Electrolytes and Fluid Balance Review Questions FROM TEXTBOOKS

Your patient has hypernatremia. Which of the following orders would you question?

1000 ml sodium chloride IV to infuse at 125 ml/hr

A client is to receive 125 mL of intravenous (IV) fluid every hour. The drop factor of the IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?

21. Flow rate = Ordered rate (ml/min) x Drop factor 2.08ml/min x 10gtt/mil

What is the normal serum potassium level?

3.5-5.5 mEq/L

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized patient with hyperparathyroid disease and a serum calcium level of 14.2 mg/dL. What is the priority intervention of the nurse? a. Instruct the patient to always call for assistance before getting out of bed. b. Assist the patient to change into dry clothing after episodes of diaphoresis. c. Teach stress-relieving techniques, including progressive muscle relaxation. d. Measure urine output hourly and notify physician if urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.

A (The patient with hypercalcemia should always call for assistance before getting out of bed because of the risk of falling as a result of muscle weakness, soft bones, and lethargy. Diaphoresis and decreased urine output are not common symptoms of hypercalcemia. Teaching stress-relieving techniques is not a priority, especially since lethargy and stupor are symptoms of hypercalcemia. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1000)

The nurse will be caring for a patient who is severely malnourished. Laboratory test results show that the patient's albumin level is critically low. What assessment finding will the nurse expect to note when meeting with the patient? a. The patient has generalized 3+ pitting edema. b. The patient is confused and disoriented. c. The patient's urine is dark and very concentrated. d. The patient lung sounds are very diminished.

A (The patient's low albumin level will lead to generalized pitting edema because there isn't enough protein in the blood to keep water within the bloodstream. Lack of oncotic pressure from low serum albumin leads to edema. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 996 | p. 1007)

Which of the following findings would indicate effectiveness of fluid replacement for a patient admitted with dehydration? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood urea nitrogen - 18 mg/dL b. Pulse - 82 c. Blood pressure - 140/90 d. Urine specific gravity - 1.033 e. 24-hour fluid balance - +200

A, B, E (Blood urea nitrogen will be elevated with dehydration and return to normal levels with hydration. Normal pulse rate and positive fluid balance also indicate adequate fluid levels. An increased urine specific gravity is an indication of dehydration while an increased blood pressure can indicate fluid volume excess.)

When thirst exists, these events will occur:

ADH secreted Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone activated water and sodium retained urine output decreases

When sodium is retained, the plasma osmolarity increases. What will happen as a result?

ADH will be secreted by the pituitary gland.

To aid in control of potassium, which hormone is essential?

Aldosterone

The nurse is caring for a client whose serum potassium level is 2.0 mEq/L (mmol/L). Which assessment is most important? Measuring blood pressure Assessing lung sounds Reviewing electrocardiogram Auscultating bowel sounds

Assessing lung sounds

Which degree of edema will result in a 6-mm deep indentation upon pressure application? A. 4+ B. 3+ C. 2+ D. 1+

B. 3+ The depth of pitting determines the degree of pitting edema. An indentation of 6 mm is scored to be a 3+ degree edema. An indentation of 8 mm is scored as 4+. An indentation of 4 mm is scored as 2+. An indentation of 2 mm is scored as 1+.

A nurse is caring for an elderly client with dementia who has developed dehydration as a result of vomiting and diarrhea. Which assessment best reflects the fluid balance of this client?

Blood lab results. Blood lab results provide objective data about fluid and electrolyte status, as well as about hemoglobin and hematocrit. Skin turgor is not a reliable indicator of hydration status for the elderly client because it is generally decreased with age. Intake and output results provide data only about fluid balance, but do not present a comprehensive picture of the client's fluid and electrolyte status; therefore this is not the best answer. The client's report about fluid intake is subjective data in general and not reliable because this client has dementia and therefore has memory problems.

A client is receiving hydrochlorothiazide. What should the nurse monitor to best determine the effectiveness of the client's hydrochlorothiazide therapy?

Blood pressure. Diuretics promote urinary excretion, which reduces the volume of fluid in the intravascular compartment, thus lowering blood pressure. Edema reflects multiple physiologic processes including venous competence, gravity, and disuse. The serum sodium level remains stable unless the dosage is excessive; an altered sodium level is not a therapeutic response. Although specific gravity decreases with increased urinary output, this does not reflect the desired reduction in intravascular pressure.

For what other manifestation of hypocalcemia would you want to observe in the patient who is post-op thyroidectomy?

Bradycardia, dysrhythmias.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a thiazide diuretic for hypertension. Which food selection by the client indicates to the nurse that dietary teaching about thiazide diuretics is successful?

Broccoli. Thiazide diuretics are potassium-depleting agents; broccoli is high in potassium. Apples, cherries, and cauliflower are low sources of potassium.

Which of the following IV solutions is considered hypertonic? a. Lactated Ringers b. D5W c. D5 0.45% NS d. 0.9% normal saline

C (D5 0.45% NS is considered hypertonic because the osmolarity is greater than 290 mOsm/L. The other fluids are considered isotonic.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has B-positive blood. The patient is severely anemic and requires a blood transfusion. Which types of blood can the patient receive? (Select all that apply.) a. AB positive b. AB negative c. B negative d. B positive e. O positive f. O negative

C, D, E, F (The patient with B-positive blood may receive B-negative and B-positive blood as well as O-negative and O-positive blood. The patient does not have A-type antigens in his blood, so he cannot safely receive AB-positive or AB-negative blood. DIF: Applying REF: p. 995)

Which hormone is released in response to low serum levels of calcium? A. Renin B. Erythropoietin C. Parathyroid hormone D. Atrial natriuretic peptide

C. Parathyroid hormone If serum calcium levels decline, the parathyroid gland releases parathyroid hormone to maintain calcium homeostasis. Renin is a hormone released in response to decreased renal perfusion; this hormone is responsible for regulating blood pressure. Erythropoietin is released by the kidneys in response to poor blood flow to the kidneys; it stimulates the production of red blood cells. Atrial natriuretic peptide is produced by the right atrium of the heart in response to increased blood volume. This hormone then acts on the kidneys to promote sodium excretion, which decreases the blood volume.

A nurse in the mental health unit is working with a group of adolescent girls with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What does the nurse recall is the major health complication associated with intractable anorexia nervosa?

Cardiac dysrhythmias resulting in cardiac arrest. These clients have severely depleted levels of potassium and sodium because of the starvation diet and energy expenditure; these electrolytes are necessary for adequate cardiac function. Although endocrine imbalance resulting in amenorrhea, slowed metabolism resulting in cold intolerance, and glucose intolerance resulting in protracted hypoglycemia may occur, they are not the major health problem.

What is the result of hyperosmolar state?

Cells swell.

Which one of the following influences the movement of potassium?

Change in PH

A patient has lost vascular volume. Would the patient's skin be hot and dry, or cold and clammy?

Cold and Clammy

The nurse is caring for an older adult client with dehydration. Which assessment will the nurse perform to determine whether the client is safe for independent ambulation? Assessing the tongue for dryness of mucous membranes Comparing orthostatic blood pressure measurements Ensuring the most recent serum potassium level Comparing the radial pulse with the apical pulse

Comparing orthostatic blood pressure measurements

A patient has reported a 2-kg (4.4-lb) weight gain over the past 3 days. Which factor should the nurse question? a. Protein intake b. Potassium intake c. Calorie intake d. Sodium intake

D (A weight gain of 2 kg in 3 days suggests fluid retention. Increased sodium intake leads to increased fluid retention. Although it is important to ask the patient about intake of all nutrients, the other options cannot cause this much weight gain in 3 days.)

A patient has a tumor that secretes excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH). He is confused and lethargic. His partner wants to know how a change in blood sodium can cause these symptoms. What should the nurse teach the patient's partner?

Decreased sodium in the blood causes brain cells to swell so that they do not work as effectively. The normal action of ADH is renal reabsorption of water, which dilutes the blood. Excessive ADH causes hyponatremia, which is manifested by a decreased level of consciousness because the osmotic shift of water into the brain cells impairs their function. Hyponatremia does not decrease the blood volume. Answers that include increased sodium in the blood are incorrect because ADH excess causes hyponatremia rather than hypernatremia.

What is the nurse's first action when a client's hand goes into flexion contractures during blood pressure measurement with an external cuff? Placing the client in the high-Fowler position and increasing the IV flow rate Deflating the blood pressure cuff and giving the client oxygen Documenting the finding as the only action Initiating the Rapid Response Team

Deflating the blood pressure cuff and giving the client oxygen

What clinical finding does a nurse expect when assessing a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and moderate dehydration?

Depressed anterior fontanel. A depressed anterior fontanel is a classic sign of moderate dehydration in infants that results from a decrease in cerebrospinal fluid.

Which one of the following situation can result in an hyperosmolar state (increased sodium).

Difficulty swallowing or tube feedings.

A client with the diagnosis of ulcerative colitis has surgery for the creation of an ileostomy. Postoperatively, for which potential life-threatening complication should the nurse assess the client?

Electrolyte imbalances. An ileostomy directs liquid feces out of the body, bypassing the large intestine where fluid and electrolytes normally are reabsorbed. The continuous excretion of liquid feces may deplete the body of fluid and electrolytes, resulting in a life-threatening fluid deficit and electrolyte imbalance.

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected fluid overload. Which action will the nurse take first? Assess blood pressure. Measure intake and output. Elevate the head of the bed. Check for dependent edema.

Elevate the head of the bed.

A client with a renal disorder is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which interventions should the nurse undertake prior to the procedure?

Ensure that the consent form is signed. Assess the client for iodine sensitivity. Administer an enema or cathartic to the client. The presence, position, shape, and size of kidneys, ureters, and bladder can be evaluated using an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). The contrast medium used in the procedure may cause hypersensitivity reactions. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client for sensitivity to iodine prior to the procedure. The nurse should use a cathartic or enema to empty the colon of feces and gas. An IVP does need a consent form since the procedure is invasive. The nurse has the client remove all metal objects before performing a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) procedure. The nurse instructs the client to lie still during a computed tomographic (CT) scan procedure; during an IVP the client may be asked to turn certain ways.

Which actions are considered best practices for the nurse to use during the administration of parenteral potassium to a client with a serum potassium level of 1.9 mEq/L (mmol/L) (Select all that apply.) Ensuring that the concentration is no greater than 1 mEq/10mL (mmol/10 mL) of solution Checking IV access for blood return after the infusion Pushing the drug as a bolus slowly over 5 minutes Initiating the IV in a hand vein for rapid access Keeping the client NPO during drug treatment Using an IV controller to deliver the drug

Ensuring that the concentration is no greater than 1 mEq/10mL (mmol/10 mL) of solution Using an IV controller to deliver the drug

Which assessment findings will the nurse consider as possible causes for a client to have a serum potassium level of 6.3 mEq/L (mmol/L)? (Select all that apply.) Vegan diet Past history of hepatitis A Excessive use of salt substitute Presence of chronic kidney disease Daily therapy with a potassium-sparing diuretics Management of hypertension with an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

Excessive use of salt substitute Presence of chronic kidney disease Daily therapy with a potassium-sparing diuretics

The home health nurse should assess a patient who has chronic diarrhea for which fluid and electrolyte imbalances? (Select all that apply.)

Extracellular fluid volume (ECV) deficit Hypokalemia Hypocalcemia

The home health nurse should assess a patient who has chronic diarrhea for which fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

Extracellular fluid volume (ECV) deficit. Hypokalemia. Hypocalcemia.

A client is admitted with 50% of the body surface area burned. The nurse caring for the client 48 hours after admission reviews the client's laboratory results: urine specific gravity, 1.015; urine output, 50 mL/hr; hematocrit, 42 (0.42 volume fraction); albumin, 3.6 g/dL (36 g/L); and pulmonary arterial wedge pressure, 10 mm Hg. Which conclusion will the nurse draw based upon the laboratory results?

Fluid therapy is successful. All the values provided are within expected limits for an adult, indicating successful fluid therapy. Urine output is greater than 30 ml/hr. The albumin is in the expected range for an adult. There is no evidence of kidney failure; all the values provided are within expected limits for an adult. The hematocrit is within the expected limits for an adult; with hemoconcentration the hematocrit is elevated.

Why would urine output change in this situation?

Glucose attracts water

The nurse is caring for an older adult who has received treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that treatment was successful? Client reports feeling hungry. Pulse pressure has decreased. Hematocrit is 58% (0.58 volume fraction). Hourly urine output is greater than 15 mL.

Hourly urine output is greater than 15 mL.

The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. What findings should the nurse expect?

Hypercalcemia, lethargy, and constipation.

What electrolyte imbalance is associated with hyperparathyroidism?

Hypercalcemia. Levels of Calcium > 10.5 mg/dL.

What electrolyte imbalance is associated with hypoparathyroidism?

Hypocalcemia. Levels of Calcium < 8.0 mg/dL.

Your patient with severe burns is now one day post-injury. Without treatment, what problem is the patient apt to develop?

Hypokalemia

Your patient has hyponatremia with dehydration. What would you expect to find on assessment?

Hypotension, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia

Potassium is the dominant ion in which fluid compartment?

ICF (intracellular)

Where is Calcium absorbed?

In the duodenum actively, jejunum passively.

A client with a history of Crohn disease develops an intestinal obstruction. A nasogastric tube is inserted and connected to low continuous suction. The nurse monitors the client for fluid volume deficit. What clinical finding does the nurse expect if the client becomes dehydrated?

Inelastic skin turgor. When there is a fluid volume deficit, fluid moves from the intracellular and interstitial compartments into the intravascular compartment in an attempt to maintain blood volume. Cellular dehydration is manifested by poor (inelastic) tissue turgor; tissue turgor is assessed by the rapidity with which skin returns to its original position after being pinched. Lethargy and fatigue, not restlessness, are expected with dehydration. With an intestinal obstruction, there is an absence of bowel movements; constipation is not a good indicator of dehydration in this situation. Hypotension, not hypertension, is associated with hypovolemia.

When administering albumin intravenously, what fluid shifts does the nurse anticipate?

Interstitial compartment to the intravascular compartment. Intravenous albumin increases colloid osmotic pressure, resulting in a pull of fluid from the interstitial compartments to the intravascular compartment. Intravascular compartment to the interstitial compartment and extracellular compartment to the intracellular compartment are opposite to the actual shift of fluids when albumin is administered.

If increased osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration, how will increased osmolarity affect ADH output?

It will cause the pituitary to release ADH.

The nurse is caring for a client who is on a low-carbohydrate diet. With this diet, there is decreased glucose available for energy and fat is metabolized for energy, resulting in an increased production of which substance in the urine?

Ketones. As a result of fat metabolism, ketone bodies are formed, and the kidneys attempt to decrease the excess by filtration and excretion. Excessive ketones in the blood can cause metabolic acidosis. A low-carbohydrate diet does not cause increased protein, glucose, or uric acid in the urine.

What fluids are used in fluid resuscitation for burn victim?

Lactated Ringer's; Hypertonic LR for burns over 25% total body surface area (TBSA)

A patient has newly diagnosed hyperparathyroidism. What should the nurse expect to find during an assessment at the beginning of the nursing shift?

Lethargy and constipation from hypercalcemia. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) shifts calcium from the bones into the extracellular fluid (ECF). Excessive PTH causes hypercalcemia, which is manifested by lethargy and constipation. A positive Trousseau's sign is characteristic of hypocalcemia rather than hypercalcemia. Answers that indicate hypocalcemia are not correct, because PTH moves calcium into the ECF.

Which questions should the nurse ask when assessing for risk factors for metabolic acidosis? (Select all that apply.)

Metabolic acidosis

The nurse is caring for a client with hypervolemia. Which assessment data indicates a potential decline in condition? Neck veins are distended in the sitting position. Breath sounds can be heard in the right lower lung lobe. Weight is unchanged from yesterday's daily weight. The client reports feeling hungry and somewhat thirsty.

Neck veins are distended in the sitting position.

What are normal urine levels? (Specific gravity, pH, protein)

Normal urine specific gravity: 1.000 - 1.030 Average urine pH: 6 Normal urine protein: 0 - 0.8 mg/dL

Your patient has heart failure and takes Lasix (a diuretic) and Digoxin (slows and strengthens heart contraction). The lab work comes back and reveals the serum potassium level to be 3.0 mEq/L. Which action would be appropriate?

Observe for symptoms of digitalis toxicity.

Which one of these patients is at risk for fluid volume excess?

One who has: Renal failure

A nurse is assessing a client with cardiogenic shock. Which clinical findings should the nurse expect?

Pallor, Agitation, Tachycardia, Narrow pulse pressure. Pale skin (pallor), agitation, tachycardia, and narrow pulse pressure are signs of cardiogenic shock. Decreased respirations are not expected with cardiogenic shock.

Which drug prescribed to a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) turns urine reddish-orange in color?

Phenazopyridone.

A nurse is caring for a client with severe burns. The nurse determines that this client is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which physiologic finding supports the nurse's conclusion?

Plasma proteins moving out of the intravascular compartment. The shift of plasma proteins into the burned area increases the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the interstitial compartment; the result is decreased blood volume and hypovolemic shock. Decreased glomerular filtration may occur because of hypovolemia; it does not cause hypovolemia. Extracellular fluid, not blood, is lost through burned tissue. Sodium is not retained; it passes to interstitial spaces and surrounding tissue.

An older client comes to the emergency department after three days of diarrhea and is admitted to the hospital for rehydration therapy. In addition to sodium, what electrolyte should the nurse be concerned about most when the client's laboratory results are documented?

Potassium. Potassium, sodium, and bicarbonate are the electrolytes most often lost with diarrhea. With diarrhea, these electrolytes are excreted via the gastrointestinal tract before they can be absorbed. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac dysrhythmias. Serum calcium levels are related to parathyroid function and calcium metabolism. Although the chloride level may be affected by diarrhea, it is not the greatest concern. Phosphate levels are regulated by calcium metabolism and parathormone.

The laboratory reports of a client reveal that the serum creatinine value is 7 mg/dL (618.8 mmol/L) and the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) value is 240 mg/dL (85.68 mmol/L). Which integumentary manifestations can be noticed in this client?

Pruritus, Ecchymosis, Uremic frost. Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels indicate chronic kidney disease, the integumentary manifestations of which include pruritus, ecchymosis, uremic frost, decreased skin turgor, yellow-gray pallor, dry skin, purpura, and soft-tissue calcifications. Clubbing is the integumentary manifestation of heart and lung diseases from chronic hypoxia. Cyanosis is the manifestation of decreased peripheral circulation and deoxygenated blood

Which condition or symptom indicates to the nurse that the client's treatment for hyperkalemia is effective? Pulse rate is 76 beats/min and regular. Respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. Chvostek sign is negative. Hematocrit is 42%.

Pulse rate is 76 beats/min and regular..

In collaboration with the registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN), which foods will the nurse teach a client who is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic to avoid or use cautiously? (Select all that apply.) Red meat Bread Citrus fruit Cereal Eggs Salt substitutes

Red meat Citrus fruit

A patient with severe burns loses fluid from the vascular area to the interstitial space. How does the body attempt to improve blood volume?

Renal blood flow decreases, renin-angiotension-aldosterone (RAA) increases, urine output decreases.

You are caring for a patient with hypernatremia. Which one of the following would occur if the hyperosmolar state continues?

Renal failure

A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining serious burns that involve a large surface of the skin. The nurse is caring for the client during the emergent phase after the injury. Which nursing objective is the priority during this phase?

Restoring fluid volume. In the first 48 hours after a severe burn, fluid moves into the tissues surrounding the injured area. Fluid also is lost in drainage and from evaporation; this fluid loss results in a decreased circulating blood volume, which can cause hypovolemic shock. Although pain relief is an important aspect in the care of clients with burns, the immediate priority is to replace fluid losses to prevent death. If fluid losses are not replaced immediately, the client may die before the development of an infection. Blood loss usually is minimal; the loss of fluid, colloids, and electrolytes is what causes the hypovolemia.

A nurse is assessing a client admitted to the hospital with a tentative diagnosis of a pituitary tumor. What signs of Cushing syndrome does the nurse identify?

Retention of sodium and water. Increased levels of steroids and aldosterone cause sodium and water retention in clients with Cushing syndrome. Hypertension, not hypotension, is expected because of sodium and water retention. The extremities will be thin; subcutaneous fat deposits occur in the upper trunk, especially the back between the scapulae. Hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, occurs because of increased secretion of glucocorticoids. Hyperglycemia is sustained and not restricted to the morning hours.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a kidney transplant. Which test is most important for the nurse to monitor to determine whether a client's newly transplanted kidney is working effectively?

Serum creatinine. Serum creatinine, a test of renal function, measures the kidneys' ability to excrete metabolic wastes; creatinine, a nitrogenous product of protein breakdown, is elevated in renal insufficiency. A renal scan will not provide information about the filtering ability of the transplanted kidney. Although intake and output will be monitored, this will not provide information about the ability of kidney to excrete metabolic wastes. The WBC count will not reflect functioning of a transplanted kidney.

You have a patient who received severe thermal burns yesterday. What will happen to the serum K+?

Serum levels will rise

A patient injured in an earthquake today when a wall fell on his legs and was hemorrhaging received 9 units of blood an hour ago. Which laboratory value is priority for the nurse to check?

Serum potassium- The patient has two major risk factors for hyperkalemia: massive sudden cell death from a crushing injury (potassium shift from cells into the extracellular fluid) and massive blood transfusion (rapid potassium intake).

A patient injured in an earthquake today when a wall fell on his legs received 9 units of blood an hour ago because he was hemorrhaging. Which laboratory value should the nurse check first when the report returns?

Serum potassium. The patient has two major risk factors for hyperkalemia: massive sudden cell death from a crushing injury (potassium shift from cells into the extracellular fluid) and massive blood transfusion (rapid potassium intake). Although massive blood transfusion may cause calcium and magnesium ions to bind to citrate in the blood, thereby decreasing the physiological availability of those ions, it does not decrease the total calcium or magnesium laboratory measurements. Clinically significant changes in serum sodium are the least likely in this patient.

Which client electrocardiography (ECG) change from baseline will alert the nurse to possible development of hypercalcemia? Shortened QT-interval Inverted T waves Prominent U wave Absent P wave

Shortened QT-interval

Which body areas are best for the nurse to use when assessing skin indications of hydration status for an older client? (Select all that apply.) Back of the hand Skin of the shins Skin of the forehead Tops of the forearms Skin over the sternum Skin over the abdomen

Skin of the forehead Skin over the sternum

A patient has been receiving 20mEq potassium chloride in IVs of D5/.45 Na. Cl at 125 ml/hour for several days. Vital signs have been normal until now when you found him to have a slow, irregular pulse. The first thing you would do is:

Slow IV Flow rate

The nurse is caring for a client with a 30% total body surface area burn. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client's fluid replacement is adequate?

Slowing of a previously rapid pulse rate. The pulse rate is one indicator of optimum vascular fluid volume; the pulse rate decreases as intravascular volume normalizes. Increasing hematocrit level indicates hemoconcentration resulting from hypovolemia. Urinary output of 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr indicates inadequate kidney perfusion; if adequate, output should be greater than 30 mL/hr. Central venous pressure decreasing from 5 to 1 mm Hg indicates hypovolemia.

A 2-month-old infant is admitted to the pediatric unit with gastroenteritis and dehydration. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Tachycardia is expected with dehydration because of a decrease in circulating fluid volume.

The 1-day urine sample results of a client reveal that the calcium level is 800 mg/24 hr. What does the finding indicate?

The client has hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism the levels of parathormone in the body are increased and there is decalcification of bones and excretion of high-levels of calcium in the urine. Therefore a urine calcium level of 800 mg/24 hr, which is double the normal range of 100 to 400 mg/24 hr (2.50-7.50 mmol/kg/24 hr), indicates hyperparathyroidism. In nephritis, nephrosis, and hypocalcemia, the urine calcium level is decreased and the level is less than 100 mg/24 hr (2.50 mmol/kg/24 hr).

The nurse is caring for a client with hypokalemia. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that the treatment is effective? The client reports having a bowel movement daily. A two lb weight gain during the past week is noted. Current ECG shows an inverted T wave. Fasting blood glucose level is 106 mg/dL

The client reports having a bowel movement daily.

Which statement is correct about how the kidneys operate for fluid-electrolyte balance?

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) changes in response to increased or decreased blood volume.

Hyperkalemia is a serious problem. Let's try a few questions and see how you do. Why does hyperkalemia occur in the patient in metabolic acidosis (excess H+, low pH)?

The kidneys are secreting excess H+ and retaining K+. Indicate the rationale for a patient in the first day of a severe thermal burn to have hyperkalemia. cell damage has released ICF potassium to the plasma

Which of these patients on your unit should be observed closely for indications of hypovolemia?

The patient who has: inability to ask for, or obtain fluids

Which one of the following patients on your unit should be observed closely for indications of excessive loss of potassium?

The patient who has: the flu with frequent, large amounts of emesis and diarrhea

Which of the following patients is at risk for hypochloremia (low serum chloride)?

The patient who has: severe vomiting and diarrhea

A nurse is reviewing a client's serum electrolyte laboratory report. What is a comparison between blood plasma and interstitial fluid?

They both contain the same kinds of ions. Blood plasma and interstitial fluid are both part of the extracellular fluid and are of the same ionic composition. The osmotic pressure is the same. The composition is the same. The main cation of both extracellular fluids is sodium.

What formula should be used to manage fluid restriction?

Urinary output for past 24 hrs + 600 ml.

Two clients with polydipsia and polyuria arrived at the hospital. Both were having similar symptoms but were diagnosed with different types of diabetes insipidus. Which assessment finding helped to differentiate the diagnosis?

Urine osmolarity. Polydipsia and polyuria are signs of diabetes insipidus. When a water deprivation test is performed, urine osmolarity is increased dramatically from 100 to 600 mOsm (mmol)/kg in clients with central diabetes insipidus. But in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, the urine osmolarity may not be greater than 300 mOsm (mmol)/kg. The urine output is 2 L to 20 L/day in all types of diabetes insipidus. The specific gravity is less than 1.005 in all types of diabetes insipidus and the serum osmolarity is also greater than 295 mOsm (mmol)/kg in all types of diabetes insipidus.

A nurse is conducting an assessment of a young infant who is dehydrated. Which clinical sign is the most important indication of the degree of dehydration?

Weight loss. Loss of fluid as a result of dehydration is most objectively assessed by weighing the infants daily because total body water accounts for approximately 75% of an infant's body weight. One liter of fluid weighs approximately 2.2 lb (1 kg). Dry skin may be indicative of conditions other than dehydration. A sunken fontanel is a clinical sign of dehydration, but is not an accurate measurement of dehydration. Decreased urine output cannot always be measured accurately in infants and children who are not toilet trained.

A patient has lost vascular volume. What would you expect to find on assessment that reflects physiological compensatory mechanisms? What would happen to urine output? What would happen to heart rate?

What would happen to urine output? DECREASE What would happen to heart rate? INCREASE

The nurse has begun an infusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP). Which symptom indicates an allergic reaction to the FFP? a. Respirations: 30/min b. Urine output: 50 mL/hr c. Heart rate: 62 beats/min d. Temperature: 39 C (102.2 F)

a (Dyspnea and tachypnea are signs of a severe allergic reaction. The urine output is an adequate hourly amount. The heart rate is normal. An increased temperature usually indicates an infection or a febrile nonhemolytic reaction, but assessment requires knowing the patient's baseline temperature.)

Since release of ADH stimulates reabsorption of water, the effect of ADH on the renal collecting tubules is to:

affect urine volume and concentration

Magnesium functions to:

assist in cell metabolism

The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. The assessment reveals tachycardia, lethargy, and hyperventilation. Treatment for the ketoacidosis has been initiated. What should the nurse do about the hyperventilation?

b. Lubricate the patient's lips and allow continued hyperventilation.

What is the function of phosphorus?

bone formation

A patient has elevated serum calcium. Which one of the following would you suspect as the cause?

bone tumors

The nurse is assessing the intravenous (IV) site in the right forearm and notices the area around it is cool, swollen, firm, and tender to touch. Which complication is most likely occurring? a. Infection b. Speed shock c. Infiltration d. Phlebitis

c (The area around an infiltration is cool, swollen, firm, and tender to touch. In cases of infection and phlebitis, the skin is warm to touch. Speed shock produces systemic symptoms, such as dizziness, headache, and irregular heart rate.)

The treatment of hypermagnesem

calcium gluconate

What drug will you want to be sure is available on the nursing unit for your post-op patient who has had a thyroidectomy?

calcium gluconate

Your patient's potassium report comes back as 2.8 mEq/L. What would you do?

call the physician

Upon assessment, where will you see the primary effects of magnesium deficit?

cardiac dysrhythmias and tetany of muscles

Of the following list of signs/symptoms, which one would you report as indicative of hyperphosphatemia?

cardiac irregularities (dysrhythmias)

With an increase or decrease in K+ levels you would be assessing for changes in:

cardiac rhythm

What is osmolality?

concentration of molecules per weight of water

Your patient has an elevated serum sodium level. Your assessment is likely to reveal:

confusion

If water follows glucose out of the kidney, total blood volume will then:

decrease

Which of the following assessment findings would you expect to see in hypermagnesemia?

decreased pulse and blood pressure

Which finding in assessment of a patient's data would be an indication of excess chloride (hyperchloremia)?

decreased serum bicarbonate

Your friend played tennis a long time in 100 degree weather. He was careful to drink plenty of water during the match. Later he became ill and went to the hospital where he was admitted in a hyperosmolar state. Your assessment is likely to reveal:

disorientation

Which one of the following in the history, physical, and review of data would lead to a diagnosis of hypomagnesemia?

excessive diarrhea and vomiting

What cardiac changes might be seen in hypokalemia?

flat or inverted T waves

Hypokalemia can be treated with oral or intravenous potassium, but what high potassium foods could you suggest to the patient taking diuretics?

fruit juices, tea, cola beverages

Your patient has been on a mechanical ventilator for some time. A nursing action would be to observe them for:

hypernatremia due to water loss, without sodium loss

What would you find on assessment of the person who has hyperkalemia?

hyperreflexia, muscle weakness

A patient with hypophosphatemia would exhibit:

incoordination

Why does your patient have severe edema as a result of the thermal burns?

increased capillary permeability allows protein molecules to go to the third space

Your patient's blood volume is low due to hemorrhage. What finding would you expect to see?

increased heart rate

Which of the following is a function of chloride?

influence osmotic pressure

What is the treatment for hypochloremia?

intravenous sodium chloride

The management of hypomagnesemia would include:

magnesium sulfate intravenously

What is the cause of hypophosphatemia (low serum phosphorus)?

malabsorption syndrome

An individual has a low serum calcium level. You would want to observe for:

muscle twitching

Which of the following is a function of potassium?

neuromuscular irritability; cell firing

Which of the following patients should be observed for signs of excess magnesium?

one who has chronic renal failure

The usual treatment for hypophophatemia is:

oral phosphate supplements

What would you find on assessment that would be consistent with low serum chloride?

pH > 7.45

Which manifestation of hypercalcemia can result in a psychiatric consult, and thus delay treatment of the problem?

personality change

A patient has been taking osmotic diuretics for some time. You would want to obtain an order for serum:

potassium

How does aldosterone contribute to fluid and electrolyte balance?

promotes sodium retention and potassium loss

Which of the following is a factor which influences serum calcium levels?

rathyroid hormone

What is the effect of ADH?

regulates water retention or elimination

Of the following patients on your unit, which one is at risk for hyperphosphatemia? The patient who has:

renal insufficiency

Which one of the following would be an expected sign / symptom of hyperchloremia?

stupor, coma

A patient has acute gastroenteritis with watery diarrhea. Which statement by this patient would indicate that the nurse's teaching has been effective?

"I need to drink liquids with some sodium in them." Sodium-containing fluids are removed from the body by acute diarrhea and must be replaced to prevent an extracellular fluid volume (ECV) deficit. Drinking tap water will not prevent ECV deficit from diarrhea, because tap water does not contain enough sodium to hold the water in the extracellular compartment. Taking calcium tablets is an incorrect answer because hypocalcemia is characteristic of chronic diarrhea rather than acute diarrhea. Restricting fruits is an incorrect answer because diarrhea increases the potassium output and the potassium intake should be increased to balance it.

The registered nurse discusses normal renal function with the client. Which statements made by the client are correct regarding regulatory functions of the kidney?

"They play a role in acid-base balance." "They play a role in fluid and electrolyte balance." Maintaining the acid-base balance of the body by selectively reabsorbing and secreting certain substances from the blood is a regulatory function of the kidneys. The kidneys also perform the regulatory function of electrolyte balance by regulating the reabsorption of certain electrolytes while eliminating others depending on their levels in the serum. The kidneys perform hormonal function by secreting a hormone called erythropoietin that aids in synthesis of red blood cells (erythropoiesis). Activation of vitamin D is a hormonal function of the kidneys. The kidneys perform hormonal function by secreting the hormone renin that assists in blood pressure control.

The physician has ordered 1000 mL of D5NS to infuse over 6 hours. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 10 gtts/min. Calculate the flow rate in cc/mL and gtts/min. Round to the nearest whole number for each calculation: ___________ mL/hr; ___________ gtts/min

167; 28 (1000mL/6 hours = 166.6 or 167 mL/hr 1000mL × 1 hour_____ × 10 gtts = 10,000 = 27.7 or 28 gtts/min 6 hours 60 minutes 1 mL 360)

At 0900, the nurse hangs an IV of 1000 mL D5LR to infuse at 125 mL/hr. What time will the nurse need to hang a new bag of IV fluid? Provide your answer in military time: _____ hours.

1700 (1000mL/125mL = 8 hours. If the IV was hung at 0900, it will be infused 8 hours later, which is 1700 or 5:00 PM.)

What is the maximum length of time a nurse should allow an intravenous bag of solution to infuse?

24 hours. After 24 hours there is increased risk for contamination of the solution and the bag should be changed. It is unnecessary to change the bag any less often, such as 6 hours, 12 hours, or 18 hours.

A 6-month-old infant weighing 15 lb (6.8 kg) is admitted with a diagnosis of dehydration. A prescription for oral rehydration therapy 4 mL/kg electrolyte replacement over 4 hours is made. What is the approximate amount of fluid that the infant should ingest during the 4 hours?

28 ml. At 15 lb (6.8 kg) the infant weighs about 7 kg; 4 mL × 7 kg is 28 mL. The other amounts (32 mL, 38 mL, 42 mL) are too much.

The intake and output of a client over an 8-hour period (from 0800 to 1600) is as follows: 150 mL urine voided at 0800; 220 mL urine voided at 1200; 235 mL urine voided at 1600; 200 mL gastric tube formula + 50 mL water administered initially and then repeated x 2; IV had 900 mL in the bag at 0800, and 550 mL remains in the bag at 1600. What is the difference between the client's intake and output?

495. Intake: Gastric tube: 250 x 3 = 750 mL; IV: 900 - 550 = 350 mL; Intake total: 1100 mL. Output: Urinary output: 150 + 220 + 235 = 605 mL. I & O difference: 1100 - 605 = 495 mL

An adolescent is hospitalized for dehydration. An intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride with 20 mEq/L of potassium chloride is prescribed. Hospital policy states that potassium should be mixed in a 500-mL bag of 0.9% sodium chloride. The potassium chloride label reads "2 mEq/mL." How many milliliters of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the 500-mL bag?

5 ml. Desired 10 mg/Have 2 mg.

What is a normal Calcium range?

8.5-10.5 mg/dL

The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted with a serum sodium level of 120 mEq/L. Which is the most important intervention for the nurse to perform? a. Perform regular neurologic checks and institute seizure precautions. b. Encourage the patient to eat foods that are high in sodium. c. Administer hypotonic IV solutions as ordered by the physician. d. Assess for signs and symptoms of digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity.

A (A serum sodium level of 124 mEq/L is dangerously low and may cause neurologic problems including seizures, confusion, and weakness. Regular neurologic checks should be performed and the patient should be placed on seizure precautions until the sodium level is corrected. Encouraging the patient to eat high-sodium foods is fine, but it is not as important as the patient's safety. A hypotonic saline solution will further lower the patient's sodium level. Lanoxin toxicity is seen with hypokalemia rather than hyponatremia. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 999)

The nurse is caring for a patient with a peripheral IV who tells the nurse that the IV site is painful and puffy. What is the nurse's best action? a. Discontinue the IV and start another line in the other arm. b. Aspirate to check for blood return and flush the IV with sterile saline. c. Clean the IV site with chlorhexidine and apply a new sterile dressing. d. Change the IV tubing and administer prescribed pain medication.

A (An IV site that is puffy and painful should be discontinued promptly because the fluid has infiltrated outside the vein and is causing localized irritation. The IV should be restarted in the other arm if possible. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 1020)

The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of hyperparathyroidism who presents with a serum calcium level of 14.5 mg/dL. What is the highest priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? a. Risk for injury related to weakened bones that may easily fracture b. Deficient knowledge related to need for supplemental calcium in diet c. Risk for constipation caused by decreased gastrointestinal motility d. Activity intolerance related to muscle cramping and spasms

A (Chronic hypercalcemia can lead to weakened bones as strengthening calcium is removed over time. Pathologic fractures can easily result, so risk for injury is a high priority nursing diagnosis for this patient. The other nursing diagnoses apply but are less important than the safety of the patient. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1002)

The nurse is caring for a patient whose ABG results reveal the following: pH 7.56, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3 42 mEq/L, PaO2 90 mm Hg. Which condition will the nurse expect to see in the patient's chart as the underlying cause of these results? a. Gastroenteritis with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Widespread tissue ischemia caused by cardiogenic shock c. Respiratory failure caused by pneumonia with pleural effusions d. Hyperventilation after a panic attack

A (Gastroenteritis with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea will lead to a metabolic alkalosis resulting from loss of electrolytes and acids through emesis and loose stools. Metabolic alkalosis features the elevated pH of 7.56, elevated HCO3 42 mEq/L and normal PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg. Widespread tissue ischemia would lead to metabolic acidosis with low pH resulting from release of lactic acid from the tissues. Respiratory failure leads to a respiratory acidosis with a low pH and elevated PaCO2 level. Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis with an elevated pH and elevated HCO3 level. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1008)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse includes the diagnosis fluid volume excess in the patient's care plan. Which goal statement has the highest priority for the patient and nurse? a. The patient's lung sounds will remain clear. b. The patient will have urine output of at least 30 mL/hr. c. The patient will verbalize understanding of fluid restrictions. d. The patient's pitting pedal edema will resolve within 72 hours.

A (Oxygenation is the highest priority for the patient with congestive heart failure and fluid volume excess. Keeping the patient's lungs clear is the most important goal for the nurse to consider when caring for this patient. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1009)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is to receive intermittent bolus doses of phenytoin (Dilantin) through the IV line. Which intervention has the highest priority when administering this medication? a. Check for blood return and compatibility prior to administration. b. Use a new IV tubing set each time the medication is administered. c. Document the date, time, and nurse's initials after each dose is administered. d. Use sterile gloves when drawing up and administering the medication.

A (Phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause significant irritation to blood vessels and tissues when administered via IV. For this reason, the nurse must ensure that the IV catheter is located correctly in the vein by checking for a blood return prior to administration. Dilantin may not be given with IV fluids that contain dextrose as precipitation and crystallization, so the nurse must also check compatibility with the patient's prescribed IV fluids. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1033)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is very dehydrated. Which goal best indicates that the nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume has been corrected and that the patient's fluid balance has been restored? a. The patient had 1300 mL of light yellow urine in the last 24 hours. b. The patient's lung sounds are clear bilaterally. c. The patient has no jugular venous distention. d. The patient verbalizes need for adequate daily fluid intake.

A (The goal that best indicates that the patient's dehydration has been corrected is output of 1300 mL of clear yellow urine in the last 24 hours. Dark concentrated urine is a symptom of dehydration. Jugular venous distention and presence of crackles in the lungs are both indicative of fluid volume overload. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1012)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted to the hospital with dehydration and gastroenteritis. The patient attempted to walk to the bathroom and fainted right after getting out of bed. Which is the most likely cause of the patient's collapse? a. Orthostatic hypotension b. Circulatory overload c. Hemolytic reaction d. Catheter embolism

A (The patient with dehydration is at risk for orthostatic hypotension, or falling of the blood pressure when the patient rises to a standing position. When the blood pressure falls sufficiently, fainting may occur. The patient should be assisted to rise slowly from a supine to a sitting position first before slowly getting to his feet. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 1005)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which assessment finding indicates an attempt made by the patient's body to correct the pH? a. The patient's respirations are very deep and rapid. b. The patient's urine is dark and concentrated. c. The patient's skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. d. The patient is sleepy and difficult to arouse.

A (The patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is in a state of metabolic acidosis. The body will attempt to compensate for the acidosis by blowing off extra amounts of carbon dioxide through deep, rapid respirations. Since carbon dioxide is converted to carbonic acid, removal of carbon dioxide will help shift the body's pH to a less acidotic state. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1004)

Which of the following would the nurse expect to be included in the plan of care for a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? a. Blood sugar levels are checked on a routine basis b. Maintaining NPO status c. Hourly urine output d. Vital signs every 4 hours

A (The usual composition of TPN begins with a high glucose solution (usually 25% glucose) and an amino acid solution. Because of the high glucose content, patients with TPN may develop hyperglycemia. Frequent monitoring of blood glucose can detect this increase. TPN can be used when the patient is NPO but can also be used as a supplement when oral intake is inadequate. Hourly outputs and frequent vital signs are not required for TPN infusions.)

The nurse is making a home visit to a child who has a chronic disease. Which finding has the greatest implication for acid-base aspects of this patient's care? a. Urine output is very small today. b. Whites of the eyes appear more yellow. c. Skin around the mouth is very chapped. d. Skin is sweaty under three blankets.

A (Oliguria decreases the excretion of metabolic acids and is a risk factor for metabolic acidosis. Jaundice requires follow-up but is not an acid-base problem. Perioral chapped skin needs intervention but is not an acid-base issue. With three blankets, diaphoresis is not unusual.)

Which client will the nurse recognize as having the greatest risk for development of hypocalcemia? A 26 year old with hyperparathyroidism A 35 year old athlete taking NSAIDs for joint pain A 40 year old taking tetracycline for an infection A 70 year old who has alcoholism and malnutrition

A 26 year old with hyperparathyroidism

After receiving the change-of-shift report, which client will the nurse assess first? A 45 year old with a nasogastric (NG) tube with dry oral mucosa and reports feeling very thirsty. A 57 year old receiving IV diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg. A 67 year old with nausea and vomiting who reports abdominal cramps. A 77 year old with normal saline infusing at 150 mL/hr with an average hourly urine output of 75 mL.

A 57 year old receiving IV diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg.

Which client will the nurse consider at greatest risk for dehydration? A 25-year-old female taking oral contraceptives A 31-year-old male who has frequent esophageal reflux A 75-year-old female with chronic back pain A 73-year-old male who has a vitamin deficiency

A 75-year-old female with chronic back pain

Which patient should the nurse closely monitor for the risk factors of metabolic acidosis?

A pancreatic fistula that is draining

Which of the following statements would be considered incorrect when transfusing packed red blood cells (RBCs)? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust the infusion rate to ensure unit is infused within 6 hours. b. Begin an infusion of D5W prior to the packed RBCs. c. Obtain baseline vital signs, including temperature and pulse oximetry. d. Verify the patient ID and blood unit number with another nurse prior to administration.

A, B (The unit must be infused within 4 hr after leaving the laboratory. Only normal saline should be used with whole blood or packed RBCs. Use of any other IV solution can cause lysis or destruction of the red blood cells.)

Which one of the following is correct about the role of the kidneys in fluid and electrolyte balance?

Aldosterone acts in the kidney to regulate sodium.

Your patient has a nasogastric tube to suction, but the physician has permitted ice chips by mouth for the accompanying through irritation. When you check the patient, you find 3000 ml of gastric suction output and the patient says he has been freely using ice chips. What would you do first?

Ask the patient to stop the ice chips (remove if necessary)

Which assessments are most important for the nurse to perform to prevent harm on a client with a sodium level of 118 mEq/L (mmol/L)? (Select all that apply.) Testing skin turgor Assessing cognition Monitoring urine output Checking deep tendon reflexes Asking about any abdominal pain Checking for the presence of fever

Assessing cognition Monitoring urine output

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform on a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate? Monitoring 24-hour urine output Asking the client whether a headache is present Assessing the blood pressure hourly Monitoring the serum calcium levels

Assessing the blood pressure hourly

A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease. For which clinical indicator should the nurse monitor the client?

Azotemia. Azotemia is an increase in nitrogenous waste (particularly urea) in the blood, which is common with end-stage renal disease. Excessive nephron damage in end-stage renal disease causes oliguria, not polyuria; excessive urination is common in early kidney insufficiency because of the inability to concentrate urine. Jaundice is common to biliary obstruction, not to end-stage renal disease. The blood pressure may be elevated as a result of hypervolemia associated with increased total body fluid.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is to receive a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The patient has a 22-gauge IV in his arm with 0.9% normal saline infusing. What intervention will the nurse perform before obtaining the packed red blood cells from the blood bank? a. Identify the blood group, type, and expiration date with another nurse. b. Insert an 18- or 20-gauge angiocatheter into the patient's other arm. c. Program the IV infusion pump so that the transfusion will complete within 4 hours. d. Obtain a new microdrip tubing and extension tubing from the clean utility room.

B (Blood products such as packed red blood cells and whole blood should be infused through an IV catheter than is no smaller than a 20 gauge. An 18- or 20-gauge IV should be started in the patient's other arm before picking up the packed red blood cells from the blood bank. Identification of the blood group and expiration date will be done once the blood is obtained from the blood bank. Microdrip tubing is never used for blood transfusions. DIF: Understanding REF: pp. 1014-1015)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is at risk for fluid overload as a result of a history of congestive heart failure. Which intervention will the nurse teach the patient to perform at home to monitor fluid balance? a. "Check to make sure that your urine is a bright yellow color." b. "Weigh yourself every morning before breakfast." c. "Count your heart rate every evening before you go to bed." d. "Drink plain water rather than soda, coffee, or fruit juice."

B (Checking the weight every morning before breakfast is a sensitive indicator of the patient's fluid volume status. Weight gain of 2 to 3 lb over 1 to 2 days generally indicates fluid retention and should be reported to the physician. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 997)

The nurse is caring for a patient with renal failure who has a serum potassium level of 7.1 mEq/L and serum magnesium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to administer 10 units of insulin and an ampule of 50% dextrose to the patient. The patient asks why he will be receiving insulin when he is not diabetic. What is the nurse's best answer? a. "The doctor has prescribed these medications for you to help heal your kidneys." b. "These medications will lower your potassium level and prevent an irregular heart rate." c. "These medications will prevent you from having a seizure from too little magnesium." d. "These medications will increase your urine output until your kidneys recover."

B (Serum potassium levels above 7.0 mEq/L can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias, so the potassium level must be lowered promptly. Administration of IV insulin with 50% dextrose will push potassium into the cells to avoid hyperkalemia symptoms. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 999)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous catheter (CVC). Which nursing intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in the patient's plan of care? a. Carefully document all assessments of the catheter site. b. Use strict sterile procedure when performing dressing changes. c. Label each new dressing with the date, time, and nurse's initials. d. Ensure that the CVC is discontinued as soon as possible.

B (Strict sterile procedure is mandatory when changing CVC dressings because of the high risk of septicemia and/or sepsis. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 1023)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a 1200 mL daily fluid restriction. The patient has consumed 250 mL with each of her three meals and had another 150 mL with her medications. The patient has received 150 mL of IV fluids during the day. How many mL of fluid may the patient still consume in order to stay within the prescribed fluid restriction? a. 100 mL b. 150 mL c. 250 mL d. 300 mL

B (The patient has had an oral fluid intake of 900 mL and an IV fluid intake of 150 mL, giving a total of 1050 mL. This leaves 150 mL that the patient may consume for the rest of the evening to stay within the prescribed fluid restriction. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1010)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of congestive heart failure and takes once-daily furosemide (Lasix) in order to prevent fluid overload and pulmonary edema. The patient tells the nurse that she has stopped taking the medication because she has to urinate frequently during the night. What is the nurse's best response? a. "You should ask your doctor to decrease the dose." b. "Take the diuretic early in the morning before breakfast." c. "Eat foods high in potassium and limit your salt intake." d. "Restrict your fluid intake after dinner and in the evening."

B (The patient should be instructed to take the diuretic early in the morning so that the effects will wear off before the patient goes to bed at night. Decreasing the dose could lead to fluid overload and pulmonary edema. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1021)

The nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter with an intermittent infusion device (IID) into an elderly woman for medication administration. Which of the following considerations would be incorrect? a. Insert the IV catheter into nondominant hand/arm. b. Use a 16- or 18-gauge over-the-needle catheter. c. Release the tourniquet before attaching the IID. d. Flush the IID with 2 to 3 mL normal saline after insertion.

B (With IV catheters, the higher the number, the smaller the gauge. For an elderly person who needed IV access for medication administration, a smaller gauge such as a 22 or 24 would be more appropriate. 16- or 18-gauge needles are used with high volume IV infusions.)

The patient had diarrhea for 5 days and developed an acid-base imbalance. Which statement would indicate that the nurse's teaching about the acid-base imbalance has been effective? a. "To prevent another problem, I should eat less sodium during diarrhea." b. "My blood became too acid because I lost some base in the diarrhea fluid." c. "Diarrhea removes fluid from the body, so I should drink more ice water." d. "I should try to slow my breathing so my acids and bases will be balanced."

B (Diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis through loss of bicarbonate, which is a base. Eating less sodium during diarrhea increases the risk of ECV deficit. Although diarrhea does remove fluid from the body, it also removes sodium and bicarbonate which need to be replaced. Rapid deep respirations are the compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis and should be encouraged rather than stopped.)

The patient has severe hyperthyroidism and will have surgery tomorrow. What assessment is most important for the nurse to assess in order to detect development of the acid-base imbalance for which the patient has highest risk? a. Urine output and color b. Level of consciousness c. Heart rate and blood pressure d. Lung sounds in lung bases

B (Thyroid hormone increases metabolic rate, causing a patient with severe hyperthyroidism to have high risk of metabolic acidosis from increased production of metabolic acids. Metabolic acidosis decreases level of consciousness. Changes in urine output, urine color, and lung sounds are not signs of metabolic acidosis. Although metabolic acidosis often causes tachycardia, many other factors influence heart rate and blood pressure, including thyroid hormone.)

The patient is to receive potassium 20 mEq every morning. Which of the following orders would the nurse question? (Select all that apply.) a. Potassium 10 mEq capsules. Administer 2 capsules PO. b. Potassium 15 mEq/5 mL liquid. Administer 10 cc of liquid PO. c. Potassium 2 mEq/1 mL solution. Add 10 cc to 1000 cc Lactated Ringers; infuse at 50 mL/h. d. Potassium 5 mEq/1 mL solution. Administer 4 cc IV over 10 minutes.

B, D (10 mL of liquid is equivalent to 30 mEq of potassium, which is higher than the ordered dose. Potassium should never be administered as an IV push medication.)

The patient is hyperventilating from anxiety and abdominal pain. Which assessment findings should the nurse attribute to respiratory alkalosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Skin pale and cold b. Tingling of fingertips c. Heart rate of 102 d. Numbness around mouth e. Cramping in feet

B, D, E (Hyperventilation is a risk factor for respiratory alkalosis. Respiratory alkalosis can cause perioral and digital paresthesias and pedal spasms. Pallor, cold skin, and tachycardia are characteristic of activation of the sympathetic nervous system, not respiratory alkalosis.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion. One hour into the transfusion, the patient's blood pressure decreases significantly and the patient complains of a severe headache. What is the priority action of the nurse? a. Check the patient's temperature and administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) if higher than 101° F. b. Recheck the patient's blood pressure in 15 minutes after administering pain medication. c. Stop the blood transfusion and administer 0.9% normal saline through new IV tubing. d. Double-check that the transfusion blood type is an exact match to the patient.

C (A significant drop in blood pressure and a severe headache are signs that the patient may be experiencing a transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped and 0.9% normal saline should be administered through new IV tubing to prevent infusion of additional blood through the tubing used for the transfusion. The physician should be notified immediately to evaluate the patient. Ensuring that the transfusion blood type is an exact match to the patient is done before the transfusion is begun. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 1026)

The nurse is caring for a patient who takes furosemide (Lasix) daily to treat congestive heart failure. The nurse will watch for which electrolyte imbalance that may occur as a result of this therapy? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperphosphatemia

C (Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that causes loss of potassium through the urine. Patients taking Lasix are at risk for hypokalemia, so the nurse should check the patient's electrolyte values closely, particularly the serum potassium level. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 1001)

A nurse is caring for an 80-year-old patient who is receiving bumetanide (a loop diuretic) for hypertension. The nurse notes that the patient admits to taking bisacodyl (Dulcolax) daily to stimulate her bowels. The nurse should assess the patient for possible symptoms of a. hypoglycemia. b. hypoparathyroidism. c. hypokalemia. d. hypocalcemia.

C (Loop diuretics act on the loop of Henle to block reabsorption of sodium and potassium and are considered potassium-wasting diuretics. Daily use of laxatives such as bisacodyl can lead to increased potassium loss through stool.)

The nurse is reviewing the patient's laboratory results. Which result must be communicated to the physician immediately? a. Serum chloride level 85 mEq/L b. Serum sodium level 134 mEq/L c. Serum potassium level 6.8 mEq/L d. Serum magnesium level 2.3 mEq/L

C (Normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is very high and puts the patient at risk for cardiac arrhythmias. The potassium level should be reported to the physician immediately. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 1001)

The patient has type B chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbated by an acute upper respiratory infection. Which blood gas values should the nurse expect to see? a. pH high, PaCO2 high, HCO3- high b. pH low, PaCO2 low, HCO3- low c. pH low, PaCO2 high, HCO3- high d. pH low, PaCO2 high, HCO3- normal

C (Type B COPD is a chronic disease that causes impaired excretion of carbonic acid, thus causing respiratory acidosis, with PaCO2 high and pH low. This chronic disease exists long enough for some renal compensation to occur, manifested by high HCO3-. Answers that include low or normal bicarbonate are not correct, because the renal compensation for respiratory acidosis involves excretion of more hydrogen ions than usual, with retention of bicarbonate in the blood. High pH occurs with alkalosis, not acidosis.)

You are caring for a client who has had a sub-total thyroidectomy. What assessment would you make to determine if there has been any trauma to the parathyroid gland?

Check Chvostek's sign.

An obese client had an adjustable gastric banding procedure performed to reduce weight. At a follow-up visit the client reports episodes of abdominal pain and vomiting after eating. What should the nurse encourage the client to do?

Chew food thoroughly before swallowing. Chewing helps to slow down the eating process and breaks down food into smaller pieces. Well-chewed food is less likely to cause esophageal distention, abdominal cramps, or vomiting. Fluid intake should be limited with meals. Eating regimens are three to six meals high in protein and low in carbohydrates and fat. Nutrient-dense, not calorie-dense, foods should be ingested by the client with a gastric banding.

The nurse is caring for a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) who has a serum sodium level of 118 mEq/dL and symptoms of fluid overload. Which IV fluid will the nurse expect to administer to this patient in order to correct the patient's fluid imbalance? a. 0.33% normal saline b. 0.45% normal saline c. 0.9% normal saline d. 3% normal saline

D (A hypertonic 3% saline solution will be used to correct the patient's hyponatremia and fluid overload that have developed as a result of SIADH. A 0.9% normal saline solution can be used once the serum sodium level has been raised nearer to normal range. A 0.45% or 0.33% normal saline solution is hypotonic and will only worsen the patient's fluid overload and hyponatremia. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 997 | p. 999 | pp. 1012-1013)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a serum magnesium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which is the highest priority goal to include in the patient's plan of care? a. The patient will maintain urine output of at least 30 mL/hr. b. The patient will verbalize the importance of sufficient dietary intake of magnesium. c. The patient's oral mucous membranes will remain free of ulceration and pain. d. The patient will remain alert and oriented x3 with no confusion or seizure activity.

D (A patient with low serum magnesium is at risk for neurologic symptoms including confusion, disorientation, and seizures. The highest priority goal for this patient is to avoid neurologic problems that could lead to injury. The other goals are applicable to the patient with low magnesium but are less important. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1000)

A nurse is caring for an adult patient who has gastric suction following abdominal surgery. The patient tells the nurse that he has tingling in his fingers and toes and is feeling dizzy. Which acid-base imbalance is the patient most likely experiencing? a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis

D (In metabolic alkalosis, there is an excess of bicarbonate ions, which raises the pH above 7.45 and produces bicarbonate levels greater than 26 mEq/L. This occurs as a result of loss of gastric acids through vomiting or nasogastric suctioning, among other causes. Clinical manifestations include numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with congestive heart failure who requires intermittent IV bolus doses of furosemide (Lasix) for a few days to correct fluid volume overload. No continuous IV fluids are ordered. Which type of IV will the nurse insert in order to administer the patient's medication? a. Peripherally inserted central catheter b. Midline inside-the-needle catheter c. Central venous catheter d. Over-the-needle catheter

D (Intermittent doses of IV diuretics are best administered via an over-the-needle angiocatheter that is connected to a saline lock. The other IV catheter options are used when the patient requires a vesicant drug that could cause significant damage to tissues or when the patient requires weeks of IV therapy. DIF: Understanding REF: p. 1015 | p. 1031)

The nurse is caring for a patient who was brought to the ER after overdosing on narcotic pain medication. The patient was found unresponsive with no respirations. Arterial blood gases were drawn shortly after the patient's arrival to the hospital. Which results will the nurse expect to see? a. pH 7.56, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3 32 mEq/L, PaO2 90 mm Hg b. pH 7.35, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L, PaO2 70 mm Hg c. pH 7.45, PaCO2 38 mm Hg, HCO3 28 mEq/L, PaO2 80 mm Hg d. pH 7.27, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L, PaO2 60 mm Hg

D (The patient who overdosed on narcotic pain medication will be in respiratory acidosis as a result of respiratory suppression. Low pH of 7.27 and elevated PaCO2 are consistent with respiratory acidosis as insufficient carbon dioxide is removed from the blood. The low 60 mm Hg PaO2 is due to insufficient oxygen intake. DIF: Applying REF: p. 1002)

The nurse has telephone messages from four patients who requested information and assistance. Which one should the nurse refer to a social worker or community agency first? a. "Is there a place that I can dispose of my unused morphine pills?" b. "I want to lose at least 20 pounds without getting sick this time." c. "I think I have asthma because I cough when dogs are near." d. "I ran out of money and am cutting my insulin dose in half."

D (Decreasing an insulin dose by half creates high risk of diabetic ketoacidosis, and this patient has the highest priority. The other patients have less priority due to lower risk situations with longer time course before development of an acid-base imbalance. The coughing when dogs are near is not a sign of a severe asthma episode that causes respiratory acidosis, although this patient does need attention after the insulin situation is handled. Disposing of morphine properly helps prevent respiratory acidosis from opioid overdose. Guidance regarding weight loss helps prevent starvation ketoacidosis.)

The client's serum sodium is 123 mEq/L (123 mmol/L). Which prescription should the nurse question? A. Provide pretzels as a snack daily. B. Restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL per day. C. Assess neurologic status every 2 hours. D. Administer intravenous fluid of one-half normal saline (NS) at 125 mL/hr.

D. Administer intravenous fluid of one-half normal saline (NS) at 125 mL/hr. Because one-half NS is a hypotonic solution, it is contraindicated. It would actually compound the issue instead of correcting the hyponatremia. Treatment for hyponatremia can include restricting fluid intake and increasing sodium intake either via oral intake or, in severe cases, intravenous fluids. The presence of hyponatremia, as well as correction of hyponatremia if done too quickly, can cause fluid shifts in the brain, resulting in altered mental status. Therefore it is important for the nurse to assess for neurologic changes.

If you don't drink any water, or have lost a lot of water or blood, what do you think will happen?

DECREASE renal blood flow? DECREASE renal blood pressure? DECREASE the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? INCREASE ADH(antidiuretic hormone)? DECREASE Urine Output

What is the best action for a nurse to take on finding a client's serum chloride level is 101 mEq/L? Document the finding as the only action. Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes. Urge the client to drink more water. Notify the primary health care provider.

Document the finding as the only action.

A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube set to low intermittent suction. The nurse recalls that the primary reason that an intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose with 0.45% sodium chloride and 20 mEq of potassium has been prescribed is to prevent which complication?

Electrolyte imbalance. When clients do not receive nutrients or fluids by mouth and have loss of electrolytes through the removal of gastric secretions via an NG tube, then electrolyte imbalance is a primary concern. Constipation is usually not a concern in this type of situation. Although dehydration is a possible effect of an NG tube removing gastric secretions and fluid, electrolyte balance is still the priority. An NG tube set to low intermittent suction usually relieves nausea and vomiting.

When an intestinal obstruction is suspected, a client has a nasogastric tube inserted and attached to suction. What response should the nurse critically assess on this client?

Fluid deficit. Dehydration is a danger because of fluid loss with gastrointestinal (GI) suction. Based on the data provided, edema, belching, and excessive salivation are not likely to occur.

Which complications does the nurse expect in the client with a renal disorder who has a blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of 28?

Fluid volume deficit. Obstructive uropathy. The normal range of blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio is 6 to 25. The BUN/creatinine ratio of 28 is a higher value than the normal; the client may have complications like fluid volume deficit and obstructive uropathy. A decrease in BUN levels indicates malnutrition and severe hepatic damage. Increased serum creatinine levels indicate kidney impairment

The nurse is caring for a client who has a serum potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L (mmol/L). Which action will the nurse take first? Provide a potassium-restricted diet. Administer potassium excreting diuretics. Teach the client foods to avoid. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.

Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.

A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who is experiencing a fluid imbalance. Which fluid shift associated with diabetes should the nurse take into consideration when assessing this client?

Intracellular to intravascular as a result of hyperosmolarity. The osmotic effect of hyperglycemia pulls fluid from the cells, resulting in cellular dehydration. Hyperglycemia pulls fluid from the interstitial compartment to the intravascular compartment. Interstitial fluid is part of the extracellular compartment; the osmotic pull of glucose exceeds that of other osmotic forces. An increase in hydrostatic pressure results in an intravascular-to-interstitial shift.

A client is admitted with severe diarrhea that resulted in hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for what clinical manifestations of the electrolyte deficiency?

Leg cramps, Muscle weakness. Leg cramps occur with hypokalemia because of potassium deficit. Muscle weakness occurs with hypokalemia because of the alteration in the sodium potassium pump mechanism. Diplopia does not indicate an electrolyte deficit. A skin rash does not indicate an electrolyte deficit. Tachycardia is not associated with hypokalemia; bradycardia is.

The mother of an adolescent reports that her child does not eat properly, performs strenuous physical exercise, and is very introverted. What nursing interventions would be appropriate?

Monitoring the adolescent's fluid and electrolyte status. Monitoring the adolescent for disturbances in family interactions. Checking for evidence of self-induced vomiting. Developing a mutually agreeable targeted daily caloric intake goal. Abnormal habits that involve not eating properly, performing strenuous physical exercise, and being introverted may be signs of anorexia. Adolescents with anorexia may have fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to a reduced intake of nutritious food, which may lead to cardiac problems. Disturbances in family interaction may result in an adolescent's introverted behavior. Self-induced vomiting is a characteristic feature of eating disorders. Because the adolescent may have a low nutrient intake, a mutually agreeable targeted daily caloric intake goal should be crafted. Personal hygiene and sanitation counseling is not appropriate in this case.

A client is receiving furosemide to help treat heart failure. Which laboratory result will cause the nurse to notify the primary healthcare provider?

Potassium 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L). A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) is indicative of hypokalemia. Normal values for an adult are 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). Potassium, calcium, and magnesium control the rate and force of heart contractions. Diuretics often are used to reduce fluid volume, so the heart does not work as hard. Furosemide is a potassium-losing diuretic. Hypokalemia can result in death from dysrhythmia; therefore this must be addressed. The hematocrit level of 46% is within the normal range. A hemoglobin of 14.1 (141 mmol/L) is within normal values. White blood cell level of 9200 cells/mm 3is within the normal range of 4000 to 11,000 cells/mm 3 (4 to 11 × 10 9/L).

What interventions should the nurse implement when caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

Providing frequent oral care. Instituting fall risk precautions. Monitoring for and reporting neurologic changes. The excess production of antidiuretic hormone associated with SIADH leads to increased water reabsorption by the kidneys. Increased water reabsorption results in decreased urinary output, increased intravascular fluid volume, serum hypoosmolality, and dilutional hyponatremia. Because treatment includes restricting fluids, frequent oral care is provided to increase client comfort. Fall risk precautions are instituted to protect the client from injury that might occur as a result of neurologic changes associated with declining serum sodium. The nurse monitors for and reports changes in neurologic status resulting from cerebral edema and hyponatremia. Immediate treatment goals are to restore normal fluid balance and normal serum osmolality. Fluids are restricted to no more than 1000 mL and to no more than 500 mL for the client with severe hyponatremia. Treatment of SIADH includes placing the bed flat or elevating the head of the bed no more than 10 degrees. This position promotes venous return to the heart, which increases left ventricular filling pressure. Increasing left ventricular filling pressure stimulates osmoreceptors to send a message to the pituitary (via the hypothalamus) that antidiuretic hormone release should be decreased.

Nasogastric (NG) tube irrigations are prescribed for a client after abdominal surgery. The nurse instills 30 mL of saline solution, and 10 mL is returned. How should the nurse proceed?

Record 20 mL as intake. This 20 mL must be accounted for in the intake and output, either by including it as intake or by subtracting it from the total gastric drainage. High suction may lead to adherence of mucosa to the tube and potential injury. Repositioning the nasogastric tube is unnecessary. Return of 10 mL indicates patency; more frequent irrigations are not indicated.

The nurse is caring for a patient with severe metabolic alkalosis. Which intervention is the highest priority?

Respiratory acidosis

A client with a history of excessive alcohol use develops hepatic portal hypertension and an elevated serum aldosterone level. For which complications should the nurse assess this client?

Sodium retention and fluid accumulation. Aldosterone, a corticosteroid, causes sodium and water retention and potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypovolemia will not occur with increased aldosterone levels because sodium and water are retained. Potassium is excreted in the presence of aldosterone and therefore will not accumulate and cause dysrhythmias. Calcium is unaffected by aldosterone.

While caring for a client with a second-degree left ankle sprain, a nurse raises the injured part above heart level. What is the reason behind this nursing intervention?

To prevent further edema. A client with a second-degree sprain may have a deeply torn ankle ligament with swelling and tenderness. Elevation of the injured lower limb above heart level helps mobilization of the excess fluid from the area and prevents further edema. Strengthening exercises help to build bone density and muscle strength and significantly reduce the risk of sprains and strains. Cryotherapy and adequate rest help to reduce pain by reducing the transmission and perception of pain impulses.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with dehydration. Arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal that the patient has metabolic acidosis. Which of the following signs or symptoms is the most likely cause of this imbalance?

Vomiting and diarrhea

A client's laboratory report indicates hyperkalemia. Which responses should the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

Vomiting, Muscle weakness, Irregular heart rate. Bouts of nausea and vomiting are common with hyperkalemia. Because of potassium's role in the sodium-potassium pump, an increase in potassium interferes with muscle contractions; it results in muscle weakness and areflexia. An increase in potassium can cause muscle twitching. The heart is a muscle, and hyperkalemia can cause palpitations and cardiac dysrhythmias. On an ECG tracing the T wave will be peaked with hyperkalemia. Anorexia occurs with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Diarrhea, not constipation, occurs with hyperkalemia.

A preschooler is admitted with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. The child's history reveals a 5-lb (2.3 kg) weight gain in 1 week and periorbital edema. How can the nurse obtain the most accurate information on the status of the child's edema?

Weighing daily. Weight monitoring is the most useful means of assessing fluid balance and changes in the edematous state; 1 L of fluid weighs about 2.2 lb (1 kg). Visual inspection is subjective and generally inaccurate. Measuring intake and output is not as accurate as daily weights; fluid may be trapped in the third compartment. Monitoring of electrolyte values is unreliable; they may or may not be altered with fluid shifts.

You have a patient with very high blood sugar, and sugar in the urine. Would the urine output be increased or decreased? What would happen to blood volume as a result?

Would the urine output be increased or decreased? INCREASE What would happen to blood volume as a result? DECREASE

Which activity is important to include in the plan of care for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)? a. Use sterile technique when changing the PICC dressing. b. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours. c. Take blood pressure in the arm with the PICC line. d. Use only macrodrip tubing with IV infusions through the PICC line.

a (Because a PICC enters the body through a peripheral vein and is threaded up to the superior vena cava, resting just outside the right atrium of the heart, strict sterile technique is used during insertion and care of PICCs to prevent entrance of bacteria into the line. PICC tubing is usually changed every 24 hours. Never take blood pressure in an arm with a PICC. Macrodrip or microdrip tubing can be used for infusions through a PICC.)

A severely dehydrated infant with gastroenteritis is admitted to the pediatric unit. Nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status is prescribed. The parents ask why their baby cannot be fed. The nurse explains that this is necessary to:

allow the intestinal tract to rest

In the osmolar imbalance of hyponatremia there is:

an imbalance in the ratio of water to sodium

What nursing action is appropriate with a patient who has had potassium chloride added to the intravenous infusion for several days?

ask for lab work; observe for bradycardia

A patient with an excessive alcohol intake has a reduced amount of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which symptom is the patient likely to exhibit? a. Dysuria b. Polyuria c. Oliguria d. Hematuria

b (ADH acts to reabsorb water in the nephron. When ADH secretion is decreased, excess water is excreted, leading to increased urine output, or polyuria. The opposite of oliguria is occurring. Because decreased ADH does not have an effect on the patient's ability to void, dysuria is not a symptom. Decreased ADH does not cause blood in the urine.)

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for an adult patient with numerous draining wounds from gunshots. The patient's pulse rate has increased from 100 to 130 beats/min over the past hour. For which imbalance should the nurse assess symptoms? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Extracellular fluid volume deficit c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Intracellular fluid volume excess

b (The draining wounds indicate hypovolemia, or extracellular fluid volume deficit. As circulating blood volume decreases, the heart rate increases to maintain normal cardiac output. Respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis do not have as a symptom a rapidly increasing pulse rate. Intracellular fluid volume excess causes pulmonary congestion and cerebral edema.)

For a patient with a nursing diagnosis of Fluid Volume Deficit, the nurse is alert to which signs and symptoms? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Flushed skin c. Dry mucous membranes d. Weak, thready pulse e. Pale yellow urine

b, c, d (Depending on the severity of fluid volume deficit, the patient may have hypotension. The skin is flushed and dry, and the pulse is weak and thready. Hypertension occurs with fluid volume overload. For patients with fluid volume deficit, the urine is dark yellow and concentrated.)

The nurse should ask which of the following questions to detect the risk factors for metabolic acidosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Have you been vomiting today? b. When did your kidneys stop working? c. How long have you had diarrhea? d. Are you still feeling short of breath? e. What type of antacid did you take? f. Which weight loss diet are you using?

b. When did your kidneys stop working?c. How long have you had diarrhea?f. Which weight loss diet are you using?

The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to increase calcium in her diet but does not like milk. Which food should the nurse encourage the patient to consume? a. Cod b. Eggs c. Spinach d. Tomatoes

c (Dark leafy vegetables such as spinach, kale, turnip greens, broccoli, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage are sources high in calcium.)

Which of these is a function of calcium?

contraction ability of muscles

A 65-year-old female patient is a two-pack-a-day cigarette smoker with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the interpretation of her arterial blood gas values (pH 7.34, PCO2 55, PO2 82, HCO3 32)? a. Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis b. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis c. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis d. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis

d (Patients with COPD tend to have chronic carbon dioxide retention. The patient is slightly acidotic (i.e., arterial pH below 7.35) with a higher than normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2). which is inverse and therefore respiratory in nature. The compensatory response to respiratory acidosis is buffering, as indicated by the higher than normal bicarbonate (HCO3) level. The increase in bicarbonate only partially shifts the pH toward normal, but partial compensation prevents the acid-base imbalance from becoming life-threatening. The kidneys will continue to compensate in an attempt to bring the pH into the normal range.)

A nurse caring for a hospitalized patient is told in the shift change report that the patient's laboratory results are sodium = 140 mEq/L; potassium = 4.1 mEq/L; calcium = 9.5 mg/dL; and magnesium = 3.4 mEq/L. Which abnormal level will the nurse report to the primary care provider? a. High sodium level b. Low potassium c. Low calcium level d. High magnesium level

d (The only abnormal value is the magnesium. Normal magnesium levels for adults range from 1.8 to 3.0 mg/dL. The other values are within normal limits.)

You have a patient in metabolic acidosis (high serum hydrogen and low pH). What would you expect to find in lab test results which indicate the body is trying to compensate for this problem?

high serum potassium; increased urinary H+

A patient has been admitted with a diagnosis of pathological fractures of the left femur and left humerus. This is a manifestation of

hypercalcemia

A patient is receiving Kayexalate. The reason this is given is to:

lower the serum potassium level

Which assessment finding would you report as indicative of fluid volume excess?

moist rales

You have the flu with repeated episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. What symptoms would indicate low serum potassium? .

muscle fatigue, weakness

A patient is experiencing their first severe, acute asthma episode. The episode began 2 hours ago. What blood gas values should the nurse expect?

pH low, PaCO2 high, HCO3- normal

A woman in the eighth month of pregnancy has edema of the legs. What probably caused this fluid shift?

pressure of the baby on veins increases venous pressure

Which one of these cardiac monitor findings would you report as indicative of hyperkalemia?

tall, peaked, tented T wave

When there is a change in the potassium level it changes:

the ability of cells to fire

What is the result of sodium imbalance in hypernatremia (a hyperosmolar state)?

the cells shrink as fluid moves out of the cell

This question gets at regulation factors. If you decide to drink four gallons of water today, what would happen to... thirst? Blood Volume? ADH? Renal volume? osmolality? Urine Output?

thirst? DECREASE Blood Volume? INCREASE ADH? DECREASE Renal volume? INCREASE osmolality? DECREASE Urine Output? INCREASE

Suppose you ate three bags of potato chips and your body functions are normal. What will happen now to: thirst? Aldosterone? ADH? urine output? osmolality?

thirst? INCREASE Aldosterone? DECREASE ADH? INCREASE urine output? DECREASE osmolality? INCREASE

The clinical management for hyperphosphatemia would be:

treat the cause

The primary treatment of hyperchloremia would be:

treat the cause

The treatment for a hypoosmolar imbalance (hyponatremia) would include:

treat the cause

A patient has been admitted with hyperkalemia (excess serum potassium). Which information obtained in the patient's history tells you the probable cause of the hyperkalemia?

using salt substitutes

Glucose attracts water. It is an osmotic diuretic. So, if the blood sugar is high and the kidney filters out some of the excess sugar, what will be the result?

water will be eliminated

One aspect of treatment of hypercalcemia would be:

weight bearing, walking mobility

Is it possible for a person to have a low blood volume, but have interstitial edema?

yes