EMT chapter 36 EMS operation

How many straps should a​ patient-securing device​ have? A. At least two B. At least four C. At least three D. At least one

At least three

Which of the following is allowed of EMTs driving an emergency ambulance in MOST​ states? A. Speeding through school zone B. Proceeding through a red light without slowing C. Driving without due regard if the patient is critical D. Exceeding the posted speed limit

Exceeding the posted speed limit

Which of the following is required to be a part of the​ on-board, permanently mounted equipment in a basic life support​ ambulance? A. Fixed suction unit B. Backboard C. Sterile burn sheets D. AED

Fixed suction unit

Which of the following pieces of equipment is optional basic​ equipment? A. Glucose meter B. Pulse oximeter with pediatric and adult probes C. Cervical collar D. Obstetrical kit

Glucose meter

When transferring a patient to the​ ambulance, you​ must: A. appropriately package the patient. B. protect the​ patient's cervical spine. C. place the patient in the position of comfort. D. use at least three rescuers.

appropriately package the patient.

You arrive at the station for your shift and realize that you have forgotten your glasses. A call comes in and your unit is requested. You should: A ask your partner to drive until you can retrieve your glasses. B drive carefully and more slowly to compensate for your vision deficit. C delay the call until you can obtain your glasses. D drive only if the distance to the call is short.

ask your partner to drive until you can retrieve your glasses.

Which of the following ambulance types is built for rugged durability and large​ storage? A. Type III B. Type I C. Light duty D. Medium duty

Medium duty

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of​ Transportation? A. Medium duty B. BLS C. Type A D. ALS

Medium duty

Which of the following patients is NOT a candidate for medical helicopter transportation from a crash scene to a trauma​ center? A. Head injury with altered mental status B. Abdominal trauma with signs of shock C. Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest D. Penetrating injury to the chest

Nonhypothermic cardiac arrest

When is the transfer of care at the receiving hospital​ completed? A. Only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has accepted patient care B. As soon as the patient is physically on the​ hospital's property C. After completion of the hospital admissions process D. Once the patient has been transferred to a hospital bed

Only when a report has been given and an equal or higher medical authority has accepted patient care

Which of the following statements about passing other vehicles in a​ no-passing zone on an emergency call is​ TRUE? A. The way must be clear. B. Signaling is unnecessary. C. Never pass a school bus under any circumstances. D. Ignore precautions against danger to property.

The way must be clear.

Which of the following statements about crossovers on highways is​ TRUE? A. Ambulances are not permitted to use them. B. They are the safest way to turn around. C. They require a police escort. D. They can be dangerous.

They can be dangerous.

Which of the following best describes how an emergency medical dispatcher is different than an untrained dispatcher? A They answer calls to 911. B They coordinate the response of emergency vehicles. C They maintain radio communication with crews. D They provide pre-arrival medical instructions.

They provide pre-arrival medical instructions.

Your ambulance is the first emergency vehicle to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle collision. How should you position your​ ambulance? A. Immediately behind the vehicle where your patients​ are, to block the view of people driving by B. In the median or off the side of the road C. To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene D. Ahead of the collision site to avoid blocking traffic

To create a physical barrier between traffic and the scene

Which of the following is a type of ambulance identified by the U.S. Department of​ Transportation? A. Rescue squad B. Type A C. ​Modu-van D. Type I

Type I

Which of the following ambulance types would be described as a "van type" ambulance? A Type I B Type II C Type III D Type IV

Type II

An ambulance is typically classified according​ to: A. weight. B. US DOT specifications. C. speed. D. durability.

US DOT specifications.

Which of the following pre-shift checklist steps would help stop the spread of infectious disease? A Wipe down the steering wheel with disinfectant. B Check the operation of the windshield wipers and washers. C Check the operation of the heating and air-conditioning equipment. D Check each flashing and revolving light for operation.

Wipe down the steering wheel with disinfectant.

A family member calls 911 to report that his grandfather has stopped breathing. The emergency medical dispatcher confirms this with several questions to the caller. Which of the following would be the most likely dispatched response based upon the circumstances of the call? A A "hot" response B A "cold" response C A "code 1" response D A "backup" response

a "hot" response

Before removing any pressure​ caps, you​ should: A. turn on the engine. B. chock the wheels. C. allow the engine to cool. D. pull the ambulance from quarters.

allow the engine to cool.

An obstetrical kit should be kept on board all basic life support ambulances that​ is: A. separate and sterile. B. included with other sterile items in a case. C. fixed and rigid. D. sufficient to provide ALS services to patients in labor.

separate and sterile.

Obtaining your release from the​ hospital: A. typically happens only when the chief of emergency medicine authorizes you to go. B. simply requires the emergency department nurse or physician if you are still needed. C. is implicit upon completion of patient transfer without your needing to speak to anyone. D. is a formal process involving the completion and approval of a written form.

simply requires the emergency department nurse or physician if you are still needed.

Among the miscellaneous equipment typically required on a basic life support ambulance is​ a: A. pediatric stethoscope. B. mobile phone. C. sphygmomanometer. D. infant oxygen mask.

sphygmomanometer.

At the landing zone for a medical​ helicopter, which of the following actions is​ appropriate? A. Approach fully erect from the direction of the tail rotor. B. If the landing zone is not​ flat, approach from the uphill side. C. Approach as soon as the helicopter skids touch the ground. D. Approach the aircraft from the​ front, escorted by the flight personnel.

Approach the aircraft from the​ front, escorted by the flight personnel.

At what point for most services should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be​ performed? A. At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call B. On returning to service after the first call of the shift C. When you arrive at the scene of the first call of your shift D. On being dispatched for your first call of the shift

At the beginning of your​ shift, before your first call

Which of the following is NOT one of the actions necessary to ready an ambulance for its​ engine-on inspection? A. Set the parking brake and put the transmission in park. B. Check the level of the fluids. C. Pull the ambulance from quarters if engine exhaust fumes will be a problem. D. Have your partner chock the wheels.

Check the level of the fluids.

Which of the following is included in the daily inspection of the​ ambulance? A. Rotating the tires B. Recharging the fire extinguishers C. Checking the turn signals D. Changing the engine oil

Checking the turn signals

Which of the following actions is taken after arriving at the receiving hospital​ facility? A. Ask about the​ patient's treatment plan in​ life-threatening emergencies. B. Leave the ED as soon as you have turned your patient over to the staff so that you are available for another call. C. Report back in service as soon as you reach the receiving facility. D. Complete your written report and leave a copy at the emergency department before you go.

Complete your written report and leave a copy at the emergency department before you go.

Which of the following MUST be done during patient​ transport? A. Continuous monitoring of the patient B. Completion of the patient care report C. Communication with medical direction D. Confirmation of your field impression

Continuous monitoring of the patient

If an ambulance is involved in a collision while responding to an emergency call, which of the following criteria will be most commonly used to interpret the law? A Was the call a serious emergency? B Did the driver use due regard for the safety of others? C How fast was the ambulance driving? D What were the traffic conditions at the time of the accident?

Did the driver use due regard for the safety of others?

Which of these statements about the general nature of state laws that govern emergency ambulance operations is​ TRUE? A. Most states allow an exemption for reckless driving performed while responding to an emergency. B. If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of​ others, you are liable for the consequences. C. In an​ emergency, saving the​ patient's life overrides all other considerations. D. You must use red lights and siren any time you are responding to a call.

If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of​ others, you are liable for the consequences.

How will a patient with difficulty breathing but no possibility of a spinal injury likely prefer to be​ transported? A. Supine B. In Trendelenburg position C. In a seated position D. In a lateral recumbent position

In a seated position

Which of the following actions is part of the​ engine-off ambulance inspection and can be performed in​ quarters? A. Check the headlights. B. Inspect the body of the vehicle. C. Check​ dash-mounted gauges for proper operation. D. Test the parking brake.

Inspect the body of the vehicle.

Which of the following disinfectants or procedures would be appropriate for cleaning and killing germs on ambulance floors and​ walls? A. Intermediate level B. Sterilization C. Low level D. High level

Low level

Which of the following is an appropriate infection control measure to be taken at the completion of a​ call? A. Using gel hand sanitizer to clean your hands B. Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper C. Using​ high-level disinfectant for all ambulances surfaces D. Placing​ blood-saturated dressings and disposable items in regular hospital waste containers

Placing soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper

In which of the following scenarios would an ambulance be exempt from normal traffic laws? A Nonemergency transport of a patient B Response to an emergency call C Returning to quarters after a call D Response to an nonemergency inter facility transport

Response to an emergency call

Which of the following guidelines should you adhere to when setting up a landing zone for a​ helicopter? A. Select an area that is a flat square with​ 100-foot sides. B. Shine a light into the cockpit as the helicopter approaches to signal where you are. C. Mark each corner of the landing zone with flares and place a fifth warning device on the downwind side of the landing zone. D. Choose ground with a slope of greater than 8 degrees.

Select an area that is a flat square with​ 100-foot sides.

Which of the following is MOST clearly a legitimate reason for requesting air medical transport of a critical​ patient? A. The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground. B. Extrication of a​ high-priority patient can be completed quickly. C. The weather is stormy and visibility is low for ground transportation. D. The receiving hospital is in the response area.

The facility that is capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground

What information should be given to the hospital staff FIRST in providing a transfer of care​ report? A. Start by asking the hospital staff what they want to know. B. The most important information should be provided​ first, such as any changes in the​ patient's condition. C. Always start with the​ patient's age,​ sex, and chief complaint. D. The​ patient's insurance and primary physician should be provided first.

The most important information should be provided​ first, such as any changes in the​ patient's condition.

When answering a call for​ help, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher will ask all of the following questions EXCEPT which​ one? A. What is your​ location? B. What is your​ call-back number? C. ​What's the​ problem? D. What is your insurance​ provider?

What is your insurance​ provider?

Which of the following is the most common device used for loading the patient into the​ ambulance? A. Stokes basket B. Scoop stretcher C. Folding backboard D. Wheeled ambulance stretcher

Wheeled ambulance stretcher

Disregarding certain traffic laws while responding to an emergency​ is: A. against the law. B. a privilege granted under law. C. permitted only when a critical patient is on board. D. legal only for municipal employees.

a privilege granted under law.

After you clean up​ blood, vomitus, and other body fluids that have soiled the floor of your​ ambulance, you wipe down any equipment that has been splashed. Place disposable towels you used to clean up blood or body fluids directly​ in: A. any biohazard container nearby. B. a red bag. C. a clear plastic bag marked​ "disposables." D. a nearby wastebasket.

a red bag.

You are delivering a stable patient to the emergency department. Hospital personnel are​ busy, and you have a call holding. You transfer the patient to a hospital bed and hand the patient a copy of the patient care report. This is an example​ of: A. abandonment. B. transfer of care. C. providing a written report. D. patient advocacy.

abandonment.

A call comes in when you are half-way through your pre-shift check. You should: A answer the call and forget about the check. B delay your response until the check is completed. C answer the call and complete the check at your first opportunity. D ask another crew to answer the call so that you can complete the check.

answer the call and complete the check at your first opportunity.

Lock a wheeled stretcher to prevent movement in the​ ambulance: A. only in an emergency. B. at the head. C. at both ends. D. at the foot.

at both ends.

Two-way communications equipment is required on basic life support ambulances for communication between the EMS​ provider, the​ dispatcher, and: A. the​ patient's physician. B. police and fire department personnel. C. other units. D. medical direction.

medical direction.

If resuscitation is​ required, a patient with a suspected spinal​ injury: A. can be transported in a sitting position for comfort. B. can be propped on the left side for drainage of fluids from the mouth. C. can be propped on the right side for drainage of fluids from the mouth. D. must remain supine with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

must remain supine with constant monitoring of the airway and suctioning equipment ready.

After completing your pre-shift checklist, you note that there is a missing vacuum splint. Your partner states that there is not a replacement in the supply cabinet. You should: A continue with your shift. B remove a similar splint from another ambulance. C notify the shift supervisor. D improvise a splint if one is needed.

notify the shift supervisor.

If you are not the primary or​ first-arriving unit to the scene of a highway​ collision, then: A. park next to the primary unit for staging. B. size up the incident from a distance. C. determine the resources needed when the primary unit has sized up the scene. D. park or stage your unit near the​ on-ramp.

park or stage your unit near the​ on-ramp.

Covering a patient in the ambulance does all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. ensure privacy. B. maintain body temperature. C. prevent infection. D. prevent exposure to the elements.

prevent infection.

Emergency Medical Dispatchers are trained​ to: A. provide prearrival medical instructions. B. review EMS encounter forms. C. provide medical direction. D. administer advanced life support.

provide prearrival medical instructions.

To make up an ambulance​ cot, you would​ FIRST: A. raise the cot to a​ high-level position. B. remove all unsoiled blankets and pillows. C. clean the mattress surface. D. remove all soiled linen.

raise the cot to a​ high-level position.

As you arrive at the ambulance base for your upcoming shift, the off-going crew notes that the ambulance had a stalling problem on their shift. You give the ambulance a quick check and it seems to be running fine now. You should: A keep the problem in mind in case it occurs later. B delay your shift and conduct a much more specific mechanical inspection. C attempt to diagnose the problem yourself based upon your mechanical experience. D report the problem immediately to your shift supervisor.

report the problem immediately to your shift supervisor.

When using a​ siren, remember​ that: A. some drivers will not get out of the way even if they hear the siren and must be intimidated to allow passage. B. the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves. C. if any driver does not​ yield, you are required by law to report that​ motorist's license number. D. all motorists except those with hearing impairments will hear the siren and respond appropriately.

the continuous sound of the siren tends to have an effect on the ambulance operators themselves.

For​ location, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher does NOT​ need: A. the nearest cross street. B. the exact route to the location from currently available responders. C. the street name with the direction designator. D. the name of the development or subdivision.

the exact route to the location from currently available responders.

A true emergency requiring the emergency mode of ambulance operation is typically defined​ as: A. any medical condition requiring an EMS call. B. respiratory distress. C. any traumatic injury requiring an EMS call. D. the possibility of loss of life and limb.

the possibility of loss of life and limb.

A​ call-back number is not necessary for an Emergency Medical Dispatcher to ask about​ if: A. the chief complaint​ doesn't seem life threatening. B. the chief complaint​ doesn't seem urgent. C. the patient is a minor. D. the system is an enhanced 911 system.

the system is an enhanced 911 system.

Drivers expect a vehicle operating​ four-way flashers to​ be: A. responding to an emergency. B. about to make a turn. C. easier to pass quickly. D. traveling at a very slow speed.

traveling at a very slow speed.

Which of the following is NOT a basic guideline for safe​ driving? A. Minimize​ lights-and-siren "hot" responses. B. Ignore GPS and other distractions. C. Wear your seat belts. D. Come to a complete stop at intersections.

Ignore GPS and other distractions.

If you are the first unit on the scene of an accident on the​ highway, you​ should: A. set up a safe area to stage downstream of the incident. B. use your vehicle to protect the scene. C. wait in your vehicle for additional units. D. set up your staging area on a crossover

use your vehicle to protect the scene.