Chapter 8: Life Span Development (Pretest), EMT Final Exam 2

Which of the following shows the BEST documentation of a dose of nitroglycerin that was given to a patient?

-"Nitro 0.4mg spray was administered sublingual at 1730 hrs with relief of chest pain."

What is the form of epinephrine?

-A liquid

Xopenex is an example of what?

-A trade name

What is NOT one of the six medications commonly carried by EMTs in the field?

-Activated Charcoal

Which statement about activated charcoal is TRUE?

-Activated charcoal is a powder prepared from charred wood.

You are on the scene of a 44-year-old female patient who has attempted suicide by taking all 30 pills of her antidepressant medication at once. You are ordered by medical control to administer activated charcoal. How will activated charcoal reduce the effects of the medication?

-Activated charcoal will bind to the medication, reducing absorption.

Your patient has taken an unknown quantity of amitriptyline. Which class of medication is this?

-Antidepressant

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven most common categories of medications found in the field and relevant to patient care?

-Antiemetics

How is oral glucose supplied for use in emergency situations?

-As a gel or paste

Which of the following medications acts to reduce the clotting action of blood and is MOST likely to be administered to a patient with chest pain of a cardiac origin but a blood pressure of 88/50 and no difficulty breathing?

-Aspirin

Which of the following medications is administered by EMTs to treat a cardiac emergency?

-Aspirin

Which of the following is a commonly accepted list of medications an EMT can assist the patient in taking or administer under the direction of the Medical Director?

-Aspirin, oral glucose, oxygen, prescribed bronchodilator inhalers, nitroglycerin, and epinephrine auto-injectors

Which of the following is the trade name for an epinephrine auto-injector that gives voice instructions for its use?

-Auvi-QSuperscript ™

Which of the following is an antidysrhythmic agent?

-Calan

Nitroglycerin is indicated for which of the following chief complaints?

-Chest Pain

Which of the following is the definition of contraindications?

-Circumstances under which it is not appropriate to administer a medication to a patient

The patient's IV is not running properly. Which of the following would be a likely cause?

-Clamp on tubing closed

Which of the following steps MUST be completed before a prescription medication is administered to a patient?

-Confirm the medication belongs to the patient.

Which of the following is an appropriate response if you are unsure about how much of a medication to administer?

-Contact medical control

Your patient is having chest pain and has a bottle of prescribed nitroglycerin. However, the expiration date has worn off the bottle, and the patient does not know how old the medication is. What is your BEST course of action?

-Contact medical control for advice

Which of the following is a potential side effect of nitroglycerin?

-Decreased blood pressure

The primary difference between the enteral and parenteral routes of administration is the involvement of the:

-Digestive tract

After you administer a medication, the patient's condition suddenly worsens, and the patient goes into cardiac arrest. During your documentation, what should youinclude?

-Document which drug you administered, its dose, route, and time of administration, and how the patient responded.

As an EMT who is responsible for giving medications, you should know that pharmacology is the study of:

-Drugs

Which of the following medications is acceptable for the EMT to administer or assist in administering?

-Epinephrine

Which of the following medications is typically administered by EMTs to patients who are suffering severe allergic reactions?

-Epinephrine

The form of the paste in a tube of oral glucose is a:

-Gel

Which of the following components is NOT typically readied in setting up an IV administration set?

-IV needle

The specific reason for administering a medication to treat a condition is known as the:

-Indication

The symptoms or circumstances for which a medication is given are called:

-Indications

Which of the following EMT-administered drugs would be breathed in through the respiratory system and absorbed into the bloodstream through the alveoli?

-Inhaled oxygen

Which of the following steps in IV administration is performed FIRST?

-Inspect the bag

What is the reason for giving an epinephrine auto-injector in a life-threatening allergic reaction?

-It will help constrict the patient's blood vessels and relax the airway passages.

In administering aspirin, what will primarily guide you?

-Local Protocols

If you are unsure about the administration of a drug, then:

-Look it up

Which statement about the Physician's Desk Reference is true?

-Most Ambulance carry it

Which of the following is often prescribed for a patient with a heart condition?

-Nitroglycerin

Which of the following is an example of a medication's trade name?

-Nitrostat

If a medication has an intranasal route of administration, it is administered via the:

-Nose

Which of the following statements about medication administration is CORRECT?

-Once the medication has been administered, you cannot take it back.

In its pure form, what element is used as a drug to treat any patient whose medical or traumatic condition may cause him to be hypoxic, or low in oxygen.:

-Oxygen

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for all of the following drugs EXCEPT which one?

-Oxygen

What medication is given when a patient suffers from a medical or traumatic condition called hypoxia?

-Oxygen

Which of the following medications is used to correct hypoxia?

-Oxygen

How would your knowledge of pharmacodynamics affect the way you administer a medication to a four-year-old patient?

-Pediatric patients often require smaller doses than adults.

Nitroglycerin is used for patients with recurrent chest pain or a history of heart attack. Nitro is most commonly supplied in what two forms?

-Pills and Spray

The EMT, after administering any medication, must do which of the following?

-Reassess the patient and document the administration.

What is the BEST way to ensure that you understood the orders given by online medical direction?

-Repeat the orders back to the physician.

Which of the following would be considered one of the "five rights" of medication administration?

-Right dose

An EMT is ordered by medical direction to administer nitroglycerin sublingual to a patient with chest pain. The EMT places the nitroglycerin tablet on the patient's tongue and tells her to chew and swallow the medication. The EMT has failed in which of the "five rights" of medication administration?

-Right route of administration

Which of the following is typically utilized by EMS personnel when fluid administration is not needed but vascular access is needed for drug administration?

-Saline lock

Epinephrine delivered by auto-injector may be indicated for patients with which of the following conditions?

-Severe allergies to peanut, shellfish, penicillin, or bee stings

When you give patients nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called a(n):

-Side effects

Which of the following statements is correct?

-Smaller patients often require smaller doses to achieve the desired effect.

Which of the following is generally NOT an element of online medical direction?

-Standing Orders

What is normally the condition under which a Medical Director would grant an EMT the authority to administer epinephrine or naloxone?

-The EMT has received additional education and testing.

You have given a drug to the patient, and you are now at the hospital completing your PCR. Which of the following items should appear on your PCR?

-The drug dose

Which of the following MUST be included on your PCR administration of a medication to your patient?

-The effects of the drug

Who is responsible for establishing the doses for medications that you will administer on the basis of your standing orders?

-The medical director

Which of the following describes the sublingual route of medication administration?

-The medication is placed under the tongue.

The route describes how the medication is actually given to or taken by the patient. Which of the following is TRUE about medication routes?

-The route that is chosen controls how fast the medication is absorbed by the body.

What does the general category for a drug listed in a drug reference enable you to know?

-The use for a drug

Which of the following statements is TRUE about geriatric patients?

-They will have difficulty eliminating medications.

An effect of a medication in addition to its desired effect that may be potentially harmful to the patient would be described as:

-Untoward

On-line medical direction is primarily:

-Verbal

After administration of nitroglycerin, your patient develops hypotension, a drop in blood pressure. This is called:

-a side effect.

A patient has a squeezing, dull pressure in her chest. This is:

-an indication for nitroglycerin.

Choose the correct completion to this statement regarding IV administration: This route is used to administer medication into the body directly or through the bloodstream and is:

-beyond the scope of the EMT level.

A medication injected intramuscularly such as self-administered epinephrine is injected:

-into a muscle.

Bronchodilator inhalers have several common side effects, which include:

-jitteriness and increased heart rate.

An EMT is on the scene of a 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing the primary and secondary assessments, the EMT contacts medical control and is ordered to assist the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Carefully, the EMT performs the "five rights" and checks the expiration before administering the medication. The patient states the medicine is not helping his pain. The patient also states he does not have a headache. Reassessment of the patient's vital signs shows no change in blood pressure. The EMT suspects the nitro is not working because the:

-medication was rendered inert through improper storage.

When you consider the effects a medication will have on the human body, you are considering:

-pharmacodynamics

Epinephrine, which is administered for severe allergic reactions, helps to reverse the effects of the allergic reaction by:

-relaxing airway passages.

Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction by acting on the alpha receptors of the sympathetic nervous system. This action:

-reverses shock.

What is the dosage for aspirin given to treat acute coronary​ syndrome?

162 to 324 mg of chewable baby aspirin

Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions​ exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital​ setting?

3

​Typically, how many shocks should you administer on scene before​ transport, assuming that the shocks are​ ineffective?

3

If a shock is not​ indicated, how many cycles of CPR will you give before analyzing​ again?

5

An ambulance that is specially equipped to handle obese patients is​ called: A. a bariatric ambulance. B. a​ medium-duty ambulance. C. a critical care ambulance. D. an MICU ambulance.

A

An emergency move would be permitted in order to change a​ patient's position so that you​ could: A. perform CPR. B. dress a wound. C. splint an open fracture. D. apply a cervical spine collar.

A

Any patient who is unresponsive and has no spinal injury should be placed on the cot in which​ position? A. Recovery B. ​Fowler's C. Supine D. Trendelenburg

A

Short backboards​ (vest or​ KED) are usually used​ to: A. immobilize sitting patients before moving them. B. secure patients with possible spinal injuries but without neurological deficits. C. immobilize supine patients before transport. D. assist in lifting patients up steep terrain.

A

The safest and MOST efficient methods for using​ one's body to facilitate lifting and moving are​ called: A. body mechanics B. lifting mechanics C. body structures D. lifting techniques

A

Which of the following is recommended in moving something​ heavy? A. Pushing B. Reaching C. Leaning D. Pulling

A

You must reassess your patient within two minutes after administering​ nitroglycerin, as one of the side effects​ is:

A decrease in blood pressure

One of the side effects of administering nitroglycerin to a cardiac patient could​ involve:

A drop in blood pressure

Which of the following BEST describes a contraindication to a medication?

A reason why you should not give a medication to a patient

Which of the following acronyms may be used in assessing the​ patient's level of​ consciousness? A. AVPU B. SAMPLE C. ABC D. ​C-A-B

A. AVPU

During your primary​ assessment, you note blood in the​ patient's mouth and hear gurgling. You should​ NEXT: A. suction the airway and clear any secretions. B. proceed on to evaluation of the​ patient's breathing. C. form a general impression of the patient. D. proceed on to the evaluation of the​ patient's circulation.

A. suction the airway and clear any secretions.

A​ 4-year-old male complains of abdominal pain after falling down a set of stairs. He is agitated but shows no obvious signs of trauma. You wish to assess capillary refill time to help rule out shock. His refill should occur in less than how many​ seconds? A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3

A. 2

Obtain a blood pressure for every patient who is more​ than: A. 3 years old. B. 5 years old. C. 7 years old. D. 9 years old.

A. 3 years old.

Which dying patient is in the depression stage? A. A patient becomes upset about things left undone. B. A patient refuses to accept the fact of impending death. C. A patient appears to accept death but isn't happy about it. D. A patient targets the EMT with anger and threats.

A. A patient becomes upset about things left undone.

Stress is: A. A state of physical or psychological arousal to stimulus. B. A normal reaction that occurs very infrequently during the career of an EMT. C. An abnormal reaction to a traumatizing event experienced by the EMT. D. A negative trait that highly functioning EMTs do not exhibit.

A. A state of physical or psychological arousal to stimulus.

You are working a shift with a new EMT who just finished school. As you tell him about emergencies to which you responded in the past, which one would be MOST likely to stress out the new EMT? A. A two-year old female who was physically abused and died. B. An 89 year old grandmother who suffered cardiac arrest at a family picnic. C. A 32 year male who was shot and killed by a psychotic patient. D. a 17 year old male who was kill when he was riding his bike and was struck by a car.

A. A two-year old female who was physically abused and died.

Wheeling a non-emergency patient into the hospital emergency department, placing him in a bed, and leaving without transferring care directly to ED staff constitutes: A. Abandonment. B. Acceptable actions if someone sees you do them. C. Acceptable actions if the ED is very busy. D. Acceptable actions if you have an emergency call to respond to.

A. Abandonment.

After lashing out at others, lapsing into sadness, and then briefly trying to negotiate for more time, a terminal patient finally seems to have recognized death as inevitable and is now waiting for the end. What is the final emotional stage of this patient is in? A. Acceptance. B. Bargaining. C. Anger. D. Depression.

A. Acceptance.

During a hazardous material incident, when should you begin treating patients? A. After they have been decontaminated. B. As soon as they have been rescued. C. Only when there are more patients than resources. D. Before they become recontaminated.

A. After they have been decontaminated.

A legal document allowing the health care provider to withhold resuscitation from a chronically or terminally ill patient is known as: A. An advance directive. B. A standard of care. C. A healthcare proxy. D. A termination of resuscitation.

A. An advance directive.

Which one of the following is of greatest​ concern? A. An infant with a pulse less than 60 B. An infant with a pulse of 140 C. An adult with a pulse of 140 D. An adult with a pulse of 80

A. An infant with a pulse less than 60

If oxygen is not present in sufficient supply, the body will shift to: A. Anaerobic metabolism B. Differential metabolism. C. Mitochondrial metabolism. D. Aerobic metabolism.

A. Anaerobic metabolism

What is the term for placing a person in fear of bodily harm? A. Assault. B. Libel. C. Slander. D. Battery.

A. Assault.

Which of the following patient-care situations would MOST likely indicate the use of a gown along with gloves and eye/face protection? A. Assisting in Childbirth. B. Insertion of an NPA. C. Immobilization of a patient on a long spine board. D. Administration of an epinephrine auto-injector pen.

A. Assisting in Childbirth.

Which of the following core components of well-being relates to the need to maintain physical fitness? A. Cardiovascular endurance. B. Diversity awareness. C. Memory skills. D. Emotional stability.

A. Cardiovascular endurance.

What is the major hormone that influences metabolism and the immune response and helps the body adapt to stress? A. Cortisol. B. Insulin. C. Thyroxine. D. Norepinephrine.

A. Cortisol.

Which of the following stress reactions is associated with the condition that some EMS providers describe as burnout? A. Cumulative Stress reaction. B. Delayed stress reaction. C. Acute stress reaction. D. Chronic stress reaction.

A. Cumulative stress reaction.

Compared to adults, the infant's rib cage toward the bottom is not as: A. Curved inward. B. Flexible. C. Curved outward. D. Pliant.

A. Curved inward.

What is the name of the event that takes place within the first several hours after a critical incident and is designed to start the process of helping emergency providers work through stressful situation? A. Defusing. B. CISD. C. Performance reviews. D. CISM.

A. Defusing.

Which of the following is the best way to reduce stress? A. Devote time to relaxation. B. Accept the challenge of an extreme diet. C. Accept more responsibility at work. D. Spend time alone.

A. Devote time to relaxation.

Which of the following is considered a high-risk situation in which the EMT should be cautious about the use of abbreviations and acronyms? A. During a patient hand-off reports. B. During conversations with fellow EMTs. C. While preparing for a recertification exam. D. When making study flashcards.

A. During a patient hand-off reports.

The leaf shaped structure that prevents food and foreign matter from entering the trachea is called the: A. Epiglottis. B. Bronchi. C. Uvula. D. Carina.

A. Epiglottis.

Hepatitis A is usually contracted through exposure to: A. Food or water that has been contaminated by feces. B. Bloodborne pathogens. C. Oral or nasal secretions. D. Airborne droplets.

A. Food or water that has been contaminated by feces.

The concept of "res ipsa loquitur" would be MOST relevant to a situation involving: A. Harm to a patient in the care of EMTs. B. EMTs explaining the consequences of refusing care to a patient. C. EMTs remaining with a patient who had refused care. D. EMTs providing care to an unconscious patient.

A. Harm to a patient in the care of EMTs.

Lack of sleep: A. Has physical, mental, and emotional effects. B. Primarily is a result of depression or substance abuse. C. Mainly just increases tardiness and lack of attendance. D. Is a problem best overcome by strong sleep medication.

A. Has a physical, mental, and emotional effects.

Exercising, eating a healthy diet, getting adequate sleep and rest, and keeping up to date on vaccines are all ways of managing: A. Health and well-being. B. Posttraumatic stress disorder. C. Critical infections. D. Job performance.

A. Health and well-being.

Alcohol-based hand cleaners are effective at: A. Helping to kill microorganisms. B. Killing Anthrax. C. Reducing the risk of contracting TB. D. removing visible contaminants.

A. Helping to kill microorganisms.

For which of the following is there a vaccination? A. Hepatitis B. B. Hepatitis C. C. AIDS. D. Tuberculosis.

A. Hepatitis B.

You are dispatched for a patient who called 911 after what was reported to be a fall from a ladder. On your arrival, the patient admits to having been injured during a domestic dispute. The patient also tells you that the spouse is still in the home. What should you do? A. Immediately leave the scene and contact law enforcement. B. Begin care, but stay alert in case the spouse enters the room. C. Find the spouse and attempt to resolve the conflict. D. Assume that the situation is safe, and begin care.

A. Immediately leave the scene and contact law enforcement.

In a kindergarten, the teacher can give consent for EMT care of their students. Which form of consent applies here? A. In loco parentis B. Informed consent. C. Expressed consent. D. Parental consent.

A. In loco parentis.

Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired? A. Inability to speak clearly. B. Verbalizing complete sentences. C. Speaking in the patient's native language. D. Coordinated smile when asked to do so.

A. Inability to speak clearly.

You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision where a patient's care struck a utility pole. Witnesses reported to you that the patient was unconscious after the impact. However, the patient is now conscious, alert and oriented, and refusing care and transport. You should. A. Inform the patient of your concern and try to persuade her to go to the ED and receive treatment. B. Have the law enforcement officer place the patient under arrest, as she is obviously in danger. C. Leave after having the patient sign the refusal form. D. Use informed consent and tell the patient that since she was unconscious, she is not allowed to refuse.

A. Inform the patient of your concern and try to persuade her to go to the ED and receive treatment.

Which of the following poses the greatest risk of exposure to TB (Tuberculosis)? A. Institutions such as nursing homes. B. Private residences. C. Gyms and fitness centers. D. Places with domestic animals.

A. Institutions such as nursing homes.

If an EMT were to release information about how intoxicated a patient was onto a social networking site, this could be considered: A. Libel. B. Breach of faith. C. Slander. D. Battery.

A. Libel

Which of the following interventions should be performed with both responsive and unresponsive trauma patients? A. Manual stabilization of the head and neck. B. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver. C. High-concentration oxygen. D. Jaw-thrust maneuver.

A. Manual stabilization of the head and neck. Both should have this procedure done before spinal injury can be ruled out. Oxygen may help, but not necessary on all trauma patients. Jaw-thrust maneuver is used in trauma patients, rarely be used in a responsive patient. Head-tilt, chin-lift is not used in trauma patients.

Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body fluids? A. OSHA. B. CDC. C. USMLE. D. UNICEF.

A. OSHA.

The organisms that cause infection, such as viruses and bacteria, are called: A. Pathogens. B. Allergens. C. Phagocytes. D. Antibodies.

A. Pathogens.

Which of the following vital signs indicates the rhythmic beats that are felt as the heart pumps blood through the​ arteries? A. Pulse B. Respirations C. Temperature D. Pupil changes

A. Pulse

Which one of the following statements about recording vital signs is​ TRUE? A. Record all vital signs as you obtain​ them, along with the time at which you took them. B. Only the first and last sets of vital signs are important enough to record. C. Recording of vital signs can be done by memory after the call is over. D. There is no reason to record vital signs that are within normal limits. Record only those that are abnormal.

A. Record all vital signs as you obtain​ them, along with the time at which you took them.

The muscular tube between the stomach and the large intestine, divided into the doudenum, the jejunum, and the ileum, is the: A. Small intestine. B. Pancreas. C. Liver. D. Gallbladder.

A. Small intestine.

If you meet someone who is cardiologist, you know from "-ist" that this person is a: A. Specialist. B. Doctor. C. Nurse. D. EMT.

A. Specialist.

Disruption of nervous system communication is likely caused by: A. Spinal cord injury. B. Myocardial damage. C. hypotension. D. Fluid loss.

A. Spinal cord injury.

A​ 60-year-old male complains of chest pain. Who is MOST likely to record the earliest set of vital signs for this​ patient's event? A. The first arriving EMT B. ED staff C. A family member D. The​ patient's personal physician

A. The first arriving EMT

What effect does sympathetic nervous system stimulation of the heart have on cardiac output? A. The heart rate increases, increasing cardiac output. B. The blood vessels dilate, decreasing cardiac output. C. The blood vessels constrict, decreasing cardiac output. D. The blood vessels dilate, increasing cardiac output.

A. The heart rate increases, increasing cardiac output.

The basic function of the pulmonary system that is known as ventilation involves: A. The movement of gases to and from the alveoli. B. The control of the rate at which the patient is breathing. C. The movement of oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues. D. The circulation of blood to the outside of the alveoli.

A. The movement of gases to and from the alveoli.

Which of the following is TRUE about respiratory anatomy in infants and children? A. The tongue of an infant or child takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than an adult's. B. Infants and children rely less on the diaphragm to breathe than adults do. C. The nose of an infant is proportionally larger than that of an adult. D. The ribs are less pliable in infants than in adults.

A. The tongue of an infant or child takes up proportionally more space in the pharynx than an adult's.

An EMT uses the abbreviation CPAP when speaking to another EMT. This is an appropriate use of an abbreviation because: A. This is an abbreviation another EMT is likely to be familiar with. B. Abbreviations are always preferred because they save time in speaking. C. It is generally understood even by lay people that CPAP means continuous positive airway pressure. D. Any medical abbreviation is common parlance for EMTs.

A. This is an abbreviation another EMT is likely to be familiar with.

Why is more than one set of vital signs assessed on a​ patient? A. To see trends in the​ patient's condition B. To​ double-check for accuracy C. For the practice D. Because it is tradition to check vitals twice

A. To see trends in the​ patient's condition

If emergency care providers discover that a seriously injured patient is an organ donor, they should: A. Treat the patient the same as a nondonor. B. Confirm with the family that this was the patient's decision. C. Treat the patient as having given prior expressed consent for all emergency care. D. Ignore the DNR order and perform CPR.

A. Treat the patient the same as a nondonor.

What is a mode of transmission for AIDS? A. Unprotected sexual contact. B. Respiratory droplets. C. Nasal secretions. D. Airborne droplets.

A. Unprotected sexual contact.

Which of the following is recommended when washing your hands after patient contact? A. Use soap and water when available. B. Stop scrubbing as soon as visible contaminants have been removed. C. Avoid using warm or hot water. D. Do not vigorously rub your hands together.

A. Use soap and water when available.

When soap and water are available, what methods of hand cleaning should be utilized? A. Vigorous hand washing. B. Abrasive scrubbing pad C. A quick rinse with warm water only. D. Alcohol-based hand cleaner.

A. Vigorous hand washing.

Which of the following is a sign that a patient's nervous system has become impaired? A. Visual or hearing impairment. B. Equal grip strength bilaterally. C. Light touch felt in both feet. D. Round and briskly reactive pupils.

A. Visual or hearing impairment.

You have not breached a patient's confidentiality if: A. You only share information specific to that patient when medically necessary. B. You share information specific to that patient with family and friends. C. You talk about that patient's medical issues when off duty only with your spouse. D. You share a funny item from a patient's medical history with a colleague.

A. You only share information specific to that patient when medically necessary.

The pressure wave generated by the contraction of the left ventricle is​ called: A. a pulse. B. asystole. C. diastolic blood pressure. D. pulse rate.

A. a pulse.

Arterial pressure exerted by the blood when the left ventricle contracts is​ detected: A. as the first sound heard when the BP cuff is slowly released. B. by the rhythm and force of the pulse. C. when sounds of the pulse disappear during deflation of the BP cuff. D. by a stethoscope as the diastolic reading.

A. as the first sound heard when the BP cuff is slowly released.

A reliable indicator of circulation in children younger than six years of age​ is: A. capillary refill. B. pulse rate. C. skin color. D. pupil size.

A. capillary refill.

A​ 73-year-old male whom you have been treating for chest pain has suddenly become unconscious and has stopped breathing. You immediately check for a pulse. The MOST likely finding​ is: A. no pulse. B. a​ rapid, regular, and full pulse. C. a​ rapid, regular, and thready pulse. D. a slow pulse.

A. no pulse.

In​ adults, DIRECT assessment of the circulatory status of the body can be performed by measuring the blood pressure and​ the: A. pulse. B. pulse oximetry. C. temperature. D. respiratory rate.

A. pulse.

An​ 11-year-old male has fallen off his bicycle. He complains of abdominal pain. His vital signs are P​ 150, R​ 30, BP​ 100/70. You should​ suspect: A. shock. B. infection. C. anxiety. D. hypoxia.

A. shock.

Which of the following refers to any condition in which the heart may not be getting enough​ oxygen?

Acute coronary syndrome

Which of the following terms is used to represent any symptoms that are related to a lack of oxygen in the heart​ muscle?

Acute coronary syndrome

You have just transported a patient to the emergency department at your local hospital. What additional information that is not typically included in the radio report should be shared with the ED​ staff? A. Pertinent medical history B. Additional vital signs that were taken in route C. The chief complaint D. Baseline vital signs

Additional vital signs that were taken in route

Which of the following is NOT a role of the EMT in providing emergency cardiac​ care?

Administration of epinephrine

Which of the following may be a symptom of a problem with the​ heart?

All of the above Mild chest discomfort ​Nausea, with or without vomiting ​Severe, crushing pain in the chest

Which of the following refers to chest pain that occurs when blood supply to the heart is reduced and a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough​ oxygen?

Angina

Which of the following skills is typically NOT used to manage the airway and breathing of a patient in cardiac​ arrest?

Application of oxygen via nasal cannula

Your patient is a​ 44-year-old female who has collapsed while jogging. She has been unresponsive for four to five minutes by the time you arrive. Her husband appears to be performing​ high-quality CPR. Which of the following should be your first​ action?

Apply the AED.

You are the first on the scene of a​ 72-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. You have your medical supply​ kit, oxygen, and an AED. At least 4 to 5 minutes of​ high-quality CPR has been provided by the police officer who arrived before you. You have confirmed an open​ airway, apnea, and pulselessness. Which of the following should you do​ next?

Apply the defibrillator pads and shock as indicated.

Your patient is a​ 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an​ AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done​ next?

Assist ventilations with a​ bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen and anticipate that the patient may go back into cardiac arrest.

Which of the following is a contraindication for​ aspirin?

Asthma

Which of the following would NOT be corrected by​ defibrillation?

Asystole

Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator​ applied?

A​ 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic

A stair chair should be used in which of the following​ circumstances? A. When the patient has a suspected spinal injury B. When traversing narrow corridors and doorways C. When the patient has altered mental status D. When the patient has a​ lower-extremity injury

B

An efficient way of transferring a patient from your wheeled stretcher to a hospital bed is called​ the: A. direct carry method. B. draw sheet method. C. extremity lift. D. direct ground lift.

B

Bending all fingers at the same angle and placing the hands ten inches apart are two key elements of​ the: A. power lift. B. power grip. C. traction lift. D. stretcher operation.

B

In moving a patient on a​ stretcher, what is the safest level at which to do​ so? A. ​Mid-elevated from the ground B. Closest to the ground C. The reclined position D. A fully elevated position

B

In​ reaching, what should be done every​ time? A. Reach more than fifteen inches. B. Have a​ locked-in back. C. Twist. D. Prolong the reach.

B

Safe patient lifting and moving techniques​ include: A. using as few people as possible to assist with the lifting to avoid injuries. B. using the easiest recommended moves and equipment. C. having patients walk to the ambulance. D. carrying as much equipment as you can at one time to minimize​ on-scene time.

B

What is the BEST way to transport a patient securely who is suspected of having a spinal​ injury? A. Sitting the​ captain's chair with the lap and shoulder belt on B. Fully immobilized with necessary spinal precautions C. Supine on the cot D. ​Semi-Fowler's on the cot with the​ five-point harness attached

B

To adequately assess the​ patient's respirations, the EMT should count the number of respirations​ over: A. 15 seconds and multiply by 10. B. 30 seconds and multiply by 2. C. 20 seconds and multiply by 2. D. 45 seconds and divide by 3.

B. 30 seconds and multiply by 2.

How would you assess the mental status of an infant who appears​ unresponsive? A. Do a light sternal rub to elicit a painful response. B. Speak as a verbal stimulus and flick the feet as a painful stimulus. C. Shake the infant and shout. D. Ask the caregiver whether the infant is alert.

B. Speak as a verbal stimulus and flick the feet as a painful stimulus.

A​ 13-year-old male has crashed an ATV. He was not wearing a helmet and was found unconscious. His airway is patent and is breathing​ adequately, but you hear rales in his chest and diminished lung sounds in his right chest. You assess this​ patient's priority for transport as high. What is one​ reason? A. The patient crashed an ATV. B. The patient is unconscious. C. The patient was not wearing a helmet. D. The​ patient's airway is patent.

B. The patient is unconscious.

As you interview a patient with a medical​ complaint, the reason why the ambulance was called is often referred to as​ the: A. mechanism of injury. B. chief complaint. C. SAMPLE history. D. physical examination.

B. chief complaint.

A​ 45-year-old female is found unconscious. She is not breathing but has a pulse. You should​ NEXT: A. administer supplemental oxygen. B. initiate positive pressure ventilations. C. apply an AED. D. initiate chest compressions.

B. initiate positive pressure ventilations.

What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn immediately after birth? A. 10 to 20 breaths per minute. B. 40 to 60 breaths per minute. C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute. D. 30 to 50 breaths per minute.

B. 40 to 60 breaths per minute.

You are concerned that a​ 6-month-old female is dehydrated and in shock. Which of the following best represents how you would determine a normal blood pressure for this​ patient? A. 60​ + 2 times age in years B. 80​ + 2 times age in years C. Any systolic pressure greater than 50 mmHg D. 90​ - 2 times age in years

B. 80​ + 2 times age in years

A patient with tachycardia will likely experience: A. A decreased heart rate. B. A decreased stroke volume. C. An erratic heart rate. D. An increased stroke volume.

B. A decreased stroke volume.

What is an example of an engineering control according to OSHA? A. Proper labeling of contaminated materials. B. A pocket mask. C. PPE protocols. D. Proper hand washing.

B. A pocket mask.

A patient tells you that he is certain that vaccination is available for all major communicable diseases, but what is a disease for which a vaccination is still not available? A. Hepatitis B. B. AIDS. C. Influenza. D. Pneumonia.

B. AIDS.

Cells produce energy MOST efficiently from: A. Plasma oncotic pressure. B. Aerobic Metabolism. C. Anaerobic Metabolism. D. Hydrostatic pressure.

B. Aerobic Metabolism.

The Health insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA): A. Allows you to discuss specific patient information with other personnel at the station. B. Allow you to discuss patient-specific information only with individuals with whom it is medically necessary to do so. C. Allows you to provide specific patient information to the media without additional patient consent. D. Requires you to obtain the patient's signature acknowledging receipt of your agency's privacy policy before you perform any patient interventions.

B. Allows you to discuss patient-specific information only with individuals with whom it is medically necessary to do so.

What is the name for the small sacs in the lungs where the exchange of gases takes place? A. Epiglottis. B. Alveoli. C. Pharynx. D. Bronchus.

B. Alveoli.

When managing a 28-year-old male patient who has been vomiting blood and has a fever, the EMT considers that the patient might have a bloodborne illness. Bloodborne pathogens can be contracted through exposure to: A. Tiny droplets sprayed when the infected person breathes, coughs, or sneezes. B. An infected person's blood through breaks in the noninfected person's skin C. Any surface that the infected person may have touched. D. An infected person's blood through breaks in the infected person's skin.

B. An infected person's blood through breaks in the noninfected person's skin.

An 18-year-old male has been involved in an altercation with another person. During the fight, he was stabbed in the thigh. As you approach, you note the patient to be awake with minor bleeding from a laceration on his leg. You should first: A. Apply direct pressure to his leg. B. Assess his airway. C. Administer high-concentration oxygen. D. Assess his radial pulse.

B. Assess his airway.

Which of the following is found in poultry and can affect humans? A. ARDS. B. Avian Flu. C. West Nile Virus. D. H1N1.

B. Avian Flu.

A 30-year-old male has been struck by a vehicle at moderate speed and is now unconscious. You initiate a primary assessment and identify that he has blood in his airway, rapid and labored breathing, and absent breath sounds. You note that he is cyanotic. Which of these problems should you manage FIRST? A. Absent lung sounds. B. Blood in the airway. C. Diminished mental status. D. Inadequate ventilations.

B. Blood in the airway. Without an open airway, the patient cannot oxygenate, ventilate, or hope to have a normal mental status.

A state of exhaustion and irritability that can markedly decrease one's effectiveness in delivering emergency medical care is referred to as: A. Stress. B. Burnout. C. Anguish. D. Eustress.

B. Burnout.

Which of the following scenarios wold likely create the MOST stress in an EMT? A. Caring for a patient who suffered a traumatic cardiac arrest. B. Caring for a family member who was involved in a multivehicle collision. C. Caring for a criminal who just shot another person. D. Caring for a young female who just gave birth.

B. Caring for a family member who was involved in a multivehicle collision.

You arrive on the scene of an automobile collision and find one of the drivers suffering from multiple injuries and an altered level of consciousness. You should FIRST: A. Complete a detailed physical examination. B. Complete a primary assessment. C. Initiate immediate transport. D. Obtain a SAMPLE history for secondary assessment.

B. Complete a primary assessment. First complete primary assessment. You wouldn't initiate transport yet. After PA, you will focus on SAMPLE history and a detailed physical examination unless you determine patients require immediate transport.

You would anticipate that an infant patient will communicate almost exclusively through: A. Grunting. B. Crying. C. Grabbing. D. Babbling.

B. Crying.

The thyroid gland and adrenal glands are part of the: A. Urinary system. B. Endocrine system. C. Digestive system. D. Reproductive system.

B. Endocrine system.

A TST provides: A. Personal protection. B. Exposure detection. C. Immunization. D. Vaccination.

B. Exposure detection.

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. Medical care by an EMT. B. Fingerprints. C. Family pictures. D. Patient advocacy.

B. Fingerprints.

What helps you burn off stress? A. Rotating to a busier station or duty assignment. B. Getting exercise such as aerobics. C. Performing quality improvement measures. D. Requesting additional or overtime shifts.

B. Getting exercise such as aerobics.

A patient would see a cardiologist for the problem with the: A. Stomach B. Heart. C. Brain. D. Bones.

B. Heart.

When is it advisable to use an alcohol-based hand cleaner? A. When you don't feel like using soap and water. B. If only disinfection is warranted. C. When hands are visibly soiled. D. When you have been exposed to anthrax.

B. If only disinfection is warranted.

The stage of development from birth to 1 year of age is referred to as: A. Adolescence. B. Infancy. C. Childhood. D. Toddlerhood.

B. Infancy.

Too much water does what to the cell? A. It causes the cell to dehydrate and die. B. It interrupts basic cellular function. C. It balances the water inside and outside the cell. D. It creates higher levels of electrolytes.

B. It interrupts basic cellular function.

A patient is injured but refuses to be transported by ambulance. He is competent to make decisions, and you have exhausted all avenues to convince him to be transported, so you have him sign a refusal or treatment form. This form is intended to release you from: A. The need to provide any care for this patient at any time. B. Liability for not providing care. C. Properly informing the patient of the consequences of refusing care. D. The responsibility to stay on the scene.

B. Liability for not providing care.

You document on your run sheet that your patient with altered mental status is "just another drunk." This would likely be considered: A. Slander. B. Libel. C. Negligence. D. A HIPAA violation.

B. Libel.

When performing a primary assessment on a patient, you are MOST commonly: A. Taking the patient's medical history. B. Looking for immediate life threats. C. Packaging the patients for transport. D. Conducting a detailed physical examination.

B. Looking for immediate life threats.

What is the primary rule in dealing with a hazardous material incident? A. Always have the Emergency Response Guidebook available on your phone. B. Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material. C. Immediately begin care for your patients. D. Make sure your ambulance is equipped with binoculars for identifying placards.

B. Maintain a safe distance from the source of the hazardous material.

The only movable pat of the skull is the: A. Orbit. B. Mandible. C. Nasal bone. D. Maxilla.

B. Mandible.

You observe what appears to be elder abuse in a call to a nursing home. You have a clear: A. Legal obligation to report the abuse. B. Moral obligation to report the abuse. C. Implied consent to provide care to any patients at the home. D. Release from liability for negligence in you care.

B. Moral obligation to report the abuse.

What type of mask should you don if you suspect that the elderly patient for whom you are caring has tuberculosis? A. Disposable surgical type face mask. B. N-95 Respirator. C. Dampened cloth tied around the lower part of the face. D. Full face shield.

B. N-95 Respirator.

What U.S. entity established guidelines that require certain precautions to be taken to prevent the transmission of disease through contact with body fluids? A. The Surgeon General. B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). C. National Transport and Highway Safety Administration (NTHSA). D. Center for Disease Control (CDC).

B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Moving air into and out of the chest requires and airway that is: A. Minute. B. Patent. C. Tidal. D. Occluded.

B. Patent.

You are reaching for the pediatric BP cuff when you notice that your​ nine-year-old patient is becoming cyanotic. What should you​ do? A. Check the​ patient's temperature B. Repeat the primary assessment C. Administer oxygen D. Check the BP

B. Repeat the primary assessment

Which of the following vital signs may the EMT observe without any contact with the​ patient? A. Blood pressure B. Respirations C. Pulse D. Skin temperature

B. Respirations

A dying patient wants you to tell him that it's going to be okay. You should: A. Tell the patient firmly that you will not respond to such requests. B. Respond that you will do all you can to comfort the patient and help control his pain. C. Nod in the affirmative but not say anything false. D. Nod in the negative but then refuse to say anything.

B. Respond that you will do all you can to comfort the patient and help control his pain.

Mental status is the level of a patient's: A. Verbal acuity. B. Responsiveness. C. Pain threshold. D. Knowledge.

B. Responsiveness. It is the level of a patient's responsiveness, which rages from alert and responsive to verbal responsive, responsive only to painful stimuli, and finally the lowest level responsiveness, unresponsive. If the level of responsiveness is lower than alert, provide oxygen based on the patients oxygen saturation and level of distress and consider the patent a high transfer priority.

The actions and care that are legally allowed for the EMT are called the: A. Standing orders. B. Scope of practice. C. Standard of care D. Good Samaritan Law

B. Scope of practice.

The standard against infection that assumes that all blood and body fluids are infectious and requires all emergency workers to practice a strict form of infection control is called: A. Sterilization. B. Standard Precautions. C. Universal Precautions. D. Infection Prevention.

B. Standard Precautions.

The care that would be expected to be provided to the same patient under the same circumstances by another EMT who had received the same training is called the: A. Duty to act. B. Standard of care C. Scope of practice. D. Protocol.

B. Standard of care.

If a patient is lying face up on his or her back, the patient is said to be in a what position? A. Lateral. B. Supine. C. Prone. D. Anatomical.

B. Supine.

Hypertension abnormally increases the: A. Permeability. B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR). C. Stroke volume. D. Heart rate.

B. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR).

What test can detect whether an EMT has been exposed to Tuberculosis? A. PPE. B. TST. C. MMR. D. TBA.

B. TST

You have been under a lot of family stress lately, and you have not been sleeping well. When you got to work this morning, you realize that you had forgotten to place your badge on your uniform shirt. You tell your partner that you cannot seem to think clearly. Your partner tells you that he is concerned about your well-being. After hearing this, you know that your duty as an EMT is to: A. Recognize that talking about your problems at work is unprofessional and distracts your fellow EMTs. B. Take off work until you can straighten out your family problem and make sure that you are mentally prepared to work. C. Inform your partner that your well-being is not his concern. D. Tell your partner that you feel better after talking to him and go about your work.

B. Take off work until you can straighten out your family problem and make sure that you are mentally prepared to work.

Edema can best be observed in: A. The parts of the body toward the center. B. The dependent parts of the body. C. The parts of the body toward the head. D. The parts of the body least subject to gravity.

B. The dependent parts of the body.

The cervical spine is formed by: A. Five vertebrae in the lower back. B. The first seven vertebrae. C. Twelve vertebrae inferior to the neck. D. five fused vertebrae at the pelvis.

B. The first seven vertebrae.

During the CISD (Critical Incident Stress Debriefing), who is usually involved in a defusing session? A. A team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals. B. The people who were directly involved with the most stressful aspects of the incident. C. Only the personnel who seem to be the most unaffected by the events of the incident. D. Everyone who was a part of the case, regardless of his or her direct or indirect involvement in the incident.

B. The people who were directly involved with the most stressful aspects of the incident.

The term pathophysiology means the study of: A. The pathway of normal metabolism in the body. B. The study of how disease processes affect the function of the body. C. The effect of normal metabolic activity on maintaining the body's system. D. The effects of cancer of the body.

B. The study of how disease processes affect the function of the body.

During rescue operations, you are unprepared if you lack: A. Medical gloves. B. Turnout gear. C. Pen lights. D. Trauma scissors.

B. Turnout gear.

Your​ eight-year-old patient is alert after crashing into a wall on her skateboard. You​ should: A. assess her mental status only when taking her baseline vital signs. B. reassess her mental status each time you take her vital signs. C. not bother monitoring her mental status given that she appears alert. D. reassess her mental status only if secondary vital signs show a deterioration.

B. reassess her mental status each time you take her vital signs.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle contracts is​ called: A. oxygen saturation. B. systolic pressure. C. pulse rate. D. diastolic pressure.

B. systolic pressure.

Not immediately apparent but important information for guiding patient care decisions can come​ from: A. the chief complaint. B. the​ patient's vital signs. C. the​ patient's age and sex. D. the​ patient's general alertness.

B. the​ patient's vital signs.

You should assess the​ patient's mental​ status: A. only after taking vital signs. B. whenever you take vital signs. C. instead of taking a​ patient's vital signs. D. only before taking vital signs.

B. whenever you take vital signs.

Which of the following components of an EMS communication system would MOST likely provide the furthest transmission of​ voice? A. A​ 50-watt mobile radio B. Base station with a repeater C. Portable​ ambulance-mounted radio D. Portable handheld radio

Base station with a repeater

Which of the following types of defibrillators will adjust the amount of energy used on the basis of​ impedance?

Biphasic AED

Which term refers to a heart rate of below 60 beats per​ minute?

Bradycardia

Which of the following is typically NOT included in the patient information section of the minimum data​ set? A. Breath sounds B. Respiratory rate and effort C. Chief complaint D. Skin color and temperature

Breath sounds

An important key to preventing injury while lifting or moving​ is: A. using manual force instead of equipment when possible. B. maintaining an outward curve of the back to reduce the potential for spinal injury. C. not compensating when lifting with one hand. D. extending or flexing the wrists and knees to prevent injury to the extremities.

C

To use your legs instead of your back to​ lift, you​ must: A. place your palms downward. B. lock both elbows straight. C. keep the weight close to your body. D. keep the weight at​ arm's length.

C

When assessing a​ patient, you quickly decide that it is in the​ patient's best interest for you to do an emergency move. Which of the following is NOT an indication for an emergency​ move? A. You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care. B. You are unable to provide lifesaving care to the patient because of the​ patient's location. C. Dispatch is holding calls for your community. D. There is immediate danger to you.

C

When you are lifting and carrying equipment with one​ hand, it is important to keep your back in what​ position? A. Backward curved B. Flexible C. Locked D. Forward curved

C

Which of the following technique is used by power weight​ lifters? A. ​Clean-and-jerk lift B. ​Knee-chest lift C. Power lift D. Squat thrust

C

Your patient is​ conscious, has no​ trauma, and is complaining of dyspnea. Which of the following is most likely the BEST way to position the patient during​ transport? A. Left recumbent B. Lying flat C. Sitting upright D. Feet elevated

C

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the primary​ assessment? A. The main purpose of the primary assessment is to perform a​ head-to-toe physical examination to discover injuries. B. You will assess each patient in​ A-B-C order:​ airway, breathing, and circulation. C. Critical conditions that are identified during the primary assessment must be treated immediately as found. D. You cannot gain enough information about the patient during the primary assessment to make a transport decision.

C. Critical conditions that are identified during the primary assessment must be treated immediately as found.

If a patient is alert and breathing adequately but exhibits cyanotic​ skin, then which intervention is MOST​ appropriate? A. Assist his ventilations with 100 percent oxygen. Synchronize your ventilations with the​ patient's own respirations so they are working​ together, not against each other. B. Perform rescue breathing. C. Provide oxygen based on the​ patient's need as determined by your​ examination, the​ patient's complaint and level of​ distress, and the pulse oximetry readings. D. Provide positive pressure ventilations with 100 percent oxygen.

C. Provide oxygen based on the​ patient's need as determined by your​ examination, the​ patient's complaint and level of​ distress, and the pulse oximetry readings.

A​ 66-year-old female has been found apneic and pulseless. You should​ immediately: A. initiate positive pressure ventilations. B. open the​ patient's airway. C. begin chest compressions. D. insert an OPA.

C. begin chest compressions.

During the primary​ assessment, you would focus exclusively​ on: A. nature of illness. B. mechanism of injury. C. life threats. D. hazards of the scene.

C. life threats.

Which of the following would be considered the normal breathing rate for​ school-age children? A. 6 to 8 breaths per minute. B. 60 to 100 breaths per minute. C. 15 to 30 breaths per minute. D. 35 to 50 breaths per minute.

C. 15 to 30 breaths per minute.

A dangerous person is threatening you, causing you to rapidly move away from that person. At your new position, at least ow many major obstacles should you place between yourself and the pursuer if you can? A. 3. B. 4. C. 2. D. 1.

C. 2

Typically, at what age will a child begin developing "magical thinking" and engage in play acting? A. 3 to 4 years. B. 12 months. C. 24 to 36 months. D. 18 to 24 months.

C. 24 to 36 months.

If you are told a full-term newborn has a low birth weight for her gestational age, you wouldn't be surprised by which birth weight? A. 2.5 kg. B. 3.5 kg. C. 3.0 kg. D. 3.25 kg.

C. 3.0 kg.

Oxygen aids in converting glucose into: A. AMP. B. ACL. C. ATP. D. ADP.

C. ATP.

You are on a call for a patient who was assaulted. Law enforcement is on the scene. You are not directly involved with patient care. You should: A. Interview bystandards. B. Offer to assist law enforcement personnel. C. Actively observe for potential dangers. D. Wait by the ambulance.

C. Actively observe for potential dangers.

Documents signed by a patient that communicate his or her wishing regarding medical care are called: A. Automated care orders. B. Advance directives. C. Extended patient directives. D. Physician orders.

C. Advance directives.

Imaginary straight-line devisions of the body are called: A. Physiological divisions. B. Geometric components. C. Anatomical planes. D. Positional placements.

C. Anatomical planes.

A 64-year-old male complained of chest pain. Minutes before your arrival, he lost consciousness and fell to the floor. As you approach, he is not responsive to your voice and does not respond when you gently shake him. You should next: A. Deliver two rescue breaths. B. Open his airway manually. C. Assess for a carotid pulse. D. Question bystanders.

C. Assess for a carotid pulse. Patient may be in cardiac arrest. He is unresponsive, so his pulse must be immediately assessed. If there is no carotid pulse, compressions must be initiated. Airway management and rescue breathing would follow chest compressions.

Why is it critical to manage swelling of the pediatric patient's airway? A. Because of the softness and pliability of a child's tongue. B. Because of the inward curvature of a child's rib cage. C. Because of the small diameter of the pediatric airway. D. Because of the rigidity of the pediatric patient's airway.

C. Because of the small diameter of the pediatric airway.

A 56-year-old male patient had a syncopal episode in church. Dispatch notes that he has an altered mental status and bystanders are concerned about his breathing. As you approach the patient, you say hello and ask how he is feeling. He replies,"I'm fine thanks." Which of the following would be the most appropriate statement about the patient's airway status? A. The patient evidently does not have a patent airway. B. The patient's altered mental status is threatening his airway. C. Because the patient is able to speak, the airway is patent. D. the patient's airway is most likely abstructed.

C. Because the patient is able to speak, the airway is patent.

Acute stress reactions are often liked to: A. Cognitive dissonance from moral dilemmas. B. Disorders from long-term exposure to a stressor. C. Catastrophes such as large-scale natural disasters. D. Burnout from an accumulation of stress.

C. Catastrophes such as large-scale natural disasters.

A respiratory compensation, what sends messages to the brain that oxygen levels are too low or carbon dioxide levels too high? A. Electrolytes. B. Platelets. C. Chemoreceptors. D. Leukocytes.

C. Chemoreceptors.

Which of the following would be an expected pupil response to a narcotic​ overdose? A. Nonreactive pupils B. Dilated pupils C. Constricted pupils D. Unequal pupils

C. Constricted pupils

Which of the following is a serious complication of vomiting? A. Tachypnea. B. Hypertension. C. Dehydration. D. tachycardia.

C. Dehydration.

Generally, the sixth and the last part of a primary assessment is: A. Performing the scene size-up. B. Assessing the patient's mental status. C. Determining the priority of the patient for treatment and transport. D. Forming a general impression of the patient.

C. Determining the priority of the patient for the treatment and transport.

Which of the following is TRUE about medical terminology? A. EMTs are not allowed to use or document medical terms. B. EMTs are encouraged to know basic medical terminology, but it is not essential. C. EMTs are expected to know basic medical terminology. D. EMTs should use complex medical terms whenever possible.

C. EMTs are expected to know basic medical terminology.

The proximal end of the ulna helps to form the: A. Pelvis. B. Knee. C. Elbow. D. Wrist.

C. Elbow.

Which of the following procedures carries the highest risk of spreading TB (Tuberculosis) to the EMT? A. Oral airway placement. B. Modified Jaw thrust. C. Endotracheal suctioning. D. Bag-valve-mask breathing.

C. Endotracheal suctioning.

Which of the following diseases is on the decline because of better vaccinations? A. Croup. B. H1N1. C. Epiglottitis. D. AIDS/HIV.

C. Epiglottitis.

A​ 54-year-old male with a history of diabetes is currently unresponsive. You have initiated​ high-flow oxygen. His initial vitals were pulse​ 68, respirations​ 14, and BP​ 102/70, with a BGL of 425​ mg/dL. Because this patient is​ unresponsive, you determine that the patient is unstable. Given​ this, how often will you repeat the vital signs while​ transporting? A. Only if mental status changes B. Once during transport C. Every 5 minutes D. Every 15 minutes

C. Every 5 minutes

Which of the following structures is part of the digestive system? A. Bladder. B. Kidney. C. Gallbladder. D. Hypothalamus.

C. Gallbladder.

What type of precautions should an EMT take when caring for an intoxicated female who is trying to spit on the EMS crew? A. Glove and a mask. B. Gloves only. C. Gloves, eye protection, and a mask. D. Gloves and eye protection.

C. Gloves, eye protection, and a mask

Which of the following is a problem you would expect many patients after age 40 to face? A. Renal failure. B. Appendicitis. C. Heart disease. D. Pneumonia.

C. Heart disease.

Which of the following is a medical problem that can affect the nervous system but is not directly associated with its anatomy? A. Lou Gehrig's disease. B. Meningitis. C. Hypoglycemia. D. Stroke.

C. Hypoglycemia.

During shock states, cells often do not receive enough oxygen because of inadequate circulation. This is referred to as: A. Hypovolemia. B. Hypertension. C. Hypoperfusion. D. Hypercapnia.

C. Hypoperfusion.

Without a regular supply of oxygen, cells become: A. Aerobic. B. Perfused. C. Hypoxic. D. Self-reliant.

C. Hypoxic

Which of the following diseases has the shortest incubation period? A. AIDS. B. TB. C. Influenza. D. Mumps

C. Influenza.

You proceed to treat a patient who has consented to care, but you have NOT explained the risks and benefits of what you are going to do. This is MOST likely a violation of: A. Scope of practice. B. Implied consent. C. Informed consent. D. In loco parentis.

C. Informed consent.

What is the MOST important reason EMTs should have a good grasp of the proper use of medical terminology? A. It is necessary to use in order to speak to physicians. B. The profession requires it. C. It allows clear communication with other health care providers. D. It shows the patient that EMTs are well-educated.

C. It allows clear communication with other health care providers.

An EMT should never enter a violent scene until: A. The shouting has stopped. B. Dispatch tells you to go in. C. It has been secured by the police. D. Bystanders have left the area.

C. It has been secured by the police.

The warning signs of stress include: A. The need for interaction with family and friends. B. Increase appetite. C. Loss of sexual desire or interest. D. Intense concentration on work.

C. Loss of sexual desire or interest.

You respond to a scene in which nearby containers of hazardous materials have come open and appear to be leaking. You should: A. Retreat from the area until specialized personnel arrive. B. Try to find something you can throw over the materials to cover them. C. Maintain a minimum safe distance from the materials. D. Try to close the containers and clean up the material.

C. Maintain a minimum safe distance from the materials.

Gloves worn to protect against contact with blood and other body fluids should be: A. Latex. B. Mesh. C. Nonlatex. D. Cotton.

C. Nonlatex.

Which of the following should you do when threatened by a patient or family member? A. Forcibly restrain the person threatening you. B. Ignore the threat and continue treating the patient. C. Quickly plan your route of escape. D. Stand up to the threat.

C. Quickly plan your route of escape.

Lack of exercise MOST likely will lead to: A. Physical weakness. B. Weigh gain. C. Reduced physical fitness. D. Illness.

C. Reduced physical fitness.

What is a set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent and limits of the EMT's job? A. Res ipsa loquitur. B. Tort. C. Scope of practice. D. Standard of care.

C. Scope of practice.

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is know as: A. Hypertension. B. Hypoxia. C. Shock. D. Conduction.

C. Shock.

This type of muscle is generally attached at one or both ends to a bone by tendons. A. Involuntary. B. Smooth. C. Skeletal. D. Cardiac.

C. Skeletal.

The anatomical differences between the pediatric and adult airways require that: A. Only pediatric specialists treat children. B. Treatment for respiratory problems be conducted the same for both children and adults. C. Specific considerations be taken in treating an infant for respiratory problems. D. EMTs notify medical direction before treating an infant for respiratory problems.

C. Specific considerations be taken in treating an infant for respiratory problems.

Which of the following documented vital signs is sometimes used in public health to monitor the outbreak of flu​ season? A. Respirations B. Pulse C. Temperature D. Blood pressure

C. Temperature

For whose benefit should you keep accurate records of vital​ signs? A. The medical records technician B. The insurance company C. The patient D. The​ patient's personal physician

C. The patient

Hypovolemia, or low blood volume, occurs when blood is lost from the cardiovascular system or when: A. Blood is physically prevented from flowing. B. Blood vessel tone is lost. C. The plasma portion of blood is lost. D. The heart fails in its ability to pump blood.

C. The plasma portion of blood is lost.

What may interfere with an EMT's ability to care for a patient at a crime scene? A. The police have secured the scene. B. The patient has multiple injuries. C. The police want to interview the patient. D. The patient is bleeding from a wrist laceration.

C. The police want to interview the patient.

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? A. The refrigerator icemaker. B. Clean napkins in a drawer. C. The position in which the patient is found. D. The homeowner's pet.

C. The position in which the patient is found.

During a clinical shift in the emergency department, you are instructed to put on a HEPA mask. The situation likely involves: A. Hepatitis B. B. The flu. C. Tuberculosis. D. Ebola.

C. Tuberculosis.

Which of the following situations should heighten your suspicion that a scene is unsafe? A. Unknown bystanders. B. Multiple patients. C. Uncaged animals. D. Arriving to find police already on scene.

C. Uncaged animals.

For adequate function, cells must have an adequate supply of oxygen, glucose, and: A. Lactic Acid. B. Lysosomes. C. Water. D. Nitrogen.

C. Water.

You have been an EMT in a busy system for a number of years. Over the past several months, you have noticed and increase in your stress levels. Your partner ask you what positive steps you've tried. What is a positive lifestyle intervention you could mention? A. You've tried as much as possible to simply ignore your stress. B. To get more sleep, you've medicated yourself with non-habit-forming medications. C. You've developed positive and healthful dietary habits. D. You've advised your family that they need to start being more sympathetic toward you.

C. You've developed positive and healthful dietary habits.

A​ three-month-old patient was found unresponsive and apneic in her crib. After ensuring scene safety and performing a scene​ size-up, you should​ NEXT: A. check the pulse at the radial artery. B. check the pulse at the carotid artery. C. check the pulse at the brachial artery. D. hook up the pulse oximeter.

C. check the pulse at the brachial artery.

Vital signs of an unstable patient should be reassessed and​ recorded: A. whenever a new care provider assumes care. B. every 15 minutes. C. every 5 minutes. D. every 10 minutes.

C. every 5 minutes.

While inflating the blood pressure cuff on a​ 56-year-old male complaining of chest​ pain, you notice that he loses consciousness. You​ should: A. assess a radial pulse. B. complete the assessment of the blood pressure. C. immediately assess his breathing status. D. continue on and assess his skin.

C. immediately assess his breathing status.

When taking a​ patient's pulse, the EMT will pay attention​ to: A. the systolic and diastolic pressures. B. size and reactivity. C. presence, strength, and regularity. D. color, temperature, and condition.

C. presence, strength, and regularity.

Color is an important finding with respect to​ the: A. pupils. B. blood pressure. C. skin. D. pulse.

C. skin.

Any pulse rate above 100 beats per minute is​ called: A. bradycardia. B. hypercardia. C. tachycardia. D. tachypnea.

C. tachycardia.

In which of the following ways does cardiac arrest in children differ from cardiac arrest in​ adults?

Cardiac arrest in children is more likely to be due to respiratory failure.

Which of the following is the general term used to refer to a problem with the​ heart?

Cardiac compromise

Delivery of an electrical shock to restore a normal heart rhythm most directly affects which of the​ following?

Cardiac conduction system

Your patient was pulseless but had a return of spontaneous pulses after one shock from the AED. Before​ transport, you notice that the patient is again unresponsive. You should​ NEXT:

Check the pulse

You suspect that your patient is suffering from angina pectoris. What signs or symptoms would you expect to see with this​ condition?

Chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin

You respond to the scene of a​ 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a​ "little sick" for the past two​ days, but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has​ "heart problems," suffers from high blood​ pressure, and takes a​ "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles​ (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory​ distress?

Congestive heart failure

Which of the following is a desired action of epinephrine delivered by auto-injector?

Constriction of blood vessels

You are on the scene of a​ 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the​ patient, what is your next​ intervention?

Continue CPR

Which of the following is the name of the condition in which fatty deposits form in the inner lining of the arteries of the​ heart?

Coronary artery disease

Which of the following is TRUE about communicating with patients from a different​ culture? A. Cultural differences have no impact on communication. B. The​ patient's culture is irrelevant to the EMT. C. Patients from other cultures generally cannot understand therapeutic communication. D. Cultural differences can make effective communication more challenging.

Cultural differences can make effective communication more challenging.

There are two types of spine​ boards, one of which is​ the: A. pediatric spine board. B. padded spine board. C. pneumatic spine board. D. long spine board.

D

To minimize or prevent aggravation of a spinal injury during an emergency​ move, the EMT should move the patient in the direction of​ the: A. lateral axis of the body. B. vertical axis of the body. C. short axis of the body. D. long axis of the body.

D

What is the MOST important thing you can do to prevent an injury to yourself when moving​ patients? A. Work with a strong partner. B. Let your partner lift the head of the wheeled cot. C. Always call for backup for any patient who weighs over 200 pounds. D. Know your limitations.

D

A​ 56-year-old male has fallen off a​ 12-foot ladder. After ensuring scene safety and completing the scene​ size-up, you should​ NEXT: A. assess baseline vital signs. B. asses the​ patient's airway. C. question bystanders. D. take manual cervical spine precautions.

D. take manual cervical spine precautions.

Which of the following would be the BEST method to open the airway on an unresponsive trauma​ patient? A. Suctioning the airway B. Insert an oropharyngeal airway C. ​Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver D. ​Jaw-thrust maneuver

D. ​Jaw-thrust maneuver

As you try to provide lifesaving care for a patient you believe will die, The patient's brother approaches and wants to know how serious the problem is. You don't have time to talk. You should say: A. "It will all work out fine." B. "Isn't it obvious?" C. "For now, please help keep your brother calm." D. "Please step back and don't interfere."

D. "Please step back and don't interfere."

You are caring for a critically injured patient who asks you whether she will be OK. Which of the following responses is appropriate? A. "I don't know if you'll live, but you need to want to live if you wish to see your family again." B. "Honestly, I think you not survive your injuries. Is there any message you want me to pass on to your family?" C. "I think you'll be fine. Hang in there." D. "You're badly hurt, and we are doing everything we can to get you out of here and to a hospital. But don't give up."

D. "You're badly hurt, and we are doing everything we can to get you out of here and to a hospital. But don't give up."

The average range for an​ adult's respirations would​ be: A. 4 to 6 breaths per minute. B. 25 to 35 breaths per minute. C. 40 to 60 breaths per minute. D. 12 to 20 breaths per minute

D. 12 to 20 breaths per minute

A normal hear rate for an adolescent would be: A. 35 beats per minute. B. 45 beats per minute. C. 115 beats per minute. D. 55 beats per minute.

D. 55 beats per minute.

What is the age range for a child in the school-age stage of development? A. 3 to 5 years. B. 1 to 3 years. C. 0 to 1 years. D. 6 to 12 years.

D. 6 to 12 years.

Which of the following is most likely to cause an endocrine disorder? A. Severe infection. B. Cardiac Dysfunction. C. Abnormal vital signs. D. A hormone deficiency.

D. A hormone deficiency.

Dehydration may be caused by decreased fluid intake or: A. A significant increased of fluid. B. Increased fluid intake. C. Any fluid imbalance. D. A significant loss of fluid.

D. A significant loss of fluid.

What type of stress reaction would and EMT likely experience when his or her partner has been attacked? A. Chronic stress reaction. B. Delayed stress reaction. C. Cumulative stress reaction. D. Acute stress reaction.

D. Acute stress reaction.

Statistically, which of the following is the greatest threat to EMS providers? A. Stroke. B. Assault. C. Accidental needlesticks. D. Air medical crashes.

D. Air medical crashes

When your pupils dilate, your heart rate increases, your bronchial passages dilate, and your blood sugar increases, what stage of stress response is this? A. Exhaustion. B. Resolution. C. Resistance. D. Alarm.

D. Alarm.

The Study of the body's structure is referred to as: A. Pathophysiology. B. Physiology. C. Polyintegration. D. Anatomy.

D. Anatomy.

A condition that reduces the number or oxygen-carrying red blood cells is: A. Leukopenia. B. Orythropoiasis. C. Polycythemia. D. Anemia

D. Anemia

A 34-year-old male is unconscious in bed. Which of the following should be done first? A. Auscultate lung sounds. B. Assess respiratory rate. C. Obtain baseline vital signs. D. Assess circulation.

D. Assess circulation. Unresponsive patients are assessed using the CAB approach (Circulation, Airway, Breathing). You would check for a pulse because it is critical to determine the patient requires chest compressions immediately.

A patient in your care learns that he is dying and says "OK, but first i need to call my wife and tell her I love her. Then I need to talk to my brother." What stage of reacting to death and dying is the patient most likely in? A. Depression. B. Denial. C. Anger. D. Bargaining.

D. Bargaining.

What emotional stage of dying might a patient be experiencing if he responds to a terminal diagnosis by saying that he understands he is going to die but then listing all the things he could do to be healthier and push off death for a little longer? A. Depression. B. Acceptance. C. Denial. D. Bargaining.

D. Bargaining.

Which of the following in considered part of the stress triad? A. Indecisiveness. B. Diaphoresis. C. Hyperactivity. D. Bleeding gastric ulcers.

D. Bleeding gastric ulcers.

A 13 year old patient involved in a collision who appears to be under the influence of drugs refuses care. Regarding the issue of providing care to this patient, you must consider that this patient: A. Should be reported to the police. B. Should sign a release form. C. Has legally refused care. D. Can't legally refuse care.

D. Can't legally refuse care.

You are responding to a shooting attack, and the shooter begins firing on the scene from a sniper position you can't see, but you know the general direction. In reacting to the danger, you place your body behind an area that might hide you from view, although it won't protect you from the bullets. This is called: A. Cowering. B. Cowardly. C. Cover. D. Concealment.

D. Concealment.

What is the proper term for the introductionof dangerous chemicals, diseases, and infectious material into the human body? A. Hazardous material incident. B. Decontamination. C. Mass-casualty incident. D. Contamination.

D. Contamination.

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be part of the CISD (Critical Incident Stress Debriefing) process? A. Learning ways to overcome stress. B. Reviewing the facts of the event. C. Discussing the emotions the participants are feeling. D. Critiquing the care provided during the incident.

D. Critiquing the care provided during the incident.

When a patient is compensating for shock, you may see which of the following signs? A. Decreased pulses. B. Hypotension. C. Constricted pupils. D. Diaphoresis.

D. Diaphoresis.

Severe vomiting, tachypnea, and excessive sweating would likely lead to: A. Pulmonary edema. B. Increased urinary output. C. Increased blood pressure and decreases pulse. D. Disruption of the body's fluid balance.

D. Disruption of the body's fluid balance.

A car has struck an electrical pole, and there are live wires down on the car. A patient is trapped in the vehicle. What is the MOST appropriate action? A. Approach the car cautiously and watch for gasoline leaks. B. Perform a rapid extrication but do not touch the wires. C. Have the fire department rescue the patient and bring him to you. D. Do not approach the car, and call the electric company.

D. Do not approach the car, and call the electric company.

SARS cross-contamination from the patient to the provider can be reduced if the EMT takes which precautions? A. Don gloves and eye protection. B. Don gloves only. C. Don gloves, wear a surgical mask, and use eye protection. D. Don gloves and gowns, use eye protection, and wear an N-95 respirator.

D. Don gloves and gowns, use eye protection, and wear an N-95 respirator.

Which of the following must the EMT perform on each and ever emergency call? A. Wear a HEPA or N95 mask. B. Immediately assess all patients on arrival at the scene. C. Contact the receiving facility with a patient. D. Ensure that the scene is safe before entering.

D. Ensure that the scene is safe before entering.

You and your partner have arrived on the scene of a person injured as a result of a gunshot wound during a burglary. When police later arrive and secure the scene, one of the police tells you to file a complete report describing what you saw when you arrived on the scene, as a required by law in your area. You should: A. File a report that leaves out any detail you consider confidential for that patient. B. File a report in which you explain in detail why you believe a crime was committed. C. Refuse to file any report, citing patient confidentiality. D. File the report and leave out no details.

D. File the report and leave out no details.

A patient you know is dying asks for comfort, and you say, "Don't worry, it isn't certain that you are going to die. You can't lose hope." This is: A. Recognizing the patient's needs. B. Listening empathetically. C. Giving realistic comfort. D. Giving false reassurance.

D. Giving false reassurance.

A patient appears to be bloodied, although it's not clear whether the patient herself is bleeding. Which of the following should the EMT definitely wear when treating this patient? A. Gown. B. HEPA mask. C. Helmet. D. Gloves.

D. Gloves

Laws that have been developed by states to minimize the risk of individuals being held liable for providing emergency care to victims of illness or injury are called: A. Advance directives. B. Protocols. C. Immunity proclamations. D. Good Samaritan Laws.

D. Good Samaritan Laws.

An example of eustress is: A. Being triggered into overwhelming PTSD episode. B. Facing a violent attack from a delirious patient. C. Dealing with the death of a partner. D. Having to meet higher performance standards.

D. Having to meet higher performance standards.

An electrical heart dysfunction occurs from: A. Physical trauma. B. Squeezing forces. C. Death of cardiac muscle tissue. D. Heart attacks or heart failure.

D. Heart attacks or heart failure.

Which type of Hepatitis is acquired primarily through contaminated food or water? A. Hepatitis B. B. Hepatitis A or B. C. Hepatitis B or C. D. Hepatitis A.

D. Hepatitis A

What is the aim of compensation? A. Metabolism. B. Hypoperfusion. C. Decompensation. D. Homeostasis.

D. Homeostasis

One of the byproducts of metabolism without oxygen is: A. Uric acid. B. Urea. C. Creatinine. D. Lactic Acid.

D. Lactic Acid.

What structure in the musculoskeletal system is designed to connect a bone to another bone? A. Tendon. B. Cartilage. C. Acromion. D. Ligament.

D. Ligament.

What is an EMT's primary ethical consideration? A. Making the company bottom line a priority. B. Making partner relations a priority. C. Making efficiency a priority. D. Making patient care and the patient's well-being a priority.

D. Making patient care and the patient's well-being a priority.

Which of the following is responsible for converting glucose and other nutrients into energy within a cell? A. Nucleus. B. Lysosomes. C. Endoplasmic reticulum. D. Mitochondria.

D. Mitochondria.

Your patient is suspected of tuberculosis. Your PPE should include: A. Simple face mask. B. Nonrebreather mask. C. Non-HEPA surgical mask. D. N-95 respirator mask.

D. N-95 respirator mask.

An EMT fails to properly care for a patient despite having a duty to act. The EMT is most likely guilty of: A. Psychological abuse. B. Child endangerment. C. Domestic abuse. D. Negligence.

D. Negligence.

While providing patient care at a secured crime scene, you should: A. Pick up any evidence that you find and give it directly to a police officer. B. Use the telephone to call in a report to medical control. C. Cover the deceased patient with a sheet and move the body to the ambulance. D. Not cut through holes in the clothing that might have been caused by bullets or stabbing.

D. Not cut through holes in clothing that might have been caused by bullets or stabbing.

You have just arrived at the station to start your shift, and you notice that your partner is asleep in a chair. You proceed to check out your ambulance. Your partner comes in drinking a cup of coffee, and you notice that she has a strong alcohol smell on her breath. Your duty as an EMT is to. A. Tell your partner to go get some rest before you get a call. B. Tell dispatch that you will be out of service for maintenance. C. See whether someone from the night shift can hold over until your partner can sober up. D. Notify dispatch that you are out of service and have your supervisor come to meet you.

D. Notify dispatch that you are our of service and have your supervisor come to meet you.

You are transporting a victim from a motor vehicle collision, and the patients's condition is deteriorating rapidly. From your experience, you do not think this patient will survive transport. You notice on the patient's driver's license that the patient is an organ donor. You can help to facilitate the patient's wishes by: A. Transporting the patient to facility other than the trauma center to which you are going. B. Withholding CPR until the patient's donor status is confirmed. C. Trying to contact a family member of the patient to discuss the patient's wishes so that you can alert the hospital when you arrive. D. Notify medical direction of the patient's organ donor status.

D. Notify medical direction of the patient's organ donor status.

Where can you obtain an immunization against tuberculosis? A. A public health center that provides TSTs. B. A stand-alone urgent clinic. C. Any local emergency department. D. Nowhere in the United State.

D. Nowhere in the United States.

Which of the following is part of the cranium? A. Ischium. B. Patella. C. Tibia. D. Occipital Bones.

D. Occipital Bones.

Which of the following conditions must be managed during the primary assessment? A. A fractured extremity. B. Capillary bleeding. C. Internal injuries to the abdomen. D. Open chest wounds.

D. Open chest wounds. Open injury to the thorax can result in collapse of the lung when the intrapleural pressure is lost. Immediately cover the open wound with an occlusive dressing. Internal injuries require immediate transport. Capillary bleeding and fractures would be managed after the primary assessment.

Which of the following methods of determining blood pressure is determined by feeling the changes in a​ patient's pulse? A. Auscultation B. Temperature C. Blood pressure monitor D. Palpation

D. Palpation

An unstable patient is: A. Patient who is responsive to commands. B. Patient sitting up and breathing slowly. C. Patient with slightly depressed vital signs. D. Patient who appears to be catatonic.

D. Patient who appears to be catatonic. Catatonic patient would be unresponsive and therefore have a threatened airway.

Study of the function of the living body and its parts, or how the body works, is called: A. Anatomy. B. Sociology. C. Psychology. D. Physiology.

D. Physiology.

You are responding to a call for a multiple-vehicle collision at a busy intersection. You should have: A. Full turnout gear. B. A hard hat. C. A level A suit. D. Reflective clothing or vest.

D. Reflective clothing or vest.

A 42 year old patient who is mentally competent has refused care but appears to be experiencing respiratory difficulty. He demands you get into your ambulance and go. You should: A. Plead with the patient to sign a release form. B. Restrain the patient to provide emergency care. C. Immediately leave the scene. D. Remain on the scene and try to persuade the patient to consent to care.

D. Remain on the scene and try to persuade the patient to consent to care.

Which of the following is a suggested way to help reduce your job-related stress? A. Consider taking a job as an EMS supervisor. B. Ask for a different partner. C. Request to work at a busier station. D. Request to wrk at a station that has a lighter call volume.

D. Request to work at a station that has a lighter call volume.

An EMT who has adapted to a stimulus so that it no longer produces stress is in what stage of the general adaptation syndrome? A. Exhaustion. B. Recovery. C. Alarm. D. Resistance.

D. Resistance.

Which of the following caused concern worldwide when it emerged and cause almost 800 deaths? A. TB. B. CHF. C. AIDS. D. SARS.

D. SARS

A patient expresses offense that you practice so many precautionary measures, including washing your hands and wearing protective gear. He asks why you treat patients as unclean, Your BEST response should be that: A. You will forgo certain precautionary measures such as wearing masks if the patient finds that to be disturbing. B. Some of the precautions might not be strictly necessary in all cases but it is better to be safe than sorry. C. Your training and safety protocols are very specific as to what precautionary measures you should perform andyou must follow them. D. Serious communicable illnesses are spread by contact with bloodborne and airborne pathogens, so precautions are necessary.

D. Serious communicable illnesses are spread by contact with bloodborne and airborne pathogens, so precautions are necessary.

When talking to a patient or family members, what does the EMT need to remember to do? A. Try to convince the family that there is no reason to go to the ED. B. Use abbreviations whenever appropriate. C. Explain everything once so that transport is not delayed. D. Speak in lay terms about the patient's condition.

D. Speak in lay terms about the patient's condition.

Which of the following is often part of an employment physical? A. HIV testing. B. Chest x-ray. C. Hepatitis C test. D. TB test.

D. TB test.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which fluid could be lost from the body? A. Diaphoresis. B. Major burns. C. Rapid breathing. D. Tachycardia.

D. Tachycardia.

When a patient under the influence of a narcotic overdoses and begins to breathe inadequately, why is the tidal volume unaffected even if the respiratory rate slows? A. Tidal volume is the amount of air that gets into and out of the lungs in one minute. B. About 150 mL of normal tidal volume occupies the space between the mouth and the alveoli. C. The lungs change their internal pressures to pull air in or push air out. D. The volume of air moved in a single breathing cycle has not changed.

D. The volume of air moved in a single breathing cycle has not changed.

Even if the Good Samaritan laws in a particular state cover the actions of EMTs as rescuers, they can still be held liable and are NOT protected by these laws if: A. Their actions cause embarrassment for the patient. B. Their actions demonstrate poor clinical reasoning. C. The patient dies from the injuries. D. Their actions demonstrate gross negligence.

D. Their actions demonstrate gross negligence.

What is the overall purpose of a CISD (Critical Incident Stress Debriefing) event? A. To gather data on the variety of human responses to critical incidents. B. To identify how to improve the emergency response system. C. To provide a method of tracking critical incidents. D. To provide a means to relieve the stress experienced by those who were involved in the incident.

D. To provide a means to relieve the stress experienced by those who were involved in the incident.

What concept is developed from an orderly, predictable environment versus a disorderly, irregular environment and is characteristic of the infancy stage? A. Bonding. B. Temperament. C. Scaffolding. D. Trust versus mistrust.

D. Trust versus mistrust.

Without measurement of vital​ signs, you may not​ be: A. able to protect a​ patient's airway. B. able to recognize the mechanism of injury. C. able to respond to life threats. D. aware of important patient conditions.

D. aware of important patient conditions.

A pulse rate below 60 beats per minute is​ called: A. synchronous rate. B. sinus rhythm. C. tachycardia. D. bradycardia.

D. bradycardia.

Which of the following will provide a cardiac arrest patient the greatest chance of​ survival?

Defibrillation within two minutes

Which of the following is NOT one of the roles of the Federal Communications​ Commission? A. Assigning radio frequencies B. Overseeing radio communications C. Licensing users D. Developing standardized 10 codes

Developing standardized 10 codes

What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the​ heart?

Dysrhythmia

What of the following is the single MOST important factor in determining survival from cardiac​ arrest?

Early CPR

Which intervention is proven to be the most effective is obtaining a return of spontaneous circulation​ (ROSC) in a cardiac arrest​ patient?

Early defibrillation

Which of the following BEST describes the​ EMT's intended role in the ideal provision of emergency cardiac​ care?

Early defibrillation

Which of the following would NOT be considered an element of​ post-cardiac arrest​ care?

Early defibrillation

In the cardiac conductive​ system, what cause the heart to contract are specialized muscles​ and:

Electrical Impulses

Which of the following is the federal agency that assigns and licenses radio​ frequencies? A. NHTSA B. FCC C. FAA D. DOT

FCC (federal communications commission)

Jurisdiction over all EMS radio operations in the United States is held by​ the: A. Department of Health and Human Services. B. Federal Communications Commission. C. Department of Transportation. D. Federal Emergency Management Agency.

Federal Communications Commission.

Which of the following is an expected side effect of​ aspirin?

Heartburn

Which of the following descriptors is MOST common in a patient who is experiencing chest pain due to a problem with the​ heart?

Heavy

You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this​ patient?

His pain will not be alleviated by any of the medications administered by EMTs.

What is not part of the cardiovascular​ system?

Hormones

Which of the following statements about receiving orders over the radio is​ TRUE? A. If an order appears to be​ inappropriate, repeat the order to the physician and ask pertinent questions about the order. B. If an order appears to be​ inappropriate, call another hospital to confirm. C. If an order appears to be​ inappropriate, write down every word so that you may defend yourself later if necessary. D. If an order appears to be​ inappropriate, contact your dispatcher to report.

If an order appears to be​ inappropriate, repeat the order to the physician and ask pertinent questions about the order.

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a continuous quality improvement program for​ AED?

Improving patient outcomes in the community

Which of the following statements about infarction is​ CORRECT?

Infarction is commonly the result of a totally occluded coronary blood vessel.

Which of the following BEST explains why all patient care reports done in the United States are supposed to have the minimum data set​ included? A. It allows the tracking of information to ensure the elderly population is managed correctly. B. It is required for Medicaid and Medicare to provide reimbursement. C. It shortens the overall length of the PCR. D. It allows better research and standardization of EMS care.

It allows better research and standardization of EMS care.

Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is​ TRUE?

It can be brought on by exertion or stress.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac​ emergencies?

It relaxes blood vessels throughout the body.

A drug's form refers to which of the following?

Its physical state, such as powder, liquid, or gas

Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of congestive heart failure​ (CHF)?

Low blood pressure

You are treating an elderly man who tells you that his name is Robert Walters. What is the MOST appropriate way to refer to​ him? A. Rob B. Mister C. Robert D. Mr. Walters

Mr. Walters

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of​ oxygen?

Myocardial infarction

Which drug may an EMT assist in administering only if the patient has a prescription for the drug from a physician?

Nitroglycerin

Which of the following people is allowed to continue providing patient care when the patient is to be​ "cleared" for delivery of a shock via the​ defibrillator?

None of the above

Which of the following BEST describes the continued need for prehospital advanced cardiac life​ support, even when EMTs in the community carry​ AEDs?

Not all cardiac arrests are due to problems that respond to defibrillation.

Which of the following is typical of angina​ pectoris?

Often subsides with rest

You arrive​ on-scene of a​ 56-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. What is the first airway you should​ administer?

Oropharyngeal airway

After placing a patient experiencing chest pain in a comfortable​ position, it is most important for you to assess the need for administering which of the​ following?

Oxygen

You are on scene with a​ 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. Bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. Vital signs are blood pressure​ 68/42, pulse​ 36, and respiratory rate 3. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. After performing the primary assessment and treating all life​ threats, what is your next​ intervention?

Package the patient for rapid transport.

Which of the following BEST describes a fluttering sensation in the​ chest?

Palpitations

Your patient is a 59-year-old woman with a history of emphysema. Per protocol, you have assisted the patient in using her medication inhaler. Which of the following must be documented?

Patient's response to the medication

Which of the following terms refers to swelling of the lower extremities seen in many cardiac​ patients?

Pedal edema

When making a radio​ report, which details are​ relevant? A. Diagnostic criteria B. Any level of detail C. Pertinent facts D. Only the ETA

Pertinent facts

One of the EMTs at the station has been cited by the medical director for his​ sloppy, incomplete, and sometimes inaccurate patient care documentation. What is the MOST important reason documentation must be clear and​ accurate? A. The service cannot bill for sloppy report forms. B. Patient care documentation may be used later as legal evidence. C. Poor communication can lead to misunderstanding and medical errors. D. Failure to document properly will make it easier for the EMS system to be successfully sued.

Poor communication can lead to misunderstanding and medical errors.

Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the​ lungs?

Pulmonary edema

Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following​ situations?

Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following statements is true concerning oxygen?

Pure oxygen is used to treat both medical and trauma patients.

Which of the following is NOT one of the links in the chain of​ survival?

Rehabilitation

Which of the following BEST describes the five rights?

Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route

If a patient seems reluctant to​ speak, what would your NEXT step​ be? A. Assume that pathology is not the cause. B. Treat the patient as uncooperative. C. Decide whether the patient is hiding something. D. Rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties.

Rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties.

Hypoperfusion refers​ to:

Shock

Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker​ medication?

Slows the heart rate

You are transporting a​ 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are five minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of​ action?

Tell the driver to​ stop, analyze the cardiac​ rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

Which of the following statements about the AED is​ correct?

The AED can encounter difficulty in analyzing a rhythm in a moving vehicle.

When using an​ AED, which of the following people is responsible for calling to​ "clear" the patient before delivering a​ shock?

The EMT operating the defibrillator

Which of the following organizations assigns and licenses radio frequencies used by EMS? A The National Highway Transportation Safety Administration` B The Department of Transportation C The Federal Communications Commission D The Department of Homeland Security

The Federal Communications Commission

A​ 65-year-old male complains of chest pain that started about 45 minutes ago and is radiating up to his jaw. He feels nauseous and has very little energy. His vitals are respirations of​ 24, pulse of​ 110, and BP of​ 88/60. What would make you decide to transport this​ patient?

The low blood pressure reading

You are on the scene of a​ 68-year-old male patient complaining of severe chest pain for the last 20 minutes. He has a previous history of myocardial infarction and states that it feels​ "just like the last​ time." You have applied oxygen and assisted him in administering aspirin and nitroglycerin with no reduction in the chest pain. Your nearest facility is five minutes​ away, a Level III Trauma Center is 10 minutes​ away, and a hospital with cardiac catheterization capabilities is 20 minutes away. The patient is requesting to be transported to his​ cardiologist's hospital, which is 30 minutes away. Which hospital is the best​ destination?

The nearest hospital with cardiac catheterization

Which of the following BEST describes the pain associated with acute coronary​ syndrome?

The pain may be chest​ pressure, mild​ discomfort, or not present at all.

After administration of nitroglycerin to a patient with chest​ pain, which is a side effect you MOST might expect to​ see?

The patient develops a headache.

Which of the following situations could contraindicate the administration of​ aspirin?

The patient has a history of GI bleeding.

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be​ prohibited?

The patient has a history of asthma.

Which of the following is a contraindication for use of the​ AED?

The patient is in contact with metal.

Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is​ "no shock​ advised"?

The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

Why would an EMT give aspirin to a patient?

The patient is suffering chest pain.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is​ TRUE?

The patient may complain of a headache following administration.

What condition must be present before you give oral glucose?

The patient must be conscious and able to swallow with an altered mental status and history of diabetes.

When you are attempting to make contact with another ambulance unit using the​ radio, it is necessary to declare the name of which entity​ FIRST? A. Your unit number B. The unit you are calling C. The base station D. The repeater location

The unit you are calling

After telling the hospital the age and sex of your​ patient, what is the NEXT thing you need to​ report? A. The​ patient's vital signs B. The​ patient's chief complaint C. The estimated time of arrival​ (ETA) D. The​ patient's name

The​ patient's chief complaint

What is the MOST common reason for the​ AED's delivering a shock​ inappropriately?

Use error

A paramedic unit has arrived on the scene of a cardiac arrest where you have been performing CPR and using an AED. The crew has started an IV and inserted an endotracheal tube. How will this change how you do your​ job?

Ventilations may be delivered asynchronously from chest compressions now.

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias cannot produce a​ pulse?

Ventricular fibrillation

Automatic defibrillation is NOT appropriate in most cases of infant cardiac arrest due to which of the​ following?

Ventricular fibrillation is not the primary cause of cardiac arrest in the pediatric patient.

In which of the following dysrhythmias would it be most important to apply and engage an automatic external​ defibrillator?

Ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following statements regarding patient refusal is MOST​ accurate? A. You must note that a secondary assessment was not possible given the​ patient's refusal. B. You must note simply that you left the scene at the​ patient's request. C. You must provide convincing evidence that the patient was mentally incompetent to justify leaving the scene. D. You must document all actions you took to persuade the patient to go to the hospital.

You must document all actions you took to persuade the patient to go to the hospital.

Medication administration should follow:

a thorough patient assessment.

The patient​ hand-off is: A. the arrival at the emergency department. B. a​ drop-off form for patient transfers. C. verified delivery of the​ patient's personal effects. D. a verbal transfer of care report.

a verbal transfer of care report.

A 25-year-old male complains of a migraine headache. The scene is safe, and you choose to begin your assessment. Which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to begin with? a) "What can you tell me about your headache?" b) "Is the pain sharp?" c) "Are you having pain?" d) "Do you have any allergies?"

a) "What can you tell me about your headache?"

Which of the following is likely to be inscribes on a medical alert bracelet? a) Allergies b) Date of birth c) Hospital preference d) Emergency contact

a) Allergies

A 16-year-old female is complaining of abdominal pain. Because her parents are in the room, how might you handle asking her whether she is possibly pregnant? a) Ask her while en route, when her parents cannot hear. b) Whisper the question in the patient's ear so that her parents cannot hear. c) Ask her mother whether the patient is sexually active. d) Ask her in front of her parents.

a) Ask her while en route, when her parents cannot hear.

Which of the following communication techniques will better improve the quality and safety of a lifting technique using multiple EMTs? a) Communicate throughout the lifting process. b) Remain silent during the procedure so as not to scare the patient. c) Use verbal commands that the EMTs would know but the patient would not. d) Do not discuss the planned lifting technique with the patient so that the patient will be unaware if a mistake is made.

a) Communicate throughout the lifting process.

Which of the following terms describes a condition of being stretched, inflated, or larger than normal? a) Distention b) Priapism c) Paradoxical motion d) Crepitation

a) Distention

In which of the following emergencies would you expect to see neck and face edema? a) Immune system b) Neurological c) Cardiovascular d) Respiratory

a) Immune system

At a crime scene, which of the following is the first priority of the EMT? a) Patient care and transport b) Working with police c) Critiquing the scene d) Evidence preservation

a) Patient care and transport

Which of the following is represented by the P in OPQRST? a) Provocation b) Priority c) Past medical history d) Primary assessment

a) Provocation

If the weight to be lifted is below your waist level, what is the proper position? a) Push or pull from a kneeling position. b) Push or pull from a bent-over position. c) Push or pull from a standing position. d) Push or pull from a squatting position.

a) Push or pull from a kneeling position.

What are body mechanics? a) The proper use of your body to prevent injury and facilitate lifting and moving b) The ability to use mechanical lift devices to help you carry heavier loads c) The process by which you package the patient and carry him or her to the ambulance d) Research into how to minimize back pain while maximizing the weight that you can lift and carry in an emergency

a) The proper use of your body to prevent injury and facilitate lifting and moving

Which of the following BEST describes the difference between the detailed physical examination and the rapid trauma assessment? a) The rapid trauma assessment looks only for threats to life and limb, while the detailed physical examination takes more time and is more in depth. b) The detailed physical examination takes place on scene, while the rapid trauma assessment should be done en route. c) The detailed physical assessment uses diagnostic equipment, while the rapid trauma assessment is done using only the EMT's senses. d) The rapid trauma assessment focuses only on the neck and chest, while the detailed physical examination covers the entire body.

a) The rapid trauma assessment looks only for threats to life and limb, while the detailed physical examination takes more time and is more in depth.

Why does an EMT need to understand medical terminology? a) To read a patient's chart and understand a medical history b) To use complex terms and emphasize the EMT's level or training c) To communicate at a physician's level of care d) To be able to appear educated to a patient and gain the patient's trust

a) To read a patient's chart and understand a medical history

During the rapid trauma assessment of the victim of a boating accident, you note that part of the patient's chest wall is moving in the direction opposite that of the rest of the chest. What is the cause of this movement? a) Two or more ribs are broken at two or more places, causing a floating segment of ribs. b) Cardiac tamponade restricts the movement of the chest. c) The patient's collarbone is broken, causing the chest to move paradoxically. d) The patient is having severe difficulty breathing, causing retractions.

a) Two or more ribs are broken at two or more places, causing a floating segment of ribs.

You suspect that a pediatric patient is being abused. You decide not to report this to the appropriate authorities because the parent is very upset and remorseful. This is: a) a violation of professional ethics and possibly a crime. b) a reasonable judgement call. c) a violation of policy but not an ethical violation. d) an ethical violation but definitely not a crime.

a) a violation of professional ethics and possibly a crime.

An 81-year-old female is complaining of chest pain. After asking her to describe the current problem and history of the present illness, you should NEXT: a) ask the patient whether she has any past medical history. b) ask the patient whether she has any allergies. c) ask the patient whether she has taken anything by mouth. d) perform a rapid trauma assessment.

a) ask the patient whether she has any past medical history.

"Dys" refers to: a) difficulty. b) in excess. c) before. d) between.

a) difficulty.

When rescuers are working together as a team to lift a patient: a) ensure that everyone understands the plan before lifting. b) all rescuers should hold their breath during the lift process. c) no rescuers should bend the knees more than 90 degrees. d) all rescuers should lift and twist at the same time.

a) ensure that everyone understands the plan before lifting.

You are on the scene of a cardiac arrest. You have begun resuscitation as family members arrive and present you with a valid DNR order. You should: a) follow your local protocols and contact medical direction if unsure how to proceed. b) complete two more rounds of CPR and hen check for a pulse. If there is no pulse, you should stop resuscitation. c) have your partner contact the communications center to send law enforcement to the scene, as this is now a legal issue and the officer will make the decision. d) notify the family that once CPR has been initiated, you are required to transport the patient.

a) follow your local protocols and contact medical direction if unsure how to proceed.

The MOST effective protection against a lawsuit is to: a) provide the best emergency care that you can. b) have the patient sign a general release. c) purchase malpractice insurance. d) subscribe to a prepaid legal service.

a) provide the best emergency care that you can.

Steps in using the squat lift include: a) raising your upper body before your hips. b) squatting down about halfway, then bending at your hips until you can grasp the cot. c) raising your hips just slightly ahead of your upper body. d) placing your weaker leg slightly to the back.

a) raising your upper body before your hips.

While en route to the hospital, your 67-year-old male chest pain patient breaks out in a sweat and becomes very pale. He clutches his chest. You should next: a) reassess. b) administer oxygen. c) administer the patient's nitroglycerin. d) call for ALS.

a) reassess.

The word part "cardio" is considered a medical: a) root. b) suffix. c) definition. d) prefix.

a) root.

If you are administering a medication based on a standing order, then you must:

administer the drug in adherence to established protocol.

Which of the following should be used instead of​ "yes" over the​ radio? A. Negative B. Affirmative C. Copy D. Roger that

affirmative

Which EMS systems should be collecting the minimum data set on all emergency​ runs? A. Third service public EMS systems B. ​Fire-based EMS systems C. All EMS systems D. Private EMS systems

all ems systems

As you arrive for a patient in cardiac​ arrest, bystanders are analyzing the patient with an AED. You​ should:

allow the AED to shock before you take over care.

When assessing the​ patient's symptoms, you​ should:

allow the patient to describe symptoms in his own words.

You document that a patient was administered​ oxygen, which you know did not happen. The failure to administer oxygen​ is: A. an error of commission. B. a pertinent negative. C. a falsification. D. an error of omission.

an error of omission

The word for a weakened area of an artery that balloons out and may​ rupture, causing catastrophic​ bleeding, is:

aneurysm.

Your patient has a weakened section of the arterial wall that is ballooning. This is known as​ a(n):

aneurysm.

To maintain order on the​ airwaves, the​ FCC: A. assigns and licenses radio frequencies. B. allows EMS personnel to use any convenient radio frequency. C. prohibits commercial uses of radio frequencies. D. decrees the use of a​ single, universal radio frequency.

assigns and licenses radio frequencies.

Administer oxygen to your chest pain patient to maintain an oxygen saturation level​ of:

at least 94 percent.

When lifting a stretcher or backboard, it is best to use how many people? a) 3 b) 4 c) 7 d) 5

b) 4

When should you obtain a set of baseline vital signs on an unresponsive pediatric medical patient? a) After assessing the past medical history b) After the rapid physical examination c) Immediately on arrival at the scene d) During transport

b) After the rapid physical examination

You are called to a college party, where you find an unresponsive 19-year-old female. There is much evidence of alcohol consumption at the party. Which of the following behaviors are you demonstrating if you rapidly conclude that the patient is intoxicated? a) Overconfidence b) Anchoring c) Critical thinking d) Search satisfying

b) Anchoring

Your patient is a 22-year-old female who was involved in a low-speed car crash. Her only complaint is some tenderness in her neck. What is the MOST appropriate way to care for her? a) Use the rapid extrication technique b) Apply a short backboard (vest or KED) while she is seated in the car c) Ask her to sit on the long backboard on your stretcher, and strap her in d) Use a long backboard to remove her from the vehicle

b) Apply a short backboard (vest or KED) while she is seated in the car

Which of the following best described the process of tailoring history to the chief complaint? a) Asking questions to rule in other possible diagnoses b) Asking questions that are pertinent to the patient's most immediate problem c) Using open-ended questions to identify the past medical history d) Using mnemonics such as SAMPLE

b) Asking questions that are pertinent to the patient's most immediate problem

Which of the following is the technique of physical examination that requires the use of a stethoscope? a) Inspection b) Auscultation c) Percussion d) Palpation

b) Auscultation

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? a) Mouthwash b) Blood spatter c) Time of day d) Mail coupons

b) Blood spatter

How should quality improvement be practiced? a) By providing care that wouldn't be expected of an EMT with similar training b) By maintaining the standards you would wish to have provided for your family c) By doing what you should do, but never talking about how you should do it d) By making patient care and well-being a priority without personal sacrifice

b) By maintaining the standards you would wish to have provided for your family

Which of the following diagnostic shortcuts means looking for evidence that supports the diagnosis one already has in mind? a) Availability b) Confirmation bias c) Illusory correlation d) Anchoring

b) Confirmation bias

Besides checking for wounds, tenderness, and deformities, what should the EMT look for during the rapid trauma assessment of the abdomen? a) Abdominal wall motion b) Firmness or softness c) Bowel sounds d) Crepitation

b) Firmness or softness

A 13-year-old girl is awake but groggy and belligerent. You are told that your patient's boyfriend just broke up with her, so she got into her parents' liquor cabinet and drank a large quantity of alcohol. Who is likely your best source of information about the patient's condition? a) Her family doctor, who is at his office b) Her friend who called for help c) Her ex-boyfriend, who is at another home in the neighborhood with his new girlfriend d) Her parents, who are both at work

b) Her friend who called for help

Which of the following terms refers to diagnostic shortcuts? a) Confirmation bias b) Heuristics c) Representativeness d) Availability

b) Heuristics

Besides performing a thorough patient assessment, what skill will the EMT use on MOST patient encounters? a) Checking the blood sugar level b) Lifting the patient or equipment c) Talking to the receiving hospital physician d) Applying the automated external defibrillator

b) Lifting the patient or equipment

Which of the following is used to help establish an EMT's standard of care? a) Investigative journalism b) Local protocols c) EMT preference d) Trade journals

b) Local protocols

A 19-year-old male is found seated, grasping his left humerus, after colliding with another player during a rugby match. Which of the following techniques of assessment would be used to identify his body position and general condition as you approach? a) Palpation b) Observation c) Percussion d) Auscultation

b) Observation

Which of the following is an indication for an emergency move? a) The patient is yelling for you to "hurry up." b) You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care. c) You need to practice your lifting technique. d) Dispatch needs you to clear rapidly, as EMS calls are backing up.

b) You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care.

While doing the secondary assessment, you are focusing on lung sounds, JVD, and ankle edema. Your patient most likely has: a) an endocrine complaint. b) a cardiovascular complaint. c) a gastrointestinal complaint. d) a neurologic complaint.

b) a cardiovascular complaint.

The person who is legally designated to make health care decisions for the patient if the patient is unable to do so is called: a) a patient advocate. b) a health care proxy. c) the executor of the estate. d) attorney of record.

b) a health care proxy.

Leaving a patient after initiating care and before the patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training is known as: a) negligence. b) abandonment. c) in loco parentis. d) res ipsa loquitur.

b) abandonment.

EMS is on the scene of the cardiac arrest of a terminally ill cancer patients. The family states that the patient has a valid DNR but they are unable to locate it. The family is upset and adamant that the patient does not want resuscitation. The EMS crew should: a) provide the family with a blank DNR and have them fill it out. b) begin resuscitation and consider establishing online medical direction. c) without resuscitation. It is clear the patient is terminally ill, and the family is on scene instructing to withhold care. d) verify that the family on scene is related to the patient by asking for identification. If a family member is immediate family, that person can make health care decisions for the patient.

b) begin resuscitation and consider establishing online medical direction.

You are treating a patient who has chest pain and difficulty breathing. The secondary assessment should first evaluate the: a) neurological system. b) cardiovascular system. c) gastrointestinal system. d) endocrine system.

b) cardiovascular system.

You are on the scene with a patient who is complaining of chest pain, and you have administered medication. Your partner brings in the stretcher, and the patient tells you that she does not want to be transported to the ED. You should: a) leave after telling the patient that it's not appropriate to abuse the EMS system. b) contact medical direction for a consult. c) explain to the patient that she cannot refuse, since you have already begun treatment. d) tell the patient that she can refuse transport, but because you gave her a medication, she has to see a doctor within 24 hours.

b) contact medical direction for a consult.

You are at the scene of a patient with obvious signs of traumatic death. Your duty as an EMT is to notify: a) medical direction. b) law enforcement. c) your EMS chief. d) the district attorney's office.

b) law enforcement.

Applying the principles of right and wrong to your role as EMT is known as: a) beneficence. b) professional ethics. c) personal beliefs. d) Good Samaritan laws.

b) professional ethics.

You are at the dinner table with your crew and mention to everyone that a coworker on the opposite shift is moving up the administration chain quickly, probably because she's sleeping with the company CEO. This comment could be considered: a) libel. b) slander. c) a HIPAA violation. d) res ipsa loquitur.

b) slander.

"Gastro" refers to: a) the kidneys. b) the stomach. c) the heart. d) the lungs.

b) the stomach.

In lifting a patient-carrying device, such as a stair chair, the minimum number of rescuers used should be: a) one. b) two. c) three. d) four.

b) two.

Which of the following resides at a fixed​ site, such as a dispatch​ center? A. Base station B. Mobile radio C. Portable radio D. Cell phone

base station

Which of the following communication systems is characterized by two-way radios that are at a fixed site such as a hospital or dispatch center? A Mobile radios B Portable radios C Repeaters D Base stations

base stations

When communicating with medical​ direction, you​ must: A. match your emotion to the severity of the​ patient's condition. B. speak as quickly as possible. C. give as much detail as possible. D. be clear and concise.

be clear and concise

Which of the following terms BEST describes a grating sound or feeling of bones rubbing together? a) Priapism b) Paradoxical motion c) Crepitation d) Distention

c) Crepitation

Which of the following is the most comfortable method when the EMT moves the patient from the ambulance stretcher to the hospital stretcher? a) Extremity carry b) Direct carry c) Draw sheet d) Log roll

c) Draw sheet

Which of the following would MOST likely be considered evidence at a crime scene? a) Movies on DVD b) A paper towel roll c) Footprints d) A child's toy

c) Footprints

Which of the following is an advantage of a vacuum mattress? a) The device is nonconforming b) It does not require a pump. c) It naturally pads voids for greater comfort. d) The cervical collar can be removed.

c) It naturally pads voids for greater comfort.

A 16-year-old male is found unresponsive in an alley. There are cans of spray paint and plastic bags nearby. Which of the following should be done FIRST? a) Ask bystanders whether they know the patient. b) Preserve any potential evidence/ c) Manage any immediate life threats. d) Request ALS personnel.

c) Manage any immediate life threats.

As you enter a hectic possible crime scene, you find that a coffee table is blocking your access to the patient. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage this situation? a) Wait until one of the police officers can move the table for you. b) Use the table as a place to set your equipment as you are working on the patient. c) Move the table as little as possible, wearing gloves; notify police on the scene; and document your actions precisely in your patient care report. d) Move the table and get on with your work of caring for the patient.

c) Move the table as little as possible, wearing gloves; notify police on the scene; and document your actions precisely in your patient care report.

What is the type of patient-carrying device that transports a patient in a sitting position? a) Wheeled stretcher b) Scoop stretcher c) Stair chair d) Long backboard

c) Stair chair

How many rescuers are recommended in moving a patient with a stair chair? a) Two b) One c) Three d) Five

c) Three

Which of the following must be avoided in lifting? a) Moving the patient quickly b) Use of the large muscles of your legs c) Twisting d) Use of the abdominal muscles

c) Twisting

Which of the following should you consider when deciding whether ALS personnel should be requested? a) Do you have the patient's consent to request ALS help? b) Are you certain that this is a life-threatening emergency? c) Would ALS-level care benefit the patient? d) Can the patient afford the additional expense?

c) Would ALS-level care benefit the patient?

An advantage of knowing basic medical terminology is that: a) medical terminology shortens discussions with the ED so that the EMT can get back to service faster. b) using medical terminology helps to distinguish the medical profession from all others. c) a medical term can be used to encompass many symptoms to describe a particular patient. d) medical terms bypass the need for an EMT to understand pathophysiology.

c) a medical term can be used to encompass many symptoms to describe a particular patient.

When an EMT takes the time to ask permission from a conscious adult to do an assessment and procedures, this is respecting the legal principle of: a) proximate cause. b) abandonment. c) expressed consent. d) implied consent.

c) expressed consent.

When pushing or pulling, you should: a) keep your back in a bent position for flexibility. b) push or pull overhead whenever possible. c) keep the line of pull through the center of your body. d) reach and twist at the same time.

c) keep the line of pull through the center of your body.

The medical term that is used to refer to the sole of the foot is: a) distal. b) inferior. c) plantar. d) solar.

c) plantar.

Good Samaritan laws were enacted to: a) keep patients from suing ambulance companies for the actions of their employees. b) protect EMS services from lawsuits. c) protect individuals who try to help people in emergencies. d) protect patients from poor health care delivered by health professionals.

c) protect individuals who try to help people in emergencies.

Good Samaritan laws are based on: a) having no formal training. b) being a volunteer EMT. c) providing care in good faith. d) the patient having no serious injuries.

c) providing care in good faith.

Another term for the lateral recumbent position is: a) prone. b) Trendelenburg. c) recovery. d) supine.

c) recovery.

When a patient is lying on his or her back, this is referred to as: a) semi-Fowler's. b) recumbent. c) supine. d) Fowler's.

c) supine.

The scope of practice is governed by: a) the state EMS medical director. b) the National Association of EMTs. c) the state in which the EMT is providing care. d) the National Registry of EMTs.

c) the state in which the EMT is providing care.

You are caring for a patient who was stabbed. During your assessment, you find a small knife impaled in one of the stab wounds. You should: a) have a police office remove the knife before you transport. b) ask the police officer whether it is acceptable for you to leave the knife in place for transport. c) treat the wound as usual, but notify police that you must transport the weapon with the patient. d) remove the knife and place it in an evidence bag.

c) treat the wound as usual, but notify police that you must transport the weapon with the patient.

Which of the following would generally lead to poor communication with a patient in the prehospital​ environment? A. Being aware of how your body language may send messages to the patient. B. Using the​ patient's name throughout the contact. C. Speaking​ clearly, slowly, and​ distinctly, using language the patient understands. D. Choosing the most soothing answer to any question

choosing the most soothing answer to any question

An indication for aspirin is​ a:

complaint of chest pain.

All of the following are elements of adult​ high-performance CPR,​ EXCEPT:

compressing the​ patient's chest about one inch in depth before allowing full relaxation.

An​ 80-year-old male is presenting with pedal​ edema, JVD, and dyspnea. You should​ suspect:

congestive heart failure.

You are treating your cardiac arrest patient when a​ "No Shock​ Indicated" message appears. You should​ NEXT:

continue CPR for two minutes.

Conditions that narrow or block the arteries of the heart are​ called:

coronary artery disease.

An example of a suffix that would be added to a medical root word to portray a reduction in the size would be: a) "-ritic." b) "-retic." c) "-ac." d) "-ole."

d) "-ole."

Which of the following questions is appropriate to ask in assessing for pertinent past history in a SAMPLE history? a) "What medications do you take?" b) "How have you felt today?" c)" When is the last time you ate or drank anything?" d) "Do you have any other medical problems?"

d) "Do you have any other medical problems?"

Which of the following techniques will NOT contribute to the safe and efficient movement of a patient from an upstairs bedroom to the ambulance? a) Sizing up the scene accurately b) Being aware of the physical abilities and limitations of each team member c) Using the most appropriate equipment for the job d) Calling for assistance only if you find that you and your partner cannot lift the patient

d) Calling for assistance only if you find that you and your partner cannot lift the patient

Which of the choices is a CORRECT statement when transferring a patient from his or her bed to the stair chair? a) Do not use the straps that restrain the legs while carrying the patient. b) Do not cover the stair chair cushions with a sheet or towel. c) Do not use the device if the patient is not critical. d) Do not use the device for unresponsive patients.

d) Do not use the device for unresponsive patients.

What device is made of canvas or some other rubberized or flexible material, often with wooden slats sewn into pockets, and has three carrying handles on each side? a) Scoop stretcher b) Power stretcher c) Basket stretcher d) Flexible stretcher

d) Flexible stretcher

Why does the EMT's scope of practice vary from state to state? a) EMT preference b) Company insurance c) National standards d) Local legislation

d) Local legislation

Which of the following is done at the same time whether or not a trauma patient has a significant mechanism of injury? a) Secondary assessment b) Rapid trauma assessment c) Baseline vital signs d) Primary assessment

d) Primary assessment

A 22-year-old female was found severely hyperventilating and was visibly upset. Her initial vital signs were P 130, R 40, BP 190/100. Which coaching and compassionate care, she has calmed down. Her repeat vitals are P 100, R 28, BP 160/88. Which of the following would best describe this trend in vital signs? a) Deteriorating b) Unchanged c) Unable to determine d) Returning to normal

d) Returning to normal

What action should be taken immediately after determining the chief complaint and eliciting information about how the patient was injured for a trauma patient with no significant mechanism of injury? a) Reassessment b) Rapid trauma assessment c) Obtaining a past medical history d) Secondary assessment

d) Secondary assessment

Which of the following could be a source of information to let the EMT know that a patient is an organ donor? a) A piece of notepaper stating that fact b) The statement of a bystander who is the patient's neighbor c) The on-line physician d) The patient's driver's license

d) The patient's driver's license

Why should you check baseline vital signs in the unresponsive medical patient? a) Because it is local protocol b) So that the patient's family will see that you are doing everything you can c) To avoid future lawsuits d) To provide a place from which to compare later vital signs

d) To provide a place from which to compare later vital signs

Which of the following is MOST clearly a HIPAA violation? a) You provide a copy of the patient care report to a Paramedic who is assuming care of your patient at the scene. b) You provide certain health information on the billing copy of the patient care report. c) Your agency receives a subpoena authorizing the release of a copy of a patient care report to a plaintiff's attorney. d) You provide a personal injury attorney with a copy of a patient care report.

d) You provide a personal injury attorney with a copy of a patient care report.

An EMT who turns the care of a multisystem trauma patient over to a doctor of dermatology has likely: a) legally and appropriately transferred care. b) provided implied consent. c) violated patient confidentiality laws. d) abandoned the patient.

d) abandoned the patient.

You have returned to the stations after completing a call in which you transported an elderly female patient to the hospital for nausea and vomiting. Upon exiting the ambulance, you are approached by an adult male who indicated that the patient you just transported was his mother and he wants to known the details of the run. You should: a) ask to see his driver's license to verify last names and, if they match, give him the information. b) allow him to read the patient care report, as that is public information. c) give the patient the information he is requesting, as he is the patient's son. d) advise him that you can take his information and pass it along to the privacy officer at your department, who will contact him with instructions for accessing the information he requests.

d) advise him that you can take his information and pass it along to the privacy officer at your department, who will contact him with instructions for accessing the information he requests.

When lifting, keep the weight: a) at least 6 inches from your body. b) at arm's length from your body. c) not more than 8 inches from your body. d) as close to your body as possible.

d) as close to your body as possible.

A patient who called 911 is now refusing transport. You should: a) make sure that there is an immediate family member on scene who can sign as a witness to the refusal. b) direct the patient to contact his or her primary care physician for instructions on whether or not to go to the hospital. c) make sure there is a law enforcement officer to act as a witness on the scene of every patient refusal. d) assess the patient, advise the patient of the risks of refusal, and clearly document everything in the patient care report.

d) assess the patient, advice the patient of the risks of refusal, and clearly document everything int he patient care report.

When a patient is unable to make a rational decision about consenting to emergency care, the EMT may care for the patient on the basis of: a) informed consent. b) minor consent. c) expressed consent. d) implied consent.

d) implied consent.

You are transporting a patient from a doctor's office and see that the patient has not been well cared for. On your documentation, you write that the doctor seemed to be "a quack." This comment could be viewed as: a) slanderous. b) a confidentiality issue. c) a professional opinion. d) libelous.

d) libelous.

The medical term that is used to refer to the palm of the hand is: a) plantar. b) superior. c) distal. d) palmar.

d) palmar.

Typically, the burden of proof of negligence rests with the: a) respondent. b) defendant. c) prosecutor. d) plaintiff.

d) plaintiff.

If you describe a patient's pulse as bradycardic, this means that the pulse is: a) weak. b) irregular. c) fast. d) slow.

d) slow.

You should use common terminology instead of medical terms or acronyms when communicating with: a) physicians. b) fellow EMTs. c) nurses. d) the patient.

d) the patient.

The actions that an EMT is legally allowed to perform while caring for an injured or ill patient are known as: a) the standard of practice. b) the standard of care. c) medical direction. d) the scope of practice.

d) the scope of practice.

Emergency moves may be necessary if: a) the patient is really screaming. b) There is a matting later in the afternoon that you do not want to miss. c) additional calls are holding. d) there is a threat of fire or possible explosion.

d) there is a threat of fire or possible explosion.

Techniques for moving a patient experiencing an immediate life threat are called: a) the power grip. b) the Heimlich maneuver. c) physical restraint. d) urgent moves.

d) urgent moves.

ALS personnel have just placed an advanced airway in an adult cardiac arrest patient. You​ should:

deliver asynchronous ventilations at 8 to 10 breaths per minute.

The relation of a patient's weight to the amount of medication required for that patient is typically:

direct; the smaller the patient, the less medication is required to achieve the desired effect.

Using the U.S. Pharmacoepia, you would look up the drug epinephrine under the name:

eEpinephrine.

For both the Lucas and​ Auto-Pulse CPR​ devices, you would take Standard Precautions​ and:

ensure CPR is in progress and effective.

When speaking to a child​ patient, try​ to: A. avoid crouching down. B. get down to the​ child's level. C. avoid eye contact until the child knows you better. D. speak from a position of authority above the patient.

get down to the​ child's level.

Your patient care report​ is: A. primarily of interest to the receiving emergency department. B. important long after the call. C. kept on file for liability reasons only. D. of use only in assessing the call itself.

important long after the call

If a patient experiencing cardiac compromise does not complain of​ dyspnea, then it​ is:

important to ask the patient about breathing difficulty.

Which of the following is information that is not generally included in the verbal report at the receiving​ hospital? A. Additional treatment given in route B. Patient name C. Most recent vital signs D. Insurance information

insurance information

In the emergency prehospital care communications​ system, a mobile​ transmitter/receiver: A. serves as a dispatch and coordination area. B. is a device that receives transmissions and rebroadcasts them at a higher power. C. is a​ vehicle-based radio that comes in a variety of power ranges. D. is a portable radio that is useful when you are working at a distance from your vehicle.

is a​ vehicle-based radio that comes in a variety of power ranges.

When using a mechanical CPR​ device, you​ should:

limit interruptions in chest compression to 10 seconds or less

You suspect that your patient is experiencing acute coronary syndrome. Your hospital destination should be determined​ by:

local protocols.

Which of the following types of radios is typically used in a​ vehicle? A. Portable B. Repeater C. Mobile D. Base

mobile

Someone hands you a prefilled syringe and atomizer. It is MOST likely that the drug inside is:

naloxone.

A patient with a ventricular assist device​ will:

not have a palpable pulse or blood pressure.

Two types of errors might be committed on a​ call: A. omission and commission. B. medical and trauma. C. on the scene and during transport. D. mental and physical.

omission and commission

When you press the button on the radio to​ talk, you should wait at LEAST how many seconds before speaking to avoid cutting off the first words of your​ transmission? A. Five seconds B. Three seconds C. Seven seconds D. One second

one second

The epinephrine auto-injector is given via the ________ route.

parenteral

You have a long message to relay to your dispatch center, and your transmission will likely take more than 45 seconds to deliver. You should: A speak rapidly to decrease the time of transmission. B use frequent codes to decrease the length of the message. C pause frequently to allow for other emergency traffic. D deliver it slowly but concisely as one long message.

pause frequently to allow for other emergency traffic.

You document on your run report that the patient denies having chest pain. This statement would be considered a: A sign. B pertinent negative. C pertinent positive. D chief complaint.

pertinent negative

Which type of radio may be carried on the​ EMT's belt? A. Mobile B. Repeater C. Portable D. Base

portable

In the mnemonic​ OPQRST, the​ "P" stands​ for:

provocation.

A study into the effects of disease on blood composition would focus​ on:

red and white blood​ cells, platelets, and plasma.

When communicating with an elderly​ patient: A. remember that many elderly people are​ well-oriented and physically able. B. always speak loudly and​ slowly, as elderly people arehearing impaired. C. use names such as​ "Dear" and​ "Honey" to make them feel better. D. remember that elderly people are all at some stage of​ Alzheimer's disease.

remember that many elderly people are​ well-oriented and physically able

You have just received a medication order from your medical director over the radio. You should​ immediately: A. notify the patient. B. administer the drug. C. repeat the order. D. direct the physician to repeat the order.

repeat the order

After completing your radio report to the hospital, medical control has ordered the administration of 324 mg of aspirin. After hearing this order you should next: A immediately administer the medication. B repeat the order back for confirmation. C document the order in writing. D confirm with your partner that you heard the order correctly.

repeat the order back for confirmation.

Which of the following is the term for a device that picks up signals from​ lower-power radio units and retransmits them at a higher​ power? A. Mobile radio B. Cell phone C. Repeater D. Base station

repeater

Your EMS system covers a large area. For reliable transmission between mobile and portable​ radios, which of the following is​ essential? A. Digital radios B. Cell phones C. Microwave radios D. Repeaters

repeaters

You have just used an AED to deliver a shock to your cardiac arrest patient. You should​ immediately:

resume chest compressions.

In some​ cultures, prolonged eye contact is​ considered: A. passive. B. compassionate. C. rude. D. caring.

rude

A 6-year-old female has fallen, and you wish to ask her a few questions regarding her chief complaint. To maximize the effectiveness of your communication, you should: A first tell her everything will be fine. B communicate only with the child's mother. C position yourself above the child. D sit on the floor next to the child.

sit on the floor next to the child.

A​ 54-year-old male is found pulseless and apneic on the sofa. The scene is safe. You should​ first:

start CPR and retrieve an AED.

The Lucas CPR device​ involves:

stopping CPR just long enough to put a base plate under the patient.

Nitroglycerin is given via the ________ route.

sublingual

Which of the following systems would be utilized when an EMT transmits data, such as an ECG, electronically? A Telemetry B Mobile radios C A repeater system D Portable radios

telemetry

When reporting your​ patient's condition to the medical control​ physician, you should use​ terminology: A. that is abbreviated by using standardized medical abbreviations. B. that the patient is familiar with. C. with only standard​ "10-10" codes. D. that is accepted by both the medical and emergency services communities.

that is accepted by both the medical and emergency services communities.

The key difference between angina and a myocardial infarction is​ that:

the pain of angina usually goes away with rest.

In the event that a patient refuses care or​ transport, you will have to make notes​ on: A. the​ patient's competency. B. the​ patient's probable motivations for refusal. C. whether the patient has committed a crime. D. the​ patient's physical appearance.

the​ patient's competency.

You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m. for chest pains. He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away. He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic. His vital signs are stable, and he takes medications forhypertension, high cholesterol, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is allergic to morphine. After placing the patient on oxygen, you follow your local protocols:

to administer aspirin to the patient.

​Auto-Pulse is​ designed:

to be started manually

Once you arrive at the hospital with your​ patient, it is important to give the ED staff an oral report. This report should​ include: A. personal information about the patient that is not pertinent to medical care. B. only new information. It is not necessary to repeat your broadcasted report. C. treatment that was given to the patient in route and the​ patient's response to that treatment. D. the​ patient's billing and insurance information.

treatment that was given to the patient in route and the​ patient's response to that treatment.

When speaking during a radio​ transmission, you​ should: A. give a nonstop commentary on everything you do during transport. B. use pronouns such as​ "we" instead of​ "I." C. use slang you know the dispatcher will understand. D. say​ "yes" and​ "no," not​ "affirmative" and​ "negative."

use pronouns such as "we" instead of "I"

When interviewing a​ patient, which of the following is​ recommended? A. Direct the patient to keep statements brief. B. Start important statements with​ "Now listen." C. Assign the patient a friendly nickname. D. Use the​ patient's proper name.

use the patients proper name

You are assessing a 22-year-old female who only speaks Spanish. You do not speak that language. To best discuss the medical issues that are occurring today, you should: A utilize your agency's professional interpretation service. B ask the patient's mother to interpret. C use hand signals and simple gestures. D defer patient assessment until you arrive at the hospital.

utilize your agency's professional interpretation service.

What are all the types of communication an EMT is likely to employ on a typical​ call? A. ​Verbal, nonverbal, written B. Verbal and written C. Nonverbal and written D. Verbal and nonverbal

verbal, nonverbal and written

You arrive at the scene to find a​ 55-year-old female who first stated that she hurts all over but now refuses to talk. Her friend volunteers that the​ patient's husband recently passed away and the patient is becoming increasingly despondent. You would use this information​ to: A. watch the​ patient's body language for clues. B. establish depression as the​ patient's chief complaint. C. authoritatively direct the patient to answer your questions. D. avoid speaking to the patient.

watch the​ patient's body language for clues

Which of the following is the term for the unit of measurement of the output power of a​ radio? A. Volt B. Ampere C. Joule D. Watt

watt

Contraindications for the administration of nitroglycerin include a​ patient:

who took Viagra in the last 48 hours.

A shock advisory​ defibrillator:

will alert the operator to press a button to deliver shocks.

The verbal report​ is: A. a part of the​ patient's permanent hospital record. B. a guide for continuing education and quality improvement. C. your chance to convey important information about your patient directly to hospital staff. D. a valuable source for research on trends in emergency care.

your chance to convey important information about your patient directly to hospital staff.

You are speaking to a patient and notice that the patient has folded her arms and is clasping her elbows with her hands. She is not looking at you directly. This indicates to you that MOST​ likely: A. your communication efforts may not be working. B. you need to tell this patient to sit down. C. the patient has understood your message. D. the patient is accepting you as a medical authority.

your communication efforts may not be working.

Medical control has asked you to give the patient three nitroglycerin tablets. Which of the following responses to medical control is​ BEST? A. ​"Nitroglycerin sublingual, repeat in five minutes up to​ three, correct?" B. ​"10dash-4. Will​ do." C. ​"Copy that. Three​ nitros." D. ​"The physician has ordered three nitroglycerine tablets. Roger​ that."

​"Nitroglycerin sublingual, repeat in five minutes up to​ three, correct?"

When the EMT calls to receive an order from medical direction to assist the patient with his bronchodilator​ treatment, it is important​ to: A. tell the physician what the​ EMT's diagnosis is. B. be sure to say​ "please" and​ "thank you" for the order. C. ​"echo" or immediately repeat the order back for verification. D. use as many codes as possible because people may be listening.

​"echo" or immediately repeat the order back for verification.

Which of the following is typically included in the patient information section of a prehospital care​ report? A. Description of​ patient's physical appearance and clothing B. ​Patient's primary and secondary contacts C. ​Patient's name,​ address, and phone number D. ​Patient's physician's name

​Patient's name,​ address, and phone number

Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless​ VT?

​Shock, two minutes of​ CPR, analyze, shock again

Mechanical CPR devices are used by EMS agencies in order to provide​ ________.

​high-quality compressions