EPPP MC 1

1. A teacher finds out that if she yells at a disruptive boy in class, he will calm down for a few minutes. Over time, her yelling becomes louder and more frequent. Which of the following statements best describes, in behavioral terms, what is happening in this situation? A The teacher's yelling is serving as positive reinforcement for the boy, which is why he is becoming more and more disruptive over time. B The teacher's yelling is serving as positive punishment, but the boy is becoming habituated over time. C The teacher's yelling is probably serving as negative punishment for her, because she likely finds the situation to be aversive; however, it is serving as positive punishment for the boy, because he seems to enjoy being yelled at. D The teacher's yelling is serving as positive reinforcement for herself, as she seems to enjoy yelling.

"B" In behavioral terms, the term "positive" means that a stimulus is applied (not, as implied by choice C, that the stimulus is pleasurable or enjoyable). In this case, the stimulus being applied is the teacher's yelling. And punishment means that the stimulus has the effect of reducing a behavior. In this case, the yelling has the effect of temporarily reducing the boy's disruptiveness, so it is punishment. The question illustrates a disadvantage of punishment -- the recipient becomes habituated (which just means he or she gets used to it) and it is necessary to keep increasing the intensity of the punishment for it to be effective.

A predictor with a criterion-related validity coefficient of .40 will be most useful when there is a A high selection ratio and moderate base rate. B high selection ratio and low base rate. C low selection ratio and moderate base rate. d low selection ratio and low base rate

A low selection ratio means that there's lots of applicant to choose from (which is preferable to having only a few to choose from). A moderate base rate is preferable to a high or low base rate because this means that there's room for improvement in the selection process. When the base rate is high, the company is already doing a good job and doesn't need a new predictor; when the base rate is low, this usually means that something other than selection is the problem (e.g., the company's performance standards are too high or there just aren't enough good applicants to choose from).

All of the following are true regarding women and depression, except A marriage reduces the risk of depression to a greater extent for men than it does for women. B the more children a woman has, the more likely it is that she'll be depressed. C women who have multiple roles (e.g., a job, children, a marriage) are more vulnerable to depression than women who don't. d gender differences in coping style apparently are a reason why women are at a greater risk for depression than men

Choice C is not true; women who have multiple roles appear to be at lower risk for depression. This may be because they have many different support sources and outlets for their competence -- i.e., if their life is not going well in one area, they can compensate with success in other areas. The other choices, according to the APA Task Force Report on Women and Depression, are true. Regarding choice D, the report states that men may be at a lower risk than women because, in response to their problems, they are more likely to employ action and mastery (e.g., work, sports, going out with friends) strategies that distract them from their worries and give them a sense of power and control. Women, on the other hand, tend to brood and dwell on their problems

16. Which of the following contradicts the predictions of Herzberg's two-factor theory? A Workers say the same work-related factors cause satisfaction and dissatisfaction with work. B Workers say they prefer leaders who show a high level of both instrumentality and consideration. C Job satisfaction and job performance have a reciprocal relationship. D Job enrichment increases satisfaction for both blue- and white-collar workers.

The Correct Answer is "A" As long as you remembered that Herzberg views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as separate phenomena, you should have been able to pick the right answer to this question. According to Herzberg, the factors that cause dissatisfaction (hygiene factors) are different from those that contribute to satisfaction (motivator factors), which means that a person can be satisfied and dissatisfied at the same time.

. A primary tenet of rational-emotive therapy is that: A a belief determines behavior. B self-attributions determine behavior. C conditioning determines behavior. D internalized role constructs determine behavior

The Correct Answer is "A" RET is basically a cognitively-based theory even though in practice therapists use many modalities. The idea is that beliefs -- irrational beliefs -- determine our maladaptive behaviors. The belief that you mustn't make anyone mad at you is an example

An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that A the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate. B a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable. C a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. D a MANOVA involves simpler mathematical calculations.

The Correct Answer is "A" When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.

Which of these studies would be considered most unethical today? A Milgram's B Bandura C Zimbardo d BF Skinner's study of his own child

The Correct Answer is "A" ...the answer is Milgram's study. You may feel a different study is more unethical, but the Ethical Standards are specifically pertinent to Milgram's study. This study involved deception and no debriefing about that deception. Ethical Standard 8.07 (Deception in Research) addresses this, indicating that: "(a) Psychologists do not conduct a study involving deception unless they have determined that the use of deceptive techniques is justified by the study's significant prospective scientific, educational, or applied value and that effective nondeceptive alternative procedures are not feasible. (b) Psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress. (c) Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection, and permit participants to withdraw their data."

A within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants is referred to as: A counterbalancing B changing criterion C Latin square d Solomon four-group

The Correct Answer is "A" A. Counterbalancing is a within-subjects design that involves changing the order in which each treatment is administered to different groups of participants. The goal is to use every possible treatment sequence with equal numbers of participants for each sequence. If the number of participants is too small to permit the use of a completely counterbalanced research design, then researchers may use a type of partial counterbalancing like the Latin square design (c.). This design is useful for determining what exact sequences of treatment will be administered to the different participant groups. The changing criterion design (b.) is a single case design consisting of a series of phases with differing behavioral criterion set for each. The treatment is considered effective if the behavior reaches the criterion level for each phase. The Solomon four-group design (d.) is used to evaluate the effects of pretesting on internal and external validity

*Situations that legally permit a waiver of the privilege: A differ from state to state. B differ from state to state only in situations when clients are involuntarily hospitalized. C do not differ from state to state when clients are involuntarily hospitalized. d do not differ from state to state

The Correct Answer is "A" A. Legally-defined exceptions to privilege varies from state to state. However, most, if not all, states, waive privilege when a psychologist is acting in a court-appointed capacity; a client initiates a malpractice or other lawsuit against a therapist; a client has introduced a mental condition as a defense in a civil suit; a client has sought the assistance of a therapist solely for the purpose of committing a crime; and a therapist determines that a client is in need of hospitalization

The number of babies born with a chromosomal abnormality is approximately 1 in 200. Characterized by mental retardation and extreme obesity, Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by: A a chromosomal deletion B a chromosomal translocation C an extra chromosome d a missing chromosome

The Correct Answer is "A" A. Prader-Willi syndrome and cru-du-chat are two disorders caused by a chromosomal deletion which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. A chromosomal translocation (b.) occurs when a section of a chromosome is attached to another chromosome. An extra chromosome (c.) results in disorders such as Down Syndrome and Klinefelter Syndrome. A missing chromosome (d.) causes a disorder like Turner Syndrome which occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome

Different regression line slopes in a scatterplot suggests: A differential validity B a lack of factorial validity C divergent validity d a lack of convergent validity

The Correct Answer is "A" A. The slope of a regression line for a test is directly related to the test's criterion-related validity: The steeper the slope, the greater the validity. A test has differential validity when it has different validity coefficients for different groups, which is what is suggested by different regression line slopes in a scatterplot. Factorial validity (a.) refers to the extent a test or test item correlates with factors expected to be correlated with in a factor analysis. The extent a test does not correlate with measures of an unrelated construct is referred to as divergent validity (c.). Convergent validity (d.) refers to the degree a test correlates with measures of the same or a similar construct.

Criterion contamination would have the effect of A increasing the validity coefficient of a job selection test. B lowering the validity coefficient of a job selection test. C increasing the reliability coefficient, but not necessarily the validity coefficient, of a job selection test. d lowering the reliability coefficient, and therefore the validity coefficient, of a job selection test

The Correct Answer is "A" Criterion contamination can occur when ratings are used as the criterion measure in a predictive equation. If the rater knows the ratees' scores on the predictor, the rating process can be contaminated. For instance, let's say IQ is used as a predictor of job performance. If the rater of job performance knows that an employee has an IQ of 150, the rater may judge the employee's job performance high simply because he knows the employee is very intelligent. This is criterion contamination, and it results in a spuriously high validity coefficient. Here, for instance, the IQ test will look like a very good predictor of job performance; however, if the raters had not known the ratees' IQs beforehand, the IQ test may not have turned out to be such a great predictor at all.

Research by Foa et al. (1999) found which of the following treatments most effective for post-traumatic stress disorder? A prolonged exposure B stress inoculation training C response prevention d prolonged exposure combined with stress inoculation training

The Correct Answer is "A" Foa et. al. (1999) compared prolonged exposure, stress inoculation training, combined prolonged exposure and stress inoculation training, and a waiting list control group. The results indicated that all treatments (except the waiting list) were effective; however, prolonged exposure was superior to either stress inoculation training or the combined treatment. Response prevention (C) was not included in the study, and is typically used with disorders that include more of a behavioral component, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder (E. Foa, C. Dancu, E. Hembree, L. Jaycox, E. Meadows, & G. Street, A comparison of exposure therapy, stress inoculation training, and their combination for reducing posttraumatic stress disorder in female assault victims. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 1999, 67(2), 194-200).

*You've completed a psychological assessment on a child whose parents are divorced. They have joint custody. The child's mother doesn't want the father's girlfriend present for the debriefing session although the father does want her there. What do you do? (The mother paid for the testing). A Have only the custodial parents present B Have only the mother present C Have two sessions, one with the mother, one with the father and his girlfriend d Send everyone a copy of the report and only meet if one of the parents needs further clarification

The Correct Answer is "A" Having just the custodial parents present is probably your best course of action. You don't have the right to breach the child's confidentiality to the girlfriend-that is the father's call. Both parents do have a right to the results unless you can think of a reason that such access would be harmful to the child. Avoiding the situation by just sending a copy of the report isn't in line with the Standard 15.10 of Test Administration, Scoring and Reporting that indicates that those responsible for testing programs should provide appropriate interpretations when test score information is released. Finally, who paid for the testing is not pertinent to who has access to the results

As a management consultant for a corporation, a psychologist devises a way for employees working in groups to complete their work. The psychologist divides the employees into two teams. Each team has to complete a set of tasks, and all group members are free to work on any or all of the tasks. If all tasks are completed, each team member receives a bonus. If even one of the tasks is not completed, nobody receives a bonus. This is an example of which type of task? A additive B conjunctive C compensatory d disjunctive

The Correct Answer is "A" In the literature on the psychology of groups, a distinction between additive, conjunctive, disjunctive, and compensatory tasks is sometimes made. Additive tasks permit the addition of individual efforts so that the outcome is a combination of individual contributions. This is the type of task described by the question: The combined efforts of all group members will determine if the tasks are completed and team members receive a bonus. Let's briefly go through the other type of tasks: On conjunctive tasks, everyone must achieve a given goal in order for the task to be complete. As a result, task performance depends on the performance of the least competent group member. On disjunctive tasks, the group must choose one of many alternative ways to do the task. Thus, performance on a task depends on the performance of the most competent group member, because if one person can complete the task, the task gets completed. Finally, on compensatory tasks, the average performance of all group members represents the group's product.

A child is left alone in a classroom and sees a small toy that he would really like to have. The child doesn't take the toy because he doesn't want his teacher to think he's "bad." According to Kohlberg, this child is in which stage of moral development? A conventional B preconventional C heteronomous d autonomous

The Correct Answer is "A" Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional), and each of these levels is further divided into two stages. The child described in this question is in the first stage of the conventional level, which is sometimes called the "good boy/good girl" stage.

Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following? A sensory systems B motor systems C memory d mood

The Correct Answer is "A" Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not "shared with" the left hemisphere

People with red-green color blindness usually: A inherit the condition from their mothers B inherit the condition from their fathers C develop the condition during adolescence d produce daughters who are always color blind

The Correct Answer is "A" Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. That is, it is carried on the X chromosome. Since males have one X chromosome, donated by the mother, and one Y chromosome, donated by the father, a male child who receives one color blind gene from the mother will be color blind. However, because it is a recessive trait, females (XX) would need to receive the color blind gene from both parents in order to manifest color blindness - which is highly unlikely. This explains why 7% of American males are color blind, but only 0.4% of females are affected by this condition

The primary triggers of relapse in individuals attempting to quit smoking are withdrawal symptoms and A emotional factors such as negative affect. B environmental factors such as the presence of other smokers. C the use of alcohol, caffeine, or other substances that were associated with smoking in the person's past. d events that are attributed to external, uncontrollable, and global factors

The Correct Answer is "A" Research suggests that the primary physical factor in maintaining smoking is avoidance of withdrawal, and the primary psychological factor is regulation of emotional states. Specifically, smoking functions to minimize negative affects and evoke positive affects. This is why the most common triggers of relapse are withdrawal symptoms and negative affects

In which of the following circumstances would a psychologist's behavior most likely be considered unethical? A hands out her card to individuals in a tent-city whose homes have been destroyed by a hurricane B receives payment for reviewing a new book in her field, which is published in a popular lay magazine C has her name and picture featured in a magazine ad in which it is indicated her favorite scotch is Dewars d sends out announcements to local businesses that she is available to work as an EAP counselor

The Correct Answer is "A" The Ethical Principles do not ban all forms of solicitation. However, they do ban the solicitation of individuals who are, for whatever reason, "vulnerable to undue influence." Clearly, individuals who have just had their house destroyed are susceptible to undue influence. Thus, the psychologist in choice A would be acting unethically.

In treating a client suffering from an Anxiety Disorder, a behavior therapist instructs the client to deliberately engage in the anxiety-arousing behavior as often as possible. The therapist's goal in this situation is most likely to A neutralize the anticipatory anxiety that is the real source of the client's problem. B eliminate the client's usual avoidance behavior by evoking his resistance. C extinguish the anxiety-arousing behavior by removing the reinforcement that is maintaining it. d diminish the client's anxiety through interoceptive conditioning

The Correct Answer is "A" The behavioral technique described in this question is referred to as "paradoxical intention" and is similar in form to the paradoxical techniques used by family therapists, but differs in terms of its theoretical underpinnings. As used by behavior therapists, paradoxical intention is based on the assumption that a person avoids a certain behavior because of the anticipatory anxiety the behavior arouses. When a person deliberately engages in the behavior, a condition of incompatibility is set up and this condition serves to eliminate the anticipatory anxiety. The idea is that engaging in the behavior (or a wish to engage in the behavior) is incompatible with fear of that behavior and, consequently, the fear is neutralized.

*Damage to the hippocampus causes: A Amnesia B Pseudodementia C Weight loss d Tremors

The Correct Answer is "A" The hippocampus appears to be responsible for memory consolidation or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Bilateral destruction of the hippocampus, amygdala and medial temporal lobes produces a severe permanent anterograde amnesia.

*Item analysis is a procedure used to: A Determine which items will be retained for the final version of the test B Refer to the degree to which items differentiate among examinees C Graph depictions of percentages of people d Help the IRS with an audit

The Correct Answer is "A" The procedure used to determine what items will be retained for the final version of a test is the definition of item analysis. The degree to which items discriminate among examinees is the definition of Item Discrimination. A graph that depicts percentages of people is an item characteristic curve

Which of the following is the most likely indicator that a person is feigning a memory disorder? A The person has lost memory of personal identity but his memory for most other past events is intact. B The person's semantic memory is impaired but his procedural memory is intact. C Verbal memory is intact but non-verbal memory is impaired. D Memory for recent events in impaired but memory for remote events is intact.

The Correct Answer is "A" The symptom of loss of personal identity is rare. When it does occur (e.g., in Dissociative Fugue, Dissociative Identity Disorder, and sometimes in Dissociative Amnesia) it is almost always associated with loss of memory for other information. The DSM-IV warns clinicians first to rule out malingering when a person presents with loss of personal identity. Intact memory for most other past events would be a strong indicator that such a person is malingering

A behavior therapist would likely view anxiety as the result of: A classical conditioning, in which an aversive stimulus or negative life event served as an unconditioned stimulus. B classical conditioning, in which an aversive stimulus or negative life event served as a conditioned stimulus. C operant conditioning, in which a negative life event served as a punisher. D operant conditioning, in which the person is negatively reinforced for avoiding an anxiety-evoking stimulus.

The Correct Answer is "A" This is a good question, because it requires you to have a good grasp of the classical conditioning paradigm as well as understand some of the differences between classical and operant conditioning. First, you might remember that classical conditioning is associated with the acquisition of involuntary responses, whereas operant conditioning is associated with voluntary responses. If you remembered this, you should have been able to narrow the choices down to A and B, since anxiety is an involuntary, uncontrollable response. According to the classical conditioning model of anxiety, a stimulus or event that naturally evokes anxiety (the unconditioned stimulus, or US) is paired with a previously neutral stimulus (the conditioned stimulus, CS) until the neutral stimulus comes to elicit anxiety. For example, being stuck in an elevator (the US), by being paired with elevators in general (the CS), might cause an elevator phobia. If you chose D, you may have been thinking about avoidance conditioning, in which the avoidance response is negatively reinforced. However, in avoidance conditioning, the actual experience of anxiety is acquired through classical conditioning. Negative reinforcement is the mechanism that underlies the avoidance behavior, not the anxiety itself.

To save time, a personnel manager interviews 10 job applicants and then picks the best one rather than interviewing all 30 people who applied for the job. This type of decision-making is predicted by the: A administrative model. B rational-economic model. C transactional model. d nonrational model

The Correct Answer is "A" This is the way that people usually end up making decisions because they don't have the time or resources to consider all possible alternatives. According to the administrative decision-making model, this type of decision-making is referred to as "satisficing." (According to the rational-economic model, decision-making involves considering all possible alternatives.)

*Which of the following is the best description of flooding? A Exposure to a previously conditioned stimulus in the absence of a real aversive stimulus. B Gradual in-vivo exposure to the feared stimulus while increasing negative responses. C Imaginal exposure to a previously conditioned stimulus while conducting guided imagery. d Exposure to an aversive stimulus at its maximum intensity while the person is engaging in an undesirable act.

The Correct Answer is "A" This question exemplifies how the exam can sometimes take a relatively easy concept and describe it in convoluted language, thereby making the question more difficult than it needs to be. In flooding, a person is exposed to a feared stimulus in order to extinguish the fear. The theory underlying the technique is that the feared stimulus was previously a conditioned stimulus paired with an unconditioned aversive stimulus that naturally produces fear. In other words, choice "A" is one way to describe the technique.

Communication-interaction therapy espouses that communication has both a "report" function and a A Principle of equifinality B Command function C Circular model of causality D Paradoxical strategy

The Correct Answer is "B" Family therapists from the Mental Research Institute in Palo Alto such as Gregory Bateson, Virginia Satir, and Jay Haley described communication as having a "report function" that contains the content or informational aspect of the communication, and the "command function", that is often conveyed nonverbally and exemplifies the relationship between the communicators. The other choices are other concepts from the Mental Research Institute. "Principles of equifinality" refers to the idea that no matter where the system change occurs, the end result is the same. "Circular model of causality" is a concept in their approach that describes a symptom as both a cause and an effect of dysfunctional communication patterns. "Paradoxical strategies" include prescribing the symptom and relabeling, or changing the label a family attaches to a problem in order to change the meaning.

An interpersonal therapist who is working with a client suffering from a prolonged grief reaction would attempt to A connect the person's current grief reaction to losses of significant others in early childhood. B help the client understanding how the loss is impacting the current therapeutic relationship. C build up a positive relationship with the client and avoid discussing the loss until the termination phase of therapy. D modify the client's maladaptive behaviors under the assumption that psychological change follows behavioral change.

The Correct Answer is "B" Though "B" is an imprecise description of what an interpersonal therapist would do, it is the best answer available. Interpersonal therapists believe that depression is caused and maintained by disturbances in early life, especially attachment disturbances. Rather than focusing on the past, however, they focus on the connection between the presenting problem and client's current relationships -- including the current relationship with the therapist. Grief reactions are a common focus of interpersonal therapy.

Herbert Simon's decision-making model suggests that decision makers A consider all alternatives and then pick the best one. B consider alternatives only until they find one that seems acceptable. C consider only those alternatives that have a 50% or better chance of success. D rely more on their affective than cognitive reactions when choosing an alternative.

The Correct Answer is "B" To answer this question, you have to have the name Herbert Simon linked with the bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.

A 19-year-old college student has depressed mood, suicidal thoughts, and has been missing classes for the past week. The student's score on the global assessment of functioning scale (GAF) would most likely be: A 20 B 40 C 60 D 80

The Correct Answer is "B" According to the DSM-IV-TR, the presence of serious symptoms (e.g., suicidal ideation) or any serious impairment in social, occupational, or school functioning indicates a GAF score of approximately 40 - 50.

You would consider a diagnosis of Borderline Intellectual Functioning for an adolescent if his score on the Wechsler intelligence test is between __________ standard deviations below the mean. A .5 and 1.0 B 1.0 and 2.0 C 2.0 and 3.0 D 3.0 and 4.0

The Correct Answer is "B" As defined in DSM-IV, Borderline Intellectual Functioning requires an IQ score in the range of 71 to 84. On the Wechsler intelligence tests, the mean is 100 and the standard deviation is 15. This means that a score of 71 is slightly less than two standard deviations below the mean, and a score of 84 is slightly more than one standard deviation below the mean.

The term "success identity" is associated with: A Eric Berne B William Glasser C Fritz Perls d Carl Rogers

The Correct Answer is "B" B. According to Glasser's Reality Therapy, when an individual is capable of fulfilling his or her own needs for survival, power, belonging, freedom and fun, without harming self or infringing on the rights of others, then he or she has developed a "success identity." When the needs are met irresponsibly then the individual has developed a "failure identity." Bern (a.) is associated with transactional analysis (TA); Perls (c.) is associated with gestalt therapy; and Rogers (d.) is associated with client-centered therapy

A baby uses his/her hand to grab a toy and then squeezes it which produces an interesting sound, and this leads to the baby repeating the action. This is an example of what Piaget described as a: A primary circular reaction B secondary circular reaction C tertiary circular reaction d reflexive circular reaction

The Correct Answer is "B" B. Most of the cognitive development that occurs during the sensorimotor stage, according to Piaget, is the result of circular reactions - wherein a child learns to do something that produces an interesting or pleasurable experience which originally had happened by chance. Primary circular reactions (a.) center around the baby's own body and involve simple motor actions like thumb sucking. Secondary circular reactions are actions involving an other person or object and are predominate from 4 to 8 months of age. Tertiary circular reactions (c.) involve seeing what occurs when an original action is varied on an external object. This is predominate from 12 to 18 months of age. Piaget associated reflexes (d.) with cognitive development from birth to 1 month of age.

According to Sue and Sue (2003), what represents an "invisible veil" which operates outside the level of conscious awareness? A class-bound values B worldviews C cultural-bound values D cultural-universality

The Correct Answer is "B" B. Sue and Sue state that individuals are products of cultural conditioning with their worldviews, or values and beliefs, representing an "invisible veil" which operates outside the level of conscious awareness. The resulting assumption is that everyone shares the same reality and truth regardless of race, culture, ethnicity, or gender. This assumption of universality is erroneous yet seldom questioned due to being firmly ingrained in one's worldview, and often results in people operating on misinformation. Cultural universality (d.) refers to the assumption that Western concepts of normality and abnormality can be considered universal and equally applicable across all cultures. Cultural relativism, including lifestyles, class values (a.), cultural values (c.) and worldviews, affect the expression and determination of deviant behavior. (Sue, D.W., & Sue, D. (2003). Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice (4th ad.). New York: John Wiley.)

The first, non-pathologizing model of homosexual identity formation is associated with which of the following individuals? A Troiden B Cass C Sophie D Hanley-Hackenbrunch

The Correct Answer is "B" B. Vivienne Cass proposed individuals go through a six-stage, non-age specific, process of homosexual identity development. The stages are: identity awareness (conscious of being different); identity comparison (believes may be homosexual, acts heterosexual); identity tolerance (realizes is homosexual); identity acceptance (begins to explore gay community); identity pride (becomes active in gay community); and synthesis (fully accepts self and others). Richard Troiden (a.) outlined a four-stage age-graded model: sensitization, identity confusion, identity, identity assumption, and commitment. (See: Cass, V. C. (1979). Homosexual identity formation: A theoretical model. Journal of Homosexuality, 4, 219-235) Sophie (c.) postulated a four-stage coming out process: first awareness, testing and exploration, identity acceptance, and commitment. Hanley-Hackenbruch developed a three-stage model: prohibition; ambivalence/practicing or compulsion/exploration; and consolidation/integration. Two limitations shared by all four of the models are: the assumption of a stable, core sexual orientation which, at least in the final stages, excludes bisexual or transgender identity development; and the cross-cultural applicability of the developmental models.

Depressogenic schemata such as arbitrary inference and selective abstraction are associated with: A Lewinsohn B Beck C Seligman d Ellis

The Correct Answer is "B" Depressogenic schemata, or cognitive distortions, such as overgeneralization, personalization, magnification, arbitrary inference, and selective abstraction are reflected statements in Beck's "depressive cognitive triad." Lewinsohn (response "A") is associated with the findings that depressed individuals' self-evaluations reflect an unbiased perception of reality and more accurately correspond with observer evaluations, Seligman (response "C") is associated with the theory of learned helplessness, and Ellis (response "D") with Reactive Emotive Therapy (RET).

Experimenters find conformity is lowest when the: A group size is reduced from 15 to 6. B subject has a "partner" in the group who shares his or her opinion. C subject is "deserted" by a partner. d stimuli to be judged are highly ambiguous

The Correct Answer is "B" Experimenters have found that just having a "partner" in a group liberates an individual to latch on to the partner and defy the wrong majority. Reducing the size isn't correct, since, if anything, reducing the size is likely to increase group cohesiveness and thereby increase conformity. The remaining choices also are incorrect because they would increase the pressure to conform.

Failure to recognize one's functional deficits is referred to as: A agnosia B anosognosia C apraxia d receptive aphasia

The Correct Answer is "B" Failure to recognize one's functional deficits is referred to as anosognosia. It usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe. Agnosia (A) is an inability to recognize objects. Apraxia (C) is a loss in ability to perform motor acts. And receptive aphasia (D), also known as Wernicke's aphasia, is the loss of the ability to comprehend language, which also results in the production of inappropriate language

Which of the following would most likely improve the quality of decision making in a group? A increasing the cohesiveness of the group B decreasing the cohesiveness of the group C increasing emphasis on group consensus d use of a directive leader

The Correct Answer is "B" Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group which often results in poor decision-making. You should be familiar with the factors which contribute to groupthink, which include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. Since increasing cohesiveness increases the pressure to conform, it is likely that decreasing the cohesiveness of a group should decrease the pressure to conform. In some circumstances, seeking consensus or unanimity can actually improve decision-making; however, it often becomes detrimental when the drive for consensus prevents full consideration of alternative decisions

In implosive therapy: A the client is gradually exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time. B a client is immediately exposed, through the imagination, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity. C the client is gradually exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus, one step at a time. d a client is immediately exposed, in-vivo, to a feared stimulus at its maximum intensity.

The Correct Answer is "B" Implosive therapy involves imaginal exposure to a feared stimulus. The person is immediately exposed to the stimulus at its maximum intensity. The purpose of implosive therapy is to extinguish a person's fear; in addition, the technique incorporates psychodynamic themes thought to underlie the fear into the imagery

In Super's theory of career development, the rainbow is used to illustrate: A the skills, abilities, and knowledge that a person brings to a job. B the different roles a person assumes during the course of his or her life. C the stages of career maturity. d the social and other environmental determinants of career choice

The Correct Answer is "B" In his recent writings, Super depicts various aspects of his theory of career development with illustrations. His "life career rainbow" depicts nine major life roles (e.g., student, parent, spouse) that have an impact on a person's career choice

In contrast to feminist therapists, non-sexist therapists: A emphasize the importance of therapist self-disclosure B focus more on individual change than social change C de-emphasize the effects of gender on personality development d stress the egalitarian nature of the therapist-client relationship

The Correct Answer is "B" Note that this question is asking how non-sexist therapy differs from feminist therapy. A key distinction is that non-sexist therapy is more concerned with personal responsibility and personal change, while feminist therapy places equal or greater emphasis on the sociopolitical contributions to pathology and the need for social change

A family with an elderly parent who is in the early stages of Alzheimer's Dementia presents for a initial consultation. The best intervention on the part of a psychologist would be to A work with the elderly patient on memory exercises. B refer the family to a support group. C begin family therapy to explore how the patient's diagnosis has affected family subsystems. d work with the identified patient in individual therapy

The Correct Answer is "B" Psychological treatment of Alzheimer's focuses primarily on optimizing the patient's immediate environment and providing support for the patient and his or her family. Both these goals can be met at least to some extent through a referral to a support group.

Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true? A Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to result in incomplete development of the autonomic nervous system. B Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most severe negative impact on the developing brain. C Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to cause physical disabilities that prevent the child from developing at a normal rate. D Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is not likely to have a significant physiological effect on the developing fetus; observed deficits in these children are probably due to social and environmental causes.

The Correct Answer is "B" Severe prenatal malnutrition is likely to have differential effects, depending on when in pregnancy it occurs. In the first trimester, it can result in congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion. In the third trimester (as well as in the first 3-6 months after birth), it is most likely to have a negative effect on the central nervous system -- specifically, the brain. Studies have suggested that these children often have an abnormally low number of brain cells and brain weight. The specific behavioral consequences may include apathy, unresponsiveness to environmental stimulation, irritability, an abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development

According to the hopelessness theory of depression, hopelessness is a: A proximal necessary cause of depression B proximal sufficient cause of depression C distal necessary cause of depression D distal sufficient cause of depression

The Correct Answer is "B" The hopelessness theory of depression is a revised version of the 1978 reformulated theory of helplessness and depression. The authors of the hopelessness theory propose that hopelessness is a cause, rather than a symptom, of depression. Specifically, they suggest that hopelessness is a "proximal sufficient cause" of depression. "Proximal," in this case, means that in a chain of causal factors, hopelessness occurs at the end of the chain - closest to the resulting symptoms of depression. "Sufficient," in this case, means that the presence of hopelessness is enough to cause depression. However, contrary to Choice A, hopelessness is not a necessary condition for depression. That is, factors other than hopelessness can also cause depression [L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, & L. B. Alloy, Psychological Review, 1989, 96(2), 358-372].

An individual who produces normal sounding speech that makes little or no sense and is usually unaware of this deficit is most likely to have damage in the: A cingulate sulcus B temporal lobe C corpus callosum d frontal lobe

The Correct Answer is "B" This is a description of Wernicke's aphasia, also known as receptive or fluent aphasia, which can be caused by damage to Wernicke's area in the temporal lobe.

When a person is given time to remember a list of unrelated words and is then immediately asked to recall the words in any order, he will recall words at the beginning and the end of the list to about the same degree and better than words in the middle of the list. If there is a brief delay (10 or 30 seconds) between studying the words and recalling them, the person will A recall words at the end of the list best. B recall words at the beginning of the list best. C recall words in the middle of the list best. d recall words in the beginning, middle, and end of the list to about the same degree.

The Correct Answer is "B" This question is asking about the serial position effect, which predicts that the poorest recall will be for information in the middle of a list. Research on the serial position effect has shown that memory for information at the beginning and end of a list varies, depending on whether there is a delay before recall is required. When there is a brief delay, memory for information at the beginning of the list is better than memory for information at the end of the list.

In addition to tolerance and withdrawal, which of the following is a criterion for the diagnosis "Substance Dependence?" A daily use of the substance B the substance is taken in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended C frequent cravings to use the substance D recurrent substance-related legal problems

The Correct Answer is "B" Three (or more) of seven criteria are required for diagnosing Substance Dependence: Tolerance; Withdrawal; Substance use in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended (B); Persistent desire to cut down or control substance use; Much time spent obtaining, using, or recovering from substance use; Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of substance use; Substance use is continued despite persistent or recurrent physical or psychological consequences caused by the substance use. None of the other choices in this question is a criterion of Substance Dependence; however, Choice D (recurrent substance-related legal problems) is one of the criteria for Substance Abuse

In the last two decades, the greatest increase in suicide rates has been among those A under the age of 15. B aged 15 to 24. C aged 35 to 44. d aged 65 to 74.

The Correct Answer is "B" While suicide rates have been increasing for adolescents and young adults and for older adults, the increase is greatest for the younger-aged group. (See S. J. Blumenthal and D. J. Kupfer, Suicide Over the Life Cycle, Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Press, 1990.)

A researcher who is interested in determining the correct language to use in referring to members of ethnic minorities in a research article should refer to information published by A the US Census Bureau. B the American Psychological Association (APA). C the research committee in the setting where the research takes place. d the state licensing board.

The Correct Answer is "B"The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association is the authority on questions of style (e.g., word usage, formatting) in research articles. It includes a section on choosing nouns referring to racial and ethnic groups

*A person who takes the MMPI-2 obtains a score of 62 on the depression scale. This means that A the person is probably clinically depressed. B the test results are not valid. C the person's score is 1.2 standard deviation units above the mean. d the person's score is 12 raw score points above the mean

The Correct Answer is "C" A T-score is a standardized score, which means that it indicates how many standard deviation units a given raw score is above or below the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. This means that a score of 62 -- 12 T-score points above the mean -- is 1.2 standard deviations above the mean, since 10 X 1.2 is 12

According to literature reviews on the subject, women who have abortions generally A have significant psychological problems related to guilt and depression. B see abortion as a normal process and suffer no problems. C experience a level of stress that is similar to that experienced by women who have children. d experience sexual dysfunctions and other difficulties in relationships with men.

The Correct Answer is "C" According to literature reviews on the subject, psychological responses to unwanted pregnancies terminated by abortion tend to parallel responses to other life stresses, such as bearing a child. Responses have both positive components, such as relief, as well as negative components; however, the review suggests that positive components tend to dominate and negative components do not persist. Severe negative reactions are rare; when they do occur, they seem to be related to other factors (e.g., cultural and religious beliefs, actual and perceived social support, length of gestation before the abortion occurs), rather than the abortion per se

According to the central limit theorem, A as sample size increases, the shape of a sample distribution becomes more normal. B as the size of a sampling distribution of means increases, its distribution becomes more normal. C as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means becomes more normal. d as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approximates the shape of the population distribution.

The Correct Answer is "C" According to the central limit theorem, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approaches normality as sample size increases. The central limit theorem is covered in the Advanced Statistics section of your materials, and you should study it after you have a reasonably solid grasp of the material presented in the rest of the section

Asian-American clients are LEAST likely to: A prefer a direct-structured approach to therapy B be inhibited and reserved in therapy C smile to express disapproval d use silence as a way of communicating respect

The Correct Answer is "C" Although Asian-Americans are a diverse group, certain generalizations have been found. Asian-Americans tend to prefer a direct-structured approach to therapy (A), are inhibited and reserved in therapy (B), and use silence as a way of communicating respect (D). When Asian-Americans smile and laugh it may convey meanings other than happiness, in particular, embarrassment, discomfort, or shyness; however, smiling is less likely to be used to express disapproval. Sue and Sue (1999) have noted that this cultural difference may have contributed to conflicts in Los Angeles following the Rodney King verdict, when African-Americans misinterpreted Korean store owners' smiling as arrogance and a lack of compassion, when they were actually expressing embarrassment and apprehension [Counseling the Culturally Different: Theory and Practice, 3rd Ed., New York: John Wiley].

According to Holland, career choice is optimal when there is a good "fit" between: A interests and job demands. B self-concept and the job requirements. C personality type and the job environment. d values and the intrinsic meaning of the job.

The Correct Answer is "C" Although Holland is probably most associated with interests, his theory proposes that interests are actually determined by personality. In addition, it proposes that workers will be happy and most productive when their personality matches the characteristics of the work environment

All of the following would be standard aspects in the assessment and diagnosis of Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type, except A administering a mental status exam. B administering tests of neuropsychological functioning. C administering medical tests designed to identify the presence of the Alzheimer's gene. d using neuroimaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

The Correct Answer is "C" Although some progress has been made recently in identifying genetic markers of Alzheimer's Disease, there is no diagnostic test currently available that can isolate an Alzheimer's gene. Indeed, direct evidence that a person has this disease is hard to come by. Instead, the diagnostic process involves determining that the diagnostic criteria for the disorder are met, the typical features of Alzheimer's are present, and other possible causes of the disturbance have been ruled out. Choices A, B, and D all describe techniques that are typically part of this diagnostic process

Marfan's syndrome and Von Willebrand's disease are due to: A an X-linked dominant gene B an X-linked recessive gene C an autosomal dominant gene d an autosomal recessive gene

The Correct Answer is "C" C. Like Huntington's disease, these disorders are genetic disorders caused by an autosomal dominant gene, meaning that they occur in the presence of only one gene on a chromosome that is not a sex (X or Y) chromosome. Von Willebrand's disease, which causes blood clotting defects, is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder, affecting at least 1% of the population. Marfan's syndrome affects the connective tissue and it is estimated that at least 1 in 5,000 people in the United States have the disorder

___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable. A differential validity B criterion contamination C criterion deficiency d researcher deficiency

The Correct Answer is "C" Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity ("A") refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination ("B") occurs when a rater's knowledge of an employee's performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion

You are hired by a company to evaluate applicants and current employees for the purposes of hiring, promotion, training, and termination. You are told that the company has applicants and employees sign a waiver of confidentiality prior to seeing you. Which of the following best describes your best course of action in this situation? A You should tell the employer that the company's policy violates your ethical obligations and refuse to do the evaluations until the policy is changed. B You should conduct the evaluations but provide the employer only with information that is directly relevant to the purpose of the evaluation. C You should discuss the impact of the waiver with applicants and employees and see if they want to continue with the evaluation process. d You should provide the employer with any requested information since applicants and employees have already signed a waiver of confidentiality.

The Correct Answer is "C" In any situation, a general waiver is not the best approach. Waivers should be specific in terms of the kind of information that will be revealed. The best answer to this question would probably be some combination of responses A and C (you'd want to discuss the issue with the employer). However, it's not necessary to refuse to do the evaluations as long as you discuss the implications of the waiver with the applicants and employees, so response C is the best answer.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding sensory memory? A It has virtually an unlimited capacity. B It does not retain information for more than 2 seconds. C It stores altered forms of the original stimulus. d It stores iconic, echoic, and haptic memories

The Correct Answer is "C" In the three-stage model of memory, sensory memory is the first stage. It preserves a large amount of sensory information for a very brief period of time (only a second or two). Information from all the senses can be stored in sensory memory. Visual stimuli are stored as "iconic" memories; auditory stimuli are stored as "echoic" memories; and kinesthetic stimuli are stored as "haptic" memories. Contrary to Choice C, sensory memories are believed to be represented in the form of the original stimuli; that is, they are not stored in an altered form.

A personnel director devises four measures to be used as selection techniques for police officers. She plans on using multiple regression to combine the scores on the four measures in order to predict an applicant's score on a measure of job performance. You suggest that multiple regression is not the appropriate method in this situation because: A multiple regression is used only when the criterion includes three or more orthogonal categories. B multiple regression is used only when there are two or more criteria that are each measured on a continuous scale. C the characteristics assessed by the four measures are noncompensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure cannot be compensated for by a high score on another measure. d the characteristics assessed by the four measures are compensatory; i.e., a low score on one measure can be compensated for by a high score on another measure

The Correct Answer is "C" It isn't clear from the question what would be wrong with multiple regression in this situation. However, by process of elimination, only response C is correct. Responses A and B aren't true about multiple regression, and response D is incorrect because multiple regression is compensatory and would be appropriate if a high score on one measure could compensate for a low score on another measure. Multiple regression isn't the appropriate technique when the characteristics measured by the different predictors are noncompensatory

*Increasing internal validity is best achieved by: A random selection B matching C random assignment d blocking

The Correct Answer is "C" Known as the "great equalizer," randomization of subjects to groups is the most powerful way for controlling extraneous variables. Unlike random assignment which occurs after subjects are selected, random selection refers to a method of selecting subjects to participate from the population being studied. Random selection influences external validity. Matching, a procedure to ensure equivalency on a specific extraneous variable, and blocking, studying the effects of the extraneous variable, are also methods of increasing internal validity.

Which of the following statements regarding the need to obtain informed consent before releasing client information is most true? A A psychologist should always obtain informed consent from the client before releasing information. B Before consulting with a colleague about a case, a psychologist must always obtain informed consent from the client. C A psychologist must obtain informed consent from a client some of the time before releasing information. d If a psychologist wants to release information about a case, he or she may do so without obtaining informed consent.

The Correct Answer is "C" Ordinarily, you need to obtain informed consent from a client before releasing information you've obtained from him or her. However, this is not always the case; for instance, when you reasonably suspect child abuse, you are legally obligated to file a report with the appropriate state agency -- with or without the client's consent. As for consulting situations (choice B), informed consent from the client is not necessary as long as you adequately disguise the client's identity

When men and women are asked to judge photos of women's faces: A attractive women are viewed as less intelligent. B there is no relation between ratings of beauty and personality. C unattractive women are rated as having less positive personalities. d women and men disagree on standards of facial beauty.

The Correct Answer is "C" Researchers find a consistently moderate positive correlation between ratings of facial beauty and ratings of personality and intelligence, regardless of whether the faces are female or male. This is an example of the halo effect. In other words, attractive people are rated as having better personalities and unattractive people are rated less positively.

A woman who has been abused by her husband comes to therapy. What would a family systems therapist do first in this case? A invite the husband into therapy B teach her how to manage her husband's anger C find out if the woman is currently safe from abuse and, if necessary, rehearse an escape plan with her d explore patterns of abuse in her family of origin

The Correct Answer is "C" The key word in this question is "first." The first concern in this case -- for a systems therapist as well as any other therapist -- is to ensure the client's safety, and only choice C addresses this issue. If the client's safety were not an issue, A would probably be the best answer, since systems therapists would focus on the whole system rather than its constituent parts. In other words, they would want to work with the couple rather than just one of the spouses. Choice D sounds like something an extended family systems (Bowenian) therapist would do. Although Bowen's work is based on systems theory, so are many other schools of family therapy. Therefore, D is the third best answer -- A, which applies more generally to systems theory, is better

According to Aaron Beck, when faced with a negative event, a depressed person is most likely to maintain an: A internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility B internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility C external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility d external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

The Correct Answer is "C" The locus of control/locus of responsibility model adds another element to the learned helplessness model in regards to depression. As you know, the learned helplessness model views depressed people as making internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events. However, the "internal" factor in the helplessness model refers only to locus of responsibility. As seen in the cognitive distortion called "personalization," a depressed person uses an internal locus of responsibility to blame him or herself for negative events. Paradoxically, depressed people also feel a lack of control over events, that is, they have an external locus of control - seeing external factors such as fate, luck, or other people as the cause of what happens to them

Research has found all of the following to be true regarding aggressiveness in children and adolescents except: A aggressive youth are more likely than their peers to believe that aggressive behavior will have positive outcomes. B aggressive youth have fewer behavioral responses to social situations than their peers. C aggressive youth are more likely than their peers to base their interpretation of social interactions on cues that occurred at the beginning of the social interactions. d aggressive youth are more likely than their peers to misinterpret other's behaviors as intentionally hostile.

The Correct Answer is "C" The recency effect has been shown to be more pronounced than the primacy effect in regards to aggressiveness in children and adolescents. That is, they are more likely to focus on cues that occurred at the end of a social interaction than at the beginning. All of the other statements regarding youth aggressiveness are true

Research investigating methods for treating Dysthymia suggest that A interpersonal therapy is superior to cognitive behavioral therapy in terms of both short- and long-term effects. B cognitive behavioral therapy is superior to interpersonal therapy in terms of both short- and long-term effects. C interpersonal therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy are similarly effective but somewhat less effective for Dysthymia than for Major Depression. D interpersonal therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy are both ineffective when used alone and marginally effective when used in combination.

The Correct Answer is "C" The research on treatments for Dysthymia is pretty scarce but there are a few studies that have shown that IPT and CBT are both effective, although not quite as effective as they are for Major Depression. See J. C. Markowitz, Psychotherapy of dysthymia. Is it effective? American Journal of Psychiatry, 1994, 151, 1114-1121.

Dreams occur: A Only during REM sleep B Only during non-REM sleep C During both REM and non-REM sleep d Primarily during Stage 1 sleep

The Correct Answer is "C" The typical sleep cycle begins with Stage One and progresses to Stage Two, Three and Four. This is followed by a period of REM sleep. Initially, it was believed that all dreaming occurred during REM sleep, but it is now known that dreams also occur during non REM sleep. Dreams during REM sleep are much more vivid and more likely to be remembered when the sleeper awakes

An elevated F score on the MMPI-2 (i.e., the F is greater than 70 and the K is very low) indicates that the: A person is answering in a socially desirable manner. B score should be considered in relation to the total profile. C person is likely being careless or deliberately malingering. d total profile can be considered valid

The Correct Answer is "C" The validity scales on the MMPI-2, of which the F is one, are checks on response styles. Specifically, the F scale indicates if the person is answering in a deviant way, or is perhaps actually deviant. The higher the F, the more the answers suggest that the person is attempting to appear odd, disturbed, etc.

A 14-year old is brought to your office. He does not want to be there. His mother notes that they are referred by the school. The only presenting complaint is that his grades are much poorer than last year. Your evaluation indicates no significant other problematic areas in his life. Your best course of action is to: A schedule ongoing treatment with yourself. B continue your assessment to ascertain the presence of hidden pathology. C explore the possibility of an educational intervention. d not do anything

The Correct Answer is "C" This is a practical, and often realistic, problem. You have a 14-year-old who doesn't want to come to you. You have a referral from the school that his grades are going down. You made an assessment that there doesn't appear, now anyway, to be any psychiatric disorder. So, what would you do? There's no need to suggest treatment since he doesn't want to come see you. And, besides, you haven't found any problems. You wouldn't continue an assessment since, from the information given, you already concluded there isn't much psychological conflict present. You could do nothing, telling him to come back to you if things get worse. That's one possibility. Another possibility presented as a choice is to explore some educational intervention, such as talking to his teachers to investigate how his school environment might be optimized. So you could certainly propose intervening with the school. And between suggesting this, and doing nothing, we'd go with exploring a school-based intervention.

You are testing a cross-section of minority clients including New Zealanders, Hispanics, African-Americans and Asians. The New Zealander's group turns out to serve as a moderator variable. This means the test has A Cross validation B Shrinkage C Differential validity d Criterion contamination

The Correct Answer is "C" Variables that affect the validity of a test are moderator variables. When a moderator variable is present a test is said to have differential validity--meaning there would be a different validity coefficient for the New Zealanders group than for the others.

Which of the following ethnic groups has the highest proportion of reported incidents of child abuse? A Asian B Hispanic C Native American D White

The Correct Answer is "C" Of the reported cases of child abuse, 50% are White; 25% are African American; 15% are Hispanic; 2% are Native American; and 1% are Asian/Pacific Islanders. However, the proportions of child abuse victims who are Native American or African American are two times greater than the proportions of these children in the general population [Child Maltreatment 2001: Summary of Key Findings. U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. Washington, DC: U.S. Government Printing Office].

Recent literature comparing leadership and management has identified several similarities and differences. Which of the following set of characteristics is more critical for today's leaders than for managers? A rational, persistent, and tough-minded B problem-solving, persistent, and independent C visionary, authoritative, and tough-minded D independent, innovative, and flexible

The Correct Answer is "D" A topic of recent interest in the I/O literature is the difference between leaders and managers. Characteristics that are considered particularly important for leaders include: visionary, creative, flexible, inspiring, courageous, and independent. See G. Capowski, Anatomy of a leader: Where are the leaders of tomorrow?, Management Review, 1994, p. 2

17. Low LPC leaders would be most likely to say: A More beautiful paint colors in this office make us all feel better B Flex-time was a brilliant invention C It's time for a change around here D The first one to hand in this budget report wins the office lottery pool

The Correct Answer is "D" According to Fiedler's 1971 contingency theory, a leader's effectiveness is determined by a combination of the leader's style and the characteristics of the situation. Low LPC leaders are task and achievement oriented. Answers A and B could describe High LPC leaders who are primarily relationship oriented. Answer C could describe a transformational leader which Bass (1990) (see I/O section) described as change focused

10. Which of the following is least likely to cause secondary impotence? A medication use B alcohol use C diabetes mellitus D old age

The Correct Answer is "D" Secondary impotence is diagnosed when a man persistently or recurrently fails to attain or maintain an erection even though in the past he has successfully achieved an erection. The erectile reflex is usually unimpaired in older men; therefore, aging alone is not likely to be a cause of impotence. The other responses are common physical causes of secondary impotence

9. You are completing a court-ordered evaluation in order to determine the person's competency to stand trial and during the administration of the MMPI-2 your client jumps out of his seat and shouts "OK, OK, I killed her!" Now you are A obligated to include this information in your report; it is a court-ordered report. B obligated to include this information; privilege is waived because the mental status is part of the defense. C obligated to include this information; privilege is waived because you know have a Tarasoff situation. D not obligated to include the confessional information

The Correct Answer is "D" Since the question does not indicate that the client has waived consent, the law protects the defendant at this juncture. He is protected by laws that prohibit the use of evaluation data to determine the defendant's guilt. The best course of action is to not include any incriminating evidence in the competency report, but instead only information relevant to the defendant's competence (G.B. Melton, Psychological Evaluations for the Court, New York, Guilford, 1987).

If you administer a measure of global job satisfaction to employees at the Acme Corporation, you would expect to find the highest levels of satisfaction among workers aged: A 20 to 25. B 30 to 35. C 40 to 45. D 50 to 55.

The Correct Answer is "D" The relationship between age and satisfaction actually depends on what aspect of satisfaction you're measuring. However, the question refers to global satisfaction, and the research has found that higher levels of global job satisfaction are associated with older age and vice versa.

A needs assessment is usually conducted to: A acertain a job applicant's skills B describe the requirements of a job C determine the relative worth of a job d identify the needs of an organization

The Correct Answer is "D" A needs assessment involves identifying the needs of the organization. A needs assessment is often conducted to determine which employees need training and what should be included in that training. Choice B describes the purpose of a job analysis, which is to describe the requirements of a job. And choice C describes the purpose of a job evaluation, which is to determine the salary levels of jobs

A forensic psychologist is asked to review and make conclusions regarding a defendant's psychological evaluation that was conducted 4 years ago following a similar crime that the defendant is now accused of. The psychologist should: A refuse the request B comply with the request but interpret the previous findings with caution C reevaluate the person and disregard the previous findings d reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution

The Correct Answer is "D" According to the Forensic Specialty Guidelines, "Forensic psychologists avoid giving written or oral evidence about the psychological characteristics of particular individuals when they have not had an opportunity to conduct an examination of the individual..." And, according to Ethical Standard 9.08, psychologists also do not base their decisions on outdated results. Thus, the psychologist in this case should make a reasonable effort to reevaluate the person. However, it would probably be inappropriate to completely disregard the previous findings. The best approach would be to reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution

Alzheimer's Dementia is most often associated with damage to the: A frontal lobe B parietal lobe C occipital lobe D temporal lobe

The Correct Answer is "D" Although it is not known whether the deficits of Alzheimer's Dementia are caused by diffuse damage to the brain or focused in a particular lobe, most research has linked it to damage to the temporal lobe. This is consistent with the important role of the temporal lobe in long-term memory (e.g., R. Wilson, M. Sullivan, L. deToledo-Morrell, G. Stebbins, D. Bennett, & F. Morrell. Association of memory and cognition in alzheimer's disease with volumetric estimates of temporal lobe structures. Neuropsychology, 1996, 10(4), 459-463).

Early memory and attention deficits in Alzheimer's disease are believed to be caused by decreased activity in A dopaminergic neurons. B serotenergic neurons. C GABAergic neurons. d cholinergic neurons

The Correct Answer is "D" As knowledge about Alzheimer's accumulates, more is being learned about the neurotransmitters involved in the disease. Acetylcholine (a cholinergic neurotransmitter) was the first to be implicated and appears to be the neurotransmitter most involved, especially in early memory and attention deficits. However, serotonin, norepinephrine, and glutamate also seem to be involved but may be more important for symptoms that appear in the later stages of the disorder

Curriculum-based assessment is A a form of norm-referenced assessment designed to compare the performance of students to other students who are receiving the same type of instruction. B used to evaluate a curriculum in order to identify how it should be improved or changed. C used to compare the curriculum at an educational institution to that of other institutions with similar students and goals. D used to evaluate student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional style.

The Correct Answer is "D" Curriculum-based assessment provides information about a student in the context of the existing curriculum. The results of such an assessment not only indicate the student's performance level -- they also provide feedback about the instruction itself, so that necessary changes can be made to better fit the student's ability and current knowledge. In contrast to choice A, curriculum-based assessment is criterion-referenced, since it involves evaluating the student's performance in light of an external standard (the curriculum). Norm-referenced assessment would involve evaluating a student's performance by way of a comparison to other students. In contrast to choice B, the assessment is not designed to bring about changes in the curriculum itself -- rather, its purpose is to help identify progress in terms of the existing curriculum and any change in instruction (e.g., pace, sequencing of topics) that would aid the student's progress in completing the curriculum

*Structural equation modeling is used to: A classify participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors. B to evaluate convergent and divergent validity. C to identify homogeneous groups from a collection of observations. d to evaluate predictive relationships between measured variables and latent factors

The Correct Answer is "D" D. Structural equation modeling is a technique used to evaluate or confirm the cause-and-effect or hypothesized relationship between both measured and latent variables. Classifying participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors (a.) is referred to as discriminant function analysis. Convergent and divergent validity is evaluated (b.) using the multitrait-multimethod matrix. Cluster analysis (c.) is a method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories. It can be used to discover structures in data without providing an explanation/interpretation

A managed care company asks a psychologist to conduct a study on the relative effectiveness of a 10-week therapy program for depression vs. a 20-week therapy program. The company plans to publish the results of the research if no significant difference is found but will not publish the results if the longer therapy program is more effective. The psychologist should: A agree to conduct the study because it is within the company's rights to publish or not publish their research findings B agree to conduct the study if the psychologist is able to approve any article submitted for publication C agree to conduct the study only if all research participants are appropriately debriefed at the conclusion of the study d refuse to conduct the study

The Correct Answer is "D" Ethical Standard 5.01 states, "Psychologists do not knowingly make public statements that are false, deceptive, or fraudulent, concerning their research, practice, or other work activities or those of persons or organizations with which they are affiliated." Although in this case the psychologist is asked not to publish data, this would still be deceptive. It also is inconsistent with General Principle A of the Ethics Code which states that, "psychologists seek to safeguard the welfare and rights of those with whom they interact professionally and other affected persons.... Because psychologists' scientific and professional judgments and actions may affect the lives of others, they are alert to and guard against personal, financial, social, organizational, or political factors that might lead to misuse of their influence."

The leading cause of death in the United States for all age groups combined is: A cancer B stroke C suicide d heart disease

The Correct Answer is "D" Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the U.S. (31%) when all age groups, races, and sexes are combined. Cancer is the second leading cause of death (23%), followed by stroke (7%). Suicide is the 8eighth leading cause (1.3%). [See S.L. Murphy, Deaths: Final data for 1998, National Vital Statistics Report, 2000, 48(11). Hyattsville, MD: National Center for Health Statistics. DHHS Publication No. (PHS) 2000-1120].

All of the following are factors that typically distinguish Dissociative Amnesia from amnesia due to known physical causes, except A in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is primarily for autobiographical information. B in Dissociative Amnesia, cognitive abilities are usually preserved. C in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss can be reversed. d in Dissociative Amnesia, memory impairment is typically limited to information occurring immediately before an emotional trauma.

The Correct Answer is "D" In Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is usually for information acquired after the emotional trauma that brings on the symptoms. There is typically a gap or a series of gaps in recall for the individual's life history. By contrast, in some forms of Amnestic Disorder (e.g., in Amnestic Disorder Due to a Brain Injury), memory loss is typically for information in a circumscribed period of time immediately before the injury occurs. All of the other choices describe features that typically distinguish between Dissociative Amnesia and amnesia due to known physical causes.

Some studies indicate that the rate of ADHD symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity among identical twins with ADHD to be A .20 B .40 C .60 D .80

The Correct Answer is "D" In terms of the role of genetics, some studies indicate higher rates of ADHD among relatives of afflicted individuals. For example, Biederman (1995) found that when a parent had childhood-onset ADHD, the risk for this diagnosis among his or her offspring was 57%. Additionally, a review of twin studies (Stevens, 1994) indicated that the average heritability is .80 for hyperactivity and impulsivity

You see a substance abuser who has been referred to therapy as a condition of probation. The man tells you that he is seeking therapy only to avoid jail time and that he does not think he needs therapy. Regarding informed consent in this situation, which of the following statements is true? A You don't have to get informed consent because the judge ordered treatment. B You don't have to obtain informed consent because convicted criminals don't have the right to refuse treatment. C You don't have to obtain informed consent because there's no way that consent can truly be informed in this situation. d You cannot treat the patient unless you obtain his informed consent

The Correct Answer is "D" In working with court-referred patients, psychologists must obtain informed consent from the patients before proceeding. This may seem ridiculous, since many court-referred clients face serious consequences if they don't comply with the court's recommendation to seek therapy. However, in court-referred cases, the client could, theoretically at least, decline treatment and choose jail time or other consequences instead. By contrast, in court-ordered evaluation or treatment, there is no need to get informed consent because the client is mandated by law to participate. However, in such cases, psychologists have other obligations, such as informing the client of the limits to confidentiality.

Which of the following proposed a behavioral theory of career decision making? A Holland B Super C Herzberg d Krumboltz

The Correct Answer is "D" Krumboltz's Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; and performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors. (See: Krumboltz, J. D., Mitchell, A. M., & Jones, G. B. (1976). A social learning theory of career selection. Counseling Psychologist, 61, 71-81.) Holland's theory (response "A") states career choices are an expression of personality. Super's (response "B") is a developmental or stage theory. Herzberg's two-factor theory addresses worker motivation and satisfaction, not career choices.

In order to best reduce leniency bias you would use: A peer ratings B BARS C BIB d forced-choice

The Correct Answer is "D" Leniency bias is the tendency of a rater to give all ratees positive ratings. Although the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) may improve rating accuracy over a standard Likert Scale, it is not as effective at reducing biases as a forced-choice method. A forced-choice method consists of pairs of statements about job performance that both appear equally favorable or unfavorable, but the statements in each pair actually differentiate between good and poor performing individuals

If you want to keep a borderline patient involved with group therapy, what would be the best technique? A You have them consult with a psychiatrist for a medication evaluation. B You help the patient with the defense mechanism of splitting. C You invite a client with a histrionic personality disorder to join the group. d Offer individual therapy in addition to group therapy

The Correct Answer is "D" Marsha Linehan (1993) has been achieving success with borderline patients with her use of dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) which involves a combination of groups skills training and individual outpatient therapy. This combination has been successful at decreasing premature dropout rates in group therapy, as well as reducing suicide attempts and inpatient hospitalization rates

Evidence of genetic etiological influences is strongest for which of the following disorders? A Avoidant Personality Disorder B Dependent Personality Disorder C Borderline Personality Disorder d Antisocial Personality Disorder

The Correct Answer is "D" Most experts believe that there is probably some genetic influence on most Personality Disorders, if for no other reason that there is some genetic influence on most aspects of personality in general. However, evidence of a genetic basis for Antisocial Personality Disorder is well-established -- prevalence rates are 5 to 10 times higher in individuals with first-degree relatives with the disorder, compared to the general population. There is also strong evidence of a genetic component in Schizoid, Schizotypal, and Paranoid Personality Disorders

A new therapeutic intervention for heroin addiction is tested in a 6-month study, comparing it to existing treatment programs and a control group. At the end of 3 months the researchers find a dramatic success rate for the experimental treatment with over 75% of the clients maintaining abstinence from heroin, compared to 30% for the other treatment groups and 10% for the control group. What should the researchers do? A inform the other groups of the results and recommend that they begin the new treatment program. B inform the other groups of the results and give them the option of receiving the new treatment or continuing with their existing program. C not inform the other groups of the results D wait until the conclusion of the study and then offer the other groups the new treatment

The Correct Answer is "D" Since this study was designed for a duration of 6 months, it should continue as planned before any conclusions regarding the effectiveness are made. Informing any of the groups about the relative effectiveness of any of the treatments prior to the conclusion of the study would likely contaminate the validity of the final results. Of course, the researchers have an obligation to inform the participants of the results and conclusions of the research, but this should not be provided until the conclusions have been made.

Digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing subtests on the WAIS-III are used to calculate which of the following indices? A perceptual organization B processing speed C verbal comprehension d working memory

The Correct Answer is "D" The WAIS-III measures four factors: Verbal Comprehension, Perceptual Organization, Working Memory, and Processing Speed. The Working Memory index is comprised of digit span, arithmetic, and letter-number sequencing. The Perceptual Organization index (A) is calculated with scores on picture completion, block design, and matrix reasoning. Processing Speed (B) is based upon digit symbol and symbol search. And the Verbal Comprehension index (C) uses scores on the vocabulary, similarities, and information subtests.

Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in: A Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder B Jacob Creutzfeld Disease C Schizophrenia d Huntington's Disease

The Correct Answer is "D" The caudate nucleus is part of the basal ganglia which is responsible for initiating movement. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in patients with Huntington's Disease which is a disorder which includes affective, motor, and cognitive symptoms. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder ("A") is believed to be related to an overactive caudate nucleus

A female patient had a small tumor removed from the rear part of her right cerebral hemisphere. During the operation, it was necessary to remove the primary visual cortex from the right side of her brain. As a result, she became blind in the: A right part of the visual field of her right eye. B left part of the visual field of her left eye. C right part of the visual field of both eyes. d left part of the visual field of both eyes

The Correct Answer is "D" The visual system, once the neural stimulation leaves the retina, goes back up into the brain and eventually stimulates the visual cortex at the back of the brain (in the occipital lobes). An interesting feature of the visual system is that the images cross over so that on the right side of the brain we are imaging the left visual field, and on the left side of the brain we are imaging the right visual field. Now in this case, the woman has the visual cortex of the right hemisphere removed. Thus, she would not be able to see anything in the opposite visual field, i.e., the left field. The reason that it has to be from both eyes is that by the time the images get up to the cortex, the information from both eyes has already converged, like streams leading into a large river

The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be A maturation. B selection. C regression. d history

The Correct Answer is "D" To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you'd need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You'd have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.

Irving Yalom (1985) felt the most important therapeutic factors in groups were: A Altruism, universality, installation of hope B Instillation of hope, catharsis, existential factors, C Cohesiveness, altruism, universality d Interpersonal learning, cathrasis and cohesiveness

The Correct Answer is "D" Yalom felt the most important factors in group process were interpersonal learning, which gave members an opportunity to learn valuable interpersonal skills, catharsis, where group members are able to openly express their feelings in front of other members, and group cohesiveness where group members feel a sense of cohesiveness and friendliness with other group members. However the importance of these factors is relative. Higher functioning group participants rate interpersonal learning and universality as more important. In lower functioning clients the instillation of hope is deemed most important.