Anterior depression; superior to the trochlea; receives part of the ulna when the forearm is flexed
Coronoid Fossa
The most important minerals stored in bones are: A) calcium and iron B) sodium and phosphorus C) sodium and potassium D) calcium and phosphorus E) calcium and potassium
D) calcium and phosphorus
Which vitamin is required for the normal synthesis of collagen? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
The greater trochanter is located on the: A) radius B) humerus C) fibula D) tibia E) femur
E) femur
interstitial lamella
Fill in spaces between osteons. Areas irregular in shape and form between concentric rings.
phalanges
Fingers and Toes
bones that are formed by intramembranous ossification
Flat bones of the skull Mandible
After about 15 seconds of skeletal muscle contraction, continued, sustained contraction is maintained by energy from
Glycolysis
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATP per glucose +2 pyruvic acid molecules is
Glycolysis
Epiphyseal plate
Growth plate, made of cartilage, gradually ossifies
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of
Intense, short duration exercises
*An example of a symphysis is the _____. a. elbow joint b. temporomandibular joint c. pivot joint d. intervertabral joint. e. sacroiliac joint
Intervertebral joint
If you step on a rock and your foot turns medially at the ankle you have experienced ---blank ---of the foot
Inversion
Which action describes turning the sole of the foot medially, as in checking the bottom of a shoe for gum?
Inversion
Which of the following choices does not describe how excessive post exercise oxygen consumption restores metabolic conditions
It leads to increased levels of lactic acid in the muscle
A meniscus could be found in which joint?
Knee
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to
Lactic acid
In Pilates, you were constantly reminded to turn your toes out, keeping your heels together and squeezing your thighs. Turning your toes out like this --blank --your thighs
Laterally rotates
spongy bone
Layer of Bone tissue having many small spaces and found just inside the layer of compact bone
Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction
Load on the fiber
Have the largest size vertebral bodies
Lumbar vertebrae
osteocytes, which then communicate to osteoblasts to increase synthesis of osteoid.
Mechanical stress of bones, such as that caused by weight lifting, is detected by:
Secreted by the parathyroid glands
PTH
Secreted when blood calcium levels are too low
PTH
Stimulates an increase in the number of osteoclasts
PTH
Which of the following statements regarding PTH (parathyroid hormone) is true? A.
PTH causes increased reabsorption of Ca2+ in the kidneys.
stimulate osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium into the blood.
Parathyroid hormone and calcitriol:
The styloid process of the ---blank--- points to the thumb
Radius
forearm bones
Radius and Ulna
VITAMIN D
Rickets, a disease characterized by overproduction and deficient calcification of osteoid tissue, is caused by a lack of sufficient:
As a freestyle swimmer, you know that when you take a breath you are ---blank ---your head
Rotating
Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones
Rotation
You reach out with an open hand to take a quarter from your friend, who just lost a bet when you correctly identified this palm up gesture as
Supination
Joint Capsule
Surrounds the joint, keeps fluid in.
(T/F) The deltoid ligament is also known as the medial ligament.
TRUE
(T/F) The elbow is considered to be a stable joint.
TRUE
(T/F) The epiphyseal plates in long bones are examples of synchondroses.
TRUE
(T/F) The flat bones of the cranium form by intramembranous ossification.
TRUE
(T/F) The hip allows for flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, and circumduction.
TRUE
(T/F) The part of a lever from the fulcrum to the point of effort is called the effort arm.
TRUE
(T/F) The sternoclavicular joint contains an articular disc.
TRUE
short
The bones of the wrist are classified as _____ bones.
type of cartilaginous joint with its example
The joint between the bodies of two vertebrae is an example of a symphysis joint. An example of a synchondrosis joint is the attachment of the first rib to the sternum by hyaline costal cartilage.
diaphysis
The shaft of a long bone is called the _________.
Have articular facets on the transverse processes
Thoracic vertebrae
What is the primary function of wave summation
To produce a smooth, continuous muscle contraction
liver to produce somatomedin.
To trigger bone growth, growth hormone stimulates the:
What is the role of tropomyosin and skeletal muscles
Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules
Red and yellow
What are types and of bone marrow?
diaphyseal portion, or shaft of long bones.
Where is yellow bone marrow found?
Zygomatic
Which bone forms by intramembranous ossification?
B. c - b - d - a
Which choice places the steps of intramembranous ossification in correct chronological order?
Parathyroid hormone
Which hormone inhibits rather than stimulates bone growth?
Patella
Which is a sesamoid bone?
Osteoblasts build bone at the circumferential lamellae while osteoclasts widen the medullary cavity
Which is an accurate description of appositional bone growth?
hyoid
a U-shaped bone at the base of the tongue that supports the tongue muscles
Rheumatoid arthritis is
a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease.
Osteomalacia is
a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion.
Osteoporosis is
a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone matrix.
Rickets is
a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones.
Gout is
a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood.
patella
a small flat triangular bone in front of the knee that protects the knee joint. Sesmoid bone
*Important functions of the skeletal system include; a. protection of brain and soft organs b. storage of water c. production of Vitamin E d. regulation of acid-base balance e. integration of other systems.
a. Protection of brain and soft organs
Bone remodeling may occur
all above
Which of the following is NOT an effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
all of above
supports the head; allows the rocking motion of the occipital condyles
atlas
the first vertebrae also is called the
atlas
which vertebrae does not have a body
atlas
seven components; unfused
atlas, axis, cervical
type of vertebrae containing foramina in the transverse process, through which the vertebral arteries ascend to reach the brain
atlas, axis, cervical
The first cervical vertebrae is the
atlas.
The hyoid bone is part of the ______________ skeleton
axial
The hyoid bone is part of the
axial skeleton.
its dens provides a pivot for rotation of the first cervical vertebra
axis
the second vertebrae is also called the
axis
*These are blood vessels that carry blood from the medullary cavity & periosteum to the osteon & run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone. a. Haversian Canals b. Volkmann's Canals c. Lamellar canals d. ostoechondral canals e. Sharpey's canals
b Volkmann's canals
*Cancellous bone tissue a. is very dense b. contains concentric lamellae c. contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae d. has many spaces and lacks osteocytes e. is the primary component of compact bone.
b contains concentric lamellae
*Cartilaginous Joints: a. are common in the skull b. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage c. allow the most movement between bones. d. are found in the lower leg e. are not found in the pelvic region.
b. Unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
This type of joint is multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement.
ball and socket
The multiaxial joint in which the spherical end of one bone fits into the cuplike socket of the other bone is called a ___________ joint.
ball-and-socket
endochondral ossification
begins with a hyaline cartilage model
The __________ tendon passes through the capsule of the shoulder joint before attaching to the scapula.
biceps brachii
the ____ of the vertebrae support the weight of the head and trunk
body
humerus
bone extending from the shoulder to the elbow
osteoblast
bone forming cell
Osteomyelitis is
bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection.
Collagen and calcium hydroxyapatite are the primary constituents of
bone matrix
Ligaments attach
bone to bone
*The type of cartilage associated with bone function & development is; a. elastic cartilage b. fibrocartilage c hyaline cartilage d. interstitial cartilage e. osteocartilage
c. Hyaline cartilage
*Haversian systems or osteons; a. are found in spongy bone tissue b. lack concentric lamellae c. are the basic units in compact bone tissue d. do not contain osteosytes e. are avascular
c. are the basic units in compact bone tissue.
*A synchondrosis ___________ a. is a type of gomphosis b. is freely moveable c. may be temporary d. is found in the arm e. is not found in a growing long bone.
c. may be temporary.
The locations where ossification begins in intramembranous ossification are known as
centers of ossification
There are seven total __________ vertebrae.
cervical
shoulder girdle bone that articulates anteriorly with the sternum
clavicle
If the ______________ component of bone is not present in adequate amounts, the flexibility of bone will be compromised.
collagen
Osteogenesis imperfecta can be caused by abnormally formed
collagen
Osteogenesis imperfecta can be caused by abnormally formed
collagen.
In which type of bone would osteons be present?
compact bone
The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint.
complex ellipsoid
rounded, convex projection
condyle
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have
costal facets
The collar that forms around the opposing ends of bone fragments is called a(n)
external callus
If you look at the cross section of a long bone under a microscope, the rings of bone immediately internal to the periosteum of the bone are called _____________.
external circumferential lamellae
true or false intercondylar fossa, greater trochanter, tibial tuberosity are all markings of the humerus
false femur
true or false the pectoral girdle is formed by the articulation of the hip bones and the sacrum
false pelvic
Which of the following is not a coxal bone?
femur
longest bone in the body; articulates with the coxal bone
femur
The opposite of extension is
flexion
Bowing the head is an example of
flexion.
the last two pairs of ribs that have no cartilaginous attachemnts to the sternum are sometimes called ____ribs
floating
The maxilla forms the
floor of the orbit.
the membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called
fontanelles
the head of the numerous fits into the ........of the scapula
glenoid cavity
A bone fracture in which the two bone sections do not separate is a(an)
hairline fracture.
Name the carpals (medial to lateral) In the distal row
hamare, capitate, trapezoid, trapezium
structure supported on a neck
head
the glenoid cavity of the scapula articulates with the ___________of the humerous
head
arm bone
humerus
A young boy (10 years old) exhibited the following symptoms: advanced development of secondary sexual characteristics and rapid growth. Which of the following caused his condition?
hypersecretion of testosterone
upper margin of the iliac bones
iliac crest
The ---blank--- forms the largest portion of the coxal bone
ilium
fuse to form the coxal bone (hip bone)
ilium, ischium, pubis
what fuses to form the coxal bone (3 things)
ilium, ischium, pubis
Which of the following is NOT a function of bone
immunity
where would you find the acetabulum
in the pelvis
effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
increased Ca2+ uptake by the small intestine increased vitamin D formation in the kidneys increased Ca2+ reabsorption by the kidneys decreased Ca2+ loss by the kidneys
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes
increased RANKL and decreased OPG.
Parathyroid hormone
increases blood calcium levels
Mechanical stress applied to bone __________ osteoblast activity in bone tissue, and the removal of mechanical stress __________ osteoblast activity.
increases; decreases
the ethmoid bone is composed of all the following except the
inferior nasal concha
What structure forms between the ends of a broken bone and also the marrow cavities?
internal callus
In _________ growth of cartilage, chondrocytes within the tissue divide and add more matrix between the existing cells.
interstitial
The type of lamellae found between osteons (Haversian systems) is
interstitial
the __________separate adjacent vertebrae, and they soften the forces created by walking
intervertebral discs
The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the
intervertebral discs.
The site where spinal nerves exit the vertebral column is the
intervertebral foramen.
An example of a symphysis is the
intervertebral joint.
Symphyses can be found in the _____________.
intervertebral joints
receives the weight of the body when sitting
ischial tuberosity
The portion of coxa a person sits on is the
ischial tuberosity.
"sit-down" bone of the coxal bone
ischium
Which of these joints is correctly matched to the type of synovial joint?
knee - hinge
This condition is also known as hump back.
kyphosis
Spaces in the bone matrix that are occupied by osteocytes are
lacunae
false ribs
last 5 pairs of ribs; attach indirectly to sternum
floating ribs
last two pairs of ribs; do not attach to sternum
xiphoid process
lower portion of the sternum
Name 3 Synovial Fluid functions
lubricates joint, acts as a cushion, nourishes the articular cartilage.
the medial ends of the clavicles articulate with the _______of the sternum
maniubrium
osteocyte
mature bone cell
which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal
medial cuneiform
medial ankle projection
medial malleolus
In which of the following locations in a growing bone would the greatest osteoclast activity be found?
medullary cavity
*The thick fibrocartilage disks found in the knee joint are called: a. bursae b. ligaments c. tendon sheaths d. menisci e. intraknee disks
menisci
The thick fibrocartilage disks found in the knee joint are called
menisci.
The stem cells of osteoclasts are
monocytes
why is the area just distal to the tubercles of the humerus called the surgical neck
most commonly fractured
The arm can move in the coronal, transverse, and sagittal planes of space. Therefore, the shoulder joint is classified as
multiaxial
If a joint moves in all three planes of space, it is classified as
multiaxial.
What canal conveys tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity?
nasolacrimal canal
Which of the following is not a carpal?
navicular
cervical
neck C1-c7
In appositional growth of cartilage
new chondrocytes and new matrix are added on the outside of the tissue.
In appositional growth of cartilage,
new chondrocytes and new matrix are added on the outside of the tissue.
opening in hip bone formed by the pubic and ischial rami
obturator foramen
opening in the coxal bone formed by the pubic and ischial rami
obturator foramen
the lambdoid suture connects the ---blank--- bones to the ---blank--- bones
occipital/parietal
the occipitomastoid suture connects the---blank---bones to the ---blank---bones
occipital/temporal
lumbar
of or relating to or near the part of the back between the ribs and the hipbones. 5 of them
pubic bone
one of the three sections of the hipbone
The remodeling of bone tissue is a function of
osteoblast and osteoclast activity.
When a fracture begins to heal, one type of bone cell moves into the fracture site and tears down the damaged bone tissue. Which of the following does this?
osteoclasts
Which type of bone cells are large cells that form from fusion of monocytes?
osteoclasts
When blood calcium levels are low
ostoclast activity increases.
Osteoclast activity is increased by
parathyroid hormone
Sam was a 60 year old man. As a result of picking up a heavy object he fractured the radius and ulna of his right arm. X-rays indicated that he had severe osteoporosis. His blood calcium levels were above normal and the pathologist found cancer cells that produced a hormone-like substance. That substance was most likely
parathyroid hormone
What chemical causes an increase in the blood calcium level?
parathyroid hormone
Which of the following is mismatched?
parathyroid hormone - increases calcium loss in the kidneys
Sam was a 60 year old man. As a result of picking up a heavy object he fractured the radius and ulna of his right arm. X-rays indicated that he had severe osteoporosis. His blood calcium levels were above normal and the pathologist found cancer cells that produced a hormone-like substance. That substance was most likely
parathyroid hormone.
the coronal suture connects the ---blank--- bones to the ---blank---bones
parietal/frontal
volkman's canal
perforating canal, run horizontally to Haversian canal in compact bone, form pathway from interior to exterior of bone
A connective tissue sheath around cartilage is the
perichondrium
The connective tissue sheath of cartilage is called the
perichondrium
The covering of the outer surface of bone is the
periosteum
what part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum
perpendicular palte
bones of the fingers
phalanges
finger bones
phalanges
Name the carpals (medial to lateral) in the proximal row.
pisiform, triangular, Iunate, scaphoid
The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____ joint.
pivot
A joint that consists of two opposed flat surfaces of approximately equal size is a _____ joint.
plane
why is scoliosis considered to be the most serious spinal curvature abnormalities
pressure is placed on the internal organs, especially the lungs
along with support, the anterior ligament of the vertebral column also acts to
prevent hyperextension of the spine
the thoracic and pelvic curvatures of the vertebral column are called_____
primary
the lateral ends of the clavicles articulate with the ______ of the scapulae
processes
*The sequence of events that produces growth at the epiphyseal plate is:
proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, cell death, ossification, and remodeling
The sequence of events that produces growth at the epiphyseal plate is
proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, cell death, ossification, and remodeling
The opposite of supination is
pronation
What is the primary function of the axial skeleton
provides central support for the body (mainly the appendendages) and protect the internal organs
point where coxal bones join anteriorly
pubic symphysis
point where the coxal bones join anteriorly
pubic symphysis
medial bone of the forearm in anatomical position
radius
the antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones
radius and ulna
armlike projection
ramus
A pivot joint
restricts movement to rotation.
Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
rib
Osteoclasts have projections that cause bone reabsorption called
ruffled borders
an opening called the _____exists at the tip of the sacral canal
sacral hietus
point where the axial skeleton attaches to the pelvic girdle
sacroiliac joint
the joint between a coxal bone of the pelvis and the sacrum is called the ________joint
sacroiliac joint
The joint between ilium and sacrum is the
sacroiliac joint.
composite bone; articulates with the hip bone laterally
sacrum
The pectoral girdle is an incomplete ring because it is open in the back between the....
scalpulae
shoulder girdle bone that has no attachment to the axial skeleton
scapula
bones that articulate with the clavicle
scapula, sternum
The synovial fluid in synovial joints consists of ___________.
serum filtrate polysaccharides proteins
Hyaline cartilage
serves as a precursor for the formation of long bones in the body.
What strengthens the attachment of the tendons or ligaments to bone?
sharpey fibers
Which of the following is correctly matched? short bone - carpal bone long bone - vertebra irregular bone - femur flat bone - phalanges of the toes short bone - humerus
short bone - carpal bone
Which of the following is correctly matched?
short bone-carpal bone
Bone growth at the articular cartilage is responsible for bone growth of
short bones
air-filled cavity
sinus
which bone is also known as the "keystone" of the cranium
sphenoid
What condition is the failure of vertebral laminae to fuse?
spina bifida
the vertebral column encloses and protects the_________
spinal cord
the intervertebral foramina provide passageways for _____
spinal nerves
sharp, slender process (marking on a bone)
spine
the _____ divides the scapula into unequal portions
spine
In which type of bone would trabeculae be present
spongy bone
bony thorax
sternum, ribs, and thoracic vertebrae
Joints are classified according to the
structure of the joint.
which of the following is not a movement that can occur between vertebrae
supination
The type of fibrous joints that are immobile and found only between certain bones of the skull are called ___________.
sutures
Which of the following is not considered a weight bearing activity?
swimming
A gomphosis is functionally classified as a
synarthrosis
The epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone in a child are bound by a
synchondrosis.
*When two bones grown together across a joint to form a single bone, this is called: a. suture b. syndesmosis c. gomphosis d. synostosis e. symphysis
synostosis
*Most of the joints in the appendicular skeleton are: a. fibrous b. immovable c. synovial d. cartilaginous e. inarticulate
synovial
tarsal bone that "sits" on the calcaneus
talus
tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia
talus
The tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia and the fibula is the
talus.
ankle bones
tarsals
A person who has cerebrospinal fluid draining from the ear probably has a fracture of the
temporal bone.
When viewing the skull from a superior view all of the following can be viewed EXCEPT the
temporal bones.
the samosas suture connects the ---blank--- bones to the ---blank---bones
temporal/parietal
A band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to bone is
tendon
atlas
the 1st cervical vertebra
Which cartilaginous joint remains "temporary" or a synchondrosis for your entire life?
the 1st rib where it attaches to the sternum
axis
the 2nd cervical vertebra
body of sternum
the bony structure that forms the middle portion of the sternum
How is the arm held clear of the widest dimension of the thoracic cage?
the clavicle acts as a strut to hold the glenoid cavity of the scapula (therefore the arm) laterally away from the narrowest dimension of the rib cage
epiphysis
the end of a long bone
ulna
the inner and longer of the two bones of the human forearm (pinky side)
tibia
the inner and thicker of the two bones of the human leg between the knee and ankle
femur
the longest and thickest bone of the human skeleton. The thigh bone
radius
the outer and slightly shorter of the two bones of the human forearm (thumb side)
fibula
the outer and thinner of the two bones of the human leg between the knee and ankle
where would you find the glenoid cavity (connects to the humerus)
the scapula
what makes up the axial skeleton
the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage
The proportion of collagen to hydroxyapatite in bone determines the
the strength of the bone
An example of a long bone would be
the tibia
A herniated disc occurs when
there is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.
what is the purpose of the fontanelles in a babies skull
they allow the head to compress during delivery while still allowing the cranial bones to grow
The primary curves of the vertebral column are the
thoracic and sacral curvatures.
which section of the spinal column is naturally slightly lordotic
thoracic spine
transverse processes have facets for articulation with ribs; spinous process points sharply downward
thoracic vertebrae
The medial malleolus is part of the ____________
tibia
heavy medial leg bone
tibia
shinbone
tibia
the lateral condyle of the femur articulates with the lateral condyle of the
tibia
weight-bearing bone of the leg
tibia
large, irregularly shaped projection
trochanter
The humerus articulates with the ulna at the
trochlea
rounded knob on the humerus that articulates with the radius
trochlea
True/False Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones.
true
true or false bones that provide protection to the abdominal viscera are the ribs
true
true or false the first major event in fracture healing is the hematoma formation
true
true or false the largest foramen in the skull is the foramen magnum
true
true or false the long bones of a fetus are constructed of hylaine cartilage
true
true or false the tough fibrous connective tissue covering a bone is the periosteum
true
small rounded projection
tubercle
The sagittal suture is between the
two parietal bones.
forearm bone involved in formation of elbow joint
ulna
The olecranon process is found on the
ulna.
Cartilaginous joints
unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage.
illium
upper portion of the hipbone
manubrium
upper portion of the sternum
Which of the following movements is an example of extension?
using your finger to point out an area on a map
What organs are protected, at least in part, by the pelvic girdle?
uterus, urinary bladder, small intestine, rectum
the pedicles, laminae, and spinous process of a vertebra form the _____
vertebral arch
What chemical ingested or synthesized by the body is necessary for calcium absorption from the intestines?
vitamin D
pathologic, compound.
The break of a bone that has been weakened by disease is a ________fracture; when a broken end of the bone pierces the skin, the fracure is ________.
Saddle joints have concave and convex services. Identify the saddle joint
The carpometacarpal joints of the thumb
What does excess post exercise oxygen consumption represent
The difference between the amount of oxygen needed for muscles to Function totally aerobically and that actually used
Describe the general structure of fibrous joints.
United by fibrous CT No joint cavity Exhibits little to no movement
vitamin C
Which vitamin is required for the normal synthesis of collagen?
*A band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is a; a. aponeurosis b. ligament c. bursa d. epimysium e. tendon
e. Tendon
The remodeling of bone tissue is a function of
osteoblast and osteoclast activity
Bone forming cells that produce collagen and proteoglycans and release matrix vesicles are
osteoblasts.
Bone-forming cells that produce collagen and proteoglycans and release matrix vesicles are
osteoblasts.
During the healing of a bone fracture, a hard callus is formed by
osteoblasts.
Which type of bone cells give rise to osteoblasts?
osteochondral progenitor cell
Which of the following cell types is responsible for breaking down bone matrix?
osteoclast
When blood calcium levels are low
osteoclast activity increases
Which type of bone cells have ruffled borders and secrete acids?
osteoclasts
Which of the following is correctly matched?
osteoclasts-responsible for reabsorption
Very large multinucleated bone cells that are responsible for the reabsorption of bone are
osteoclasts.
The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone once it has been formed is the
osteocyte
Bone cells that become surrounded by bone matrix and are located in cavities called lacunae are
osteocytes
What are the maintenance cells in bone tissue?
osteocytes
Which type of bone cells have processes that lie in canaliculi?
osteocytes
Which type of bone cells lie in lacunae?
osteocytes
Brittle bone disorder is another name for
osteogenesis imperfecta
Brittle bone disorder is another name for
osteogenesis imperfecta.
The combination of all of the concentric rings of bone built around a single blood vessel is called a(n)
osteon.
Age-related loss of minerals resulting in insufficient ossification and thinner, weaker bones is called ___________.
osteopenia
Synovial fluid is found
within the synovial cavity.
What condition is the failure of vertebral laminae to fuse? A. Lordosis B. kyphosis C. scoliosis D. spina bifida E. herniated disk
D. spina bifida
Fibrous joints are classified as
Sutures, syndesmosed, and gomohoses
On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue
Syndesmosis
The primary function of osteoblasts is to
lay down bone matrix.
The appendicular skeleton consists of the
limbs and their girdles.
sites of muscle attachment on the proximal end of the femur
greater and lesser trochanters
What chemical stimulates interstitial cartilage and appositional bone growth?
growth hormone
The proper sequence of events in bone repair is
hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone.
The elbow performs flexion and extension, and is therefore a _________ joint.
hinge
The knee joint performs primarily flexion and extension, so it is classified as a __________ joint.
hinge
the elbow joint is an example of a ......joint in which movement occurs in only one plane
hinge
coxal bone
hip bone composed of 3 parts illium, ischium, and pubis
Which of the following is mismatched?
hip joint - cruciate ligaments
The deltoid tuberosity is found on what bone? _____________
humerus
which of these bones contains diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and more compact spongy bone
humerus
The glenoid cavity is where the
humerus articulates with the scapula.
costal cartilages are composed of
hyaline cartilage
which bone acts as a movable base (attachment point) for the tongue
hyoid
the hyoid bone is unique because it is the
only bone in the body that does not articulate with any other bone
Which type of bone cells combine hydroxyapatite and collagen to form extracellular bone matrix?
osteoblasts
Which type of bone cells package calcium and phosphate ions?
osteoblasts
Which of the following occurs in the formation of mineralized bone matrix?
osteoblasts form collagen and proteoglycans
The function of a bursa is to
provide a fluid-filled cushion that reduces friction.
With age, the following conditions can occur at the joints
range of motion decreases. production of synovial fluid decreases. the rate of cartilage replacement decreases.
point where the patellar ligament attaches
tibial tuberosity
point where the patellar ligament attaches
tibual tuberosity
which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves
to provide resilience and flexibility, while allowing a mechanism for counterbalancing weight shifts as a person moves
true ribs
top 7 pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum by costal cartilage
Interconnecting rods of bone are
trabeculae
the tubercles of the ribs articulate with facets on the ____processes
transverse
Osteoarthritis usually is caused by
wear and tear of the joint.
sacrum
wedge-shaped bone consisting of five fused vertebrae forming the posterior part of the pelvis
primary function of the intravertebral disc is to
Absorb shock
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contractions
Acetylcholinesterase destroying ACh
Tendon sheaths
Act to reduce friction
The sliding filament model of contraction involves
Actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attached to which active sites
Actin filiments
Which of the following is not a roll of ionic calcium and muscle contraction
Activate epinephrine released from adrenaline gland
67. The bone that articulates with the acetabulum is the A) femur. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) humerus. E) pubis.
Answer: a
74. When comparing the female pelvis with the male pelvis, which of the following statements is false? A) The female pelvis is heavier. B) The ilium is more flared in the female pelvis. C) The ischial spines are further apart in the female pelvis. D) The subpubic angle is 90 degrees or greater in the female pelvis. E) The female pelvis is broader.
Answer: a
79. The tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia and the fibula is the A) talus. B) cuboid. C) navicular. D) calcaneus. E) patella.
Answer: a
8. Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function? A) maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth B) vomer - forms the hard palate C) inferior nasal conchae - contain nasolacrimal canals D) zygomatic - provides attachment point for temporalis muscle E) temporal - is part of the orbit.
Answer: a
87. What does structure "D" represent? A) frontal bone B) occipital bone C) parietal bone D) sphenoid bone E) temporal bone
Answer: a
14. A person who has cerebrospinal fluid draining from the ear probably has a fracture of the A) frontal bone. B) temporal bone. C) zygomatic bone. D) parietal bone. E) occipital bone.
Answer: b
16. The cheek bone is also known as the A) frontal bone. B) zygomatic bone. C) maxilla. D) sphenoid bone. E) ethmoid bone.
Answer: b
18. The maxilla forms A) the roof of the orbit. B) the floor of the orbit. C) the lateral wall of the orbit. D) the medial wall of the orbit. E) the posterior wall of the orbit.
Answer: b
20. Which of the following bones forms the nasal septum? A) inferior nasal conchae and lacrimal bones B) vomer and ethmoid C) maxilla and vomer D) ethmoid and sphenoid E) nasal and vomer
Answer: b
31. The _____ region of the vertebral column is located in the neck. A) sacral B) cervical C) lumbar D) thoracic E) coccygeal
Answer: b
34. Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column? A) It supports the weight of the body. B) It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord. C) It serves as a passage way for the cranial nerves. D) It contains numerous foramens for the passage way of blood vessels. E) It protects the brain.
Answer: b
37. The dens or odontoid process is on the A) first cervical vertebra. B) second cervical vertebra. C) first thoracic vertebra. D) second lumbar vertebra. E) coccyx.
Answer: b
39. Articular facets on the transverse processes are characteristic of _____ vertebrae. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal
Answer: b
43. Classify a vertebra with the following characteristics: (1) superior articular processes face posteriorly (2) circular vertebral foramen (3) long spinous processes A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal
Answer: b
45. The anterior boundary of the "rib cage" is the A) ribs. B) sternum. C) costal cartilages. D) thoracic vertebrae. E) skin.
Answer: b
48. Which of the following ribs attaches to the sternum at the sternal angle? A) the first B) the second C) the seventh D) the twelfth E) the third
Answer: b
50. That portion of the sternum that can be used as a starting point for counting ribs is the A) xiphoid process. B) sternal angle. C) jugular notch. D) costal notch. E) body.
Answer: b
52. The collar bone is the A) sternum. B) clavicle. C) scapula. D) humerus. E) atlas.
Answer: b
59. If you break the lateral bone of your forearm, you have fractured your A) ulna. B) radius. C) humerus. D) olecranon. E) carpals.
Answer: b
63. The wrist is composed of eight A) tarsal bones. B) carpal bones. C) metacarpal bones. D) metatarsal bones. E) digits.
Answer: b
64. The knuckles of the hand are formed by the distal ends of the A) carpals. B) metacarpals. C) phalanges. D) tarsals. E) metatarsals.
Answer: b
Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg: A) femur B) patella C) fibula D) metatarsals E) tibia
B) patella
(T/F) The talocrural joint is a modified hinge joint that permits dorsiflexion and plantar flexion.
TRUE
(T/F) The temporomandibular joint is the only mobile joint between skull bones.
TRUE
Which of the following is not part of the synovial joint
Tendon sheath
When considering leverage, the part of the bone from the muscle attachment to the joint would be the A. fulcrum. B. effort arm. C. resistance arm.
B. effort arm.
The sagittal suture is a(n) A. cartilaginous joint. B. fibrous joint. C. synovial joint. D. synchondrosis. E. amphiarthrosis.
B. fibrous joint.
The term "diarthrosis" refers to a joint that is A. immobile. B. freely mobile. C. fused. D. slightly mobile. E. dislocated.
B. freely mobile.
When protracting the jaw or making small side-to-side movements during chewing, the temporomandibular joint makes ________ movements. A. rotation B. gliding C. flexion D. extension E. circumduction
B. gliding
In general, the movements demonstrated at plane joints between the carpals are A. rotations. B. gliding movements. C. flexions and extensions. D. circumductions. E. pivots.
B. gliding movements.
The elbow is a _______ joint. A. plane B. hinge C. condyle D. saddle
B. hinge
In the kidneys, parathyroid hormone acts to ________ production of calcitriol and to ________ excretion of calcium in urine. A. increase; increase B. increase; decrease C. decrease; decrease D. decrease; increase
B. increase; decrease
Compact bone A. is located deep to spongy bone in the diaphysis. B. is composed of tubular units called osteons. C. has a brace-like arrangement of trabeculae. D. is avascular. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. is composed of tubular units called osteons.
Parathyroid hormone release is triggered by _______ levels of calcium in the blood. A. high B. low
B. low
A person who gets hit on the back of the head might suffer injury to which of these bones? A. temporal B. occipital C. sphenoid D. zygomatic E. nasal
B. occipital
Osteoid is the A. organic part of the bone matrix that gives it rigidity. B. organic part of the bone matrix that gives it tensile strength. C. inorganic part of the bone matrix that gives it rigidity. D. inorganic part of the bone matrix that gives it tensile strength.
B. organic part of the bone matrix that gives it tensile strength.
KIDNEY
Calcidiol circulates in the blood and is converted to calcitriol in the:
Inhibits osteoclast activity
Calcitonin
Secreted by the thyroid gland
Calcitonin
Secreted when blood calcium levels are too high
Calcitonin
inhibits, increases
Calcitonin _________ osteoclast activity and _______ excretion of calcium from the kidney.
Excitation contraction coupling requires which of the following substances
Calcium ions and ATP
Which of the following are locations where you would find a synchondrosis?
Epiphyseal plates in children The first sternocostal joint (between the first rib and the sternum) Between each rib and its costal cartilage
contain paranasal sinuses
Ethmoid bone Sphenoid bone Frontal bone Maxilla
Transverse foramina are found in the: A) sacrum B) coccyx C) thoracic vertebrae D) lumbar vertebrae E) cervical vertebrae
E) cervical vertebrae
The atlas is the: A) last lumbar vertebra B) first thoracic vertebra C) part of the sacrum D) second cervical vertebra E) first cervical vertebra
E) first cervical vertebra
The hip bones are attached posteriorly to the _________.
SACRUM
Small bones occurring in some tendons are called _____________ bones.
SESAMOID
The cranium and facial bones compose the __________.
SKULL
Most ribs are attached anteriorly to the __________.
STERNUM
Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton: clavicle, femur, scapula, sternum?
STERNUM
The extra bones that sometimes develop between the flat bones of the skull are called __________.
SUTURAL BONES.
The muscle cell membrane is called the
Sarcolemma
Which of these bones is NOT associated with the foot: A) talus B) calcaneus C) metatarsals D) tarsals E) metacarpals
E) metacarpals
A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n): A) impacted fracture B) spiral fracture C) depressed fracture D) greenstick fracture E) open fracture
E) open fracture
Which affects osteoblast and osteoclast activity? A. Gravity B. Mechanical stress C. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone levels D. Blood calcium level E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which is a change in bone architecture or mass related to aging? A. Insufficient calcification B. Demineralization C. Reduction in the organic content of the matrix D. Loss of flexibility and increase in brittleness E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which is characteristic of cartilage connective tissue? A. Gel-like ground substance B. Matrix of protein fibers C. Cells called chondrocytes D. Avascular E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which is not true about synovial joints? A. All articulating bone surfaces are covered with articular cartilage. B. Synovial joints are enclosed by fibrous articular capsules. C. Synovial fluid is secreted by the synovial membrane. D. Ligaments strengthen and reinforce joints. E. Blood circulates within the joint cavity to nourish the articular cartilage.
E. Blood circulates within the joint cavity to nourish the articular cartilage.
Which is an alternate term for compact bone? A. Cancellous bone B. Trabecular bone C. Spongy bone D. Diploe E. Cortical bone
E. Cortical bone
Which is not involved in the process of bone repair following a fracture? A. Fibroblasts produce collagen fibers to connect broken pieces of bone. B. A fibrocartilaginous callus serves as a model for new bone growth. C. Osteoclasts remove excess bone from the hard callus. D. The fracture hematoma reorganizes to form a procallus. E. No exceptions; all of the choices are involved in the process of bone repair.
E. No exceptions; all of the choices are involved in the process of bone repair.
Which is not a cartilaginous joint? A. First costochondral joint B. Intervertebral joint C. Second costochondral joint D. First sternocostal joint E. Second sternocostal joint
E. Second sternocostal joint
Movement of a body part toward the main axis of the body is called A. abduction. B. flexion. C. inversion. D. retraction. E. adduction.
E. adduction.
Which of the following does NOT influence the range of motion of a joint? A. the shape of the articular surface of the bones B. the amount and shape of cartilage C. the amount of fluid in and around the joint D. the strength and location of tendons and ligaments E. all of these influence range of motion
E. all of these influence range of motion
The formation of bone from a cartilaginous model is termed A. mesenchymal ossification. B. intramembranous ossification. C. bone remodeling. D. orthodontia. E. endochondral ossification.
E. endochondral ossification.
The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the A. pelvic girdle B. vertebral arches C. vertebral bodies D. vertebral foramen E. intervertebral discs
E. intervertebral discs
A person with a fractured mandible has a broken A. back B. neck C. rib D. wrist E. jaw
E. jaw
Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces posteriorly is called A. circumduction B. rotation C. hyperextension D. supination E. pronation
E. pronation
The interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna is an example of a A. synchondrosis. B. suture. C. synostosis. D. synarthrosis. E. syndesmosis.
E. syndesmosis.
The humerus articulates with the ulna at the A. medial epicondyle B. lateral epicondyle C. capitulum D. radial fossa E. trochlea
E. trochlea
The sagittal suture is between the A. sacrum and coax B. two pubic bones C. atlas and axis D. alveolar process and tooth E. two parietal bones
E. two parietal bones
Which of the following statements about bone growth is TRUE?
Endochondral growth in long bones occurs at the epiphyseal plate.
hyaline cartilage
Endochondral ossification begins with a(n) _________ model.
Which of the following tissues surrounds the individual muscle cells
Endomysium
What is the functional role of the T tubules
Enhance Cellular communication during muscle contraction
The sella turcica is part of which bone?
Sphenoid
Myoglobin-?-
Stores oxygen in muscle cells
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by
Storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to re- synthesize ATP
Which of the following is not a component of the standard treatment for muscle strain
Stretching of the muscle
The primary mineral in bone is
calcium
Which mineral is most important throughout life to assist in maintaining strong bone?
calcium
Normal bone growth requires adequate amounts of _____, _____, and _____ in the diet.
calcium,phosphate,and vitamin D
Small channels extending through the bone matrix are
canaliculi
A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon is a
canaliculus
A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon is a
canaliculus.
Which of the following events occurs last in intramembranous ossification?
cancellous bone is formed
distal medial process of the humerus; joins the ulna
capitulum
bones of the wrist
carpals
wrist bones
carpals
An example of a saddle joint is the
carpometacarpal joint.
Chondroblasts produce
cartilage matrix
Chondroblasts produce
cartilage matrix.
medullary cavity
cavity within the shaft of the long bones filled with bone marrow
osteoclast
cell that functions in the breakdown and resorption of bone tissue
Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae.
cervical
only ---blank--- vertebrae have transverse foramina (holds the blood vessels and vagus)
cervical
The vertebral column has four spinal curvatures that appear sequentially during fetal, newborn, and child developmental stages. Which two spinal curves appear after birth?
cervical and lumbar
Hyaline cartilage consists of specialized cells called __________ that produce a matrix surrounding themselves. When matrix surrounds these cells they become __________ that are trapped in lacunae.
chondroblasts; chondrocytes
The type of lamellae that forms the outside surface of compact bone is
citcumferential
commonly called the collarbone
clavicle
the ______is a bone that serves as a brace between the sternum and scapula
clavicle
the manubrium articulates with the ____on its superior border
clavicle
Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a
cleft palate.
A bone fracture that does not perforate the skin is a(an)
closed fracture.
tailbone; vestigal fused vertebrae
coccyx
All of these bones fuse to form the coxal bone EXCEPT the
coccyx.
Osteoblasts involved in bone growth in length come primarily from
connective tissue surrounding blood vessels from the endosteum.
Cartilage
contains chondrocytes located in lacunae.
Spongy bone tissue
contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae
The mastoid process
contains mastoid air cells.
process above the glenoid cavity that permits muscle attachment
coracoid process
at the lateral end of the scapula, the _________curves anteriorly and inferiorly from the clavicle
coronoid process
forms diploe in the cranial bones.
Spongy bone:
Ligaments attach
bone to bone.
lateral bone of the leg
fibula
red marrow
(Hematopoitec Tissue) typically found within the trabecular cavities of spongy bone of long bones and in the diploe of flat bones
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate
Smooth
Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both A are under involuntary control B are striated C are widely distributed in the body D have multiple nuclei E are under voluntary control
A. are under involuntary control
What is the total number of phalanges in the hand
14
In aerobics, you were doing half jack's, bringing your arms to shoulder height out by your side. This means you are ---blank--- your arms
Abducting/adducting
Arrange the following events in endochondral ossification in proper sequence: (1) Cartilage matrix is calcified and chondrocytes die. (2) Chondrocytes hypertrophy. (3) Cartilage model is formed. (4) Osteoblasts deposit bone on the surface of the calcified cartilage called the primary ossification center. (5) Blood vessels from the periosteum invade calcified cartilage bringing in osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
3,2,1,5,4
fontanelle
Soft spot (incomplete bone formation) between the skull bones of an infant
the number of seperate bones in the vertebral column of an infant is ___
33
Osteoblasts
Which type of cell produces new bone tissue by secreting matrix?
Arrange the following list of biochemical events in the correct sequence 1 and action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule 2 Calcium ions bind to troponin 3 The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions 4 Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril 5 The troponin -tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites A 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 B 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 C 1, 5, 2, 3, 4 D 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 E 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
A 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 1 and action potential is conducted deep into the muscle fiber by the T tubule 3 The membranes of the sarcoplasmic reticulum become more permeable to calcium ions 4 Calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm around the myofibril 2 Calcium ions bind to troponin 5 The troponin -tropomyosin complex moves exposing active sites
The sites where a chemical substance is transmitted from the presynaptic terminal of an axon to the postsynaptic membrane of a muscle fiber are called A Neuromuscular junction B sarcomeres C my filaments D Z disk E cell body of neuron
A Neuromuscular junction
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers
A long, relax and swim
Most skeletal muscles contain
A mixture of fiber types
The term aponeurosis refers to
A sheet like indirect connected tissue attachment from a muscle to the skeletal element
Muscle tone is
A state of sustained partial contraction
What does fallen arches mean?
A weakening, of the tendons and ligaments supporting the arches of the foot
The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called: A) lacunae B) Volkmann's canals C) Haversian canals D) trabeculae E) lamellae
A) lacunae
Which is not a function of synovial fluid? A. Nourishes osteocytes B. Lubricates articulating surfaces C. Removes wastes D. Serves as shock absorber E. Distributes stress forces across articular surfaces
A. Nourishes osteocytes
Which is an accurate description of appositional bone growth? A. Osteoblasts build bone at the circumferential lamellae while osteoclasts widen the medullary cavity. B. Osteoclasts build bone at the concentric lamellae while osteoblasts build bone at the interstitial lamellae. C. Osteoblasts build bone at the concentric lamellae while osteoclasts build bone at the epiphyses. D. Osteocytes build bone at the interstitial lamellae while osteoclasts expand the length of the medullary cavity. E. Osteocytes and osteoclasts expand the bone at its epiphyses, chondrocytes construct cartilage.
A. Osteoblasts build bone at the circumferential lamellae while osteoclasts widen the medullary cavity.
What is the function of cartilage located in the epiphyseal plates? A. Site of bone elongation and growth B. Provides passageway for blood vessels C. Forms articular surface D. Supports soft tissues E. Provides flexibility for bending
A. Site of bone elongation and growth
Rickets, a disease characterized by overproduction and deficient calcification of osteoid tissue, is caused by a lack of sufficient A. Vitamin D. B. Calcitonin. C. Thyroid hormone. D. Vitamin A. E. Vitamin C.
A. Vitamin D.
The process of bone repair includes these steps: a: Fracture hematoma forms b: Bone is remodeled c: Fibrocartilaginous callus forms d: Bony callus forms The correct chronological order for these steps is A. a - c - d - b B. a - b - d - c C. c - d - b - a D. d - a - b - c E. b - a - c - d
A. a - c - d - b
When compared to the shoulder, the hip joint has A. a deeper bony socket and stronger supporting ligaments. B. a deeper bony socket but weaker supporting ligaments. C. a shallower bony socket and weaker supporting ligaments. D. a shallower bony socket but stronger supporting ligaments.
A. a deeper bony socket and stronger supporting ligaments.
A movement that increases or decreases the angle between two bones is a(n) __________ motion. A. angular B. rotational C. eversion D. sliding
A. angular
The anterior cruciate ligament prevents _____ displacement of the tibia A. anterior B. inversion C. lateral D. medial E. radial
A. anterior
Place in correct order the following steps in the process of appositional growth of cartilage. a: New matrix is produced and secreted. b: Chondrocytes differentiate, each in its own lacuna. c: Stem cells undergo mitosis. d: Committed cells differentiate into chondroblasts. A. c. - d. - a. - b. B. d. - c. - b. - a. C. c. - d. - b. - a. D. a. - c. - b. - d. E. a. - c. - d. - b.
A. c. - d. - a. - b.
Bone is considered an important storage reservoir for A. calcium, phosphate, and lipids. B. steroids, proteins, and complex carbohydrates. C. glycogen, nitrogenous bases, and calcium. D. phosphate, glycogen, and nonpolar amino acids. E. calcium, complex carbohydrates, and polar amino acids.
A. calcium, phosphate, and lipids.
The pubic symphysis is classified as a A. cartilaginous joint and an amphiarthrosis. B. fibrous joint and a synarthrosis. C. synovial joint and a diarthrosis. D. cartilaginous joint and a synarthrosis. E. fibrous joint and an amphiarthrosis.
A. cartilaginous joint and an amphiarthrosis.
If you move your head in such a way to look up at the ceiling, you are _________ your neck. A. hyperextending B. rotating C. circumducting D. flexing E. elevating
A. hyperextending
Strong reinforcement for the anterior aspect of the hip joint is provided by the Y-shaped A. iliofemoral ligament. B. pubofemoral ligament. C. ligament of the head of the femur. D. ischiofemoral ligament.
A. iliofemoral ligament.
High blood calcium and exercise cause calcitonin release to A. increase. B. decrease.
A. increase.
During development of synovial joints, the articular capsule forms from mesenchymal tissue that is A. laterally located. B. centrally located.
A. laterally located.
As the bone matrix calcifies and the secreting cells become walled in, A. osteoblasts become osteocytes. B. osteogenic progenitors become osteoclasts. C. osteoblasts become osteoclasts. D. osteoclasts become osteocytes.
A. osteoblasts become osteocytes.
Mechanical stress of bones, such as that caused by weight lifting, is detected by A. osteocytes, which then communicate to osteoblasts to increase synthesis of osteoid. B. osteoclasts, which then communicate to osteocytes to increase the size of lacunae. C. chondrocytes, which then trigger osteoblasts to increase bone in a lengthwise fashion. D. osteoblasts, which then communicate to osteocytes and osteoclasts to deposit more hydroxyapatite.
A. osteocytes, which then communicate to osteoblasts to increase synthesis of osteoid.
Flat bones A. protect underlying soft tissue and may be slightly curved. B. have elaborate shapes, and sometimes resemble sesame seeds. C. include the bones of the wrist that glide across each other. D. are, by definition, not at all curved. E. have a diaphysis and an epiphysis.
A. protect underlying soft tissue and may be slightly curved.
Important functions of the skeletal system include
A. protection of the brain and soft organs.
The main ligament supporting the lateral aspect of the elbow is the A. radial collateral ligament. B. lateral cruciate ligament. C. annular ligament. D. ulnar collateral ligament. E. ulnar condylar ligament.
A. radial collateral ligament.
Parathyroid hormone and calcitriol A. stimulate osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium into the blood. B. stimulate osteoblasts to deposit bone by producing calcified matrix. C. stimulate osteoblasts to resorb bone and lower blood calcium levels. D. stimulate osteoclasts to move calcium from the blood and into the bone.
A. stimulate osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium into the blood.
In a first-class lever A. the fulcrum is in the middle, between the effort and the resistance. B. the resistance is between the fulcrum and the effort. C. the effort is between the resistance and the fulcrum. D. there is no effort arm.
A. the fulcrum is in the middle, between the effort and the resistance.
The sternoclavicular joint is a saddle joint with a _______ range of movement. A. wide B. narrow
A. wide
The first four- six seconds of skeletal muscle contraction are sustained by energy from
ATP stored in the muscle
A person instinctively curls over his abdominal area in times of danger. Why?
Abdominal area organs receive the least protection from the skeletal system
If you raise your arm away from the median plane in your body along the frontal plane you have
Abducted
In Pilates, you were constantly reminded to turn your toes out, keeping your heels together and squeezing your thighs. Squeezing your thighs like this is
Adduction
_____ synovial joints are diarthroses.
All
In the classification of joints which of the following is true
All synovial joints are freely movable
The articulations that permit only very slight degrees of movement are called
Amphiarthrosis
Discuss the two factors that cause bone remodeling throughout life.
Answer: 1. Calcium levels in the bloodstream determine when bone is to be broken down. When calcium levels in the bloodstream drop below normal, the parathyroid glands produce and release parathyroid hormone (PTH) into the blood. PTH activates osteoclasts (giant bone-destroying cells in bone) to break down bone and release calcium into the blood. Conversely, when calcium levels in the bloodstream are too high, osteoblasts (bone-forming cells in bone) are activated and calcium is deposited in bone matrix as hard calcium salts. 2. Stresses of muscle pull and gravity acting on the skeleton determine where bone matrix is to be broken down or formed so that the skeleton can remain strong for as long as possible. Long bones grow in length and in thickness as the body increases in size and as a result of the activity of bulky muscles. At these sites, osteoblasts (bone-forming cells) lay down new matrix and become trapped within it. Once they are trapped, they become osteocytes or true bone cells.
Differentiate the roles of osteoclasts, osteoblasts, and osteocytes in bone.
Answer: 1. Osteoclasts are giant bone-destroying cells that break down bone matrix and release calcium ions into the blood. They are activiated by a hormone called parathyroid hormone (PTH). 2. Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells. They add bone tissue to growing bones. 3. Osteocytes are mature bone cells. In their former lives, they were osteoblasts that laid down bone matrix, but became trapped in it.
osteoblsast
Which type of cell produces new bone tissue by secreting matrix?
Explain how atlas and axis are different from other vertebrae. Discuss the roles they play in the body.
Answer: 1. Unlike all other vertebra, atlas (C1) has no body. Axis (C2) has a large process called the dens or odontoid process. 2. The structural differences of these two vertebrae allow you to rotate your head from side to side to indicate "no." The joint between these two vertebrae is a pivot joint.
True/False Most of the stress on the vertebral column occurs on the sturdiest vertebrae in the sacral region.
Answer: FALSE
True/False Spinal curvatures that are present at birth are called primary curvatures (the cervical and lumbar curvatures) and those that develop later are secondary curvatures (the thoracic and sacral curvatures).
Answer: FALSE
True/False The spinal cord passes through the body of each vertebra.
Answer: FALSE
True/False All flat bones are formed from hyaline cartilage.
Answer: FALSE
True/False Ribs numbered 11 and 12 are true ribs because they have no anterior attachments
Answer: FALSE
True/False The diaphysis of a long bone is composed of spongy bone.
Answer: FALSE
True/False Osteoblasts respond to the parathyroid hormone (PTH).
Answer: FALSE (osteoclasts do)
__________ are giant cells that destroy bone.
Answer: Osteoclasts
True/False Fontanels allow for growth of the brain.
Answer: TRUE
True/False In anatomical position, the lateral lower leg bone is the fibula.
Answer: TRUE
True/False The heaviest, strongest bone in the body is the femur.
Answer: TRUE
True/False The zygomatic bones form the cheekbones.
Answer: TRUE
True/False There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae.
Answer: TRUE
If 6-year-old Sarah fell and broke her femur, damaging the proximal epiphyseal plate, what might she expect as she grows older? What is an epiphyseal plate and why is it significant to this situation?
Answer: The epiphyseal plate is a flat plate of hyaline cartilage seen in young growing bone. Epiphyseal plates cause the lengthwise growth of long bone. Since this child is still growing and has not completed puberty, she may expect impaired growth in that one epiphyseal plate. Lucky for Sarah, there is an epiphyseal plate located at both the distal and proximal ends of the femur. The healthy distal plate can continue to grow.
The part of the ethmoid bone that contains holey areas with fibers that carry impulses from the olfactory receptors of the nose to the brain is the __________.
Answer: cribriform plate
The only freely movable bone in the skull is the __________.
Answer: mandible
The external acoustic (auditory) meatus is found on the __________ bone.
Answer: temporal
A large rounded projection on a bone is called a __________.
Answer: tuberosity
(T/F) The ankle joint is the only joint that makes the movements "dorsiflexion" and "plantar flexion".
TRUE
List some of the features of a female pelvis that make it different from a male pelvis.
Answer: The female pelvis: a. has a larger and more circular inlet. b. is shallower than the male pelvis. c. has lighter and thinner bones. d. has a shorter and less curved sacrum. e. has a more rounded pubic arch. f. has shorter ischial spines that are also farther apart.
1. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? A) rib B) radius C) clavicle D) scapula E) coxa
Answer: a
10. The sagittal suture is located between the A) two parietal bones. B) frontal and parietal bones. C) parietal and temporal bones. D) parietal and occipital bones. E) frontal and temporal bones.
Answer: a
13. In conduction deafness, which of the following bones might fuse together? A) incus and malleus B) tibia and fibula C) radius and ulna D) vomer and palatine E) incus and stapes
Answer: a
21. Which of the following bones contains a sinus? A) maxilla B) nasal bone C) occipital bone D) zygomatic bone E) temporal
Answer: a
33. A traumatic hyperextension of the cervical vertebrae is referred to as A) whiplash. B) a fracture. C) scoliosis. D) a herniated disc. E) spina bifida.
Answer: a
38. Transverse foramina are found in _____ vertebrae. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) antebrachial
Answer: a
40. Which of the following vertebral parts is most anterior in location? A) body B) lamina C) spinous process D) transverse process E) vertebral arch
Answer: a
46. Which of the following parts of a rib articulates with the body of a vertebra? A) head B) neck C) body D) groove E) sternal end
Answer: a
57. Which of the following is most distal in location? A) trochlea B) greater tubercle C) deltoid tuberosity D) medial epicondyle E) anatomical neck
Answer: a
6. Which of the following bones is a facial bone? A) maxilla B) incus C) hyoid D) ethmoid E) sphenoid
Answer: a
61. The olecranon process is found on the A) ulna. B) radius. C) scapula. D) humerus. E) clavicle.
Answer: a
66. Which of the following is false? A) The wrist is the region between the forearm and the hand. B) The olecranon process is located on the distal end of the ulna. C) The distal end of the radius articulates with the ulna and the carpals. D) Tendons and nerves pass through the carpal tunnel to enter the hand. E) The radius is the most commonly fractured bone in people over 50.
Answer: b
69. The greater ischiadic (sciatic) notch is found on the A) inferior edge of the pubis. B) posterior side of the ilium. C) superior edge of the ischium. D) ventral surface of the sacrum. E) inferior edge of the ischium.
Answer: b
72. Which of the following situations could interfere with normal child birth? A) small ischial spines B) a small pelvic outlet C) an enlarged iliac crest D) a wide, circular pelvic inlet E) widely spaced ischial spines
Answer: b
73. The large bone in the thigh is the A) tibia. B) femur. C) fibula. D) ischium. E) coxa.
Answer: b
77. The medial malleolus A) is the proximal portion of the tibia. B) forms the medial side of the ankle joint. C) articulates with the calcaneus. D) is part of the arch of the foot. E) is on the lateral side of the leg.
Answer: b
86. What does structure "C" represent? A) frontal bone B) occipital bone C) parietal bone D) sphenoid bone E) temporal bone
Answer: b
9. A person who gets hit on the back of the head might suffer injury to which of these bones? A) temporal B) occipital C) sphenoid D) zygomatic E) nasal
Answer: b
15. The mastoid process is A) part of the zygomatic arch. B) located anterior to the external auditory meatus. C) contains mastoid air cells. D) the point of attachment of the temporalis muscle. E) is a sinus.
Answer: c
19. Which of the following bones forms part of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity? A) vomer B) sphenoid C) inferior nasal conchae D) frontal E) nasal
Answer: c
2. The appendicular skeleton consists of the A) skull and appendages. B) rib cage and the pelvis. C) limbs and their girdles. D) rib cage and limb girdles. E) vertebral column.
Answer: c
22. The pituitary gland (hypophysis) rests in the A) crista galli. B) cribriform plate. C) sella turcica (hypophyseal fossa). D) pterygoid canal. E) foramen magnum.
Answer: c
27. Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a A) cleft lip. B) cleft chin. C) cleft palate. D) deviated septum. E) clogged sinus.
Answer: c
3. Which of the following anatomical features of bones is correctly matched with its function? A) tubercle - lining of a joint B) body - attachment point for a tendon or ligament C) foramen - a hole for a blood vessel D) sinus - a tunnel in a bone E) foramen - a depression in a bone
Answer: c
35. Which of the following statements is true? A) The first cervical vertebra is called the axis. B) The spinal cord protects the vertebral column. C) Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes. D) The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae. E) Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae.
Answer: c
42. The ribs articulate with the _____ vertebrae. A) sacral B) lumbar C) thoracic D) cervical E) coccygeal
Answer: c
47. Those ribs that attach directly to the sternum are referred to as _____ ribs. A) false B) vertebral C) vertebrosternal D) vertebrochondral E) floating
Answer: c
51. The upper limb and its girdle are attached rather loosely to the rest of the body. This arrangement A) results in a disjointed appearance. B) limits fine coordination of the hands. C) allows a wide range of movements. D) restricts the amount of weight the upper limb can support. E) results in a limited range of motion.
Answer: c
53. Another name for the shoulder blade is A) the sternum. B) the clavicle. C) the scapula. D) the acromion. E) the xiphoid process.
Answer: c
56. A dislocated shoulder involves separation of the __________ from the scapula. A) radius B) clavicle C) humerus D) manubrium E) sternum
Answer: c
75. Which of the following statements is true? A) The head of the femur articulates with the tibia. B) The medial condyle articulates with the acetabulum. C) Both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles. D) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the femur. E) The proximal end of the femur articulates with the tibia.
Answer: c
76. Which of the following is correctly matched? A) greater trochanter - distal shaft of femur B) lateral malleolus - distal end of tibia C) patella - bone within tendon of quadriceps D) tibial tuberosity - superior to the patella E) medial malleolus - proximal end of the tibia
Answer: c
Refer to the following figure for questions 84-88. 84. What does structure "A" represent? A) frontal bone B) occipital bone C) parietal bone D) sphenoid bone E) temporal bone
Answer: c
11. The lambdoidal suture is located between the A) frontal and parietal bones. B) parietal and temporal bones. C) temporal and occipital bones. D) parietal and occipital bones. E) two parietal bones.
Answer: d
17. Which of the following is found inferior to the maxilla and has a posterior articulation with the temporal bone? A) zygomatic B) sphenoid C) parietal D) mandible E) palatine bone
Answer: d
23. The olfactory foramina are found in the region of the ethmoid bone known as the A) crista galli. B) sella turcica. C) ethmoid sinus. D) cribriform plate. E) perpendicular plate.
Answer: d
25. Which of the following bony features is mismatched with its description? A) crista galli - point of attachment of one of the meninges B) occipital condyles - articulation points between the skull and vertebral column C) alveolar process - ridge containing the teeth D) styloid process - point of articulation of mandible with skull E) mandibular fossa - point of articulation of mandible with skull
Answer: d
28. Which of the following statements concerning the maxilla is false? A) The maxilla contains a large sinus. B) The maxilla forms part of the orbit. C) The maxilla forms part of the hard palate. D) The maxilla articulates with the mastoid process. E) The maxilla forms the upper jaw.
Answer: d
30. Which of the following bony features is not associated with the skull? A) foramen rotundum B) pterygoid canal C) stylomastoid foramen D) obturator foramen E) cribriform plate
Answer: d
32. Which of the following statements is true? A) The cervical curve develops before birth. B) The adult vertebral column has three curvatures. C) Scoliosis is the term applied to normal curvature of the spine. D) An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis. E) Lordosis is an exaggeration of the cervical curvature.
Answer: d
36. The coccyx is A) absent in humans. B) also called the coxa. C) located in the upper lumbar region. D) the most inferior portion of the vertebral column. E) the bottom of the spinal cord.
Answer: d
4. Which of the following bones is part of the cranial vault? A) vomer B) nasal bone C) palatine bone D) occipital bone E) mandible
Answer: d
44. A herniated disc occurs when A) the body of a vertebra is fractured. B) the covering of the spinal cord is torn. C) there is a fracture of the vertebral arch. D) there is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. E) spinal nerves are cut.
Answer: d
49. Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are all parts of the A) pelvis. B) scapula. C) clavicle. D) sternum. E) sacrum.
Answer: d
54. The glenoid fossa is where the A) clavicle articulates with the scapula. B) clavicle articulates with the sternum. C) humerus articulates with the clavicle. D) humerus articulates with the scapula. E) radius articulates with humerus.
Answer: d
70. A fractured coxa is more commonly called a fractured A) arm. B) wrist. C) knee. D) pelvis. E) ankle.
Answer: d
71. A person sits on his/her A) iliac fossa. B) pelvic brim. C) pubis symphysis. D) ischial tuberosity. E) obturator foramen.
Answer: d
81. The foot contains A) carpals. B) a patella. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) the lateral malleolus.
Answer: d
82. The thumb and big toe are similar in that A) both contain carpal bones. B) each have three metatarsals. C) both are composed of sesamoid bones. D) both have two rather than three phalanges. E) both have three rather than two phalanges.
Answer: d
83. A woman who drops something on her foot might injure which of the following bones? A) vomer B) pisiform C) lunate D) cuneiform E) metacarpals
Answer: d
88. What does structure "E" represent? A) frontal bone B) occipital bone C) parietal bone D) sphenoid bone E) temporal bone
Answer: d
12. The ligamentum nuchae A) protects the brain. B) is a part of the nose. C) moves the eye. D) supports the jaw. E) helps keep the head erect
Answer: e
24. The foramen magnum is a large opening in the base of the skull for A) optic nerve. B) the carotid arteries. C) internal jugular veins. D) the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves. E) the spinal cord.
Answer: e
29. A person with a fractured mandible has a broken A) back. B) neck. C) rib. D) wrist. E) jaw.
Answer: e
41. The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of A) the pelvic girdle. B) the vertebral arches. C) the vertebral bodies. D) the vertebral foramen. E) the intervertebral discs.
Answer: e
55. The acromion process A) is part of the clavicle. B) articulates with the coracoid process. C) forms the most inferior part of the glenoid fossa. D) has no function. E) forms a protective cover for the shoulder joint.
Answer: e
58. The humerus articulates with the ulna at the A) medial epicondyle. B) lateral epicondyle. C) capitulum. D) radial fossa. E) trochlea.
Answer: e
60. The point of the elbow is the A) trochlea. B) capitulum. C) olecranon fossa. D) styloid process. E) olecranon process.
Answer: e
62. In a farm accident a man has his arm severed midway between his wrist and his elbow. Which of the following bones was severed? A) radius B) humerus C) clavicle D) ulna E) A and D
Answer: e
65. A woman pinched her phalange. She hurt her A) ear. B) toe. C) cheek. D) finger. E) B or D
Answer: e
7. Which of the following bones is attached to the skull by muscles and ligaments? A) ethmoid B) frontal C) sphenoid D) vomer E) hyoid
Answer: e
85. What does structure "B" represent? A) frontal bone B) occipital bone C) parietal bone D) sphenoid bone E) temporal bone
Answer: e
Which of the following statements regarding the sliding filament model is false? A Actin and myosin do not shorten during contraction B Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction C The sarcomere shortens D The I band and H zones become narrower during contraction E The A band remains constant in length
B Both actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction
The Sarcoplasm is the A cell membrane of a muscle fiber B cytoplasm of muscle cells C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
B cytoplasm of muscle cells
A fasciculus A is a bundle of reticular fibers B is surrounded by perimysium C. is only found in smooth muscle D possesses an external lamina E is a bundle of collagen fibers
B is surrounded by perimysium
The axial skeleton contains: 1. skull 2. arms and legs 3. ribs and sternum 4. vertebrae 5. pelvic girdles A) 1, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 2, 5 D) 2, 3, 4, 5 E) 1, 2, 3, 5
B) 1, 3, 4
Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis: A) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller B) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater C) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less D) the female iliac bones are less flared E) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker
B) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
Which is not correct regarding articulations? A. An articulation is a joint between a bone and another bone, cartilage, or tooth. B. All articulations contain some type of cartilage. C. Arthrology is the scientific study of articulations. D. Articulations can range in motion from freely mobile to immobile. E. There are three structural categories of articulations
B. All articulations contain some type of cartilage.
Which joint is multiaxial? A. Pivot B. Ball and socket C. Condylar D. Plane E. Hinge
B. Ball and socket
What are the matrix rings of compact bone that surround the central canal of each osteon? A. Canaliculi B. Concentric lamellae C. Circumferential lamellae D. Perforating canals E. Interstitial lamellae
B. Concentric lamellae
Which type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral discs? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Fibrocartilage C. Reticular cartilage D. Articular cartilage E. Elastic cartilage
B. Fibrocartilage
Which of the following describes a meniscus? A. Attach one bone to another at a joint B. Fibrous cartilage pads C. Flat, fluid-filled sacs D. Found only at the temporomandibular joint E. Attach muscles to bones
B. Fibrous cartilage pads
Which knee ligament is most crucial for preventing hyperadduction? A. Tibial collateral ligament B. Fibular collateral ligament C. Patellar ligament D. Anterior cruciate ligament E. Medial meniscus
B. Fibular collateral ligament
Which is not a correct pairing of a joint with its common name? A. Radiocarpal joint - wrist B. Glenohumeral joint - elbow C. Metacarpophalangeal - knuckle D. Temporomandibular - TMJ E. Talocrural - ankle
B. Glenohumeral joint - elbow
Which joints are responsible for flexion and extension at the elbow? A. Glenohumeral and humeroulnar B. Humeroulnar and humeroradial C. Humeroulnar, humeroradial, and radioulnar D. Humeroradial, radioulnar, and radiocarpal E. Humeroradial and radioulnar
B. Humeroulnar and humeroradial
Which is not true about the periosteum? A. It includes two layers: outer fibrous and inner cellular. B. It is composed of dense regular connective tissue. C. It provides stem cells for bone growth and repair. D. It is anchored to the bone by collagen fibers. E. It covers the entire bone surface, with the exception of articular areas.
B. It is composed of dense regular connective tissue.
Consider the classifications of bone, and examples of each. Which classification comprises bones used primarily for movement rather than protection? A. Short bones B. Long bones C. Flat bones D. Irregular bones E. Regular bones
B. Long bones
If a clinician were looking to harvest bone marrow that made blood cells, which bone of a donor would be sampled? A. Distal head of femur B. Os coxa C. Phalanges D. Distal humerus
B. Os coxa
Which hormone normally has a more significant effect on blood calcium levels in adults? A. Calcitonin B. Parathyroid hormone
B. Parathyroid hormone
If you were to reach out your hand to receive a set of keys from someone, what movements of your forearm and hand would be involved? A. Pronation and adduction B. Supination and extension C. Depression and flexion D. Protraction and rotation E. Eversion and abduction
B. Supination and extension
What would be the effect on bone growth of insufficient dietary calcium? A. There would be no effect, because the body is able to synthesize calcium. B. The matrix would be softer. C. The bone would be less flexible. D. The epiphyseal plates would ossify earlier in development. E. There would be increased formation of spongy bone.
B. The matrix would be softer.
The ligamentum teres of the hip extends from the A. ilium to the lesser trochanter of the femur. B. acetabulum to the head of the femur. C. pubis to the greater trocanter of the femur. D. iliac crest to the head of the femur. E. ischium to the intertrochanteric crest of the femur.
B. acetabulum to the head of the femur.
Synovial fluid is A. a watery fluid produced by hyaline cartilage. B. an oily fluid produced by the synovial membrane. C. a watery fluid produced by capsular ligaments. D. an oily fluid produced by articular cartilage.
B. an oily fluid produced by the synovial membrane.
Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints A. use fibrous connective tissue to hold the bones in the joint together B. are enclosed by a joint capsule C. are only temporary; they are replaced in the adult D. generally have both bones in the joint fused together E. are not freely moveable
B. are enclosed by a joint capsule
Gomphoses A. contain fluid-filled joint cavities. B. are found only in tooth sockets. C. consist of sheets of hyaline cartilage. D. cover the tendons in the shoulder and coxal joints. E. are also called saddle joints.
B. are found only in tooth sockets.
In the temporomandibular joint, a pad of fibrocartilage called the _________ divides the synovial cavity into two separate chambers. A. meniscus B. articular disc C. mandibular partition D. sphenomandibular ligament E. coronoid capsule
B. articular disc
Which choice places the steps of intramembranous ossification in correct chronological order? a: Formation of lamellar bone b: Osteoid undergoes calcification c: Ossification centers form d: Formation of woven bone and its periosteum A. b - a - c - d B. c - b - d - a C. c - b - a - d D. a - c - d - b E. b - c - d - a
B. c - b - d - a
(T/F) The connection between a tooth and jaw bone is an example of a joint.
TRUE
Common, wear-and-tear arthritis, in which repeated use of a joint gradually wears down the articular cartilage, is known as A. gout. B. osteoarthritis. C. rheumatoid arthritis. D. osteopenia. E. articular porosis.
B. osteoarthritis.
The periosteum is anchored to the bone by collagen fibers called _____ fibers. A. transverse B. perforating C. penetrating D. connecting E. cementing
B. perforating
The ________ joint is the simplest synovial joint and also the least mobile synovial joint. A. pivot B. plane C. hinge D. saddle E. suture
B. plane
Standing on one's toes is an example of a movement called A. dorsiflexion B. plantar flexion C. depression D. opposition E. elevation
B. plantar flexion
The greater sciatic notch is found on the A. inferior edge of the pubis B. posterior side of the ilium C. superior edge of the ischium D. ventral surface of the sacrum E. inferior edge of the ischium
B. posterior side of the ilium
If a heavy load is at one end of a lever, the distance between the fulcrum and that load is called the A. effort arm. B. resistance arm. C. lever length.
B. resistance arm.
Our calf muscles contract to cause plantar flexion, resembling the lever system of a wheelbarrow. Therefore, it is a _______ -class lever. A. first B. second C. third
B. second
The dens or odontoid process is on the A. first cervical vertebra B. second cervical vertebra C. first thoracic vertebra D. second lumbar vertebra E. coccyx
B. second cervical vertebra
The acromioclavicular joint is part of the A. sternum. B. shoulder. C. elbow. D. neck. E. cranium.
B. shoulder.
Joints are classified according to the A. bones that are united at the joint B. structures of the joints C. size of the joint D. shape of the joint E. type of fluid in the joints
B. structures of the joints
In a young person, the joint between the sphenoid bone and the occipital bone is a A. suture. B. synchondrosis. C. syndesmosis. D. symphysis. E. gomphosis.
B. synchondrosis.
The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist indicates a disorder of the A. cruciate ligament B. synovial membrane C. articular cartilage D. bursae E. mucus membrane
B. synovial membrane
The deltoid ligament, lateral ligament, and tibiofibular ligaments belong to the ________ joint. A. tarsometatarsal B. talocrural C. humeroradial D. knee E. fibulometatarsal
B. talocrural
A person who has cerebrospinal fluid draining from the ear probably has a fracture of the A. frontal bone B. temporal bone C. zygomatic bone D. parietal bone E. occipital bone
B. temporal bone
In a syndesmosis A. there is an osseous union between the bones of the joint B. the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes C. it is not usual to find discs of cartilage D. no movement occurs E. there is a great range of motion
B. the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes
Articular facets on the transverse processes are characteristics of ____ vertebrae. A. cervical B. thoracic C. lumbar D. sacral E. coccygeal
B. thoracic
Cartilaginous joints A. are common in the skull B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage C. allow the most movement between bones D. are found in the lower leg E. are not found in the pelvic region
B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage
highly vascularized, sensory
Bone is ________ and contains mainly ________ nerves.
calcium, phosphate, and lipids
Bone is considered an important storage reservoir for:
What are the connective tissue sacks called that are lined with synovial membrane in places where friction develops in or around a joint? The synovial membrane's make the sack act as cushions
Bursae
Which of the following is NOT a property of the myosin head? A They form Cross-bridges with the active sites of actin B They have a hinge region to bend and straighten C They bind troponin D They have ATP-ase activity E They bind to ATP
C They bind troponin
Synaptic vesicles in the neuromuscular junction contain A. Calcium B ATP C acetylcholine D sodium E acetyl cholinesterase
C acetylcholine
Muscle myofibrils A. are found in the sarcolemma B extend from the sarcolemma to the T- tubule C contain myosin and actin my filaments D hold muscle cells together E do not appear striated
C contain myosin and actin my filaments
The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a A. suture B. syndesmosis C gomphosis D. synostosis E. symphysis
C gomphosis
ATP- ase is found in A F- actin strands B G- actin strands C myosin heads D tropomyosin grooves E troponin molecules
C myosin heads
What type of muscle tissue causes vasoconstriction A cardiac muscle B skeletal muscle C smooth muscle
C smooth muscle
Depolarization of the cell membrane occurs when there is a rapid influx (inflow) of A amino acids B calcium ions C sodium ions D chloride ions E potassium ions
C sodium ions
A sarcomere is the A cell membrane of a muscle fiber B cytoplasm of muscle cells C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
Channels that open or close in response to changes in the electrical charge or voltage across the plasma membrane are called A Obligated ion channels B relegated ion channels C voltage gated ion channels D non -gated ion channels E ligand gated ion channels
C voltage gated ion channels
A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a: A) compound fracture B) simple fracture C) comminuted fracture D) compression fracture E) greenstick fracture
C) comminuted fracture
Which of the following bone categories is composed of two layers of compact bone sandwiching a layer of spongy bone between them: A) compact bone B) irregular bone C) flat bone D) long bone E) sesamoid bone
C) flat bone
A round or oval opening through a bone is a: A) facet B) fossa C) foramen D) fissure E) trochanter
C) foramen
A shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface is a: A) sinus B) meatus C) fossa D) foramen E) groove
C) fossa
The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the: A) ischium, ilium, coccyx B) pubis, ischium, ilium C) manubrium, body, xiphoid process D) jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint E) true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process
C) manubrium, body, xiphoid process
Fingers and toes are referred to as: A) tarsals B) metacarpals C) phalanges D) metatarsals E) carpals
C) phalanges
There are __________ vertebrae in the neck region. A) five thoracic B) seven lumbar C) seven cervical D) twelve thoracic E) five lumbar
C) seven cervical
The sella turcica is part of the __________ bone. A) parietal B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) temporal E) frontal
C) sphenoid
Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior: A) floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs B) floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs C) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs D) true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs E) false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs
C) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
What gives bone its flexibility? A. Inorganic salts B. Yellow bone marrow C. Collagen fibers D. Trabeculae E. Elastic fibers
C. Collagen fibers
What is the thin layer of connective tissue that lines the medullary cavity of a long bone? A. Diaphysis B. Epiphysis C. Endosteum D. Periosteum E. Trabeculae
C. Endosteum
What helps bone resist compression? A. Yellow bone marrow B. Reticular fibers C. Inorganic salts D. Red bone marrow E. Endosteum
C. Inorganic salts
What is the function of the cruciate ligaments in the knee joint? A. Hold the patella in place on the femur B. Hold the patella in place on the tibia C. Limit the movement of the femur on the tibia D. Limit the movement of the fibula on the femur E. Limit the movement of the fibula on the tibia
C. Limit the movement of the femur on the tibia
Which region of a growing bone contains the epiphyseal plate? A. Distal epiphysis B. Proximal epiphysis C. Metaphysis D. Diaphysis E. Periphysis
C. Metaphysis
During the process of endochondral ossification, chondrocytes in the cartilage model die. Why does this occur? A. Blood supply to the cartilage is cut off by the developing periosteum. B. Canaliculi connecting adjacent chondrocyte lacunae fuse. C. Nutrients cannot diffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix. D. The developing bone collar secretes enzymes that destroy the chondrocytes. E. Phagocytic osteoclasts in the new bone engulf and destroy the chondrocytes.
C. Nutrients cannot diffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix.
Which type of cell produces new bone tissue by secreting matrix? A. Osteocytes B. Osteoclasts C. Osteoblasts D. Osteoprogenitor cells E. Bone-lining cells
C. Osteoblasts
Where does hemopoiesis occur? A. Epiphyseal line B. Endosteum C. Red bone marrow D. Yellow bone marrow E. Nutrient foramina
C. Red bone marrow
Which of the following statements is true? A. The first cervical vertebra is called the axis B. The spinal cord protects the vertebral column C. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes D. The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae E. Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae
C. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes
Which of the following statements about the femur is TRUE? A. the head of the femur articulates with the tibia B. the medial condyle articulates with the acetabulum C. both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles D. the distal end of the tibia articulates with the femur E. the proximal end of the femur articulates with the tibia
C. both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles
Fluid-filled sacs that cushion synovial joints are called A. fat pads. B. articular discs. C. bursae. D. menisci. E. diarthroses.
C. bursae.
The epiphyseal plates in the _________ are the last ones in the body to ossify. A. femur B. humerus C. clavicle D. radius E. tibia
C. clavicle
The metatarsophalangeal joints allow movement in two planes and are classified as _________ joints. A. planar B. ball and socket C. condylar D. pivot E. hinge
C. condylar
The knobby region of a long bone at the end that is farthest from the trunk is the A. distal diaphysis. B. proximal epiphysis. C. distal epiphysis. D. superior diaphysis
C. distal epiphysis.
The proper sequence of events in bone repair is
C. hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone.
Hyaline cartilage contains a ______ percentage of water; cartilage cells reside in small spaces called ________. A. low; lacunae B. low; canaliculi C. high; lacunae D. high; canaliculi
C. high; lacunae
Bone is ________ and contains mainly ________ nerves. A. avascular; sensory B. avascular; motor C. highly vascularized; sensory D. highly vascularized; motor
C. highly vascularized; sensory
When elevating the mandible to chew food, the temporomandibular joint functions as a _________ joint. A. pivot B. ball and socket C. hinge D. saddle
C. hinge
Endochondral ossification begins with a(n) _________ model. A. mesenchyme B. dense connective tissue C. hyaline cartilage D. membranous E. osteoid
C. hyaline cartilage
When the angle between articulating bones increases beyond the anatomic position, the movement is referred to as A. dislocation. B. supination. C. hyperextension. D. hyperflexion. E. hypertrophy.
C. hyperextension.
A fracture parallel to the long axis of the bone is a(n) _________ fracture. A. transverse B. oblique C. linear D. comminuted E. medial
C. linear
When bone forms by intramembranous ossification, the ossification centers are within A. hyaline cartilage. B. compact bone. C. mesenchyme. D. elastic cartilage. E. spongy bone.
C. mesenchyme.
In addition to the joint between the tibia and the femur, the knee contains a joint between the A. fibula and the femur. B. patella and the fibula. C. patella and the femur. D. patella and the tibia.
C. patella and the femur.
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is A. lordosis B. kyphosis C. scoliosis D. spinal bifida E. herniated disk
C. scoliosis
The bones of the wrist are classified as _____ bones. A. long B. regular C. short D. irregular E. flat
C. short
The type of bone tissue that is replaced more frequently is ________ bone; the part of the femur that is replaced more frequently is the __________. A. compact; distal epiphysis B. compact; diaphysis C. spongy; distal epiphysis D. spongy; diaphysis
C. spongy; distal epiphysis
Functionally, a gomphosis is categorized as a A. cartilagenous joint. B. diarthrosis. C. synarthrosis. D. synovial joint.
C. synarthrosis.
An articular capsule is present in A. fibrous joints. B. fibrous joints and cartilaginous joints. C. synovial joints. D. fibrous joints and synovial joints. E. all joints.
C. synovial joints.
Which of the following statements concerning sutures is false? A. they may become completely immovable in adults B. the opposing bones in the joint interdigitate for stability C. the tissue between the bones is hyaline cartilage D. the periosteum of adjacent bones is continuous over the joint E. membranes, called fontanels, are present in some sutures at birth
C. the tissue between the bones is hyaline cartilage
When considering joints in the human body, the most common lever type is the A. first-class lever. B. second-class lever. C. third-class lever.
C. third-class lever.
The ribs articulate with the _____ vertebrae A. sacral B. lumbar C. thoracic D. cervical E. coccygeal
C. thoracic
The joint movement called eversion involves A. lateral rotation of the coxal joint. B. medial rotation of the coxal joint. C. turning the sole of the foot laterally. D. turning the palm of the hand laterally. E. turning the palm of the hand or sole of the foot laterally.
C. turning the sole of the foot laterally.
Based on its range of motion, the elbow is classified as a(n) __________ joint. A. multiaxial B. gliding C. uniaxial D. biaxial E. ellipsoid
C. uniaxial
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle
Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers
Articular facets face superior/inferior
Cervical vertebrae
Have some bifid spinous processes
Cervical vertebrae
Have transverse foramen
Cervical vertebrae
Which of the following statements describes angular movements the best?
Change the angle between the bones
In an isotonic concentration, the muscle
Changes in length and moves the load
Long bones
Consider the classifications of bone, and examples of each. Which classification comprises bones used primarily for movement rather than protection?
A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the _____ level A resting B relaxation C rigor mortis D recruitment E threshold
E threshold
List the following structures in the order from smallest to largest 1 muscle fiber 2 my filament 3 myofibril 4 muscle fasciculus A 4, 2, 3, 1 B 2, 1, 4, 3 C 3, 1, 4, 2 D 2, 3, 1, 4 E 1, 2, 3, 4
D 2, 3, 1, 4 2 my filament 3 myofibril 1 muscle fiber 4 muscle fasciculus
Which of the following is true during the resting membrane potential A Sodium ion concentration is greater inside the cell B Negatively charged proteins are more concentrated outside the cell C A greater concentration of calcium ions is found inside the cell D Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell E None of these choices reflect what occurs during the resting membrane potential
D Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell
Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle? A. body movement B. maintenance of posture C. respiration D constriction of organs E production of heat
D constriction of organs
A myofibril is the A cell membrane of a muscle fiber B cytoplasm of muscle cells C structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber E protein strand composed of actin or myosin
D contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
Muscles exhibit the property of excitability this means that the muscle A shortens its length B recoils to its original resting length C stretched beyond its normal length D responds to stimulation by the nervous system E excites itself
D responds to stimulation by the nervous system
The tailbone is the: A) ischium B) sacrum C) pubis D) coccyx E) patella
D) coccyx
Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct: A) wrist and ankle bones - long bones B) arm and leg bones - short bones C) skull bones - flat bones D) coxal bones - irregular bones E) cranium - sesamoid bones
D) coxal bones - irregular bones
Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception. A) humerus B) radius C) scapula D) fibula E) clavicle
D) fibula
A structure found on the femur is the: A) anterior crest B) trochlea C) lateral malleolus D) intercondylar fossa E) medial malleolus
D) intercondylar fossa
It is composed of dense regular connective tissue.
Which is not true about periosteum?
A sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From the following list of structures, select the order in which they were penetrated (1) tendon or muscle (2) ligament (3) fibrous capsule (4) skin (5) synovial membrane A. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 B. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 E. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 (4) skin (1) tendon or muscle (2) ligament (3) fibrous capsule (5) synovial membrane
Which of the following statements is true? A. The cervical curve develops before birth B. The adult vertebral column has three curvatures C. Scoliosis is the term applied to normal curvature of the spine D. An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis E. Lordosis is an exaggeration of the cervical curvature
D. An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis
Which does not correctly pair a movement with its opposing movement? A. Flexion - extension B. Abduction - adduction C. Pronation - supination D. Elevation - retraction E. Dorsiflexion - plantar flexion
D. Elevation - retraction
Before beginning orthodontic treatment, a patient may have her wrist and hand x-rayed to determine her stage of growth. What feature of the long bones will the orthodontist use to assess this? A. Osteon B. Periosteum C. Spongy bone D. Epiphyseal plate E. Compact bone
D. Epiphyseal plate
Which is not a function of bone? A. Protection B. Mineral storage C. Body movement D. Hormone synthesis E. Hemopoiesis
D. Hormone synthesis
Which ligament is not associated with the glenohumeral joint? A. Coracoacromial ligament B. Coracohumeral ligament C. Glenohumeral ligament D. Humeral collateral ligament
D. Humeral collateral ligament
What explains the dramatic acceleration in lengthwise bone growth at puberty? A. Increased activity of osteoclasts occurs in response to parathyroid hormone stimulation. B. Increased rate of calcium deposition occurs due to high blood calcium levels. C. Increased physical activity causes lengthwise growth in response to bone stress. D. Increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth. E. Increased absorption of dietary vitamins and minerals strengthens the matrix.
D. Increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth.
Which is not a correct pairing of a joint with its classification? A. Tibiofemoral - hinge B. Glenohumeral - ball and socket C. Trapezium and first metacarpal - saddle D. Intertarsal - condylar E. Proximal radioulnar - pivot
D. Intertarsal - condylar
Which is not true regarding ligaments? A. Intracapsular ligaments are within the articular capsule. B. Ligaments are composed of dense regular connective tissue. C. Extrinsic ligaments are physically separate from the articular capsule. D. Intrinsic ligaments are thickenings of the articular cartilage. E. Extracapsular ligaments are outside the articular capsule.
D. Intrinsic ligaments are thickenings of the articular cartilage.
Which is not correct about spongy bone? A. Its spaces hold red bone marrow. B. It is located deep to compact bone. C. It forms diploe in the cranial bones. D. It is composed of tubular units called osteons. E. It is located in the epiphyses of long bones.
D. It is composed of tubular units called osteons.
Which is not true about bone remodeling? A. It occurs throughout life. B. It assists in the maintenance of calcium and phosphate levels in the body. C. It occurs at both the endosteal and periosteal surfaces of the bone. D. It occurs only at articular surfaces. E. It can occur in response to stress on a bone.
D. It occurs only at articular surfaces.
Which is the definition for a greenstick fracture? A. The bone is twisted as it fractures. B. The fracture is at right angles to the long axis of the bone. C. The bone is splintered into several fragments. D. Only one side of the bone is broken; the other side is bent. E. The fracture is at an oblique angle to the long axis of the bone.
D. Only one side of the bone is broken; the other side is bent.
Which hormone inhibits bone growth? A. Calcitonin B. Estrogen and testosterone C. Thyroid hormone D. Parathyroid hormone E. Growth hormone
D. Parathyroid hormone
Which of these synovial joints does not have at least one rounded or convex surface? A. Saddle B. Ball and socket C. Pivot D. Plane E. Condylar
D. Plane
If a bone is immersed in a weak acid such as vinegar for several days, its inorganic components will dissolve. What will be the result of such an experiment? A. The bone will dissolve completely. B. The compact bone will dissolve, leaving only the inner spongy bone. C. The bone will become extremely brittle. D. The bone will become soft and bendable. E. The spongy bone will dissolve, leaving only the outer compact bone.
D. The bone will become soft and bendable.
Within which zone of the epiphyseal plate do cartilage cells undergo mitosis? A. The zone closest to the medullary cavity B. The zone closest to the epiphysis C. The second closest bone to the medullary cavity D. The second closest zone to the epiphysis
D. The second closest zone to the epiphysis
In compact bone, ___________ connect adjacent lacunae, thereby providing pathways for nutrients and other materials to pass between osteocytes. A. osteonic canals B. blood vessels C. lamellae D. canaliculi E. perforating canals
D. canaliculi
An example of a saddle joint is the A. shoulder joint B. elbow joint C. atlanto-occipital joint D. carpometacarpal joint E. atlantoaxial joint
D. carpometacarpal joint
During appositional growth of cartilage, the cells that produce the matrix are the A. chondrocytes. B. osteocytes. C. fibroblasts. D. chondroblasts. E. osteoblasts.
D. chondroblasts.
The steps in the process of endochondral ossification are a: Ossification center forms in the diaphysis. b: Cartilage calcifies and a bone collar forms. c: Ossification centers form in the epiphyses. d: Bone replaces cartilage. e: Epiphyseal plates ossify. f: Cartilage model develops. The correct chronological order for these steps is A. f. - b. - c. - d. - a. - e. B. b. - c. - f. - a. - e. - d. C. a. - c. - b. - d. - e. - f. D. f. - b. - a. - c. - d. - e. E. a. - e. - c. - d. - b. - f.
D. f. - b. - a. - c. - d. - e.
Spongy bone A. contains no osteocytes. B. has spaces filled with yellow marrow. C. is composed of tubular units called osteons. D. forms diploe in the cranial bones. E. All of the choices are correct.
D. forms diploe in the cranial bones.
A synarthrosis is A. always made of cartilage. B. a joint that has a capsule. C. a joint within a fetus that ossifies during early development. D. immobile. E. slightly mobile.
D. immobile.
Calcitonin _________ osteoclast activity, which will _________ blood calcium levels. A. stimulates; increase B. stimulates; decrease C. inhibits; increase D. inhibits; decrease
D. inhibits; decrease
Joints between the carpal bones are A. costocarpal joints B. intermetacarpal joints C. metacarpalphalangeal joints D. intercarpal joints E. intracarpal joint
D. intercarpal joints
The movement that occurs when the trunk of the body moves in a coronal plane laterally away from the body is A. adduction. B. hyperextension. C. eversion D. lateral flexion. E. gliding.
D. lateral flexion.
Glucocorticoids increase bone ________; high levels of serotonin lead to _____ bone density. A. formation; high B. formation; low C. loss; high D. loss; low
D. loss; low
A synarthrotic joint would have A. high mobility and high stability. B. high mobility and low stability. C. low mobility and low stability. D. low mobility and high stability.
D. low mobility and high stability.
Bone cells called __________ break down bone by secreting hydrochloric acid and enzymes that dissolve the matrix. A. osteoprogenitor cells B. osteoid cells C. osteocytes D. osteoclasts E. osteoblasts
D. osteoclasts
The break of a bone that has been weakened by disease is a ________fracture; when a broken end of the bone pierces the skin, the fracture is ________. A. stress; greenstick B. epiphyseal; stress C. greenstick; simple D. pathologic; compound
D. pathologic; compound
The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____joint A. plane B. saddle C. hinge D. pivot E. ball and socket
D. pivot
The joint formed by the axis and atlas that permits the "no" shaking of the head is a _____ joint. A. condylar B. hinge C. plane D. pivot E. saddle
D. pivot
The joint between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae is a _____ joint A. saddle B. hinge C. pivot D. plane E. ball and socket
D. plane
Moving the shoulders posteriorly so that the scapulae approach the vertebral column is an example of A. rotation B. eversion C. depression D. retraction
D. retraction
Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are all parts of the A. pelvis B. scapula C. clavicle D. sternum E. sacrum
D. sternum
An example of a flat bone would be the A. femur (of thigh). B. radius (of forearm). C. trapezoid (of wrist). D. sternum (breast bone). E. calcaneus (heel).
D. sternum (breast bone).
Which of the following bony features is mismatched with its description? A. crista galli-point of attachment of one of the meninges B. occipital condyles- articulation points between the skull and vertebral column C. alveolar process- ridge containing the teeth D. styloid process- point of articulation of mandible with skull E. mandibular fossa- point of articulation of mandible with skull
D. styloid process- point of articulation of mandible with skull
Rotation of the forearm so as to direct the palm anteriorly (as in anatomic position) is called A. abduction. B. pronation. C. eversion. D. supination. E. protraction.
D. supination.
The coccyx is A. absent in humans B. also called the coxa C. located in the upper lumbar region D. the most inferior portion of the vertebral column E. the bottom of the spinal cord
D. the most inferior portion of the vertebral column
A herniated disc occurs with A. the body of a vertebra is fractured B. the covering of the spinal cord is torn C. there is a fracture of the vertebral arch D. there is a protrusion of the nucleus pulpous E. spinal nerves are cut
D. there is a protrusion of the nucleus pulpous
Which of the following movements is an example of extension? A. bending forward at the waist B. kneeling C. raising your arm laterally D. using your finger to point out an area on the map E. shrugging your shoulders
D. using your finger to point out an area on the map
Which of the following events occurs on the post synaptic membrane? A release of calcium ions B release of neurotransmitter C Rapid degradation of acetylcholine D acetylcholine production E neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule
E neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule
form during fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joint development.
Dense fibrous connective tissue Hyaline cartilage Fibrocartilage
You were back in yoga class and now the instructor is telling you to drop your shoulders, what he is really asking you to do is ---blank--- the scapulae
Depress
You open your mouth wide to take a bite out of a big juicy burger. You have--- blank ---your mandible
Depressed
*An X-ray determines that Peter fractured the shaft of his humerus. The break is in the ______of the bone. a. epiphysis b. epiphyseal line c. diaphysis d. growth plate e. articular surface
Diaphysis
Articular Disc
Disc that absorbs shock (in jaw)
In Pilates class, you were told to flex your foot, bringing your toes up and stretching your calf. You know that this is actually ---blank ---of the foot
Dorsiflexion
chondroblasts
During appositional growth of cartilage, the cells that produce the matrix are the:
3-4 months
During bone repair, how long does the stage of the bony callus last?
Nutrients cannot diffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix
During the process of endochondral ossification, chondrocytes in the cartilage model die. Why does this occur?
Which type of muscle tissue is auto rhythmic A cardiac muscle B smooth muscle C skeletal muscle D both skeletal and cardiac muscle E both cardiac and smooth muscle
E both cardiac and smooth muscle
Which of the following statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct?
Exposure of a bone to increased mechanical stress can lead to bone remodeling.
You are doing squats. As you come up you are ---blank--- the knee
Extending
(T/F) A fibrous joint contains a joint capsule.
FALSE
(T/F) A tendon sheath is a fat pad that fills the spaces that form when bones move.
FALSE
(T/F) About 80% of the human skeleton is replaced yearly as a result of bone remodeling.
FALSE
(T/F) At the knee, the articular capsule encloses only the medial, lateral, and anterior regions of the joint.
FALSE
(T/F) Bone is considered part of the skeletal system, but ligaments are not.
FALSE
(T/F) Circumduction is an example of a gliding motion.
FALSE
(T/F) Gliding is an example of an angular motion.
FALSE
(T/F) In adults, an area of compact bone called the epiphyseal tract replaces the epiphyseal plate.
FALSE
(T/F) In adults, the medullary cavities of most long bones contain red marrow.
FALSE
(T/F) In general, the mechanical stresses on bones that result from exercise tend to weaken them and lead to more frequent fractures.
FALSE
(T/F) Medial rotation turns the anterior surface of the femur or humerus away from the main axis of the body.
FALSE
(T/F) Most of the bones of the upper and lower limbs are formed by intramembranous ossification.
FALSE
(T/F) Once we reach adulthood and our bones are fully formed and hardened, they cannot be remodeled.
FALSE
(T/F) Osteons run perpendicular to the diaphysis of a long bone.
FALSE
(T/F) Parathyroid hormone is released by the thyroid gland and causes the small intestine to increase calcium absorption.
FALSE
(T/F) The joints in the body that are the most mobile, such as the glenohumeral joint or coxal joint, are also the most stable.
FALSE
(T/F) At the ankle, the lateral ligament is stronger than the medial ligament
FALSe
(T/F) Since cartilage must be continuously replaced in the body, appositional and interstitial growth of cartilage continues throughout life.
FALSe
(T/F) The glenohumeral joint is more stable than the hip joint.
FALSe
yellow marrow
Fatty tissue found in the medullary cavity of most adult long bones
What kind of joint is Synostoses?
Fibrous Joint
What kind of joint is Syndesmoses?
Fibrous Joint (he says space between two bones ie, arm & leg)
How are fibrous joints united?
Fibrous connective tissue
protect underlying soft tissue and may be slightly curved.
Flat bones:
A good morning exercise works back muscles by having you ---blank---at the hips by bending forward with the flat back
Flex
You set up to do your daily push-ups. With your hands planted on the floor your shoulders are
Flexed
Membranous area that has no bone covering is called _______
Fontanel (top of baby's head)
metatarsals
Foot Bones
Appositional bone growth is a process that
Forms new bone on the surface of older bone
Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements
Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints
loss, low
Glucocorticoids increase bone ________; high levels of serotonin lead to _____ bone density.
Skeletal muscles have two special inclusions that are critical to their role in the movement? What are they
Glycosomes and myoglobin
The _________ bone supports the tongue.
HYOID
The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the
Hands and feet
compact bone
Hard, dense bone tissue that is beneath the outer membrane of a bone
*The cubital or elbow joint is an example of a _____ joint. a. saddle b. hinge c. pivot d. ball and socket e. plane
Hinge
In a---blank---joint, one bone has a cylindrical structure that fits into a trough on the adjoining bone
Hinge
Presence of synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint
Hinge joint
In symphysis joints, the articular surface of the bones are covered with
Hyaline cartilage
Articular Cartilage
Hyaline cartilage at the ends of long bones. Makes the joints nice and smooth.
Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid? It contains
Hyaluronic acid
Which of the following is associated with osteoclast reabsorption of bone?
Hydrogen ions form an acid environment in bone matrix.
The trainer is helping you work the backs of your arms by having you turn your hands so your thumbs brush against your legs as you push your straight arms backwards. She is asking you to ---blank ---your arms at the shoulder joint
Hyperextend
Bending your head back until it hurts example of
Hyperextension
The bone will become soft and bendable.
If a bone is immersed in a weak acid such as vinegar for several days, its inorganic components will dissolve. What will be the result of such an experiment?
Os coxa
If a clinician were looking to harvest bone marrow that made blood cells, which bone of a donor would be sampled?
canaliculi
In compact bone, ___________ connect adjacent lacunae, thereby providing pathways for nutrients and other materials to pass between osteocytes.
increase, decrease
In the kidneys, parathyroid hormone acts to ________ production of calcitriol and to ________ excretion of calcium in urine.
The strongest muscle contraction are normally achieved by
Increasing the stimulus up to the Maxima stimulus
How is a female pelvis different than a male pelvis?
It is shallower and wider.
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ---blank ---period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to the receptor's
Latent
All finger and toe bones are called ___________.
PHALANGES
Spinous processes are square in shape
Lumbar vertebrae
The superior orbital fissure is formed in the sphenoid bone, whereas the inferior orbital fissure is formed between the sphenoid and the
Maxilla
If you palpate the medial side of your ankle, what prominent process of the tibia are you feeling?
Medial malleolus
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions
Motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP driven power stroke, sliding of myofiliments
Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases
Motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
The hip joint is a good example of a ---blank ---synovial joint
Multi axial
metaphysis
Which region of a growing bone contains the epiphyseal plate?
Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and rare gap junctions
Multiunit smooth muscle
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are
Myofibrils
The oxygen binding proteins found in muscle cells is
Myoglobin
Rigor mortis occurs because
No ATP is available to resequester the leaking calcium ions and release now attached Actin and myosin molecules
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped
No muscle tension could be generated
Which of the following commonly occur at the joints in elderly individuals?
Osteoarthritis Articular cartilage begins to break down in weight-bearing joints
New bone is deposited by cells known as
Osteoblasts
organic part of the bone matrix that gives it tensile strength.
Osteoid is the:
develops by intramembranous ossification
Parietal bones Frontal bone Shaft of the clavicles Temporal bones
Describe Gomphoses
Peg & Socket joint. (teeth, periodontal ligament holds teeth in there)
A. c. - d. - a. - b.
Place the following steps in the process of appositional growth of cartilage in correct order.
The gliding motion of the wrist is due to --blank --joint between the bones
Plane
When you point your toes, you were demonstrating
Plantar flexion
*Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces posteriorly is called: a. circumduction b. rotation c.hyperextension d.supination e.pronation
Pronation (pro- like a "pro" basketball player, palm down)
A fighter looks more pugnacious when he ---blank---his jaw forward, causing an underbite
Protracts
*The function of a bursa is to: a. provide support for a week joint b. provide a fluid-filled cushion c. increase the articulating surface at the joint d. Bind ligaments to bones.
Provide a fluid-filled cushion
An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is---blank---
Provide a smooth surface for movement within the synovial joints
Articular cartilage found at the end of the long bones serves to
Provide a smooth surface for movement within the synovial joints
With age, the following conditions can occur at the joints:
Range of motion decreases Production of synovial fluid decreases. The rate of cartilage replacement decreases.
Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are
Rare because of the large ligaments that reinforce the hip
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods
Refractory period
The major function of the sacroplasmic reticulum in muscle contractions is to
Regulate intracellular calcium levels
And yoga classes, instructor frequently says, to squeeze your shoulder blades together you know this means to ---blank ---the scapula
Retract
the sagittal suture connect the blank bones to the blank bones
Right Parietal/left parietal
Which of the following events occurs last?
Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses.
The pituitary gland is housed in the
Sella turcia if the sohenoid bone
What are menisci
Semi lunar shaped cartilage pads
synovial fluid
Serves to lubricate the joint Nourishes chondrocytes within the articular cartilage Is secreted by the synovial membrane Absorbs shock in the joint
yellow marrow to red marrow.
Severe anemia may trigger an adaptive conversion of:
*What strenghtens the attachment of the tendons or ligaments to bone? a. epiphysis b. sharpeys fibers c. growth plate d. medullary cavity e. endosteum
Sharpey's fibers
Describe Syndesmoses.
Similar to suture but the bones are further apart, because of that space there is a little movement.
The two adjacent SR terminal cisterns plus an intervening T-tubule is called the
Skeletal muscle triad
Read muscle fibers tend to have
Slow (oxidative) rate and fatigue resistance
Name the three common types of fibrous joints.
Suture Syndesmosis Gomphosis
Fibrous joints are classified by being connected by fibrous CT, having no joint cavity & little or no movement. Name the three types _________
Sutures Syndesmoses Gomphoses
Give 2 examples of symphyses joints
Symphyses joints are designed for strength & flexibility. Ex: Intervertebral jints and the pubic sympyses of the pelvis (delivering baby)
A joint united by dense Fibricartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a
Symphysis
Classified by function, What is a non-moveable joint called?
Synarthrosis
Which joint is temporary?
Synchondrosis. Because it is hyaline cartilage it will eventually fuse to bone.
The bones that articulate with the distal ends of the tibia and fibula are called _________.
TARSALS
(T/F) Adduction is an example of an angular motion.
TRUE
(T/F) An osteoclast has a ruffled border and multiple nuclei.
TRUE
(T/F) Articular cartilage is composed of hyaline cartilage that lacks a perichondrium.
TRUE
(T/F) Calcitriol stimulates absorption of calcium in the small intestine.
TRUE
(T/F) Endochondral ossification is a form of bone growth in which a cartilaginous model is replaced by bone.
TRUE
(T/F) For most individuals the main source of vitamin D is dietary intake of milk.
TRUE
(T/F) Further lengthwise bone growth cannot occur once the epiphyseal lines have formed.
TRUE
(T/F) Lateral rotation is also known as external rotation.
TRUE
(T/F) Mature cartilage is avascular.
TRUE
(T/F) Moderate exercise improves the health of joints by increasing the flow of synovial fluid in and out of the articular cartilage.
TRUE
(T/F) Neither short nor flat bones contain a medullary cavity.
TRUE
(T/F) One of the functions of synovial fluid is to act as a shock absorber that distributes force evenly across the joint surface.
TRUE
(T/F) Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells; osteoclasts are bone-dissolving cells.
TRUE
(T/F) Spongy bone makes up less than half of total bone mass, and is located internal to compact bone.
TRUE
(T/F) Sutures permit skull growth during childhood.
TRUE
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system that trigger smooth muscle relaxation and airways but smooth muscle contractions in most other organs. How can this be
The effect of any neurotransmitter depends upon the receptor expressed in that tissue. Smooth muscle in the airways must express a different receptor then smooth muscle elsewhere in the body
clavicle
The epiphyseal plates in the _________ are the last ones in the body to ossify.
The superior nasal concha is part of which bone
The ethmoid
When comparing the female pelvis with the male pelvis, which of the following statements is false?
The female pelvis is heavier.
endochondral ossification.
The formation of bone from a cartilaginous model is termed:
Extra capsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include
The lateral and medial collateral ligament that prevent lateral or medial angular movements
Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which ligaments are damaged as a result
The medial collateral and anterior cruciate ligament, and the medial meniscus
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors
The neuromuscular junction
Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped
The patellar ligament
Deduce why the pelvic bones of a fourJegged animal such as the cat or pig are much less massive than those of the human
The pelvic girdle does not have to carry the entire weight of the trunk in the quadruped animal
A. a - c - d - b
The process of bone repair includes these steps:
What structure in skeletal muscle cells function in calcium storage
The sarcoplasmic reticulum
The mechanism of contraction of smooth muscle is different from Skeletal muscle in that
The site of calcium regulation differs
After the initial few seconds of skeletal muscle contractions, continued, sustained contraction is maintained by energy from
The transfer of creatine phosphate and ADP to form ATP
spongy, distal epiphysis
The type of bone tissue that is replaced more frequently is ________ bone; the part of the femur that is replaced more frequently is the __________. A. compact, distal epiphysis
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except
There are more thick and thin filaments
Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle
They exhibit spontaneous action potential
Articular facets face obliquely
Thoracic vertebrae
These are blood vessels that carry blood from the medullary cavity and periosteum to the osteon and run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone.
Volkmann canals
These are blood vessels that carry blood from the medullary cavity and periosteum to the osteon and run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone.
Volkmann canals
function of the paranasal sinuses.
Warm and humidify inhaled air. Make some skull bones lighter Provide resonance to the voice
vertebrae; ossa coxae (hip bones); and several bones in the skull, such as the ethmoid, sphenoid, and sutural bones,
What are examples of irregular bones?
osteoprogenitor, osteoblasts, osteocytes and osteoclast
What are the cells in the bone?
Concentric lamellae
What are the matrix rings of compact bone that surround the central canal of each osteon
bones, cartilage, ligaments and connective tissues.
What does the human skeletal system include?
Increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth.
What explains the dramatic acceleration in lengthwise bone growth at puberty?
Inorganic salts
What gives bone its compressional strength?
Collagen fibers
What gives bone its flexibility?
hemopoietic (blood cell forming)
What is the function of red bone marrow?
mature bone cells
What is the function of the osteocytes?
Precursor to bone cells.
What is the function of the osteoprogenitor?
support, protection, movement, hemopoiesis, and storage of mineral and energy reserves.
What is the function of the skeletal system?
Produces fat, cartilage, and bone
What is the function of yellow bone marrow?
Endosteum
What is the thin layer of connective tissue that lines the medullary cavity of a long bone?
compact and spongy
What type of tissue make up the skeletal system?
The matrix would be softer.
What would be the effect on bone growth of insufficient dietary calcium?
Which of the following statements regarding calcium homeostasis is true?
When blood calcium levels are too low, osteoclast activity increases.
mesenchyme.
When bone forms by intramembranous ossification, the ossification centers are within:
12th-13th week of embryonic development
When during human development does the process of ossification begin?
What is a synchondrosis joint?
Where 2 bones are connected with hyaline cartilage. (synarthrotic joint)
What is a symphasis joint?
Where 2 bones are joined together by fibrocartilage.
Red bone marrow
Where does hemopoiesis occur?
Axial Skeleton
Where is red bone marrow found?
Hormone synthesis
Which is not a function of bone?
It is composed of tubular units called osteons.
Which is not correct about spongy bone?
No exceptions; all of the choices are involved in the process of bone repair.
Which is not involved in the process of bone repair following a fracture
It occurs only at articular surfaces
Which is not true about bone remodeling?
The second closest zone to the epiphysis
Within which zone of the epiphyseal plate do cartilage cells undergo mitosis?
carpals
Wrist Bones
Lyme disease is
a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks.
Osteoclast activity would decrease when ________ levels are elevated.
calcitonin
From a relaxed, standing position, as you bring your arms up laterally so that they are straight out from your sides to stretch in the morning, the motion of the arms is called ____________. When you put your arms straight back down to your sides and then reach both hands up to rub your eyes, the motion that results at the elbow joint is called __________.
abduction, flexion
deep socket in the coxal bone that receives the head of the thigh bone
acetabulum
deep socket in the hip bone that receives the head of the thigh bone
acetabulum
the tip of the shoulder is the __________ of the scapula
acromino process
Arthritis is
an inflammation of any joint.
Adduction and abduction are examples of ____________.
angular movement
The anterior cruciate ligament prevents _____ displacement of the tibia.
anterior
haversian canal
any of the many tiny canals that contain blood vessels and connective tissue and that form a network in bone
The pelvic girdle and lower limb are part of the _______________ skeleton
appendicular
In __________ growth of cartilage, chondroblasts in the perichondrium add new cartilage to the outside edge of the existing cartilage.
appositional
Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints
are enclosed by a joint capsule.
Haversian systems or osteons
are the basic units in compact bone tissue
Haversian systems or osteons
are the basic units in compact bone tissue.
You would look for concentric lamellae
around the central canal of an osteon
A biaxial joint has movement
around two axes at right angles to one another.
transervse foramina of cervical vertebrae serve as passageways for ____leading to the brain
arteries
*What type of tissue covers the ends of long bones? a.articular cartilage b.periosteum c. elastic cartilage d. cancellous bone e. fibrocartilage
articular cartilage
An arthritic joint contains damage to the hyaline cartilage covering the articulating bones. In other words, the ________ has been damaged.
articular cartilage
Bone growth of the epiphysis occurs at the
articular cartilage
The __________ provides a smooth surface for the articulation of the bones within a joint.
articular cartilage
What type of tissue covers the ends of long bones?
articular cartilage
A place where a bone contacts another bone is called a joint or a(n) ______________.
articulation
Bone remodeling may occur
as bones grow. as bones adjust to stress. as fractures heal. constantly during a person's lifetime.
The auditory ossicle is part of the _______________ skeleton
axial
What chemical causes a decrease in the blood calcium level?
calcitonin
Collagen and calcium hydroxyapatite are the primary constituents of
bone matrix.
metacarpals
bone of the hand between the wrist and each finger
The processes of intramembranous and endochondral ossification are similar in several respects. Which of the following statements applies to both intramembranous and endochondral ossification?
both processes form woven bone
Canaliculi are found in this type of bone tissue.
both spongy and compact
In which type of bone are osteoblasts and osteoclasts present?
both spongy and compact
How does the endocrine system affect osteoporosis?
calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis
largest tarsal bone
calcaneus
the heel bone is called the
calcaneus
The heel of the foot is formed by the
calcaneus.
Osteoclast activity would be decreased by
calcitonin.
*Which of the following joints is most moveable? a. suture b. syndesmosis c. symphasis d. synovial e. synchondrosis
d. synovial
effects of aging on the joints
decreased range of motion decreased flexibility and elasticity weakening of muscles decreased tissue repair
Calcitonin
decreases blood calcium levels
raised area on lateral surface of humerus to which deltoid muscle attaches
deltoid tuberosity
Axis, C2, has an unusual feature found on no other vertebrae called the ---blank--- that allows you to rotate your head
dens
when the head is moved from side to side, the first vertebrae pivots around the _____of the second vertibrae
dens
When blood vessels become surrounded by concentric lamella forming osteons, the bone will grow in
diameter
An X-ray determines that Peter fractured the shaft of his humerus. The break is in the _____________ of the bone.
diaphysis
The shaft of a long bone is called the __________, while the expanded, knobby region at each end is called the __________.
diaphysis, epiphysis
the true wrist or corpus, consists of
eight short bones connected by ligaments
scapula
either of two flat triangular bones one on each side of the shoulder in human beings
Ossification that involves replacing cartilage with bone is
endochondral
What is the membrane that lines the medullary cavity?
endosteum
What is the site of long bone growth?
epiphyseal plate
What is the site of longitudinal growth in long bones?
epiphyseal plate
What is the end of a long bone?
epiphysis
When kicking a ball forward, the knee is
extended.
Ribs that do not attach directly to the sternum are called _____ ribs.
false
true or false bones present in both the hand and foot are carpals
false phalanges
longest, strongest bone in body
femur
the pelvic girdle does not include the
femur
bones forming the knee joint
femur, patella, tibia
bones forming knee joint
femur, tibia
The bone that articulates with the acetabulum is the
femur.
The greater trochanter is found on the
femur.
Symphyses are slightly mobile joints where the articulating bones contain a pad of _________ between them.
fibrocartilage
The flat bones of the skull develop from
fibrous connective tissue
The flat bones of the skull develop from
fibrous connective tissue.
The joint capsule of synovial joints consists of an outer ____________ and an inner ___________.
fibrous layer, synovial membrane
A patient in a skiing accident is told that the lateral side of the ankle joint has been crushed. The bone that has been injured is the _________________
fibula
thin lateral leg bone
fibula
which of the following bones is not weight bearing
fibula
The spaces between developing skull bones that have not ossified are called
fontanels
opening through a bone
foramen
Intramembranous ossification
forms the bones of the roof of the skull
The medial malleolus
forms the medial side of the ankle joint.
shallow depression
fossa
The most common bone disease is osteoporosis. The most common consequence of this disease is
fractures
The most common bone disease is osteoporosis. The most common consequence of this disease is
fractures.
Proteoglycan molecules in the matrix of cartilage
give cartilage its resilient nature
socket in the scapula for the arm bone
glenoid cavity
*The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a _____. a. suture b. syndesmosis c. gomphosis d. synostosis e. symphysis
gomphosis (gom=gum=teeth)
The type of cartilage associated with bone function and development is
hyaline cartilage
The compression strength of bone matrix is due to the presence of
hydroxyapatite crystals
superiormost margin of the coxal bone
iliac crest
During fetal development bone forms in two patterns, __________ ossification takes place in connective tissue membranes and __________ ossification takes place in cartilage.
intramembranous; endochondral
The opposite of eversion is
inversion
Intramembranous ossification
ossification that develops from mesenchyme
The joint capsule
is a double layer of tissue that encloses a joint.
The fibrous capsule
is a layer of tissue that is continuous with the periosteum.
Synovial fluid
is a thin lubricating film covering the surface of a joint. decreases friction between bones.
Calcitonin
is associated with decreased osteoclast activity.
Lamellar bone
is organized into thin sheets of tissue
A person sits on his/her
ischial tuberosity.
why does driving a vehicle all day or sitting at a desk typing on a computer lead to back pain? Reaching forward for long periods of time pulls the spine into
kyphosis
Thin sheets of bone matrix are
lamellae
The concentric rings of bone produced are
lamellae.
lateral ankle projection
lateral malleolus
process forming the outer ankle
lateral malleolus
which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus
lateral malleolus
which of the following abnormal curves is often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to maintain there center of gravity as the baby expands anteriorly
lordosis
An exaggerated curvature of the lumbar region is
lordosis.
massive vertebrae; weight-sustaining
lumbar
the ____ vertebrae have the largest and strongest bodies
lumbar
which part of the vertebral column carries the greatest load
lumbar region
Paranasal sinuses are found in which of these facial bones
maxilla
Which bone is involved in a cleft palate?
maxilla
Which of the following bones contains a sinus?
maxilla
Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function?
maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth
The hard palate is composed of the
maxillary and palatine bones.
A synchondrosis
may be temporary.
heads of these bones form the knuckles
metacarpals
bones forming the instep of the foot
metatarsals
ischium
most inferior part of hip bone; the "sit down" bone
which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses?
probably act to enhance the resonance of the voice while making the skull lighter
list three general functions of the thoracic cage
protects organs of the thoracic cavity aids in breathing support
Which of the following matrix molecules in cartilage tends to trap large quantities of water?
proteoglycan
concentric lamella
ring of calcified matrix surrounding the Haversian canal.
the upper, anterior margin of the sacrum that projects forward is called the
sacral promentory
joint between axial skeleton and pelvic girdle
sacroiliac joint
which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region
scoliosis
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is
scoliosis.
The dens or odontoid process is on the
second cervical vertebra.
thoracic vertebrae
second set of 12 vertebrae; they articulate with the 12 pairs of ribs to form the outward curve of the spine
The growth spurt seen in puberty is triggered by
sex hormones
What chemical stimulates the spurt of bone growth that occurs at puberty?
sex hormones
The growth spurt seen in puberty is triggered by
sex hormones.
These collagen fibers help to connect ligaments and tendons to the periosteum of the bone.
sharpey fibers
*The glenoid labrum is part of the ______ joint while the acetabular labrum is part of the _____ joint. a. elbow, knee b shoulder, hip c. shoulder, knee d. elbow, hip e. shoulder, elbow
shoulder, hip
Some flat and irregular bones of the skull have air-filled spaces called
sinuses
cranial bones
skull bones: ethmoid, frontal, occipital, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal
The axial skeleton includes the
skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
large rounded projection
tuberosity
lacunae
small spaces between the lamellae which contain osteocytes
The inner layer of the joint capsule that secretes synovial fluid is the:
synovial membrane
talus
the bone in the ankle that articulates with the leg bones to form the ankle joint
In a syndesmosis
the bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes.
coccyx
the end of the vertebral column in humans and tailless apes
If an X-ray shows a black area in the region of the epiphyseal plate,
the epiphyseal plate has not completely ossified.
The longitudinal growth of long bones ceases when
the epiphyseal plate is completely replaced with bone tissue.
Sternum
the flat bone that articulates with the clavicles and the first seven pairs of ribs
diaphysis
the main (mid) section of a long bone
Osteoarthritis is
the most common type of arthritis.
*You would look for concentric lamellae on _______. a. around the central canal of an osteon b. in between osteons c. on the outer surface of compact bone tissues d. as components of the cartilage e. in the bone marrow
the outer surface of compact bone tissues
Some joints become synostoses by
the replacement of fibers with bone.
