evolution section QUESTIONS
(look at image) Which of the trees, below, make equivalent statements about the relationships of the species A, B, C, D, and E? A. Trees 1 & 5. B. Trees 1 & 3. C. Trees 1 & 4. D. Trees 2 & 6. E. Trees 3 & 6.
A. Trees 1 & 5.
The Pongidae is not a monophyletic family because A. Bonobos and chimps are in different genera. B. There is more than one species of Pongidae. C. Humans are classified as being in a different family. D. The divergence of different species in the Pongidae was very recent. E. Some species of Pongidae are sexually dimorphic.
C. Humans are classified as being in a different family.
Assuming that milk production has only arisen once, then its presence in all monotreme, marsupial and placental mammals, and no other groups, is an example of: A. A synapomorphy. B. Convergent evolution. C. Analogous structures. D. A plesiomorphy. E. None of the above is correct.
A. A synapomorphy. shared character (milk production) w/in group (mammals)
Which statement best explains the two-fold cost of sexual reproduction? A. There are twice as many males as females in sexually reproducing species. B. Asexually reproducing species evolve half as fast. C. Asexually reproducing females can produce twice as many daughters as can sexually reproducing females. D. There are twice as many asexually reproducing species as sexually reproducing species. E. Mutation rates in asexually reproducing species are twice as high as they are in sexually reproducing species.
C. Asexually reproducing females can produce twice as many daughters as can sexually reproducing females.
The experiment by Dice, in which Barn Owls were released into a barn with deer mice on different colored substrates demonstrates what? A. That natural selection acts to maintain dark coat coloration in Pinacates mice. B. That the mice are selectively bred to avoid owl predation. C. That mice can easily outrun owls. D. That owls can more easily see and prey on mice whose coats mismatch their substrate.
D. That owls can more easily see and prey on mice whose coats mismatch their substrate.
Which pair of words best fills the blanks in the following sentence? In areas with a high incidence of malaria, the S allele of the β-globin gene is maintained in high frequency by ________ selection; in regions where malaria is not present, S will be eliminated by __________ selection. A. adaptive, maladaptive B. directional, purifying C. purifying, directional D. balancing. purifying E. directional, balancing
D. balancing. purifying balancing bc heterozygous most fit in high malaria purifying bc S = deleterious in non malaria areas
If the frequencies of the three genotypes in a population, AA, Aa, and aa are 0.32, 0.42, and 0.26, respectively, the frequency of the a allele is: A. 0.50 B. 0.90 C. 0.44 D. 0.61 E. 0.47
E. 0.47
Which of the following populations samples is closest to the Hardy-Weinberg frequencies? A. AA: 600, Aa: 300, aa: 100. B. AA: 500, Aa: 500, aa: 500. C. AA: 700, Aa: 200, aa: 100. D. AA: 340, Aa: 320, aa: 340. E. AA: 640, Aa: 320, aa: 40.
E. AA: 640, Aa: 320, aa: 40.
Which of the following statements about genetic drift is not true? A. The probability that a new neutral mutation will be fixed by genetic drift is 1/(2N) (in diploid organisms with a population size of N). B. Genetic drift can remove beneficial mutations from a population. C. Genetic drift happens more rapidly in small populations. D. Genetic drift causes a population to lose variation. E. Genetic drift acts more powerfully in large populations.
E. Genetic drift acts more powerfully in large populations. false bc more powerful in small populations
Which is the correct assignment of approximate dates to the ends of the eras listed? a. Precambrian (542 mya), Paleozoic (251 mya), Mesozoic (65.5 mya). b. Precambrian (542 mya), Paleozoic (251 mya), Mesozoic (50 mya). c. Precambrian (2200 mya), Paleozoic (542 mya), Mesozoic (50 mya). d. Precambrian (1200 mya), Paleozoic (251 mya), Mesozoic (65.5 mya). e. Precambrian (542 mya), Paleozoic (65.5 mya), Mesozoic (6 mya).
a. Precambrian (542 mya), Paleozoic (251 mya), Mesozoic (65.5 mya). PALEOZOIC (250-540) MESOZOIC (65-250)
read this first
put in flashcards!! and click 'option' and switch it so you answer with the 'definition' (so u dont see the answer right away)
Assume you determine the genotypes of 1,000 adults at the locus that codes for β-globin. In which one of the following data sets is there evidence for selection in favor of the heterozygous individuals? A. AA: 200, AS: 600, SS: 200 B. AA: 640, AS: 320, SS: 40 C. AA: 600, AS: 300, SS: 100 D. AA: 1000, AS: 0, SS: 0 E. None of the above
A. AA: 200, AS: 600, SS: 200 more heterozygous than homozygous (600 vs 200)
Which statement best describes the neo-Darwinian synthesis? A. Evolution is caused by changes in allele frequencies within species. B. Evolution is caused by Mendelian inheritance. C. Evolution occurs because some individuals are heterozygous at some loci. D. Evolution occurs because some individuals are homozygous at some loci. E. Evolution of characters affected by Mendelian alleles cannot occur.
A. Evolution is caused by changes in allele frequencies within species.
Which statement best describes the evolution of wings in insects? A. Wings originated once and were lost many times. B. Wings originated many times and were lost many times. C. Wings originated many times and were lost only once. D. Wings in insects are homologous to wings in birds. E. None of the above.
A. Wings originated once and were lost many times.
What did Darwin and Wallace learn from the writings of Thomas Malthus? A. The earth is much older than previously believed. B Populations tend to grow at a faster rate than their supply of resources. C. All species exist as populations of individuals that vary. D. Environmental changes create the conditions for natural selection to act on populations. E. All of the above.
B Populations tend to grow at a faster rate than their supply of resources. malthusian crisis = point where population exceeds food supply
Snapdragons are plants capable of self-fertilization. Flower color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles: RR individuals have red flowers; RW individuals have pink flowers; WW individuals have white flowers. A new population of snapdragons is established by a seed from a source population in which the frequency of R is 0.3. If the source population has genotypes in the Hardy-Weinberg frequencies, what is the chance that the first plant in the newly founded population will have red flowers? A. 0.49 B. 0.09 C. 0.42 D. 0.70 E. 0.30
B. 0.09
What is the approximate rate of substitution of neutral mutations in animals? A. 2x10^-11 per nucleotide per year B. 2x10^-9 per nucleotide per year C. 2x10^-7 per nucleotide per year D. 1/1000 per nucleotide per year E. 2% per year
B. 2x10^-9 per nucleotide per year
What statement provides the best definition of a monophyletic group? A. A group of species in the same genus. B. A group containing an ancestral species and all of its descendants. C. A group containing an ancestral species and some of its descendants. D. A group containing an ancestral species an none of its descendants. E. A group containing descendants of two ancestral species that are in different taxonomic groups.
B. A group containing an ancestral species and all of its descendants.
Which one of the following statements best describes the importance of homologous structures for Darwin's argument? A. Homologous structures are evidence of a shared function. B. Homologous structures indicate shared ancestry. C. Homologous structures indicate that organisms share a common habitat. D. Homologous structures are consistent with an independent creation model.
B. Homologous structures indicate shared ancestry. descent with modification
Which one of the following provides the best definition of isogamy? A. Isogamous species have temperature-dependent sex determination B. Isogamous species produce gametes of the same size C. Isogamous species are haploid D. Isogamous species are polyploidE. Isogamous species produce gametes of different sizes
B. Isogamous species produce gametes of the same size "iso" means equal
Which one of the following would you regard as the best evidence that there was substantial gene flow between Neanderthals and modern humans? A. The nuclear DNA of modern humans is similar to the mtDNA of modern humans. B. Some mtDNAs from modern humans are closer to the mtDNA of Neanderthals than they are to mtDNAs of other humans. C. There is less sequence variation among mtDNAs of modern humans than we previously thought. D. There is more sequence variation among mtDNAs of modern humans than has been found. E. There is more sequence variation among mtDNAs of Neanderthals than has been found.
B. Some mtDNAs from modern humans are closer to the mtDNA of Neanderthals than they are to mtDNAs of other humans.
Which statement best defines sexual selection? A. The competition among males for food. B. The competition among males for access to females. C. The competition among asexually reproducing females. D. The competition among offspring for access to their mothers. E. None of the above.
B. The competition among males for access to females. literally none of the other answers are sExUaL so PROCESS OF ELIMINATION BB
In the Origin of Species, what was the point of Darwin's discussion of the rudimentary legs of some snakes? A. There must be some purpose they serve. B. They indicate descent from a species with fully developed legs. C. They must have evolved because of sexual selection. D. They would not be present in a domesticated species of snake. E. They do not present a problem for his theory because some species of snakes do not have rudimentary legs.
B. They indicate descent from a species with fully developed legs. he described rudimentary pelvic and hind limbs found in some snakes as evidence that snakes are descended from species with fully developed limbs
Which statement best describes the main point of the discussion of variation in natural species in the Origin of Species? A. Natural species evolve more rapidly than domesticated species. B. Variation in natural species is similar to variation in domesticated species. C. Domesticated species were derived from natural species. D. Variation in natural species is not inherited. E. There is less variation in natural species than in domesticated species.
B. Variation in natural species is similar to variation in domesticated species.
Which phrase best fills the blank in the following sentence? The high frequency of an allele causing Huntington's disease in San Luis, Venezuela is the result of _________. A. gene flow B. a founder event C. directional selection D. balancing selection E. Hardy-Weinberg
B. a founder event Isolated populations founded by a few individuals may have some genetic diseases in high frequency that are rare elsewhere
Which one of the following best describes the uniformitarian assumption? Changes in the past were... A. governed by rules that are different from those governing changes today. B. governed by the same rules as changes today. C. more rapid than changes that occur today. D. slow and gradual. E. caused by natural selection.
B. governed by the same rules as changes today.
Uniformitarianism is an important assumption in historical sciences because without uniformitarian assumption... A. scientists cannot determine what occurred in the past. B. scientists cannot determine what processes caused past events. C. scientists cannot determine if past events occurred gradually or abruptly. D. scientists cannot predict what will occur in the future.
B. scientists cannot determine what processes caused past events. uniformitarianism = idea that processes we see working today also worked in the past
A wild population of peas has round and wrinkled seeds. The round seeds are caused by having at least one copy of the A allele; that is, individuals who are homozygous for A (AA) or heterozygous (Aa) have round seeds. Individuals who are homozygous for a (aa) have wrinkled seeds. 75% of the individuals in the population have round seeds. Assuming that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the a allele? A. 0.10 B. 0.25 C. 0.50 D. 0.75 E. Not enough information to tell
C. 0.50
Tay-Sachs is an autosomal recessive disease, caused by the accumulation of the fatty acid derivative ganglioside in nerve cells of the brain. In the Ashkenazi Jewish population, the disease is at a relatively high frequency, and caused by a four base pair insertion in the HEXA gene. Among Ashkenazi Jews, the frequency of the recessive allele (causing Tay-Sachs when homozygous) is 2%. In a population of 10,000 Ashkenazi, about how many would be expected to suffer from Tay-Sachs disease? A. 50 B. 9,604 C. 4 D. 0.0004 E. 392
C. 4
Assume you are studying the fitnesses of individuals with different genotypes at the β-globin locus in a population. The following are lists of the fractions of newborn individuals with each genotype that survive to adulthood. Which one of the following indicates that there is directional selection in favor of A in this population? A. AA: 0.9, AS: 0.95, SS: 0.2 B. AA: 0.9, AS: 0.95, SS: 0.2 C. AA: 0.9, AS: 0.85, SS: 0.2 D. AA: 0.9, AS: 0.85, SS: 0.9 E. AA: 0.9, AS: 0.95, SS: 0.95
C. AA: 0.9, AS: 0.85, SS: 0.2 A is favored so AA should be highest followed by AS
What type of evidence would be best able to demonstrate that Baker's larkspur. Delphinium bakeri, is a separate species instead of a slightly different form of a widespread species? A. Baker's larkspur has flowers that differ in color from those of related species. B. Drawings made by early settlers in California show that Baker's larkspur once had a much larger geographic range. C. Baker's larkspur plants cannot be hybridized to plants from other geographic areas. D. Individual plants of Baker's larkspur are taller on average than related species found in the same area. E. None of the above.
C. Baker's larkspur plants cannot be hybridized to plants from other geographic areas.
Which statement best describes the evolutionary explanation for aging? A. Genetic drift fixes mutations that cause aging. B. Each year organisms have a chance to die, even if they don't age. C. Natural selection acts more powerfully on beneficial early-acting mutations because there are more individuals alive to experience the benefits. D. Mutation causes aging. E. Aging evolves.
C. Natural selection acts more powerfully on beneficial early-acting mutations because there are more individuals alive to experience the benefits.
What statement provides the best definition of a phylogenetic classification system? A. Taxonomic groups are all polyphyletic. B. Taxonomic groups are all paraphyletic. C. Taxonomic groups are all monophyletic. D. Taxonomic groups are all homologous. E. Members of taxonomic groups are all found in the same geographic area
C. Taxonomic groups are all monophyletic.
A mutation occurs in a protein-coding DNA sequence that causes a change in the amino acid sequence of the protein. The mutant form of the protein is less functional than the wild type form. What is the most likely fate of the new mutation? A. The mutation will be fixed by directional selection. B. The mutation will be spread by gene flow. C. The mutation will be eliminated by purifying selection. D. The mutation will be fixed by genetic drift. E. The mutation will be eliminated by balancing selection.
C. The mutation will be eliminated by purifying selection. allele more deleterious than current pop --> removed
Which pair of words best completes the following sentence: In the __________ theory of speciation, a barrier to ______ is the initial step. A. allopolypoloid, autopolyploid. B. sympatric, dispersal. C. allopatric, dispersal. D. allopatric, selection. E. sympatric, selection.
C. allopatric, dispersal.
Q3. Which one of the following best fills the blanks in the following statement? Darwin described two kinds of sexual selection, _______________ and _____________. A. isogamous; anisogamous B. competition of males for females; competition of females for males C. competition of males for females; female choice D. haploid; diploid E. early; late
C. competition of males for females; female choice
Mutations at the Mc1r gene cause _______ coats in Pinacates rock pocket mice, and is maintained by ________. A. agouti/migration B. dark/mutation C. dark/natural selection D. melanic/gene 7low E. mutant/mutation
C. dark/natural selection even if you dont remember the color, natural selection is the only option that makes sense
Which of the following best defines a monophyletic group? A taxonomic group .... A. that contains the descendants of an ancestor, but not the ancestor itself. B. that contains the ancestor and some of its descendants. C. that contains the ancestor and all of its descendants. D. characterized by numerous shared derived characters. E. that contains the ancestor, but none of its descendants.
C. that contains the ancestor and all of its descendants.
If the frequencies of the three genotypes in a population, AA, Aa, and aa are 0.5, 0.2, and 0.3 (in order), the frequency of the A allele is: A. 0.3 B. 0.4 C. 0.5 D. 0.6 E. 0.7
D. 0.6
Human earlobes can either be detached (hanging free from the head) or attached. It turns out that whether an earlobe is attached or detached is a simple Mendelian trait: one locus is involved with two alleles, D for detached and d for attached. Individuals that are homozygous for the attached (dd) allele have attached ears, whereas individuals that are homozygous (DD) or heterozygous (Dd) for the detached allele have detached ear lobes. If 64% of people have attached earlobes, what is the frequency of the attached (d) allele? Assume that the genotypes are at their Hardy-Weinberg frequencies. A. 0.5 B. 0.6 C. 0.2 D. 0.8 E. 0.9
D. 0.8
If one individual in 1,000,000 has a genetic disease caused by a recessive Mendelian allele, roughly what fraction of individuals in a randomly mating population are heterozygous carriers of this disease allele? A. 2/1,000,000. B. 2/100,000. C. 2/10,000. D. 2/1,000. E. 2/100.
D. 2/1,000.
Which one of the following is not a mutation? A. A change in a single nucleotide B. The loss of a chromosome C. The duplication of a chromosome D. A change in allele frequency E. The duplication of a gene
D. A change in allele frequency
Which one of the following is a necessary step in the process of species formation? A. The appearance of a new morphological structure. B. A change in the number of chromosomes C. A change in geographic location. D. A reduction in gene flow. E. The formation of a new genus.
D. A reduction in gene flow.
What has favored the evolution of many species of fig wasps? A. Fig wasps are very small. B. Fig wasps can fly long distances. C. Fig wasp species are very different in size. D. Each fig wasp species lays eggs on only one species of fig. E. Fig wasp species are hermaphroditic.
D. Each fig wasp species lays eggs on only one species of fig.
Which word best fills the blank in the following sentence? The discovery of an allele from LL601 rice in other varieties of rice illustrates the importance of _________. A. natural selection B. genetic drift C. recombination D. gene flow E. mutation
D. gene flow "Gene flow spreads engineered mutations from one variety of a species to another of the same species"
Which pair of words best fills the blanks in the following sentence? The substitution of neutral alleles is called _________ evolution because it is not caused by ___________. A. Darwinian, genetic drift B. non-Darwinian, genetic drift C. Darwinian, natural selection D. non-Darwinian, natural selection E. None of the above
D. non-Darwinian, natural selection
Which answers best fill the blanks in the following sentence? In animals, parthenogenesis results in siblings that are genetically ________ one another, while mating of males and females results in siblings that are genetically ________ one another. A. related to; unrelated to B. polyploidy to; haploid to C. larger than; smaller than D. the same as; different from E. different from; the same as
D. the same as; different from parthenogenesis = asexual reproduction in animals (asexual produces genetically identical offspring) sexual reproduction --> variation
Mules are sterile because they cannot produce functional gametes. This is evidence that A. horses and donkeys are members of the same species. B. horses and donkeys are separated by genetic drift. C. horses and donkeys are separated by a founder event. D. horses and donkeys are separated by a prezygotic barrier. E. horses and donkeys are separated by a postzygotic barrier.
E. horses and donkeys are separated by a postzygotic barrier.