Exam Cram Core 1

hich of the following ports is used by DNS traffic by default? 3389 53 25 22 143

53 Explanation: Port 53 is the default inbound port on a DNS server. A DNS server resolves domain names and host names to their corresponding IP addresses. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: Port 22 is used by Secure Shell (SSH). Port 25 is used by the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP); but secure versions include ports 587 and 465. Port 143 is used by the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP); but the secure version is port 993. Port 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).

What are some ways to increase the lifespan of a mobile device's battery? (Select the three best answers.) Use airplane mode Configure sleep mode for 1 minute or less Make use of GPS Use a battery monitoring app Avoid draining the battery

A, B, E Explanation: A few ways to increase the lifespan of a mobile device's battery include: avoid draining the battery below 50 percent; configure sleep mode for 1 minute or less; and use airplane mode, which turns off all wireless connections, and generally conserves power. Remember: "wireless connections" means WLAN (Wi-Fi), Bluetooth, GPS, NFC, and so on. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: Using additional apps actually puts an additional strain on the battery, even if they are meant to monitor the battery. GPS applications put a mighty strain on the battery and should always be turned off after use.

You are troubleshooting an older laptop's display. Which of the following are two possible reasons why a laptop's display suddenly went blank with no user intervention? (Select the two best answers.) Damaged inverter Damaged LCD Incorrect resolution setting Burned-out backlight

A, D Explanation: A damaged inverter or burned-out bulb could cause a laptop's display to go blank. You can verify whether the LCD is still getting a signal by shining a flashlight at the screen. See Chapter 2, "Laptops, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: A damaged LCD usually works to a certain extent and will either be cracked, have areas of Windows missing, or show other signs of damage. An incorrect resolution setting can indeed make the screen suddenly go blank (or look garbled), but that scenario will most likely occur only if the user has changed the resolution setting—the question specifies with no user intervention.

One of the technicians at your company replaced a broken LCD screen on a mobile computer. The OS and apps can be seen perfectly on the screen but touchscreen functionality is non-responsive. Which of the following are the most probable root causes for the problem? (Select the three best answers.) The digitizer cable is not seated properly on the motherboard. The hardware replacement used is a non-touchscreen. The replacement part was DOA. The grounding screws are not securely attached. The LCD panel firmware must be updated. The new touchscreen drivers must be installed. Select 3 answers

A, B, F Explanation: Three of the probable root causes to this problem include: the digitizer cable is not seated properly on the motherboard; the hardware replacement used is a non-touchscreen; and the new touchscreen drivers must be installed. Always double-check connections (especially before closing up a mobile device), and be sure to install the correct drivers for the hardware. See Chapter 2, "Laptops, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: It is possible that a part is dead on arrival (DOA), but it is unlikely. Bad screens are maybe 1 in 1000, and that means actual manufacturing errors. That number does not include shipping damage and/or technician mishandling. If the operating system and applications are displaying properly, then the LCD panel's firmware probably does not have to be updated—though it is wise to check if an update is required; the firmware probably won't have an effect on touchscreen capability the way the touchscreen drivers do. When we talk about grounding screws, we are usually referring to electrical connections, such as AC outlets, switch boxes, and junction boxes that use grounding screws. Because mobile devices are portable, they are self-contained, and do not connect to AC outlets (except when charging). Regardless, any type of grounding issue could cause unexpected system restarts or damage to the system when plugged in.

You replaced a bad internal WLAN card in a Windows laptop. You completed the installation and verified that the new WLAN card is listed in the Device Manager as enabled. What should you do next to actually use the card? Configure encryption on the router. Add the SSID of the network to the connection. Type the security passphrase. Update the firmware of the WLAN card.

Add the SSID of the network to the connection. × Explanation: The next thing you need to do is connect to a wireless network, the first step of which will be to scan for network names (SSIDs) or to add them manually. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: You won't type the security passphrase until you connect to a wireless network. Updating the firmware and/or drivers for the WLAN card (Wi-Fi adapter) should be done as part of the installation of that card. If the router is set up to accept wireless connections, encryption should have already been configured on that router as well.

Which of the following peripherals should a company use to take inventory quickly and update the price tags for products? (Select the two best answers.) Label printer KVM switch AR headset Flatbed scanner Barcode scanner Magnetic reader

Barcode Scanner Magnetic Reader Explanation: Some products that are used to take inventory quickly and update price tags include a barcode scanner and a magnetic reader. Barcodes are used extensively with products, and handheld barcode readers can be used to identify them and transmit the coded information to an asset management system. Magnetic cards can also be used to tag assets, and a magnetic reader can read that information in the same way that a credit card reader would. However, magnetic card-based asset systems are not as common; you will see RFID-based systems much more. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power" for more information Incorrect answers: Label printers can be used to create barcodes and other codes, but not to analyze information such as inventory. An augmented reality (AR) headset is worn by a person playing games or taking part in training exercises. A KVM switch is used by multiple computers to share a keyboard, video, and mouse. A flatbed scanner is used to scan documents and photos and save them to a computer.

Your guest virtual machines get direct access to the hosting computer's network connection. What is another name for this? Private virtual network NAT Host-only networking Bridged networking

Bridged Networking Explanation: Bridged networking is when virtual machines can get direct access to the hosting computer's network connection and access other systems on the LAN and the Internet. You might also see this referred to as "external" or "public." See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization," for more information. Incorrect answers: Network address translation (NAT) is when the guest can access the external network, but not directly. Instead, the guests using NAT get IP addresses on a separate private IP network. Host-only networking creates a private virtual network for the guests, and they can communicate with each other, but not out to the external network or Internet.

A smartphone is suffering from overheating. What are three possible reasons for this? Device won't charge User has the camera disabled CPU-intensive application Excessive browsing Device was dropped on the floor

CPU-intensive application Excessive browsing Device was dropped on the floor Explanation: A mobile device such as a smartphone can overheat for a variety of reasons including: applications that use too much CPU power or are written poorly; excessive use of applications; excessive browsing; old battery or damaged battery; dropped phone; poorly designed case; lack of ventilation; user error; and so on. See Chapter 20, "Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: If the device won't charge, it could be a symptom of overheating, not a reason for it; but it could be a few other things as well (not plugged in, battery won't hold a charge, and so on). Disabling the camera would most likely free up resources, and ultimately put less of a strain on the device, lessening the chance of overheating.

A laptop's battery fails to charge. Which of the following should be checked first? CMOS battery AC circuit breaker DC-in jack AC-in jack

DC-in Jack Explanation: Of the listed answers, you should check the DC-in jack on the laptop. The very first thing you should do is check the basics; see if the power brick is connected to the AC outlet and to the DC-in jack and verify that the battery is connected properly. See Chapter 2, "Laptops, Part 2," for more information. Incorrect answers: Laptops don't have an AC-in jack - the power adapter takes care of converting AC power to DC power for the laptop to use. Of course, you should always check the laptop battery first, in the event that it is missing or not connected properly. Next, make sure the power adapter is plugged into the DC-in jack and that the jack is not damaged. A damaged DC-in jack can also cause the laptop to occasionally shut off. Users often damage the DC-in jack because they leave the power adapter plugged in while they are in transit. On most laptops, a new one has to be soldered on to the board. The CMOS battery is inside the laptop. It retains UEFI/BIOS settings and has nothing to do with charging the main laptop battery. The AC circuit breaker might have tripped, but is less likely than the previously listed reasons. Also, a good indication of a failed AC circuit is that all of the devices on that circuit would stop working.

Which type of RAM is used to solve memory errors? Non-parity Parity ECC Non-ECC

ECC Explanation: Error Correction Code (ECC) memory can detect and correct errors. Non-ECC (more common) does not detect or correct errors. (You might also see this referred to as "error-correcting code.") See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage" for more information Incorrect answers: Parity memory is used for error detection but not error correction. Most RAM today is non-ECC and non-parity, although it does exist in special scenarios.

A customer wants to share a local USB printer with other users in the office. Which of the following is the best method to accomplish this? Install a print server device. Install shared PCL drivers. Enable printer sharing. Install a USB hub.

Enable printer sharing Explanation: The best method is to enable printer sharing on the computer that the local USB printer is connected to. Then connect the other computers to the shared printer. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: Installing a print server device is a possibility, but that would require purchasing a print server, removing the printer from the computer, and then connecting it to the print server. This incurs additional cost and work, so it isn't the best method. USB hubs are used to connect multiple USB devices to a single computer. PCL (Printer Command Language) drivers are standard in Windows and other operating systems—as such, they should already be installed to the other computers.

A customer tells you that the computer runs fine for a few minutes but then freezes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? The optical drive is faulty. Memory is not seated properly. The power supply failed. Fans are failing.

Fans are failing Explanation: Most likely a fan is failing somewhere—either the CPU fan or a case fan—causing the computer to overheat and then ironically to "freeze," as the customer put it. What the customer meant is that the computer locked up. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: The optical drive won't cause the system to lock up, but the optical drive's software driver could cause a stop error if it failed. If the power supply failed, the system would turn off; it wouldn't lock up. If the memory was not seated properly, the system would probably not get past the POST and you would either hear beep codes or see an onscreen message to that effect.

A user boots a computer and a message is displayed that reads "Alert! Cover previously removed." Which of the following was configured in the UEFI/BIOS to cause this alert? Date and time settings Intrusion detection Boot sequence Virtualization support

Intrusion Detection Explanation: If the intrusion detection setting is enabled in the UEFI/BIOS, and the computer was opened, the system will display a message and log what happened. This is a security feature on most of today's motherboards. See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: Configuring the date and time settings would not result in a message. The boot sequence deals with the list of drives that the system will attempt to boot from in order. Virtualization support allows the system to use CPUs that take advantage of Intel and AMD virtualization extensions.

A computer you are working on randomly reboots. Which of the following should be checked first when troubleshooting the computer? (Select the two best answers.) PSU integrity Memory integrity CMOS battery Video card integrity Optical drive integrity

PSU integrity Memory integrity Explanation: Check the memory and the power supply unit (PSU) first. Both of these can fail intermittently, causing random reboots. Try reseating and cleaning RAM (and replacing if necessary). Test the PSU with a PSU tester or multimeter and replace if necessary. The PSU can also cause the computer to quickly shut down immediately after it was started. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the video card fails, the computer simply won't display to the monitor. If the CMOS battery fails (or discharges), the time and date will reset to an earlier date (for example, to January 1, 20XX.) Other settings in the BIOS will be lost as well. If the optical drive fails, you won't be able to read CDs and DVDs, but the optical drive should not cause the computer to reboot.

Which of the following LAN hosts would most likely provide the services needed to allow multiple clients access to cached Internet web pages? File server Web server Proxy server DNS server

Proxy Server Explanation: A proxy server provides the services needed for multiple clients to access Internet web pages. It is a server that is normally located on the LAN, or the internal computer network, and as such is known as a LAN host or a network host. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration," for more information. Incorrect answers: A web server provides web pages, yes, but the web server is not normally on the LAN. Web servers normally exist on the Internet, or on an intranet, or in a DMZ, so they cannot be considered network hosts or LAN hosts. File servers simply store files for multiple clients to access; Word documents and Excel spreadsheets are examples. A DNS server is used to resolve hosts' domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. They are very common on the Internet, though they can exist on the LAN as well. However, they don't deal with cached web pages the way that a proxy server will.

Which type of RAID stripes data across three or more disks along with parity? RAID 10 RAID 0 RAID 5 RAID 1

RAID 5 Explanation: RAID 5 stripes data and parity across three or more disks. It is a fault-tolerant method of data storage known as striping with parity. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage" for more information Incorrect answers: RAID 0 stripes data only and can be used with two or more disks. Because it does not use parity, it is not fault tolerant. RAID 1 (mirroring) uses two disks only and writes an exact copy of all data to each disk; it is a fault-tolerant method. RAID 10 (or RAID 1+0) is a stripe of mirrors. It is two sets of mirrors that are striped, but without parity. This would require a minimum of four disks. RAID 10 can be an excellent solution if you require fault tolerance but need better performance than RAID 5 or RAID 6; that is, if your company's budget can handle it!

Which of the following cloud computing concepts allows scalable services to be provided to the client? Resource pooling On-demand Metered Rapid elasticity

Rapid Elasticity Explanation: Rapid elasticity is the ability to build or extend your cloud-based network quickly and efficiently. Note that a customer should look for scalable services, but should also look for appropriate hardware; some cloud services get away with using less than stellar servers and switches. Shop around! See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization" for more information Incorrect answers: Metered services is when an organization has access to virtually unlimited resources, but pays only for the resources that are used. Resource pooling is the grouping of servers and infrastructure for use by multiple customers but in a way that is usually on-demand and scalable. On-demand simply means that a customer gets access to its resources when it needs them, 24/7, and the customer can request an increase in resources at any time, with the understanding that the increase can be accomplished quickly.

You are troubleshooting a RAID 6 array on a high-end computer. Two disk drives have their fault lights on. What is the best action for you to take? Replace the failed drives and verify the RAID array rebuilds completely. Reseat the drives and monitor the RAID status over a few days. Replace the failed drives and restore the data from a known good backup. Reseat the drives, back up the data, and then replace the drives.

Replace the failed drives and verify the RAID array rebuilds completely. Explanation: The best action to take is to replace the failed drives and verify the RAID array rebuilds the data on those two drives. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage" for more information Incorrect answers: If the fault lights are on, then there is probably a problem with the drives that will not be fixed by reseating them. It will usually be impossible (and not recommended) to back up data on a drive that has a fault light on. In this case, you need to take slightly more assertive action. The beauty of RAID 6 is that it can rebuild data even if two drives fail. If this was a RAID 5 array, only one drive would be permitted to fail at any given time, and so you would most likely need to restore data from a known good backup. Because it is RAID 6, you won't have to restore from backup, but always make sure you are backing up just in case! Reseating the drives is not enough. You should monitor the array after you rebuild it though.

When attempting to boot an operating system, you receive a message that warns you of a memory-read error. Which of the following steps should be performed to remedy this issue? Change the memory settings in the BIOS. Remove any USB flash drives. Reseat or replace RAM modules. Replace the hard drive.

Reseat or replace RAM modules Explanation: Windows might give memory read errors when RAM cannot be read from properly. If it is definitely a RAM error and not an OS issue, the best thing to try is to reseat and/or replace the RAM. While you're there, you can try using compressed air on the RAM and the RAM slots to remove any dust that has accumulated over time. Other similar errors in Windows such as "The Memory Could Not Be Read" could be caused by an issue with the OS reading from the hard drive and may require an update. Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power" for more information Incorrect answers: Generally, if the BIOS memory settings are not correct, the system will not boot and will give memory errors during POST. Because this is an issue related directly to RAM, you do not want to replace the hard drive. Most likely, a USB flash drive will not give a memory error; regardless, simply removing the USB flash drive will not fix the problem.

In a virtual environment, which of the following allows all of the virtual machines to have RAM allocated for use? Virtual application streaming Resource pooling Measured service Synchronization

Resource Pooling Explanation: Resource pooling is when a group of virtual machines, or servers, or infrastructure (potentially used by multiple customers) share resources such as RAM, CPU, and so on. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization" for more information Incorrect answers: Measured service is when the provider monitors the services rendered so that the provider can properly bill the customer and make sure that the customer's use of services is being handled in the most efficient way. Synchronization is somewhat vague as an answer, but it is very important in cloud computing—but data, not RAM, is synchronized. Virtual application streaming is associated with web-based apps and e-mail clients, not RAM.

You are troubleshooting a hard drive that has had some missing and corrupted files. The operating system boots normally. You run the command wmic diskdrive get status and receive several messages that say "bad" and "unknown." What are you analyzing? RAID S.M.A.R.T. SAN BSOD

S.M.A.R.T Explanation: In this scenario you are analyzing Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) data. S.M.A.R.T. is a monitoring system that can report on the health of the hard drive and is used with most hard drives. It can be accessed from most OSes. For example, in Windows, you can run the command mentioned in the question, wmic diskdrive get status, to analyze the S.M.A.R.T. data. Any message of "bad," "unknown," or "caution" should be followed up by more analysis. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays" for more information Incorrect answers: Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) is a data storage technology that combines multiple drives into arrays. In the scenario, you are only troubleshooting one drive, though you can use S.M.A.R.T. on RAID arrays, such as RAID 1 mirrors. A storage area network (SAN) is a group of network-attached storage (NAS) devices, RAID arrays, systems, and more that for a network used for the storage of data. A blue screen of death (BSOD) is a stop error in Windows that means that the system cannot boot, due to a variety of hardware or software errors. In the question, it said the "operating system boots normally". If it didn't, you would have to troubleshoot that problem separately. In addition, you could use a bootable OS on removable media to run some analysis tools against the S.M.A.R.T. data.

You need to run a diagnostic disc on a laptop running Windows. You modify the boot order in the UEFI/BIOS and set it to DVD first. However, the laptop still boots into Windows. What do you need to adjust to boot to the DVD? Secure Boot TPM Virtualization UEFI/BIOS password

Secure Boot Explanation: You need to adjust the Secure Boot setting. Secure Boot uses encryption in conjunction with operating systems such as Windows to make sure that only that particular operating system will boot. In this scenario, to boot off of the DVD, you not only need to change the UEFI/BIOS boot order, but you most likely also need to disable Secure Boot. See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module (located on the motherboard), which is used to encrypt the entire hard drive. The UEFI/BIOS password most likely refers to the administrator password of the UEFI/BIOS. You already knew this password; otherwise, you would not have been able to modify the boot order. Virtualization refers to the ability for the CPU to work with virtual machine software (such as Windows Hyper-V). It has to be enabled for Hyper-V and other virtualization managers to work properly.

A user tells you that a PC shuts down after working for only 10 minutes. When you move the PC you hear loose parts sliding around the case. What is the most likely reason for the PC shutting down? A memory module has become unseated. The CMOS battery needs to be replaced. The heat sink retaining clip has broken loose. A hard drive cable was disconnected.

The heat sink retaining clip has broken loose. Explanation: Most likely, the CPU heat sink has broken loose. It could be that it wasn't installed properly in the first place. Once this happens, the CPU can easily overheat within 10 minutes, causing the system to trip the temperature threshold in the BIOS and automatically shut down. If this happens, the heat sink should be examined and replaced if necessary. If not, it should be cleaned of any existing thermal compound, new compound should be applied, and the heat sink should be reattached, making sure that the CPU fan is also connected properly. See Chapter 12, "CPUs" for more information Incorrect answers: If a memory module becomes unseated, it might not become completely loose, so you might not hear anything; but more importantly, the system will probably not boot properly. If the CMOS battery needs to be replaced, you will know by the fact that the date and time (as well as other settings) have reverted to a factory condition. It is rare for a CMOS battery to become unseated. If a hard drive cable was disconnected, you either would not be able to boot to the OS (if it is the primary drive) or would lose access to data (if it is a secondary drive).

What should be used when installing or upgrading a CPU to ensure that heat will be dissipated efficiently through the heat sink? Fire extinguisher Thermal compound Case fan Power supply

Thermal Compound × Explanation: Thermal compound helps to disperse heat through a CPU's heat sink. When installing or upgrading a CPU, thermal compound should be applied to the bottom of the heat sink. This seals any microscopic fractures in the heat sink and allows for efficient transference of heat from the CPU through the heat sink. See Chapter 12, "CPUs" for more information Incorrect answers: The power supply and case fans will exhaust heat out of the case, which ultimately helps to keep the CPU's temperature down, but the important part of this question is, "when installing or upgrading a CPU." A fire extinguisher should not be used with the internals of a computer, unless of course that computer is on fire.

A customer states that an inkjet printer is printing streaks on documents. Which of the following steps should be performed to resolve this issue? Print a test page from the printer. Reinstall the drivers. Use the printer's clean option. Replace the printer data cable.

Use the printers clean option Explanation: Use the printer's built-in clean option. This might be accessible from the display on the printer or from within the printer's software in the operating system. Cleaning the cartridges is necessary every once in a while so they don't get clogged. If the clean option doesn't work, you can try physically removing the cartridge, sparingly using a solution of 50 percent water/50 percent isopropyl alcohol, and cleaning the cartridge nozzle with a cotton swab. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers" for more information Incorrect answers: Streaks on documents are not caused by faulty data cables or bad drivers. A faulty data cable would probably cause complete print failure; bad drivers would cause the printer to print garbled text. Printing a test page will result in the same document streaks.

Which of the following lists the correct non-overlapping channels in the 2.4-GHz wireless spectrum? 36, 40, 44, 48 1, 6, 11 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 a, b, g, n, ac

1, 6, 11 Explanation: The only list of non-overlapping channels is 1, 6, and 11. That's because the 2.4-GHz wireless frequency spectrum is broken down (in the United States) as 1-5, 6-10, and 11. Anything within a particular range (such as 2 and 4) would overlap and could potentially cause interference. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols" for more information Incorrect answers: Anything within a particular range (such as 2 and 4) would overlap and could cause interference. So "2, 4, 6, 8, 10" is incorrect. The answer "36, 40, 44, 48" refers to 5-GHz channels typically used by 802.11ac, not 2.4 GHz. By default, these do not overlap in the way that 2.4-GHz channels do. The answer "a, b, g, n, ac" refers to different 802.11 protocols. For example, 802.11g works on 2.4 GHz, and 802.11a works on 5 GHz.

You are planning a secure DMZ that will incorporate several servers, including a web server, an FTP server, and a mail server. Which inbound ports will need to be opened at the firewall so that the servers can securely communicate with users on the Internet? (Select the four best answers.) 143 443 22 587 995 53 3389 21 110 23 80

443 22 587 995 Explanation: In the scenario, the secure DMZ needs to have several inbound ports open to the servers. To do this in a secure way, one possibility would be to use SFTP on port 22, HTTPS on port 443, SMTP on port 587 (for outbound mail), and POP3 on port 995 (for inbound mail). That meets the requirements for our secure FTP server, web server, and mail server. Besides SFTP - which rides on Secure Shell (SSH) - the rest of the secure solutions use SSL/TLS by default. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: While you can use any port and secure it with the appropriate protocols, there are default security port numbers that you will usually work with. For example, when configuring FTP you would use SFTP (port 22) or FTPS (ports 989/990), but not port 21, which is used with standard FTP. As for the rest of the incorrect answers: Port 23 is used with Telnet (considered insecure). Port 53 is used by DNS, which can be secured in a variety of ways, but the scenario does not require a DNS server. Port 80 is HTTP (which is rarely seen today). Port 110 is POP3 without security. Port 143 is IMAP without security. Port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). By the way, you probably won't get a question with 11 possible answers - I'm just trying to stress that you should know your ports and protocols!

When dealing with Bluetooth, which of the following statements best describes the purpose of discovery mode? Instructs the mobile device to seek out all nearby devices and connect to them Allows a peripheral to be contacted by the mobile device Allows two Bluetooth devices to connect to each other without a mobile device Disconnects all devices and connects the closest powered-on device

Allows a peripheral to be contacted by the mobile device Explanation: The best answer is that Bluetooth allows a peripheral to be contacted by the mobile device. For example, when a Bluetooth headset is put into discovery mode, a smartphone or other Bluetooth-equipped device can contact it for use (as long as that smartphone or other device has Bluetooth installed). Or a smartphone can be put into discovery mode so that a PC or other computer can locate it. See Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Device, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: This function works one device at a time. Often, a code needs to be entered in order for the computer or smartphone to communicate with the Bluetooth device.

One of your co-workers has opened a trouble ticket concerning paper jams on a laser printer. The paper jams have become more frequent of late. You decide to attempt to re-create the problem and then check the printer log for more information. Which of the following are the most likely solutions to the problem? (Select the two best answers.) Replace the paper exit assembly switch. Clean and replace the paper out sensor. Use a printer maintenance kit to replace parts. Clean the fuser roller and verify fuser operation. Clean and inspect the entire paper path. Clean and inspect the print drum.

C, E One of your co-workers has opened a trouble ticket concerning paper jams on a laser printer. The paper jams have become more frequent of late. You decide to attempt to re-create the problem and then check the printer log for more information. Which of the following are the most likely solutions to the problem? (Select the two best answers.) Replace the paper exit assembly switch. Clean and replace the paper out sensor. Use a printer maintenance kit to replace parts. Clean the fuser roller and verify fuser operation. Clean and inspect the entire paper path. Clean and inspect the print drum.

You are building a new PC and you notice that the motherboard has eight DIMM sockets that are labeled 0 through 7. Four of them are gray, and the other four are a darker shade of gray. Which of the following should be performed first? Install the memory into the gray slots. Consult the motherboard documentation. Fill all the slots with memory. Install the memory into the dark-gray slots. Install the memory into slots 0 through 3.

Consult the motherboard documentation. Explanation: Always check the motherboard documentation before you begin installing components. You need to know what type of memory you should be using, what type of channel configuration (most likely dual- or quad-channel), and where the sticks of RAM should be installed depending on what configuration you will use. The motherboard documentation will have a table or matrix explaining all the different possibilities. A single motherboard might allow one stick of RAM, plus configurations for dual-channel, tri-channel, and quad-channel. You need to know what is allowed and plan for the right type of RAM before you purchase it. In this scenario there are eight slots in total (0-7). If you install the memory into all the gray slots, then you are probably setting the system up for a multichannel configuration, but you must get the correct RAM. Note that the colors of the slots can be different depending on the manufacturer; for example, they might be blue and black, and the first slots you should use are the blue ones. It all depends - always check documentation first! See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Installing the memory to the dark-gray slots might work, but it might not if those are the secondary slots for each channel. Going by the first four numbers might not be correct either, depending on the motherboard. In fact, a motherboard will often use the numbering system A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, C2, D1, D2, with each letter corresponding to a different channel. Filling all the slots might work, perhaps if you get quad-channel-compliant memory (and a lot of it), but it is not the recommended choice because it can be expensive and probably is not necessary. The main lesson here is that there are a lot of possibilities, depending on the motherboard, and depending on what you as the user wish to accomplish. So always RTM (read the manual) and plan your purchases wisely.

A desktop computer (named workstation22) can't connect to the network. A network card was purchased without documentation or driver discs. Which of the following is the best way to install the network card driver? Purchase the disc online and install. From the desktop computer (workstation22), download and install the drivers. Copy the driver to a flash drive and install. Run Windows Update to install the drivers.

Copy the driver to a flash drive and install. Explanation: You will need to go to another computer, download the driver from the manufacturer's website, copy that to a flash drive, and bring it back to the affected computer. See Chapter 22, "Troubleshooting Wired and Wireless Network Problems," for more information. Incorrect answers: If you have access to another computer, it would be silly to wait for a disc from the manufacturer. And any manufacturer that charges for drivers (or a driver disc) should be ashamed, as should the user who actually purchases the disc! You can't run Windows Update or download drivers from the computer in question because the computer has no network connection; and remember, Windows Update is used to download Microsoft drivers, not other vendors' drivers.

No matter how many ipconfig/release and ipconfig/renew commands you issue, the computer you are troubleshooting can only obtain an APIPA address. Which of the following has most likely failed? DNS Network switch DHCP Patch panel

DHCP Explanation: If the computer keeps obtaining an APIPA address (an IP address that starts with 169.254), then the DHCP server has most likely failed. See Chapter 22, "Troubleshooting Wired and Wireless Network Problems" for more information Incorrect answers: DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. This scenario is focused on IP addresses only. Of course, you should check if the computer's patch cable is connected and that the network adapter has a link light. If so, then you can rule out the network switch and the patch panel.

Which of the following is the best option for storing 6153 MB of data on one disc? RAID 5 DVD-5 SL DVD-9 DL CD-R 48x

DVD-9 DL Explanation: DVD-9 DL is the best answer when it comes to saving 6153 MB (6 GB) of data. DL stands for dual-layer. DVD-9 has one side and two layers by default, allowing it to save up to 8.5 GB of data maximum. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: CD-R discs can only save 700 MB or so; the 48x simply tells you the write speed. DVD-5 SL discs are standard single-sided, single-layer DVDs that can save up to 4.7 GB. A RAID 5 array would definitely be able to hold the data, but it is not a "disc"; in fact, it is three or more drives - if those drives were magnetic-based, then it would be "disks." Either way, a lot of work is required to build that array, plus the question did not mention that fault tolerance was required.

Which of the following is a possible symptom of a damaged video display? Computer repeatedly boots to Safe Mode Disconnected punchdown Dead pixel Low RF signal

Dead Pixel Explanation: A dead pixel on a video display is a possible symptom of a damaged monitor screen. Sometimes dead pixels can be repaired with third-party software programs, but more often than not, the dead pixel indicates a damaged display. Another common display issue is when artifacts show up on the screen. This could be due to a damaged display or an incorrect video setting (such as resolution). See Chapter 20, "Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A disconnected punchdown at a punchblock, patch panel, or RJ45 jack can cause a disruption in wired network data transfer, just as a low radio frequency (RF) signal can cause a loss in wireless network data transfer, but these will not affect the video display. If there is a problem with a wired connection, a punchdown tool will be required to rewire the network connection. Generally, the best method is to remove the cable's individual wires, cut it, strip the plastic jacket with a wire stripped, and re-terminate the individual wires. If a computer repeatedly boots into Safe Mode, there might be a driver issue, malware issue, or other OS problem, and though the system will boot in VGA resolution (640X480), that doesn't mean there is damage to the video display.

You have been tasked with running a network extension to the warehouse that is 50 meters (164 feet) away. The proposed path will take the network extension near several fluorescent light fixtures and a large electric motor. Your manager says that budgeting is not an issue. What type of cable would be best for this environment? Unshielded twisted-pair Fiber optic Shielded twisted-pair Coaxial

Fiber Optic Explanation: Fiber optic cable would be the best for this environment. This is not because of the distance that fiber optic cable can be run (the other three options can be run farther than 50 meters); it is because of the electromagnetic interference (EMI) that will be emitted by the fluorescent light fixtures and electric motor. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors" for more information Incorrect answers: All of the other answers are incorrect because they are copper-based—even STP. Fiber optic cable is the best choice when attempting to resist EMI, even better than shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable, especially if the budget allows for it.

A PC's network adapter has a link light that is lit, but the PC can't access internal network resources. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue? Incorrect gateway IP address conflict Slow transfer speed Packet collisions

IP address conflict × Explanation: An IP address conflict is a possible cause for the problem. This happens when two computers are assigned the same IP address (usually when at least one was configured statically). When this happens, the link light on the network adapter will still work as usual because the system has a physical link to a central connecting device such as a switch, and bits (and frames) of data are still being sent back and forth between that computer and that switch. It's the IP layer that is nonfunctional due to the IP conflict. See Chapter 22, "Troubleshooting Wired and Wireless Network Problems," for more information. Incorrect answers: The answer "incorrect gateway" is not correct because the scenario states that the PC cannot access internal network resources. A gateway deals with external network resources. Packet collisions only occur if the system has a valid IP connection. Slow transfer speed doesn't mean no transfer of data. Although slow transfer speeds could cause the system to take a while to connect, it should still connect at some point to internal network resources. You can tell if the system has sent or received data in the current session by going to the network icon in the Notification Area or by running a netstat -e command in the Command Prompt (in Windows); these will show packets that were transceived (transmitted and received).

You are the network administrator for your company. You are in charge of installing a device that will proactively stop outside attacks from reaching the local area network. Which of the following devices should you implement? Authentication server IDS IPS Proxy server

IPS Explanation: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a network security appliance that you can install at the perimeter of the network to attempt to proactively stop outside attacks from reaching the local area network (LAN). However, the device's database should be updated often, so that it will be able to detect and prevent attack signatures. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration" for more information Incorrect answers: An intrusion detection system (IDS) can detect attacks and alert you to them, but not prevent them. So it is not proactive and therefore doesn't meet the requirements in the scenario. A proxy server is a computer that caches web pages and other content for client computers on the LAN. An authentication server is in charge of verifying user identities during login.

Joseph's laptop shuts down unexpectedly when it is moved from one room to another. A technician has reseated the hard drive, memory, battery, and video cable, but the laptop continues to shut down when it is moved. What is the most likely cause of the problem? CMOS battery failure Distended capacitors Overheated system Loose battery connection Residual energy on the motherboard

Loose battery connection Explanation: The most likely of the listed answers is that there is a loose battery connection. This could be due to a few things. First, the battery might also need to be screwed in; without the screws it might be loose. Second, wear and tear over time might have pried the battery contacts apart a little bit. Or, the contacts could be dirty. Make sure you have a secure, clean connection and that any required screws have been screwed in. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," and Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power" for more information Incorrect answers: An overheated system could shut the system down unexpectedly, but it could happen at any time, not just when it is being moved. In fact, it is more likely that an overheating issue would happen when the laptop is stationary—for example, if it is sitting in a location where the fan is blocked. Residual energy on the motherboard usually results in the system not booting at all; this can be fixed by unplugging the laptop, removing the battery, and pressing and holding the power button for 30 seconds. A CMOS battery failure would probably result in a message upon bootup that says the time and date has to be reset, but after that the system would boot fine; it just might have some time issues. Distended capacitors (swollen caps) would most likely cause the system to stop working completely; in that case, the motherboard would have to be replaced.

Which of the following should be used when building a high-end graphics workstation for CAD applications? (Select the two best answers.) Main memory of 16 GB or more An IDE drive A 32-bit OS for the large amount of expected drive I/O More than four accessible USB 3.0 ports A PCIe video card with a large amount of memory

Main memory of 16 GB or more A PCIe video card with a large amount of memory × Explanation: The most important components in a CAD workstation are maximized RAM, high-end video, and an SSD (as well as a good multicore CPU). See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: IDE drives are not seen much anymore, because they are an older technology that is not nearly as fast as SATA. It is more likely that the system will use internal SATA 3.0 drives, or NVMe-based drives (or perhaps SATA Express drives). The USB ports are not as important on a CAD workstation. More likely, the system will run a 64-bit OS, not 32-bit.

A workstation fails to boot. The POST found an error, and the computer beeps twice. This happens again and again. Which of the following is the most likely issue? Power supply failure CPU failure Memory failure Video adapter failure

Memory Failure Explanation: The most likely cause is a memory failure. Two beeps often means a problem with memory. Of course, this will depend on the type of BIOS or UEFI. For example, two beeps in some Dell systems means that no memory has been detected, causing a RAM failure. Two short beeps in AMI BIOS systems means a memory parity error. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the power supply were to fail, the system wouldn't even POST because the motherboard didn't receive power. If the video adapter failed, you would get a different set of beeps. For example, in Award BIOS systems, one long and two short beeps (or three short beeps) means some kind of video error. In some Dell systems, six beeps means a video card failure. Read the motherboard documentation to find out what the beep codes mean exactly. If the CPU fails, the system will not boot or power-on self-test (POST).

Which of the following devices is most likely used to input actions into a desktop computer? Webcam Optical drive Monitor Mouse

Mouse Explanation: The most likely device used to input actions into a desktop computer is the mouse. These actions include moving the mouse pointer, clicking, and double-clicking. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: For desktop computers, the monitor is generally an output device. It is possible to add a digitizer so that it can be touchscreen capable, but unless the monitor is very close to the user, the ergonomics will be less than desirable. A webcam is used to input video and audio signal to the computer, but not actions. An optical drive is used to read data from and possibly write data to optical discs. It is not an action-based input device such as a mouse or keyboard.

Which connector is necessary to supply power to a graphics expansion card? (Select the best answer.) PCIe 6-pin 24-pin ATX 8-pin EATX12V SATA 15-pin

PCIe 6-pin Explanation: PCIe 6-pin is the best answer. 8-pin PCIe power connectors are also common, but don't confuse them with 8-pin CPU power connectors. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: Though there are 8-pin 12 V connectors for PCIe, the EATX12V 8-pin connector is used for CPUs. 24-pin ATX refers to the main power connection from the PSU to the motherboard. SATA power connectors are 15-pin and are used for hard drives and optical drives.

A user with an inkjet printer states that all color printouts are missing red ink. The printer has cartridges for each of the CMYK colors and the user has recently replaced the magenta cartridge. Which of the following steps should be performed next? Use different weighted paper. Verify that the printer cables are connected. Purchase a maintenance kit. Perform printer head cleaning.

Perfom printer head cleaning × Explanation: You should clean the print head! Most printers come with an on-screen utility that will do this or you can manually clean the print head (delicately!). Similar to this, printers might need to be calibrated if colors are slightly off. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," and Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the printer cables weren't connected, the printer wouldn't print anything at all. Maintenance kits are used more often for laser printers and are unnecessary in this case. The weight of the paper will not affect what colors are printed by an inkjet printer.

Which type of cable needs to be fire resistant? STP Coaxial UTP Plenum

Plenum Explanation: Plenum cable is required to be fire resistant; it should not emit toxic fumes if it is exposed to high temperatures. Regular unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is covered with a PVC jacket. When this burns it creates a toxic smoke. Plenum cable combats this by using a covering (Teflon or other similar material) that is more fire resistant. A plenum is any airway where fire can spread. Municipal code requires fire-resistant cable in a plenum. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors" for more information Incorrect answers: STP (shielded twisted-pair) cable uses an aluminum shield that surrounds the individual wires; however, this is inside the PVC jacket, making it just as susceptible to fire as UTP. Coaxial cable also has a PVC jacket.

Dave reports that when he pushes his laptop's power button, there is no response. Which of the following steps should be performed first? Reseat the memory. Replace the battery. Close the lid and reopen it. Plug in the external power supply.

Plug in the external power supply. Explanation: You should plug in the external power supply. You know that Dave guy—sometimes he forgets to plug in the power adapter and then the battery goes dead, causing the laptop to be quite unresponsive when pressing the power button. Remember the golden rule: make sure it's plugged in! Do that first and save yourself a lot of hours of your life. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: However, if that doesn't work, you can move on to checking the battery, checking the type of power adapter being used, the AC outlet you are connecting to, and so on. Some users neglect to charge their batteries, and instead, their laptops are constantly being used at a low percentage of charge. This lessens the lifespan of the battery. So, when you do plug in the AC adapter, sometimes you will find the battery does need to be replaced. Always check to see if it can be charged and if it holds a charge. Recommend to laptop users that they carry a spare battery in the laptop bag. You shouldn't have to reseat the memory unless you get an error message during the POST.

One of your customers reports that a computer has no access to the network. You look at the switch and notice that all lights are on and not flashing. The network cables are plugged in, and the computer's network card is functioning properly. Which of the following steps should be performed to solve this problem? Replace the switch's uplink cable. Reboot the computer. Ping 127.0.0.1. Power cycle the switch.

Power cycle the switch. Explanation: Remember to start with the simple. For PCs, that means check the connections; for networks, that means power cycling the device (and checking connections). If the lights are on and not blinking, it would appear that the switch crashed and needs that reboot! See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols" for more information Incorrect answers: A ping of 127.0.0.1 was probably already done in this scenario. That's how you know the network card appears to be functioning properly. Nothing has been mentioned about the Internet (or other networks), so there is no reason to think that the switch's uplink cable needs replacement. Rebooting the computer should not be necessary because, again, the network card is functioning properly.

Which of the following is enabled in the BIOS/UEFI that will prompt a user to enter a password every time the laptop performs a POST? Power-on password Administrative password Windows password One-time password

Power on password Explanation: The BIOS/UEFI power-on password setting requires that the user enter a password every time the laptop performs a POST (power-on self-test), which is basically every time it boots. This is an extra level of protection before the system boots to the operating system that is loaded on the laptop. See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards" for more information Incorrect answers: The BIOS/UEFI also contains an administrative password; this is required in order to gain access to the BIOS and make configuration changes. The Windows password comes later, when the laptop gets past the POST and after Windows has booted. A one-time password (OTP) is a password or PIN code that is valid for only one login session, and is often built into a smartcard.

You need to describe RAID to a nontechnical customer. Which of the following represents the best way describe RAID? RAID utilizes multiple disks to increase performance and/or enable protection from data loss. RAID is a dynamic disk management system. RAID uses striping to reduce the amount of hard drive write time and utilizes parity bits to reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks.

RAID utilizes multiple disks to increase performance and/or enable protection from data loss. Explanation: The best answer is "RAID utilizes multiple disks to increase performance and/or enable protection from data loss." RAID 0 and 5 can be used to increase read performance, while RAID 1, 5, and 10 can be used to enable protection from data loss. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Telling a customer that RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent (or Inexpensive) Disks is technical jargon that you should try to avoid. RAID is not a dynamic disk management system. However, in Microsoft operating systems, you need to set disks to dynamic in the Disk Management utility if you wish to add them to RAID arrays. Regardless, this is more information that the customer does not need to know. Finally, the statement "RAID uses striping to reduce the amount of hard drive write time and utilizes parity bits to reconstruct the data from a failed hard drive" is not altogether correct. RAID can also be mirroring. In addition, not all versions of RAID can use parity bits to reconstruct data from a failed hard drive. RAID 0, 1, and 10 do not. However, RAID 5 and 6 do. Remember that the customer needs to know how the technology will make their business more efficient; he or she does not need to know the technical details or jargon.

Which of the following computer components connect directly to the CPU or northbridge? (Select the two best answers.) RAM Audio Video card Hard drive Fan

RAM & Video Card Explanation: The video card and RAM are situated in such a way so that they can connect quickly to the CPU or to the northbridge. On newer Intel systems, the northbridge is actually part of the CPU. The video card connects by way of PCI Express X16 or X4 slots. The RAM connects via the address bus. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," and Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: The hard drive and audio connect to the southbridge; in newer Intel systems, they connect directly to the single chip within the chipset (which is still referred to as a southbridge.) Fans are physically connected to the motherboard; any functionality is controlled by the UEFI/BIOS.

An office laser printer is printing lighter in random areas of each page. Which of the following is the easiest solution? Replace the toner cartridge. Use compressed air on the pickup assembly. Clean the drum with a computer vacuum. Clean the fuser area.

Replace the toner cartridge × Explanation: If the printer is printing lighter in some areas, it is a good indicator that the toner cartridge needs to be replaced. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers" for more information Incorrect answers: The fuser need only be cleaned if you see smudges or streaks (you should also check the maintenance schedule and see if it should be replaced). You might clean parts of the printer with a computer vacuum if there was a toner spill (making sure to turn off and unplug the printer first), but the drum might be within the toner cartridge, making that impossible. Compressed air is also sometimes used on rollers and separation pads, but it is not usually recommended because it can blow excess toner all over the place—have that computer vacuum handy.

You work for a large organization as a help desk manager. Your help desk has been plagued with hundreds of password resets each day for the past couple of weeks. Which of the following would help to alleviate the number of support tickets that are generated due to forgotten passwords, while keeping the same or better level of security? MFA Power-on passwords SSO Simple WPA2 passphrases

SSO Explanation: Single sign-on (SSO) can help reduce the number of help desk calls generated due to forgotten passwords. SSO enables a user to sign on once and gain access to multiple systems within that single login. The fewer passwords a user has to remember, the less chance that the user will forget a password. Of course, there are plenty of other ways to reduce the chance of forgetting passwords and reduce the number of calls that come into the help desk. For example, consider longer passphrases with less complexity (as per NIST standards), increase the length of time that a password is valid, use password vaults (such as KeePass), and so on. However, remember that each of these other solutions comes with its own set of security considerations. Choose wisely! See Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Device, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: Multifactor authentication (MFA) is when two or more factors of authentication are combined during the authentication process; for example, it could be a password and a smart card. This won't reduce the number of help desk tickets generated directly, but it will offer more security, and can ultimately facilitate the use of longer and less-complex passwords, because the organization is then not dependent on passwords alone. Simple passphrases are never a good idea—be it WPA2 or whatever technology you are dealing with. However, this question is dealing more with system logins, not the connection to a wireless network; which by the way will often be set up by the administrator (in an automated fashion), not by the user. Power-on passwords are user passwords that are stored in the BIOS. That would add another level of complexity, and most likely increase the number of help desk calls—most companies will not implement power-on passwords.

You are setting up a network for a small office with 30 computers and one server. The server will be used as a file sharing device, a print server, and will act as the domain controller. What kind of addresses should you assign to the server? (Select the two best answers.) Subnet mask Dynamic IP MAC FTP Static IP DHCP

Subnet Mask Static IP Explanation: Unless a company has a lot of servers, then the servers will usually be assigned static IP addresses, as opposed to being dynamically assigned those IP addresses by a DHCP server. When you manually configure the TCP/IP properties of a computer you are required to enter the IP address and a subnet mask; for example, IP: 192.168.1.100 and subnet mask: 255.255.255.0. Often times, you will also configure a gateway address and a DNS server address, though they might not be required. The great thing about the static IP address is that you know what it is because you assigned it; you can enter it into your network documentation knowing that it will not change. DHCP-assigned addressed can change from time to time, depending on how the DHCP scope was configured. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration," for more information. Note: There is one glaring issue in this question's scenario. Ever heard of the phrase "putting too many eggs in one basket"? That's exactly what is happening here. The server is doing everything: it's a domain controller, a file server, a print server, and who know what else. While small companies sometimes have to make do with the resources at hand, it would be wise to separate one or more of these services and place them on a second server. Incorrect answers: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) - as a rule of thumb - is not used for servers in a small company. Dynamic IPs are handed out by the DHCP server to client computers. The MAC address is the hexadecimal address that is programmed into the firmware of the network adapter at the manufacturing plant; it is not (normally) set by the administrator. A File Transfer Protocol (FTP) address is rather vague - does that mean an IP address or a name? Either way, the scenario didn't mention anything about FTP.

Look at the following list of wires. What wiring standard is being used here? 1. White/orange, 2. Orange, 3. White/green, 4. Blue, 5. White/blue, 6. Green, 7. White/brown, 8. Brown RJ45 T568B TIA T568A

T568B xplanation: White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown is the correct wiring sequence for the T568B wiring standard. You might also see this shown as: WO, O, WG, B, WB, G, WBr, Br. It's the same thing, just abbreviated. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: The T568A standard, which switches the orange and green pins, is the older standard that was replaced by T568B. But to stay within electrical code and municipal guidelines, use the wiring scheme defined by the T568B standard on each end for straight-through cables. To create a crossover cable, use T568B on one end and T568A on the other. RJ45 is a type of plug (or jack) that network cards, switches, and network jacks use. TIA stands for Telecommunications Industry Association - they developed the T568 standards, and other wiring standards.

Which of the following ports can be used for audio, video, and storage? DVI Thunderbolt HDMI DisplayPort

THUNDERBOLT Explanation: Thunderbolt is the only answer listed that can be used for audio, video, and storage. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: DisplayPort and HDMI can transfer audio and video data but are not used for storage. DVI is used for video only.

One of the desktop computers at a customer site is randomly rebooting several times per day. You have checked for overheating issues, but everything seems okay with the case fans, CPU fan, and power supply. What should you check for next? The RAM to confirm it is of the right type. The integrated network adapter has the latest drivers. The motherboard for signs of swollen capacitors. The hard drive is defragmented.

The motherboard for signs of swollen capacitors Explanation: The best answer listed is to check the motherboard for swollen capacitors. A swollen (or distended) capacitor could cause the system to reboot intermittently. The capacitor (or entire motherboard) needs to be replaced. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: It is unlikely that the network adapter or fragmented hard drive would cause the system to sporadically reboot, but you should check for the latest drivers and firmware for the network adapter anyway and analyze whether the hard drive has been defragmented of late (especially for magnetic disks). RAM could cause the system to periodically reboot, mainly if the RAM is overheating. (RAM heat sinks could fix that.) But the wrong type of RAM will usually result in a POST failure instead.

You are tasked with fixing a client's PC that hasn't booted after the latest test of the building's backup generator. As you analyze the computer, you notice that once it is powered on there is no display or beep codes. After 15 seconds, the fans inside the computer start spinning faster and making more noise. The computer was working fine before the test, and you verify that no one has opened the computer. Which of the following is most likely the problem? The hard drive was erased due to the power test. The power supply was damaged and is nonfunctional. The RAM was damaged by ESD. The motherboard was damaged by the power test.

The motherboard was damaged by the power test. Explanation: The most likely answer (of the listed answers) is that the motherboard was damaged by the power test. This causes a failure to power-on self-test (POST) and causes the fans to function improperly. There was probably some kind of surge or spike of electricity, which could have overloaded the motherboard in a variety of ways. Perhaps a capacitor burst, or maybe one of the circuits burned out. You might be able to repair it, but chances are you will need to replace the motherboard. You should notify your manager or your building facilities about the issue. Also, to protect systems from this kind of problem in the future, consider upgrading the surge suppressor, installing a new one, or using a line conditioner or uninterruptible power supply, or UPS (depending on the type of system). See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: If no one opened the computer, then it is unlikely that the RAM was damaged by electrostatic discharge (ESD). Internal components are usually only affected by ESD when someone handles them improperly. You don't know yet, but the hard drive could have data corruption or become erased due to a power surge. But that isn't the cause of the problem in the scenario; it is simply another potential result. It's another reason to have good protective power equipment to plug the computer into. If the power supply was damaged and was nonfunctional, then the fans wouldn't spin at all. However, the power supply might also be partially damaged. You will need to do a lot of testing of the computer to make sure it is fully functional before putting it back into its normal work environment.

One of your customers reports that all print jobs sent to a certain printer that require legal-size paper are not printing. However, standard-size paper jobs are printing correctly. You check the paper tray and verify that it is loaded with legal-size paper. What is the most likely cause of the problem? The print queue is holding jobs from printing. The paperweight is too heavy for the printer. The paper size for the tray is incorrect in the printer setup. The printer is not designed to print legal-size pages.

The paper size for the tray is incorrect in the printer setup. Explanation: The best answer is that the paper size for the tray is incorrect in the printer setup. This can be reconfigured in Windows at the customer's client computer within the printer properties window. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers" for more information Incorrect answers: If the print queue was holding jobs from printing, then neither size paper would be printing properly. You have already checked the paper tray, so chances are that the paperweight is not too heavy for the printer. The printer is definitely designed to print legal-size pages. If it wasn't, when you checked the paper tray and verified that it was loaded with legal-size paper, you would've noticed that the paper did not fit.

You need to connect external peripherals to a typical PC. Which of the following connector types will allow you to do this? (Select the two best answers.) SAS SATA EIDE USB 3.0 eSATA

USB 3.0, eSATA Explanation: External SATA (eSATA) is an SATA port that is meant for use with external devices. It is sometimes found as a port on the back of a PC or can be added with an adapter card. Of course, USB (3.0, 2.0, and so on) is another external port that is used to connect to audio and video equipment as well as external hard drives. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Normally, SATA (without the e preceding it) is used for internal devices, not external. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) is a type of hard drive technology, which is used more in servers and power workstations, not typical PCs. Enhanced IDE (EIDE, also known as Parallel ATA) is an older hard drive standard that you won't see often - unless you are recovering data! - and it is internal by default.

A marketing employee commonly sends large print jobs to a printer. The employee tells you that during the jobs the printer spontaneously pauses and resumes several times. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? The printer paper tray is not big enough. The printer needs updated drivers. The toner cartridge is defective. The printer is overheating.

The printer is overheating. Explanation: The printer is probably overheating during these long jobs. Perhaps the fuser is nearing replacement time. The fuser can run as hot as 400 degrees Fahrenheit (204 degrees Celsius), and some printers will pause printing when that temperature threshold is tripped. After the temperature goes back below the threshold, the printer will begin printing again. Note: Watch out for the reverse, when the fuser doesn't get hot enough. If that happens, it will most likely result in blurry, smeared, or smudged pages. In this case you would increase the fuser temperature (if available on the printer in question). See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers" for more information Incorrect answers: If the toner cartridge was defective, you would get blank paper, lighter printing, or paper with lines or smears. As long as there is paper in the tray, the large print job will continue to print (if within operating temperature parameters). Updated drivers are only necessary when the printer will not print the data on the page correctly. Pausing the job in this scenario is not causing any print errors; it's just taking longer to complete.

A customer reports to you that he cannot access the company SFTP site. He says that he is using the IP address given to him: 86200.43.118. What is most likely the problem? Port 22 is blocked. This is an invalid IP address. The file transfer site is down. The SFTP program is not working.

This is an invalid IP address. Explanation: The most likely answer is that the IP address is invalid. 86200.43.118 is missing a dot; the IP address should actually be 86.200.43.118. This is more likely than the other three answers. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information. An SFTP server would usually not block port 22 because that is the default SFTP port; blocking it would block all traffic to the SFTP server! It's possible that the site is down, but unlikely. Though the FTP program could be configured improperly, it is more likely that user error is the culprit here.

You have been tasked with installing Microsoft Office on a customer's computer. As you attempt to do so, you are told that Office cannot be installed directly to that computer. Which of the following types of computers are you working on? MacBook Tablet Thin client Thick client

Thrin Client Explanation: A thin client is the best answer. That is typically a computer that has an embedded operating system (one that is stored on flash memory); it cannot have additional programs installed to it. Any programs that the thin client makes use of quite often come from a server. This isn't always the case (because there are varying levels of thin clients), but it is common. See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: Microsoft Office could be installed to any of the other computing systems listed in the answers. There is a version for macOS (for MacBooks), there is a version for some tablets, especially ones that run Microsoft OSes, and thick clients are essentially PCs, so Office can usually be installed to those as well.

Which of the following devices should a technician calibrate as part of an installation? Mouse Touchscreen Video card Keyboard

Touchscreen Explanation: Some touchscreens require calibration to respond to input properly. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1" for more information. Incorrect answers: Keyboards and mice do not require this. Video cards are not calibrated, but monitors can be (in a variety of ways). Printers can be calibrated as well.

Which of the following cables is prone to EMI? STP Fiber optic Multimode UTP

UTP Explanation: Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is prone to electromagnetic interference (EMI). See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: Fiber optic cable is not prone to EMI because it uses light as the medium instead of electricity. Multimode cable is a type of fiber optic. STP stands for shielded twisted pair, and as the name indicates, it incorporates an aluminum shield around the wires in order to prevent EMI.

ohn is a PC technician for an organization that has a computer network with 12 computers. Each contains vital information, so each uses static IP addresses (on the 192.168.50.0 network). John just finished troubleshooting a Windows computer that could not access the network. He ascertained (correctly) that the computer needed a new network card. He purchased a plug-and-play card and physically installed the card. He then turned on the computer, noting that the network card's LED link was lit and that there was activity. He then rebooted the computer to Windows and then documented the whole process. Later, his boss tells him that the user is complaining that she cannot access the Internet. Which step of the A+ troubleshooting methodology did John forget to perform? Identify the problem. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. Establish a theory of probable cause. Test the theory to determine cause. Verify full system functionality. Document findings, actions and outcomes.

Verify full system functionality. Explanation: John forgot to verify full system functionality. As I've said many times during the course of the book, always test! And by "test" I mean verify functionality - make sure it works - not "test the theory." With a default installation of a plug-and-play network card, the card will, by default, be set to obtain an IP address automatically. If the computers need to be configured for static IP addresses, this will most likely cause a problem. There might not even be a device or server that is handing out IP addresses on the network. If that is the case, the Windows computer would attempt to self-assign an IP address (an APIPA address starting with 169.254). If that happens, the computer will most definitely not be able to communicate with the gateway - or the Internet, for that matter. And even if there is a DHCP server on the network, the chances are very slim that it is handing out addresses on the 192.168.50.0 network. Most SOHO routers will hand out addresses on the 192.168.0.0 or 192.168.1.0 networks, and that is only if DHCP is enabled. John should have logged in to Windows, ran a ping test, tried to connect to websites with one or more browsers, and so on. Verifying full functionality is very important. Always remember to test every repair thoroughly. See Chapter 17, "Computer Troubleshooting 101," for more information. Incorrect answers: All the steps of the A+ troubleshooting methodology are listed in the answers. John performed each step except for verifying full system functionality.

You've just set up ten computers in a small LAN and updated them to the same version of Windows. They're all the same make and model that will remotely turn on using Wake-on-LAN (WOL). Eight computers wake up as they are supposed to, but two systems do not wake correctly. What is the most likely problem with the two systems? The network adapter settings in Windows are incorrect. WOL is not enabled in the UEFI/BIOS. The two computers do not support WOL functionality. The two computers' gateway IP address is configured incorrectly.

WOL is not enabled in the UEFI/BIOS. Explanation: The most likely cause of this problem is that WOL is not enabled in the UEFI/BIOS. Because it is located in the UEFI/BIOS, the setting needs to be configured individually on each computer. Keep in mind that the computers' UEFI/BIOS and network adapter must support WOL, but in this scenario all the computers are the same make and model, so they should all have the same functionality. They just need to all be configured the same way. Because they are the same make and model, and because Windows was updated to the same version on each computer, the network adapter settings should be the same. See Chapter 29, "Windows Networking and Application Installation" for more information Incorrect answers: Network adapter settings in Windows could possibly be the culprit for waking issues, for example, when you deal with magic packets, but WOL functionality usually resides in the BIOS. So this would be the next stop in your troubleshooting process. Even if the computers had an incorrectly configured gateway IP address, they should still be woken up by other computers on the LAN. However, they will have problems accessing the Internet or other networks outside of the LAN.

Which of the following issues are potential reasons as to why a laptop's keyboard stops functioning? (Select the three best answers.) Warped keyboard Loose connection Bad inverter Stuck keys Faulty touchpad Discharged battery

Warped keyboard Loose connection Stuck Keys Explanation: A keyboard could stop functioning due to stuck keys from overuse or a liquid spill; a loose ribbon cable connection; or a warped keyboard caused by damage from heavy items, environmental conditions, or misuse. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: A bad inverter would cause the backlight to fail, and you would just barely be able to see the display. A faulty touchpad is another problem altogether; the touchpad and the keyboard are separate devices on the laptop. A discharged battery would cause the laptop to simply shut off (if using battery power only).

You are responding to a server issue reported to you by the accounting department. A particular mapped network drive has high latency. When you go to the server room, you identify the problem as one of the drives in a RAID array. Which of the following best describes how to fix the problem? You should replace the RAID controller. You should reseat the faulty drive. You should reinstall the RAID driver. You should replace the faulty drive.

You should replace the faulty drive. Explanation: You should replace the faulty drive. If one of the drives is performing below expectations due to high latency, then it might be because the drive is about to fail. You should back up the data, replace the drive, and restore the data (either from mirror, parity, or tape backup, as the case may be) to the array as soon as possible. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Incorrect answers: Reseating the drive probably won't fix the problem. You might reseat a drive immediately after installation if it isn't responding properly. But if it has been working properly for a time, then this isn't a valid solution. Reinstalling the RAID driver would require that you take the entire array down (which might be necessary anyway) but is not something to try first due to the fact that it will require a lot of time and configuration (not to mention the downtime associated with the task). Replacing the RAID controller should be far down the troubleshooting list. If only one drive has failed (or is causing latency in this case), then it probably isn't the controller. Remember, hard drives will fail. It's just a matter of time, and it will normally happen before a controller fails.

Which of the following is an example of a MAC address? https://dprocomputer.com 10.1.1.255 4410:FF11:AAB3::0012 00-1C-C0-A1-55-21

`00-1C-C0-A1-55-21 Explanation: The only answer listed that is an example of a MAC address is 00-1C-C0-A1-55-21. The MAC address is the address burned into the ROM chip of a network adapter that uniquely identifies it. This address is composed of six hexadecimal numbers, each between 00 and FF. The decimal equivalent of this is 0 through 255. The first three numbers are the OUI (organizationally unique identifier); 00-1C-C0 is an Intel OUI. The last three numbers are the individual address of the particular network adapter. You might also encounter MAC addresses separated by colons instead of hyphens. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: 10.1.1.255 is an IPv4 address. 4410:FF11:AAB3::0012 is a truncated IPv6 address. https://dprocomputer.com is a web address. It includes the protocol used (HTTPS) and the domain name (dprocomputer.com).

Which of the following terms best describes the Apple utility used with iOS devices for synchronizing and upgrading? iMac iTunes Safari Bluetooth

iTunes Explanation: iTunes is used with Apple iOS devices to synchronize them with a computer, upgrade them, or restore them to factory defaults. See Chapter 30, "Linux and macOS Tools," and Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: Safari is the iOS web browser. iMac is Apple's desktop/laptop computer. Bluetooth is a way of transmitting data wirelessly between devices and smartphones or PCs. Apple iOS devices generally synchronize to computers via USB or Wi-Fi.

Which of the following is the module format used by a laptop's DDR4 SODIMMs? 260-pin 200-pin 204-pin 240-pin

260-pin planation: DDR4 SODIMMs use the 260-pin module format. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: As far as SODIMM technology goes, DDR1 and DDR2 use the 200-pin module format and DDR3 is 204-pin. 240-pin is used by full-size desktop DDR3.

Examine the following output: Fe80::403b:e791:b151:b92a%11(Preferred) 192.168.1.115(Preferred) 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 151.198.0.38 Based on the output, which address is most likely the DNS server? 192.168.1.115 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 151.198.0.38

151.198.0.38 Explanation: The information in the scenario was generated with the ipconfig /all command. The DNS server address is most likely 151.198.0.38. Fe80::403b:e791:b151:b92a%11(Preferred) is the link-local IPv6 address. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: 192.168.1.115(Preferred) is the IPv4 address of the computer. 255.255.255.0 is the subnet mask. 192.168.1.1 is the gateway address. The DNS server IP address does not have to be on the same network as the IP address of the local computer. However, by default the gateway IP address will be on the same network as the local computer. In this case, the network number is 192.168.1.0. Analyze the different lines of information within your own computer by running the ipconfig /all command.

Which of the following voltages are normally supplied by a PSU's rails? (Select the two best answers.) 5 V 1.5 V 9 V 3.3 V

5V & 3.3V Explanation: The voltages a power supply unit (PSU) typically supplies include 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V (as well as their negatives) to components in the computer. See the section titled "Power Supplies" in Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: 1.5 is a common voltage for DDR3 RAM and for AA and AAA batteries. 9 V is usually associated with batteries used by handheld devices such as power supply testers and multimeters. PSU's do not supply a 9 V rail or 1.5 V rail.

hich inbound port does a DHCP server use? 67 389 53 443

67 Explanation: A DHCP server uses inbound port 67, which allows for incoming DHCP requests from clients (which incidentally use port 68 outbound). See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: Port 53 is the port used by DNS servers. Port 443 is used by HTTPS for web servers and some other types of systems. Port 389 is used by the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)—common with Windows Servers.

You are troubleshooting a printer. Which of the following are common symptoms of printer failure or other printer issues? (Select the two best answers.) Unable to install the printer to the OS Failure to document cable and screw locations Vertical lines on the page Failure to organize parts Num Lock indicator lights are on

A, C Explanation: Some common symptoms of printer trouble include vertical lines on the page, which would indicate a print drum issue, likely fixed by a toner cartridge replacement or inkjet cartridge calibration. Also, problems installing the printer to an operating system are a symptom of printer trouble. If the printer has failed, the OS will have difficulty seeing it and the printer will have to be repaired before the printer and print driver can be installed to the client computer's OS. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers." Incorrect answers: Num Lock (Number Lock) indicator lights are displayed on laptop and PC keyboards. If a laptop's Num Lock indicator light is on, it will probably be difficult for a user to log in to the system. Instead of the user typing the regular password, a mixture of unwanted letters and numbers will be typed, causing the login to fail. Of course, this is not a common symptom of printer failure but could be the cause for a failed login. Failure to document cable and screw locations and the failure to organize parts could make reassembly of a printer or laptop difficult. These failures could possibly even be reasons why the printer or laptop fails, but they wouldn't be symptoms of the problem. When troubleshooting, be sure to understand the difference between a symptom of a problem and a cause of a problem. And of course, think carefully about the best solution to the problem!

You are working at the bench repair department in your company and a user approaches you with a problem concerning a smartphone. It is unable to send or receive voice calls and cannot connect to Wi-Fi. Otherwise, applications work properly unless they require connectivity. What is the most likely cause of the problem? Tethering Disabled hotspot Airplane mode VPN

Airplane Mode Explanation: Of the listed answers, the most likely cause is that the smartphone is in airplane mode. It's a quick fix that is often overlooked—disable airplane mode and everything will work again! That includes Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, voice calls, texting, and any applications that require Internet access. See Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Device, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: When a mobile device is tethered to a PC or Mac (via USB), it is sharing it's Internet connection with that desktop or laptop computer. While tethering and hotspots can disable Internet access on the smartphone while they are on, if the user has brought the device in for repair, then it is most likely not physically tethered to the other computer anymore. Disabling a hotspot means that it has been turned off. If the hotspot was on, then it would interfere with the smartphone itself getting on the Internet; but being off is the default state, and the smartphone would work normally. VPN connectivity works over the Internet connection. If VPN is functional, then applications should work. In less common scenarios, VPN can cause conflicts with Internet access, but it is not as likely as the device being in airplane mode.

A monitor's on-screen display (OSD) indicates that the proper video source has been selected, yet no image is displayed. Which of the following are the most likely causes? (Select the two best answers.) The monitor's backlight has failed. The source cable has been disconnected. There is no device sending video. The monitor's brightness setting is too low. The monitor's contrast setting is too high.

B, C × Explanation: The most likely answers here are that there is no device sending video (such as a video card) or that the source cable has been disconnected (for example, from the computer's video card to the monitor). Always check the connections on both ends, and make sure that the computer (the video source) is on and booting properly. See Chapter 20, "Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The brightness and contrast settings are not likely to cause a no-image issue. On most monitors you can reduce the brightness to zero but still see the image on the screen. Likewise, you can increase the contrast to 100 (or whatever maximum number is used) and still see the image on the screen. It is not possible for the monitor's backlight to have failed because you can see in the OSD that the proper video source has been selected. The OSD would not be visible (or would only be barely visible with a flashlight) if the backlight had failed. Again, it is much more likely that there is a connectivity or source video problem. Always check the connections first!

One of your customers attempts to copy a DVD with a third-party application. It reads the source DVD fine, but when a blank disc is inserted, the program keeps asking the customer to insert blank media. What are some possible reasons for this? (Select the three best answers.) The drive is a CD-RW drive. The DVD was inserted upside down. A Blu-ray disc was inserted into the drive. The customer is using the wrong DVD type. The program cannot copy the DVD due to copyright laws. There isn't enough free space on the hard drive.

B, C, D × Explanation: If the source DVD was read fine, there are three possible correct answers: an incorrect DVD type was inserted into the drive; a Blu-ray disc was inserted into the drive; or the DVD was inserted upside down. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage" for more information Incorrect answers: The scenario doesn't specify whether or not the DVD is protected by copyright laws. The hard drive doesn't play into this scenario because the program's message is simply to insert blank media. The drive can't be a CD-RW drive if it accepted the source DVD. Chances are you won't see many CD-ROM or CD-RW drives. If you see any optical drives on systems, they will be DVD/CD compatible or Blu-ray/DVD/CD compatible.

You are required to perform preventive maintenance on a laser printer. What should be replaced? (Select the three best answers.) Paper trays Pickup rollers Paper Transfer belt Fuser assembly RAM

B, D, E Explanation: The fuser assembly, pickup rollers, and transfer belt should be replaced. These are normally contained within a printer maintenance kit. Many printers warn you when the fuser and possibly the transfer belt are just about ready to be replaced. When you get a warning like this, you should install the maintenance kit right away. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices" and/or Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers" for more information Incorrect answers: The printer's RAM should never have to be replaced, unless there was some kind of damage caused by overheating or a surge. Paper is a consumable that needs to be replaced more often; it is not part of a maintenance kit. It is usually not the responsibility of the technician, but the department where the printer is located. Also, toner cartridges might need to be replaced, but it isn't always necessary during preventive maintenance. The paper trays will rarely fail and are not part of a maintenance kit. But they should be checked to make sure they are in working order when maintenance is required on the printer.

You are attempting to load an operating system from a USB flash drive at computer startup. Which of the following settings should you modify in the BIOS? Boot sequence Enable TPM Enable a BIOS password Disable TPM

Boot Sequence × Explanation: Most of the time a computer's BIOS (or UEFI) will be configured to boot to the hard drive first. To boot from a USB flash drive, or optical disc, or other removable media, you might need to change the boot sequence, otherwise known as the boot order or boot priority, and place the removable media first. However, if the drive is brand new and blank, you might be able to still boot from the removable media, even if it is not first on the list. This will depend on the system, but essentially, the BIOS will see that the drive is blank and move on to the next boot media on the list. Keep in mind that you might boot to removable media with an operating system for other reasons than installing the OS (for example, recovering an existing system). See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: Enabling a password is not necessary, but there should be a password. If there is, you will need to know it in order to access the BIOS. If not, you should create one while you are there. TPM (Trusted Platform Module) deals with the encryption of data on the hard drive and should be enabled or disabled before an operating system is installed; it won't have any bearing on the boot sequence.

A user at your company just purchased a new mobile device that uses a different operating system than the previous one. The user wants to copy the contact and appointments from his corporate account without entering them manually. Which of the following is the best option? Create a Bluetooth connection between the two devices and copy the contacts and the calendar. Use NFC to transfer the contacts and appointments from one device to another. Log into the same e-mail provider on the new device and restore the contacts and calendar appointments. Back up the old device to a desktop computer and import the contacts and appointments to the new device.

C Explanation: Most mobile devices will use cloud-based e-mail (Gmail or similar). The whole point of using these services is that they can seamlessly synchronize from one platform to another (Android to iOS, or vice versa). Simply make sure the app is installed on the new device, log in, and allow the application to synchronize the data to the new device. All of the data will be copied to the new device automatically. See Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Device, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: All of the other answers deal with backing up and restoring, or transferring. But these are not necessary. Proper synchronization simply requires that the app is installed, a proper login is entered, and that Internet access is available. So, Bluetooth, NFC, and backing up/restoring to and from a PC are not necessary.

You are tasked with building a high-end gaming PC and need to select the right power supply. Which features should you be looking for? (Select the three best answers.) Mini-ITX form factor 20-pin power connector 24-pin power connector Large number of connectors Dual 12 V rails 400 watts

C,D,E × Explanation: You should be looking for a high number of connectors because gaming PCs will often have multiple video cards, hard drives, and so on. You should also look for a 24-pin main power connector as opposed to a 20-pin. Finally, look for a multirail system. This distributes the power used (and gaming PCs use a lot of power) and avoids overheating on the rails. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: The 20-pin main power connector is the older ATX style that is not often used today. Mini-ITX is good for smaller computing systems, but the form factor simply doesn't allow for the space necessary for most gaming PCs. 400 watts is not nearly enough power for a high-end gaming PC; the number will be double that or more.

Which of the following does not have anything to do with virtualization? VMware Hyper-V CAD/CAM Hypervisor

CAD/CAM Explanation: The only answer that does not have anything to do with virtualization is CAD/CAM, short for computer-aided design/computer-aided manufacturing. CAD/CAM computers must run on their own individual physical platform because they require so many resources. See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: All of the other answers deal with virtualization: the creation of a virtual hardware platform, an OS, a storage platform, or a network resource. VMware and Hyper-V are commercial virtualization applications that allow you to run virtual operating systems within your OS, or directly within a bare-metal hypervisor. The hypervisor is the manager that houses guest operating systems within virtualization software. It can be Type 1 (bare metal), which runs directly on top of the PC's hardware, or Type 2 (hosted), which runs within the current OS.

Which of the following components can be considered the "brains" of a computer? Hard drive RAM CPU Motherboard

CPU Explanation: The central processing unit (CPU), otherwise known as the processor, is often considered to be the "brains" of the computer because it performs the bulk of the calculations for the system. See Chapter 12, "CPUs," for more information. Incorrect answers: Random access memory (RAM) stores calculated data over the short term - it is often called volatile memory because its contents are lost when the computer is shut down. A hard drive stores data over the long term - it is often called nonvolatile memory, or simply "storage," because it retains data when the computer is shut down. The motherboard is the central connecting point for all components and connections within the computer, including the CPU, RAM, and hard drive.

You have an application that sends large amounts of data over the network to a server and requires a network connection that can handle as much as 600 Mbps. Which of the following network cables meets that requirement at the lowest price point? Cat 5e Cat 6 Cat 3 Cat 5

Cat 5e Explanation: The best answer is Category 5e (Cat 5e) cable. Cat 5e can be used for gigabit networks (1000 Mbps), but it has been around for a while and is cheaper than other types of cables that can transmit more data. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors" for more information Incorrect answers: Cat 3 is an older cable type that can only transmit 10 Mbps. Cat 5 transmits at 100 MHz and can typically send/receive closer to 100 Mbps (by default). If a company is using Cat 3 or Cat 5, then it should most likely be upgraded. Cat 6 can handle the requirement of 600 Mbps (and beyond), but it is more expensive to purchase than Cat 5e because it is newer. Single-mode is a type of fiber optic cabling that is used for longer runs that carry a lot of data. It would be very expensive to purchase and install, as well as time consuming, and is excessive for this scenario.

When placing a mobile device into airplane mode, which of the following features are typically disabled? (Select the two best answers.) Cellular data Camera Data encryption Wireless Multitouch capability

Cellular Data Wireless Explanation: Cellular connections are disabled when a mobile device enters airplane mode, and any other wireless connections as well, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, GPS, and NFC. However, on some devices, some of these other wireless technologies can be turned on individually after the device has been placed in airplane mode. See Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 2," for more information. Incorrect answers: The display's multitouch capabilities will work as normal, but web browsers, e-mail programs, and other apps that require Internet access will appear not to function properly when tapped on and navigated through - because, indeed, they are not functioning at all due to airplane mode. Data encryption will still function, though you won't be able to send that encrypted data anywhere. The camera will work, but posting images and video to a remote source will not function.

You are approached by a user who is experiencing problems displaying images within received e-mail messages. Which of the following can you perform to try to fix the problem? Modify the trusted sites list in the browser settings. Change the e-mail proxy settings. Change the e-mail settings in the antivirus application. Change the security settings of the e-mail client. Change the firewall settings.

Change the security settings of the email client Explanation: The best of the listed answers is to try changing the security settings of the e-mail client. Some e-mail clients (especially Outlook and web-based clients) will disable the display or download of images by default. That is because images within e-mails can have security vulnerabilities and can be used to launch an attack or spread malware. To fix this problem—for example, in Outlook—go to File > Options > Trust Center > Trust Center Settings and uncheck the appropriate check boxes. But always check company policy first before doing this. Unchecking these options can be a security risk. So only do this if the user requires it and your organization is okay with it. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration" and Chapter 33, "Windows Security Settings and Best Practices" for more information Incorrect answers: Changing the firewall settings is something you would do to block certain e-mail addresses (or domains) from sending e-mails to your users. It isn't used to block images. However, you might block images from an e-mail server or content filter, or through group policy. The same goes for trusted sites in the browser settings; this will allow or block domains from communicating with a computer, but it is meant more for web browsing, not e-mail. E-mail proxy settings deal with the caching of e-mail at a server; however, proxy servers are most commonly used with HTTP, HTTPS, and FTP. Antivirus applications probably won't have an e-mail setting for displayed images; however, an anti-malware application might, but it isn't the first place you should go to fix the problem.

You just set up a printer in the company training room. The trainer wants to be able to print multiple copies of the training documentation for class. Which feature should be enabled on the printer? Duplexing Faxing Collating Print to PDF Scanning

Collating Explanation: The functionality that the trainer desires is collating. This prints the documentation as entire jobs (for example, page 1 through 10, then repeat) instead of printing all the required copies of page 1 before moving to page 2. This makes it easier on the trainer when it comes time to hand out documentation to students. Collating is usually enabled on today's printers, but if not, you would enable it in the printer properties in Windows or on the display of the printer. To test if it works, simply print out a document that has two or more pages and select 2 for the number of copies. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: Duplexing means that the printer will print to both sides of the paper. Faxing and scanning are options found commonly on multifunction printers, but they don't have anything to do with collating. There are several ways to print to a file, such as printing to PDF, which takes a document such as one created in Microsoft Word and converts it into a PDF. The physical printer isn't actually involved with this at all.

Which of the following is the fastest way to synchronize data between an iPhone and a work PC? Copy the data from the iPhone to a microSD card. Use Bluetooth to share data from the iPhone. Connect the iPhone's USB cable and use iTunes. Transfer data via Wi-Fi Direct to the user's laptop.

Connect the iphone's USB cable and use iTunes xplanation: The fastest way (of the listed answers) is to connect the iPhone via USB and use iTunes. With SuperSpeed USB, the data transfer rate can be 5 Gbps or more (depending on the version). This is much faster than any of the other methods listed. Note: As of the writing of this book, iTunes is slowly being phased out and broken up into three apps: Music, TV, and Podcasts, but synchronization with PCs and the cloud will work in essentially the same ways. See Chapter 4, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Device, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: Wi-Fi Direct is the name given to the technology that allows mobile devices to connect to each other directly (in an ad hoc manner) without a router. Although you can synchronize an iPhone to a computer running iTunes over Wi-Fi, the chances are that the PC doesn't support Wi-Fi Direct. Regardless, the speed that can be attained over Wi-Fi (even with 802.11ac connections) won't be faster than today's fastest USB connection. Copying the data to a microSD card will be quite slow, not only due to the speed of writing to the microSD card, but also given the fact that you will have to physically transfer the media to the PC. Bluetooth is not nearly as fast as Wi-Fi (let alone USB); at speeds limited to megabits, it is not meant for transferring large amounts of data or for synchronizing.

You are troubleshooting what appears to be a RAM issue on a desktop computer. Which of the following symptoms would indicate the problem is really a RAM issue? Continuous reboots POST code beeps Wrong BIOS time Distended capacitors

Continous Reboots Explanation: Continuous reboots can be a symptom of a RAM issue, potentially a bad stick of RAM. When this happens, check the RAM sticks in different slots and check the motherboard documentation for the correct installation of RAM. Of course, check if the RAM is compatible with the motherboard! See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power" for more information Incorrect answers: POST code beeps are associated with a lot of different hardware components in the computer—including RAM. However, if there is a POST code error, it will often result in the computer simply not booting as opposed to continuously rebooting. POST code beeps regarding RAM could indicate that there is no RAM, or that the RAM is incompatible with the motherboard, or that it is installed improperly. Distended capacitors were a big problem in the early 2000s, and though less common today, a distended capacitor could cause the system to fail altogether, but not continuously reboot. If the BIOS reports the wrong time, it is probably due to a failed CMOS battery.

You need to make a patch cable to connect a computer to an RJ45 wall jack. Which of the following tools should be used to attach the RJ45 plugs to the patch cable? Cable tester Loopback plug Crimper Punchdown tool

Crimper Explanation: Use an RJ45 crimper to crimp those RJ45 plugs on the ends of a patch cable. See Chapter 8, "Network Types and Networking Tools," for more information. Incorrect answers: Use a punchdown tool to terminate individual wires to the RJ45 wall jack and to patch panels. Use a loopback plug to test a network adapter by plugging it into the card's RJ45 port. Use a cable tester to test patch cables or longer LAN cable connections.

You are working in a command line and see the following results: dprocomputer.com = 216.97.236.245 Which of the following server types has most likely helped supply this information to you? Print server DNS server Syslog server DHCP server Authentication server

DNS Server Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) server is the server that is in charge of resolving domain names (such as davidlprowse.com) to their corresponding IP addresses (such as 216.97.236.245). So, in other words, it provides mapping of user-friendly names to network resources. The DNS server can supply this information to you when you make use of various commands in the command-line such as ping, tracert, nslookup, and dig. See Chapter 7, "Networked Hosts and Network Configuration," for more information. Incorrect answers: A DHCP server takes care of handing out IP addresses to client computers automatically. An authentication server - such as a domain controller running LDAP - is in charge of verifying the identity of users who attempt to log in. A Syslog server is used to gather the logs from network devices and present the information in a manageable way to an admin's workstation. Though you could probably find out the name resolution within the log details, it wouldn't be done in the command line and it wouldn't be presented in the manner that it was in the question. A print server is a computer that is in charge of one or more printers on the network.

One of your customers reports to you that when typing on the laptop keyboard, the mouse pointer scrolls across the screen. Which of the following steps can resolve this? Plug in an external mouse. Disable the touchpad. Use an external monitor. Reboot the laptop.

Diable the touchpad Explanation: The person's arm or sleeve is probably brushing up against the touchpad, causing the mouse pointer to move. By disabling the touchpad in the Device Manager or elsewhere, you eliminate the chance of that, but the user also loses that functionality. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: Rebooting the laptop has the same effect and is not necessary. Using an external mouse alone does not fix the problem; even if there is an external mouse, the touchpad can still be used, unless it is disabled. An external monitor does not help you fix the touchpad issue, but it can be a nice addition to a laptop. In fact, many users who have laptops in an office also use them at home. At the office, and perhaps at home as well, it is best to set them up with a docking station, external keyboard, external mouse, and monitor. It usually results in greater productivity.

You are working on a gaming computer that is running an older version of Windows. There is a high-end gaming application that isn't performing very well. So far, you have updated all of the hardware on the system and flashed the BIOS. What should you analyze further in an attempt to fix the problem? Video driver OSD DirectX Safe Mode Resolution setting

DirectX Explanation: Check the level of DirectX that is installed. DirectX isa Windows technology that includes video, animation, and sound components. It helps a computer get more performance out of multimedia, games, and movies. You can find out what version of DirectX the Windows computer is running by going to Run and typing dxdiag. In the System tab you will see the version; for example, DirectX 12. Check for the requirements of the gaming application (it probably requires the latest version of DirectX) and install that from Microsoft's website. Some gamers want to run older versions of Windows (for a variety of reasons), but older versions of Windows come with older versions of DirectX unless it is updated. See Chapter 27, "Microsoft Operating System Features and Tools, Part 2" for more information Incorrect answers: You should always check the video driver and update it if necessary—especially if it is an older version of Windows—but the question scenario states that the hardware has been updated already. If the driver wasn't updated, the game might not even run. If it runs, it should perform fairly well with any driver (as long as it is supported). Updates to video drivers usually offer only a slight increase in performance or include security patches. "Resolution setting" is somewhat vague. High-end games usually have their own resolution setting that runs independently of the Windows resolution. Either way, increasing the resolution will use more resources and the game will not perform as well. Use Safe Mode to troubleshoot video drivers that aren't working; it's not something you would analyze in this scenario, but rather a tool you would use while updating or rolling back drivers. OSD stands for on-screen display. A monitor's OSD can be used to adjust the brightness, contrast, and other settings, but won't affect the performance of a game.

You are tasked with fixing a laptop that is not booting. You have analyzed the system and can't see any system lights or display, and you can't hear any sounds when the Power button is pressed. Which of the following should be attempted first when troubleshooting the problem? Boot the system from a boot CD. Connect an external monitor to the laptop to determine if the LCD has failed. Disconnect the AC and the battery and press and hold the Power button for several seconds. Remove hard drives and optical drives, RAM, and USB devices from the laptop.

Disconnect the AC and the bettery and press and hold the power butting for several seconds. Explanation: Although you could try several things, the best of the listed answers is to disconnect the AC connection and the battery and press and hold the Power button for several seconds. This effectively discharges the laptop (capacitors and such) and may also clear the BIOS, either one of which can fix the problem. Exactly what happens will depend on the model of laptop, and the length of time you will need to hold down the Power button will vary. Afterward, reconnect the battery and AC connection and continue troubleshooting from there if necessary. The key in this question is that you cannot hear or see anything happening. In most cases, something will happen, but in this case, the laptop may have had a voltage overload or other similar problem. Discharging it in this fashion can fix the problem, but you might have to reconfigure your BIOS. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: Booting the system to a disc will probably result in nothing. If you can't see or hear anything, you need to take stronger measures than that. Sometimes, removing drives and USB devices can help when troubleshooting, but again, in this scenario where you can see and hear nothing, it probably won't help. Connecting an external monitor is a good idea if you can see LED lights blinking when you press the Power button but get no main display. In this case, the result will probably be no image on both displays.

Which of the following memory technologies enables protection against random inconsistencies when storing data? Parity Dual-channel RAID 5 ECC Quad-channel

ECC Explanation: ECC stands for error correcting code. ECC memory can detect and correct common types of data corruption. It is often used in servers. It is not typically installed to desktops but might be used if data corruption cannot be tolerated. It provides for error correction, and therefore protection while storing data in RAM. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," for more information. Incorrect answers: Quad-channel means that the RAM can send data over four 64-bit channels at the same time - four sticks of RAM are required to take advantage of that. Parity support in RAM means that the memory can detect errors, but not correct them the way ECC does. Dual-channel RAM uses two 64-bit data channels at the same. RAID 5 is not a memory technology; rather it is a redundant hard drive array technology. While RAID 5 does use parity, it is not the same type of parity that RAM might use. Note: You may have heard of unbuffered and buffered memory. While these terms are not in the A+ objectives, as a tech, you should know what they mean: Unbuffered memory is standard RAM that you would install to a typical PC. Buffered memory (also known as registered memory) places less electrical load on the memory controller, making a system that has a lot of sticks of RAM more stable. It is sometimes found in servers.

You are helping a customer with an Internet connectivity problem. The customer tells you that the computer cannot connect to her favorite website. After quickly analyzing the computer, you note that it cannot connect to any websites. Which of the following tasks should you perform next? Establish a theory of probable cause. Establish a plan of action. Identify the problem. Test your theory to determine cause.

Establish a theory of probably cause Explanation: In this scenario, you have already identified the problem: the computer cannot connect to any websites. So the next thing you should do according to the CompTIA A+ six-step troubleshooting methodology is to establish a theory of probable cause. For example, maybe your theory is that the network cable is not plugged into the computer, or perhaps your theory is that the computer is not obtaining an IP address. Pick one theory (the most likely in the situation) and move to step 3: test the theory to determine the cause. If you were to look behind the computer and see that the network patch cable was unplugged (and there is no possibility of wireless), then the theory has tested positive and you can move to step 4: establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. In this case, it's easy: plug in the cable! Afterward, you would verify full system functionality (step 5) by testing whether the web browser can access websites. Finally, in the last step, document the problem, the solution, and any additional details, such as advice you gave to the customer. When working on computers, apply the six-step troubleshooting methodology to your thinking process as much as possible! See Chapter 17, "Computer Troubleshooting 101" for more information

hich of the following cable types should be used to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router? Ethernet Thunderbolt USB Coaxial

Ethernet Explanation: Use an Ethernet patch cable to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router. An Ethernet patch cable is a UTP cable with RJ45 plugs on each end and it is usually Cat 5e or Cat 6. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: A coaxial cable is used to connect the cable modem to the coaxial wall jack, which then leads to the Internet (or TV) provider. Thunderbolt is used for data and display connections, primarily by Apple computers. USB is the standard for connecting peripherals to computers and for charging/synchronizing mobile devices.

hich of the following devices should be configured to block specific ports on the network? Firewall Bridge Gateway Router Access point

Firewall Explanation: The firewall is the device that prevents outside intrusion by blocking ports and protocols. In many networks it is the first line of defense. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A gateway is a device (usually a router) that allows multiple clients on one network access to another (for example, computers on the LAN that want to gain access to the Internet). A router connects two networks together. A bridge separates

Which of the following devices should be configured to block specific ports on the network? Firewall Bridge Gateway Router Access point

Firewall Explanation: The firewall is the device that prevents outside intrusion by blocking ports and protocols. In many networks it is the first line of defense. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A gateway is a device (usually a router) that allows multiple clients on one network access to another (for example, computers on the LAN that want to gain access to the Internet). A router connects two networks together. A bridge separates a LAN into two distinct network sections. An access point allows wireless connectivity to the network for Wi-Fi-enabled computers.

Which of the following cooling methods will an integrated GPU in a common desktop most likely use? Heat sink Heat sink and fan Video card cooling fan Liquid cooling

Heat sink and fan Explanation: An integrated graphics processing unit (GPU) means that it is integrated to the main CPU (or the motherboard) of the desktop computer. In this case, video and graphics are controlled by the main CPU instead of a video adapter card with its own GPU. Most commonly, the CPU has a heat sink and fan, though liquid cooling is also a possibility. See Chapter 12, "CPUs" for more information Incorrect answers: The heat sink by itself might be used on a GPU that is part of an adapter card (separate from the CPU), but only on low-performance video cards. It is also used on the chipset on the motherboard. Liquid cooling is more common in gaming rigs as a method of cooling the CPU; in a gaming rig, the GPU will always be on a separate video card (or more than one). And these will be active, meaning that they have a heat sink and a powered fan to cool the heat sink and GPU.

Your company manages its own cloud but utilizes a third-party vendor to help manage its storage. Which of the following cloud types is being implemented in this scenario? Public Community Private Hybrid

Hybrid Explanation: This is an example of a hybrid cloud: a mixture of public and private clouds. Dedicated servers located within the organization and cloud servers from a third party are used together to form the collective network. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization" for more information Incorrect answers: The answers "private" and "public" are incorrect because the cloud type being used is not only one of those, but a combination of those. A community cloud is another mix of public and private, but one where multiple organizations can share the public portion.

You are the systems administrator for a company that uses virtualization technology extensively. You have been tasked with configuring a server to host several virtual machines. What should you use to begin provisioning virtual machines? Device Manager Hypervisor Virtual LAN Terminal Services Disk Management

Hypervisor Explanation: Use a hypervisor to provision the virtual machines. The hypervisor is essentially the virtualization software that will host the virtual machines. It could be a Type 1 (bare-metal) or Type 2 (guest-based) hypervisor, but if you are dealing with multiple VMs and are using a server to do this, then a Type 1 hypervisor is recommended; for example, VMware ESXi or Microsoft Hyper-V. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization" for more information Incorrect answers: Device Manager, Disk Management, and Terminal Services are all Microsoft Windows applications. None of them have to do with provisioning virtual machines, though you might use Terminal Services (meaning Remote Desktop Services) to access and control the virtual machines. A virtual LAN is a local area network that is run within the virtualization software; it includes a virtual switch and the virtual connectivity to the virtual machines stored in the hypervisor. You can create a virtual LAN, virtual switch, and more virtual networking infrastructure in VMware ESXi or Microsoft Hyper-V.

Which of the following monitor types provide for the widest viewing angle along with rich colors and consistent backlighting? (Select the two best answers.) CCFL LED TN Plasma IPS

IPS & LED Explanation: IPS (in-plane switching) monitor technology offers the widest viewing angle, and LED (light-emitting diode) monitors offer rich colors and consistent backlighting. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: Plasma screens do not perform as well in these respects. TN (twisted-nematic) monitors are less expensive monitors that do not have as good of a viewing angle as IPS. CCFL stands for cold-cathode fluorescent lamp, which is the backlight used in standard LCD monitors. LED is superior to plain LCD when it comes to backlighting and rich colors. Note: LED also performs the best (compared to the others listed) when it comes to use in an area with a lot of natural light.

You are part of a team that has decided to make use of a cloud provider for some of your organization's technology needs. Your top priority is to offload some of your networking, storage, and VM hosting to the cloud. Which of the following services best suits your needs? PaaS SaaS IaaS DBaaS

IaaS Explanation: The best answer listed is infrastructure as a service (IaaS). This allows for networking services (also known as NaaS), storage, load balancing, routing, VM hosting, and more. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization," for more information. Incorrect answers: Software as a service (SaaS) provides common applications to clients over the Internet. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides software solutions such as the ability to develop and test applications within the cloud. Database as a service (DBaaS) - or cloud database - is where the creator of the database does not have to install or support the database software or server; instead, it is provided by a cloud service. The acronym DBaaS is not in the CompTIA A+ bulleted objectives, but it is listed in the CompTIA A+ Acronym list, where you will also find data as a service (DaaS) and network as a service (NaaS).

The power supply fan and case fans spin, but there is no power to other devices. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this? Failed hard drive Drive not recognized Improper connectivity Failed RAM

Improper Connectivity Explanation: If the power supply fan and the case fans are spinning but there is no power to other devices, the chances are that the main 24-pin power connection was not made from the power supply to the motherboard. In this scenario, the case fans would have been connected by way of Molex power connectors directly to the power supply. Although it's usually better to connect case fans to the motherboard, if they were connected to the motherboard, they would not spin, because the motherboard is not receiving power. If this scenario was to occur, no other devices would get power, including the CPU, RAM, motherboard, hard drives, optical drives, and so on. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the hard drive fails, the operating system will fail to boot up. If the hard drive cannot be repaired, it will have to be removed (often with a Phillips-head screwdriver) and replaced. If the drive is not recognized, again, the OS will not boot. It would have to be reconnected properly, configured in the UEFI/BIOS, or partitioned and formatted properly in Windows, depending on the specific situation. Failed RAM could cause a boot failure and will definitely be registered by the POST, but it doesn't necessarily mean that the RAM (or any other device) is not receiving power.

Which of the following printer technologies uses piezoelectric pressure pads to produce small bubbles that are moved to the paper? Inkjet Laser Impact Thermal

Inkjet Explanation: The inkjet printer uses piezoelectric pressure pads to produce small bubbles that are moved to the paper. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The laser printer applies toner to the paper in the electrophotographic imaging process. A thermal printer uses heat to create text and images on specially coated paper. Impact printers use a print head to hammer the letters through a ribbon and on to the paper.

You are planning to build a computer that will be used at trade shows on several different continents. Part of your planning includes specifications such as maximum RAM and a typical video card, CPU, and storage drive. Which of the following specifications is the most important for you to consider when you select a power supply unit? Number of SATA connectors Efficiency Input voltage 12 V rail amperage

Input Voltage Explanation: One of your most important considerations should be the input voltage. For example, in the United States (and some other countries) this is 120 volts. However, in many other countries it is 240 volts. (These are also represented as 115 V and 230 V.) It's better to avoid voltage converters if at all possible, so you will need a power supply unit (PSU) that can handle both. That means one of two things: 1. An auto-selecting PSU, or 2. A PSU with a voltage switch. The former is preferable, so that the person setting up the computer at trade shows does not need to remember to check the switch. However, keep in mind that you might still need an adapter for the actual three-prong connection used in other countries. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: The efficiency rating tells you how effectively the PSU uses energy. For example, the 80 Plus program promotes energy efficiency of more than 80 percent. While this is important for most computers - because we all want to conserve energy, right? - it is not as important for this particular system, because the PC will be relying on power that is provided by the trade show venues. Rail amperage is important for resource-intensive computers such as gaming PCs, design systems, and so on, where an individual rail (such as the 12 V) can overheat if driven too hard. Of course, we don't want our devices (such as GPUs) to draw too much current from the PSU (which generally can max out at about 30 amps or so); however, the system is using typical components, so current should not be a factor. As long as the PSU meets the wattage requirements, it should be okay. Maximizing the RAM shouldn't cause the computer to go beyond the maximum current or wattage (as long as we don't overclock it! And even then it is unlikely.) Almost all PSUs come with several SATA power connectors, and we are only using one hard drive, so that should not be a factor either.

You are tasked with fixing a computer that is overheating after 30 minutes of use. What is the most likely cause? ACPI disabled Clogged temporary folders Incorrect input voltage settings Internal dust buildup

Internal dust buildup Explanation: The most likely listed cause is internal dust buildup, especially if the buildup is within the CPU fan. If the fan has too much dust and dirt, it will stop spinning at the right speed, thus reducing its effective cooling ability, and causing the CPU to overheat, shutting down the system. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: ACPI is the Advanced Configuration and Power Interface, used by operating systems for configuration and management of power to the system. This can be disabled in the BIOS on some systems, but isn't recommended. Regardless, the older APM (Advanced Power Management) should take over if it is. "Incorrect input voltage settings" is somewhat vague. Incorrect CPU voltage settings could cause the system to overheat (for example, if it was overclocked), but it is more likely that there is dust and debris in one of the fans. Temporary folders are folders in Windows. You can have as much data as you want in your Windows folders; it won't cause the system to overheat!

Which of the following is an advantage of UDP over TCP? It is connection based. It uses connection handshakes. It uses flow control. It transfers packets faster.

It transfers packet faster × Explanation: The main advantage of UDP (User Datagram Protocol) over TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is that it can transfer data packets faster. Because it is a connectionless protocol, it doesn't require the synchronization or sequencing that TCP does. This makes it a faster option for streaming services, VoIP, and so on. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: UDP does not have an option for flow control. Also, it does not use a handshaking process. (TCP uses the three-way handshake: SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK.) As mentioned, UDP is connectionless, whereas TCP is connection based. However, even though UDP can transmit packets faster, you will find that TCP is used for most services and applications you will deal with.

A customer wants to control several computers with a single set of input devices. What solution should you provide for them? Ethernet switch Smartcard reader KVM Barcode reader

KVM Explanation: KVM stands for keyboard, video, and mouse. A KVM is a switch that enables the connection of one keyboard, monitor, and mouse. However, the KVM has connections for several computers, which can be selected by pressing a button on the KVM. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power" for more information Incorrect answers: A barcode reader is a scanning device that can read and interpret information from barcodes and send that information to the computer. A smartcard reader is a device that reads smart identification cards when they are swiped and sends that information to an authenticating system. A different type of switch, the Ethernet switch, is a common LAN device that enables the connectivity of multiple computers for the purpose of networking.

Which protocol is relied upon most by Active Directory? (Select the best answer.) SMB WINS HTTP LDAP

LDAP Explanation: Of the listed answers, the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is relied upon most by Active Directory. LDAP deals with directory lists (such as the users within a Microsoft Active Directory domain) or the users' e-mail addresses listed within a Microsoft Exchange server. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: Server Message Block (SMB) is a protocol that allows shared access to files; it is important to any computer running Windows, not just computers that are in charge of, or connect to, a Microsoft Active Directory domain. SMB is also known as the Common Internet File System (CIFS.) HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol, used to transfer data from a web server to a client computer's web browser. WINS stands for Windows Internet Naming Service, a name resolution technology that converts NetBIOS names to IP addresses. It is somewhat deprecated and is not commonly used; its successor is the Domain Name System (DNS.)

Which one of the following types of printers allows for the lowest cost per page? Impact Laser Thermal Inkjet

Laser Explanation: The laser printer has the lowest cost per page of the four listed answers. Laser printers and their corresponding toner cartridges are designed to be long lasting, and print many pages before needing maintenance or replacement. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: The impact printer (for example, dot matrix) requires special perforated paper and needs to have the printing ribbon changed more often than a toner cartridge. The inkjet printer ink cartridges do not last nearly as long as the laser printer's toner cartridge, plus inkjet printers are not known for their durability. Thermal printers can be expensive and require more costly, specially coated paper.

Which of the following types of printers requires a maintenance kit that contains a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers? Thermal Inkjet Impact Laser

Laser × Explanation: The laser printer is the one that is most associated with maintenance kits. Common components of a laser printer maintenance kit include a fuser, transfer roller, and pickup rollers. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," for more information. Incorrect answers: Common components of a thermal printer include the feed assembly and heating element. The inkjet printer normally includes the ink cartridge, print head, roller, feeder, duplexing assembly, carriage, and belt. An impact printer's components include the print head, ribbon, and tractor feed.

One of your co-workers has asked for a cable for an Apple mobile device that can charge it and transfer data to and from it. Which of the following connection types would meet the customer's requirements? Molex Lightning Micro-USB Mini-USB

Lightning × Explanation: The Lightning connector is a proprietary connector used by Apple mobile devices. It is the successor to the 30-pin connector. However, keep in mind that some Apple devices use USB-C. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: Apple devices do not use Micro-USB or Mini-USB, although adapters may be available depending on the device used. Micro-USB is common on Android-based devices. Molex is a power connection found inside PCs.

Of the following, which components are the most important in a virtualization server? (Select the two best answers.) Maximum memory Quad-core CPU Dual-rail 1000w PSU High-end sound card High-end video card

Maximum Mem, Quad-core CPU Explanation: A virtualization computer (especially a virtualization server) requires memory and a powerful multicore CPU above all else. Because virtual machines require a lot of raw resources, maximum memory and maximum-core CPUs are the most important items for virtualization workstations. See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: High-end sound cards and video cards are typical in gaming computers and audio/video editing workstations. High-end video cards are also common in CAD/CAM computers (which, by the way, also require a lot of RAM and CPU power.) A dual-rail PSU is one that has two amperage outputs instead of just one; this is common in today's PSUs. 1000 watts is quite a high amount and is required by computers with a lot of powerful components, such as gaming computers.

Your organization subscribed to a cloud service and is paying monthly for a group of services. The organization is then billed incrementally when it exceeds the monthly amount. Which of the following cloud concepts does this represent? Measured services Rapid elasticity Resource pooling On-demand

Measured Services Explanation: Measured services is when the provider monitors services rendered; this allows the provider (and the customer) to analyze the rate of resource usage. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization," for more information. Incorrect answers: Rapid elasticity is when a provider offers a scalable cloud-based network that can grow as the organization needs it to. On-demand is the ability for customers to gain access to resources 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. Resource pooling is when servers and infrastructure are grouped together for multiple customers to share.

During a routine inspection, a network engineer found that a data rack was not properly grounded. To pass inspection, you have been tasked with making sure all network racks are properly grounded. Which tool should you use to complete your task? Multimeter Tone generator Cable tester Voltmeter

Multimeter Explanation: Use a multimeter to verify if the racks have been properly grounded. Multimeters can test electricity in multiple ways. For this scenario you would need a continuity test. You are looking for results close to zero Ohms (some multimeters will beep when they verify continuity). When network racks are grounded, it can be done with grounding bars and other grounding equipment, ultimately connecting to an earth ground, typically with 6-gauge grounding wire. See Chapter 8, "Network Types and Networking Tools", and Chapter 40, "Safety Procedures and Environmental Controls" for more information Incorrect answers: A cable tester is designed to verify the functionality of network cables—such as twisted-pair cables. While that test looks for continuity (more impedance), it is done over long distances. A tone generator is used to locate a cable or wire that is difficult to find—potentially within a bundle of wires. A voltmeter is used to test AC or DC voltage. You can use a device like this to check the ground wire of an outlet, but not a separate grounding wire connected to network racks.

Which of the following connection types is primarily used to transfer data between two devices that are in close proximity? Parabolic antenna 802.11ac NFC Bluetooth

NFC Explanation: Near field communication (NFC) can allow communication between mobile devices over very short distances; it uses radio frequency (RF) to do so. This close proximity could be within a few inches or by having the devices actually touch each other. It is sometimes referred to as "beaming" information between devices. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Device, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: 802.11ac is a wireless local area network (WLAN) protocol by the IEEE and allows for wireless transmissions over much longer distances. A parabolic antenna is used with satellite connections, which are long distance. Bluetooth is used by computers and phones to establish connections to wireless peripherals such as headsets, generally over an average distance of 10 meters. Apple's Airdrop technology uses a mixture of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi. Note: Infrared (IR) technology can also be used to send information between two devices over very short distances (usually a few feet). However, each device's IR sensor must be within line-of-sight of each other. That's one of the drawbacks of IR over NFC, though it can be used to advantage in some secure solutions.

One of your customers has signed up for a mobile pay service to be used on a first-generation smartphone. However, the smartphone does not work at any location that supports mobile pay service. Which of the following is missing from the customer's smartphone? NFC Bluetooth RFID IMSI

NFC × Explanation: Near field communication (NFC) is missing from the smartphone. Older (first generation) smartphones do not have NFC. Always check the minimum requirements of any software or service that you are planning to use with a smartphone, tablet, or other computer. Make sure that the mobile device in question meets the minimum requirements. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1" for more information. Incorrect answers: IMSI stands for International Mobile Subscriber Identity and is a unique 64-bit field used to identify the user of a cellular network. By the way, don't confuse IMSI with IMEI. IMEI stands for International Mobile Station Equipment Identity, which identifies the phone. RFID stands for radio-frequency identification, a technology that uses tags and radio-frequency scanning to identify those tags. Bluetooth is a technology primarily used to allow for peripherals' access to a computer, such as using a Bluetooth headset with a smartphone.

A user calls you and tells you that his computer won't boot and that there is a faint smell of something burning. Which tool should be used to identify the problem? Cable tester ESD strap Loopback plug PSU tester

PSU Tester Explanation: Use a power supply unit (PSU) tester to check if the power supply is malfunctioning. If you ever smell something burning, even if it is a faint smell, turn off the power to any associated computers or devices and disconnect them from the AC outlet. Then test the affected PSU. Sometimes there is a burn-in period when it comes to new PSUs, and there might be a very faint smell for the first 24 to 48 hours. This is possible if the PSU was newly installed, but you should still test and monitor the PSU until the smell goes away. However, if the computer was working previously and suddenly doesn't work anymore, and you smell something burning, then you should most likely replace the PSU after testing it. Only test the PSU in your lab, and make sure you have all the necessary fire prevention tools and technologies available to you. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: A loopback plug is used to test a switch port or the RJ45 port on a computer. There are many cable testers, but the term is often associated with network cabling, such as cable certifiers for Category 6 (Cat 6) cable. The ESD strap, or more accurately antistatic strap, is used to protect components from electrostatic discharge (ESD).

Which of the following should be reset during normal printer maintenance? Print job cache Tray settings Page count Job queue

Page Count Explanation: The page count should be reset whenever you perform normal, scheduled printer maintenance. For example, a laser printer can print about 200,000 pages before it needs a scheduled maintenance. By resetting the page count after a successful maintenance, you will know when the next maintenance should occur. This is reset on the printer itself. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The job queue and cache should reset automatically; this is because you would normally turn the printer off before maintaining it. Any print queue located on a computer is not reset automatically, but jobs in the queue will probably have to be resent. The tray settings do not have to be reset.

You are installing an IP-based camera system that connects directly to the network. To access the system remotely, which capability most likely requires configuration? QoS Static IPs VPN passthrough Port forwarding

Port Forwarding Explanation: Port forwarding is the best answer. For a person to remotely access the network and gain access to the system, you should forward a specific port from the router over to the system. This happens after the remote user has made a virtual private networking (VPN) connection to the network. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: QoS stands for quality of service, which can be configured to grant more connection performance to particular services, such as streaming media and Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP). Static IP addresses are used when you need to have a permanent identification for a server (or the entire network) that can be accessed by hosts on the Internet. Although this might be used in the scenario, it isn't necessary and doesn't need to be configured to access the camera system. VPN passthrough means that VPN traffic is allowed on routers that utilize network address translation (NAT). NAT is the technology that allows multiple clients on the LAN to share the router to access the Internet.

Question Id : 220-1001-DP-01-15-31 A customer needs to convert a document into something that is readable from any OS, can be commented on, and is secured with a password. Which of the following should you recommend? Print to file. Print to image. Print to XPS. Print to PDF.

Print to PDF Explanation: To meet all the requirements in the question, recommend that the customer print to PDF. A PDF is a document that can be read on just about any platform, as long as PDF reader software is installed—and many operating systems have preinstalled PDF readers. Some PDF software applications (such as software provided by Adobe) can password protect the document, and allow for commenting and other reviewing features. If you are working in Microsoft Word, you can create a PDF by using the Print feature or the Save as feature. Print to PDF and all of the other answers listed are examples of virtual printing. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: Print to XPS creates an .xps file that can be stored and later viewed on any computer that supports XPS; it includes improved color and graphics support. Print to file takes the document and saves it as a .prn file that can be printed later on or from another computer that has access to a printer. It's the backup to XPS. Print to image is when a window or region of the screen is captured and saved to a document—examples include Snagit (by Techsmith) and the Windows Snipping Tool.

A user reports that her printer does not produce crisp images when printing documents from Windows. Which of the following should you address to fix the problem? Orientation Quality Collating Duplexing

Quality Explanation: You should reconfigure the quality settings. For example, a typical inkjet printer can be set to Draft, Normal, or Best with the quality settings in the Printing Preferences window. You might also see this referred to as dots per inch (DPI); the higher the better. For example, 600 DPI or 1200 DPI is preferred for quality documents. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers" for more information Incorrect answers: Duplexing is the act of printing to both sides of the paper. Collating is when print jobs are organized by the page count. Orientation allows you to choose whether the print job will be printed in portrait mode (vertical, the default) or landscape mode (horizontal).

There are four people who share a connection to a SOHO router that connects to the Internet. When a single user starts streaming media over the Internet, browsing slows down for the rest of the users. Which setting should be configured to alleviate the problem? VPN DSL QoS WAN

QoS Explanation: Quality of service (QoS) is the performance of user connections over the network, particularly connections to the Internet. On some small office/home office (SOHO) routers, this can be configured to allow for equal data transfers among all users, or it can be used to configure special traffic (such as streaming media) to transfer faster. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, which is a family of technologies used to transfer data over the Internet. WAN stands for wide area network - a network that spans a large geographic area and connects two or more LANs. VPN stands for virtual private network, which allows for secure (tunneled) connections over the Internet.

Which of the following describes the use of DNS as it relates to TCP/IP networks? Provides separate control and data connections between network resources Provides remote connectivity to resources on the network Provides mapping of user-friendly names to network resources Provides automated addressing to computers on the network

Provides mapping of user-friendly names to network resources. Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) provides the mapping of user-friendly names (domain names such as https://dprocomputer.com) to network resources (such as IP addresses). See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) provides automated addressing to computers on the network. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) offers separate control and data connections. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) provides remote connectivity to resources on the network.

You have identified a network problem as a connectivity failure between one Windows computer and a switch. What should you do next? (Select the two best answers.) Test the theory to determine cause. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. Question the obvious. Document findings, actions, and outcomes Question the user of the Windows computer. Establish a theory of probable cause.

Question the obvious Establish the theory of prbably cause Explanation: You have already identified the problem (step 1 of the CompTIA A+ troubleshooting methodology) and so you move on to step 2: Establish a theory of probable cause. As part of this step you question the obvious. For example, is the network cable plugged into the computer? Is there a link light? Is the network adapter enabled? If using Wi-Fi, is the wireless connection enabled? The "obvious" list goes on. See Chapter 17, "Computer Troubleshooting 101" for more information Incorrect answers: If you have identified the problem, then chances are you already questioned the user (which is part of step 1), or perhaps the questioning was not necessary or the user was not available for questioning. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem is step 4, and you haven't gotten to that point yet. Testing the theory is step 3, which you will do immediately after you establish a theory! Documenting findings, actions, and outcomes is the sixth and last step of the A+ troubleshooting methodology. Know your six-step A+ troubleshooting process and apply it as you take the exam and when you work on technology problems in the real world! Step 1. Identify the problem. Step 2. Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). Step 3. Test the theory to determine cause. Step 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. Step 5. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. Step 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

You have been tasked with configuring two drives for maximum performance. Which of the following RAID types should you select? RAID 1 RAID 10 RAID 0 RAID 5

RAID 0 provides for the striping of data over two or more drives. The main purpose of RAID 0 is to increase performance compared to using a single drive. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage" for more information Incorrect answers: Note that the question said nothing about fault tolerance. All of the other answers are fault tolerant, which decreases performance. RAID 1 is mirroring; it copies the data to two drives. RAID 5 is striping with parity; it stripes the data and parity information over three or more drives. RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors. As far as performance goes, RAID 1 and RAID 10 will usually outperform RAID 5. But each has their purpose. Choose wisely!

Which type of connector is most commonly used with POTS lines? RJ11 BNC RJ45 SC

RJ11 Explanation: RJ11 connectors are most commonly used with POTS lines. The RJ11 is the telephone jack in the wall that you would plug a phone into. POTS stands for plain old telephone service; this refers to the standard public switched telephone network (PSTN), the technology that requires an analog "landline," a technology slowly becoming more and more obsolete. The POTS line uses a cable that consists of two twisted pairs of copper wires. See Chapter 8, "Network Types and Networking Tools" for more information Incorrect answers: RJ45 refers to the jacks and plugs used in twisted-pair networking connections; networking cables have four twisted pairs of copper wires. BNC is the type of connector used in older coaxial thinnet networks; it uses a single copper core. SC is a type of fiber optic cable connector; the cable has glass or plastic fibers within it.

Which of the following is the most common type of networking connector? F-connector RJ11 RJ45 BNC

RJ45 Explanation: The RJ45 connector is the most common type of networking connector. It is used in twisted-pair networks. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: RJ11 is the connector used by landline-based phones (POTS connections) and DSL connections in households. The F-connector is a type of coaxial connector used for cable TV and cable Internet connections. BNC is another type of coaxial connector used in some video applications and in older networks.

Which of the following protocols is used to perform file sharing between Apple computers running macOS and PCs running Windows on a LAN? SMB RDP POP3 SSH

SMB Explanation: SMB (Server Message Block) can be used to facilitate file sharing between Windows computers and computers running macOS. It is sometimes referred to as its older name CIFS (Common Internet File System). If SMB is for some reason unavailable on the Mac-based systems, then they will attempt to use the Apple File Protocol (AFP). See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: RDP is the Remote Desktop Protocol, used to view or take control of remote computers from a central workstation. SSH is Secure Shell, a protocol used to make secure connections to other systems; it replaces protocols such as Telnet. POP3 is the Post Office Protocol (version 3) used with downloading e-mail.

A user working at a PC is experiencing screen flicker. Of the following, what should you reconfigure? (Select the best answer.) Resolution CCFL Refresh rate Switch from HDMI to DVI

Refresh rate Explanation: If the PC's display is experiencing screen flicker then it could be due to an improperly configured refresh rate. Usually, monitors and operating systems will auto-configure a setting such as this, but not always - for example, if you are using a less common operating system or a more advanced application. The refresh rate is the number of times the display is drawn on the screen per second. A common amount is 60 Hz, but perhaps the user is working with an editing program or game that requires a higher refresh rate, and the monitor supports it, but it is not configured properly, either in the OS or in the application. Or perhaps it is an older system that is more prone to refresh rate issues. As you can see, there are a lot of possibilities when it comes to video. See Chapter 20, "Troubleshooting Video Issues and Mobile Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: The cold-cathode fluorescent bulb (CCFL) is the backlight for LCD screens. You wouldn't reconfigure it, but you might have to replace it if the display starts blinking or shuts off completely. Keep in mind that many displays are LED based today and do not use a CCFL. A different resolution shouldn't cause screen flicker on a flat-panel display - it would either show the different resolution, no resolution, or possibly a distorted image. Resolution issues are more common with CRT monitors. Screen flicker could be caused by a loose connection, regardless of the connection used. But switching from one video port type to another probably won't help fix the actual problem.

You are a technician troubleshooting a workstation. When it is turned on, a black screen appears prompting the user for an administrative password. You cannot locate the password. What should you do? Remove the CMOS battery and reinsert it after 10 seconds. Disconnect and reconnect the internal hard drive. Press the power button for 30 seconds, then reboot. Remove the motherboard and replace it after 10 minutes.

Remove the CMOS battery Explanation: The best thing to do is to remove the CMOS battery and reinsert it after 10 seconds. This will clear the CMOS settings, including the BIOS administrator password, the time and date, and any other things you have configured. The battery is usually a CR2032 lithium battery. This works on PCs and some laptops. With most laptops you can simply remove the laptop battery. In less common scenarios—mostly older computers—you might have to remove or reconfigure a jumper. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power" for more information Incorrect answers: There is no need to do anything with the hard drive because it won't affect a UEFI/BIOS password. Pressing the power button for 30 seconds won't help in this situation; when the system starts back up, it will simply ask for the password again. However, that can help to remove any charge that is built up on a motherboard, especially when dealing with laptops. Removing the motherboard is pretty extreme, and usually not necessary. It is a last resort because it would require a lot of time to disassemble all components.

You have been tasked with resolving a shadowy image that is being printed from a network printer. What should you do? Run a calibration. Replace the drum. Replace the network cable. Replace the fuser.

Replace the drum Explanation: Try replacing the drum. If this is within the toner cartridge (which it often is), then replace that as well. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," for more information. Incorrect answers: If the fuser needs replacing, you will probably see smeared text and images. If images or text are not straight or are colored incorrectly, you might need to calibrate the printer. If the network cable fails, the printer should not print at all from networked computers; however, a test page run locally at the printer should print just fine.

On your server, two drives of a RAID 5 array have failed. What should you do? Replace one of the failed drives and repair the RAID array using system utilities. Replace the failed drives and restore the data from tape backup to the repaired RAID array. Replace the failed drives and format the RAID array using the quick option. Replace one of the drives and run RAID repair.

Replace the failed drives and restore the data from...... Explanation: You will need to replace both failed drives (which causes a total RAID 5 array failure, by the way) and restore the entire set of data from tape backup. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Incorrect answers: In a RAID 5 array, one drive can fail and you can still recover from the issue without tape backup (using the RAID parity information), but no more than one can fail. If more than one fails - as in the question's scenario - then you need to restore all data from a previous backup. However, in RAID 6, two drives can fail and it can still recover. Formatting the RAID array is a good idea if you have to recover from backup but not a good idea otherwise because it will make the current data inaccessible. However, the term "quick option" is a Windows term, implying that the RAID array was created in Windows, and is therefore a software-based array. It is recommended that you create hardware-based arrays that connect to a RAID adapter card (or RAID-enabled motherboard). In a hardware-based system such as this, you could repair the array with the system utilities, but again, in this scenario (RAID 5) only if one drive has failed.

A laptop's LCD is being scratched by the keyboard when the lid is closed. Which of the following steps should be performed to remedy this issue? Replace the LCD hinges. Replace the rubber bumpers. Replace the LCD panel. Replace the keyboard.

Replace the rubber bumpers Explanation: You should replace the rubber bumpers. These can wear down over time or might become unstuck from the laptop. These bumpers create a space between the keyboard and the LCD; without them, the LCD can get scratched by the keyboard. See Chapter 1, "Laptops. Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: If the laptop opens and closes okay, then there is no reason to replace the hinges, because they won't change how the screen is touching the keyboard. The LCD panel is only scratched; it hasn't failed as of yet, so it doesn't need to be replaced. The keyboard is most likely not the cause of the problem. There is the uncommon possibility that the keyboard is not mounted properly; a quick sideways glance at the laptop keyboard surface can tell you right away. You would have to remove the laptop bezel and reconnect the keyboard properly if this is the case. However, it is more likely that the rubber bumpers fell off or became worn down.

A user can no longer print from his computer to the default printer. While troubleshooting this issue, you learn that you can print a test page from the printer and the printer's queue shows that the job is ready to print. Which of the following tasks should be performed next in order to resolve the situation? Reset the printer. Delete the job and resubmit it. Restart the Print Spooler service. Reinstall the print drivers.

Resart the Print Spooler Service Explanation: If the user could print to the printer previously and the job is just sitting in the print queue, you should most likely restart the Print Spooler service at the user's computer. This can be done in the GUI of Windows within Computer Management > Services and Applications > Services or by typing net stop spooler and net start spooler in the Command Prompt. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers" for more information Incorrect answers: Deleting the job and resubmitting it will probably have the same effect and you will have to restart the spooler anyway. Printer drivers are not the cause of a stalled print job. Resetting the physical printer will not help; the job will still be sitting in the user computer's print queue.

Which of the following is the best protocol to use when securely transferring large files? Telnet SSH SFTP FTP

SFTP Explanation: SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol or SSH File Transfer Protocol) is the best option when attempting to securely transfer large files. It utilizes SSH (Secure Shell) to create a secure connection (using port 22), but remember that SSH by itself is simply a secure way of connecting to other computers. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: Basic FTP is not secure by default (other than requiring the use of a password). Telnet is deprecated and should be avoided and replaced with SSH as well.

You just installed a barcode reader. Which of the following should you do to configure the reader? Adjust jumper switches. Use the Device Manager to enable the IR port. Enable the reader in the BIOS. Scan in program codes.

Scan program codes. Explanation: After installing a barcode reader, you should start scanning various test barcodes in order to calibrate and configure the reader. Many reader devices will come with a physical book that has printed test codes used to calibrate the device. See Chapter 13, "Peripherals and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: The infrared (IR) port should work automatically on a barcode reader; there is no reason to enable it. Barcode readers do not usually have jumper switches. Also, these are usually plug-and-play devices that do not need to be enabled in the BIOS.

You are a network administrator for your company. You work on the third floor of your building. Your network switches are located in a server room on the first floor. You want to be able to read through the events of your managed switches while sitting at your Windows workstation. Which technology should you implement? DNS FTP IDS HTTPS Syslog

Syslog Explanation: Use Syslog. Devices such as switches and routers can send their event logs in real time to workstations by using the Syslog protocol. First, configure Syslog to function on the network device. Point it to the IP address of the workstation (or server) that will accept the logs. Then, set up Syslog software at the workstation (or server and workstations). The Syslog software will automatically pull the logs from the switch or other device in real time, allowing you to monitor the device from your desk. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: FTP is used to move files back and forth between clients and servers (usually over the Internet). DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. An IDS is used to detect network attacks. HTTPS is used for secure websites.

You just completed a CPU installation. However, when you turn on the computer, the POST sounds a series of beeps and the system won't boot. What is the most likely cause? The mouse is not plugged in. The CPU is not properly seated. The fan is running too fast. The operating system is corrupted.

The CPU is not properly Seated. Explanation: Of the listed answers, the most likely cause is that the CPU needs to be reseated. This will result in a series of beeps from the power-on self-test (POST) as the BIOS searches for the CPU and can't find it. If a computer was being built in this scenario, then it's also possible that the RAM was not seated properly, or there is some RAM compatibility issue. See Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power," for more information. Incorrect answers: No other answer choice would cause the POST to issue a series of beeps. The mouse would not, but a lack of a keyboard would result in beeps. (Always make sure the keyboard is securely connected!) Also, the POST doesn't look for operating system corruption; it is relegated to hardware only. But it can display messages such as "no operating system found" or a similar message if the hard drive is missing, not formatted, or not in the correct location in the BIOS boot order. "The fan is running too fast" is subjective; regardless, its maximum speed is usually governed by the BIOS, and shouldn't affect how the system boots.

A workgroup of five PCs uses a shared printer that is connected to one of the PCs. A customer says she cannot print to the printer but can access shares on another PC used for common files. The printer appears to be powered on. Which of the following would be the most likely cause? Device drivers are corrupted. The printer is low on toner. The printer needs to be restarted. The PC with the connected printer is off the network.

The PC with the connected printer is off the network. Explanation: The most likely listed cause is that the PC to which the printer is connected is currently off of the network. It would appear from this scenario that the printer is connected to a PC by way of USB and is shared at the PC itself, which is offline. If the customer can connect to other shares on other PCs, you know that that particular computer is functional on the network. See Chapter 15, "Printers and Multifunction Devices," for more information. Note: In this scenario, the user is accessing shared files from another PC. Remember that this is a shared printer. That means that the printer is connected to another PC on the network, not directly to the network. The answer "PC is off the network" means the PC that has the printer connected to it. The key here is that the customer can access shares on other PCs, indicating an issue with the computer that has the printer connected to it. Incorrect answers: The printer is on, and restarting a printer can fix some issues, but it will most likely return the printer to the same state it was in previously. The printer being low on toner should have no effect on whether it can be accessed. But a message would probably appear on one of the computer's screens stating that the toner cartridge should be changed soon. If device drivers are corrupted, the printer should still be accessible and might print, but it will probably print garbled information.

You replace a failed hard drive with a new one. You then boot to a special preinstallation environment disc so that you can install a custom operating system build that is meant for deployment to the network. The hard drive is recognized in the UEFI/BIOS, but once you have booted to the preinstallation environment, the hard drive is not recognized, the process fails, and the drive can't be imaged. Which of the following statements best describes the most likely problem? The boot media has failed and needs to be replaced. The hard drive has not been partitioned correctly. The PC's power supply cannot provide enough power for the new drive. The hard drive must be configured in the UEFI/BIOS.

The hard drive has not been partitioned correctly. Explanation: Of the listed answers, the most likely problem is that the hard drive has not been partitioned correctly. In this scenario, the point of the preinstallation environment (PE) - which is often located on removable media such as a USB flash drive or boot disc - is to boot the system and partition the hard drive, readying it for the image to be obtained over the network. If the drive is not partitioned properly, the process will fail because the image will expect to be installed to a specific partition. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Note: In some scenarios, a drive can be fully unpartitioned, and you can have the image install properly. This depends on several factors, including the local system hardware, what type of network installation is being done, and what software is being used for the imaging process. Incorrect answers: Hard drives don't vary much from one to the next in regard to power, so the power supply should provide plenty of power. If it didn't, then you wouldn't see the drive in the UEFI/BIOS. The boot media has not failed; in the scenario it says that you have accessed the preinstallation environment. That is only possible if the PE boot media was booted to successfully. Today, it is uncommon for the drive to be configured in the BIOS or UEFI (unless it is part of a RAID array, which is controlled by the motherboard). Normally, the drive is either seen or not. If not, you might need to perform a flash of the BIOS or UEFI.

Memory was added to a workstation. When the computer was booted, it reported memory errors. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? A different brand of memory was installed into bank two. The second memory stick was smaller than the first. The new memory was installed in the second bank and runs at a lower speed than bank one. The second memory stick was larger than the first.

The new memory was installed in the second bank and runs at a lower speed than bank one. Explanation: For multiple memory sticks to be compatible, they need to run at the same speed. You might be able to get away with one stick being one step slower, if the motherboard supports it, and as long as it is not dual-channel memory. But it isn't worth the chance. If the sticks are not compatible, or if the second stick is not compatible with the motherboard, you will probably get memory errors during POST. See Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage," and "Chapter 18, "Troubleshooting Motherboards, CPUs, RAM, and Power" for more information Incorrect answers: It's not recommended, but RAM from different manufacturers can be mixed together as long as the type and speed are the same. A second stick can sometimes be a different size, but if you are installing a kit with two or four modules, then they are usually the same size.

Which of the following best describes why you might hear a loud clicking noise coming from a faulty hard drive? The coil reversing the polarity is in an endless loop. The solid-state read/write head is scratching the platter surface. The noise is created by the repeated motion of the read/write head arm located parallel to the platter. The hard drive has a bad spindle motor bearing.

The noise is created by the repeated motion of the read/write head arm located parallel to the platter. Explanation: The loud clicking noise coming from a faulty hard drive is usually due to repeated motion of the read/write head parallel to the platter. It could be that the armature (arm) or its corresponding actuator is faulty and is not moving correctly. See Chapter 19, "Troubleshooting Hard Drives and RAID Arrays," for more information. Incorrect answers: Remember that this is a problem associated with hard disk drives, meaning magnetic-based drives. It does not affect solid-sate drives (SSDs) because they do not use read/write heads. If a bearing in the motor was causing problems, then the arm might not move at all. If the coil was in an endless loop, there would be no activity or data would keep getting written to the same place; either way, you probably wouldn't hear anything.

Your office printer was working earlier in the day but is no longer printing any documents. Preexisting workstations are manually configured to print to the printer directly over the network. You begin troubleshooting the problem and determine that the printer is still visible when browsing the network directory. You also verify, at the physical printer, that the printer can print test pages successfully. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem? The message "perform printer maintenance" is displayed on the printer's display panel. The print spooler was restarted. The printer's IP address has changed. Two users sent print jobs at the same time, which caused a collision.

The printers IP address has changed. Explanation: In this scenario, it is possible that the printer's IP address has been changed, and it is the best choice of the listed answers. The workstations were manually configured (most likely via IP address), which means that an IP address change on the printer would cause any print jobs from those workstations to fail. The IP address could have been configured manually by another tech, or if it was set to DHCP, the printer might have received a new address from the DHCP server. Because of this exact scenario, it is always a good idea to configure a static IP address at the printer itself (within the LCD display). Remember, in the scenario the printer can be seen in the network directory, which usually searches by printer name as opposed to printer IP address. Also, test pages are printing successfully. All these are clues that point to a potential IP problem. See Chapter 21, "Troubleshooting Printers," for more information. Incorrect answers: Restarting the print spooler service is a troubleshooting technique used when the spooler service is hung up for some reason. It generally doesn't cause problems but can fix a lot of spooling issues. Two print jobs can't be sent at the same time - collisions are a concept related to networking. It is possible that packets or frames can collide, but not the print jobs. The print jobs are placed into a queue either at the printer or at the print server. The need to perform printer maintenance doesn't usually cause print failures, but if you see that message, you should attend to it right away.

A school classroom is set up with removable drives to train students in various versions of Windows. One student tells you that one of the computers will not boot up and receives an error: no operating system found. All of the cables are plugged in securely to the computer. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? The lab network is down. The monitor is not functioning. The memory is not seated properly. The removable drive is not locked.

The removable drive is not locked Explanation: The most likely reason the computer won't boot and presents the no-OS error is that the removable drive is not locked. Removable drives are common in schools and labs. A frame is installed to a 5 1/4-inch bay and connected to the motherboard via SATA the way a hard drive normally would be. Then, swappable trays are inserted into the frame, each with a different hard drive and a different OS. When the drive tray is inserted into the frame, it must be locked; it is common to forget to lock one or two. If it isn't locked, the data port will not connect properly and the OS will not boot. See "Chapter 10, "RAM and Storage" for more information Incorrect answers: If you get a message on the screen, then you know the monitor is working. Messages reporting no operating system or missing OS happen before the computer can connect to the network, so have no fear—the lab network is probably not down. If the memory needed to be reseated, you would get a message in the POST or a series of beeps.

A customer of yours is opening an Internet café and wants to offer computers for the patrons to access the Internet. Which type of computer system should you recommend? Audio/video workstation Standard thick client HTPC Thin client Gaming PC

Thin Clinet Explanation: The best answer listed is thin client. A thin client is used for basic applications, and it meets the minimum requirements for a selected OS. It is usually a diskless workstation with limited CPU power. It gets its operating system from flash-based memory or from a server and doesn't have a hard drive. In addition, it resets itself every time it is restarted. This helps to protect against malware and decreases the chances of hardware failure. See Chapter 14, "Custom PCs and Common Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A standard thick client is generally a PC. Internet cafes do not need the power of a thick client, an audio/video workstation, a gaming PC, or an HTPC. By the way, HTPC stands for home theater PC - a kind of computer used to connect to television stations, play DVDs and Blu-rays, connect to streaming services, as well as work like a regular computer. The acronym is not in the CompTIA A+ bulleted objectives, but it is listed in the CompTIA A+ Acronyms list at the end of the objectives.

Which of the following best describes the most likely reason for connecting a tone generator to an RJ45 cable drop? To locate the position of the cable on a patch panel To confirm continuity of the conductors To test the transmission quality of the connection To validate proper wiring of the network jack

To locate the position of the cable on a patch panel Explanation: A tone generator (part of a tone and probe kit) is often used to locate cables, especially if there are a bunch of them in a small area. In the scenario, the technician is connecting the tone generator to an RJ45 port, perhaps near a person's desk. Then the technician uses the probe (an inductive amplifier) to locate the other end of that cable at the patch panel either in a wiring closet or in the server room. See Chapter 8, "Network Types and Networking Tools," for more information. Incorrect answers: The other answers require a cable certifier. Although a cable certifier can often act as a tone generator, a tone generator is not a cable certifier - it can only generate a tone across the cable. Cable certifiers are used to confirm continuity, validate proper wiring, and test the transmission quality of a given connection.

You are troubleshooting a laptop that has a problem with the cursor. When working on Word documents, the cursor jumps around the display. Which of the following is the most likely cause? Unsigned device drivers Faulty software Touchpad settings Improper screen calibration

Touchpad Setting Explanation: The problem is most likely due to the touchpad settings (or calibration). The sensitivity might be too high, causing the cursor to jump quickly across the display. Another possibility is that the user's sleeve (or part of their arm or hand) is dragging across the touchpad. As a quick fix, you can disable the touchpad, often from a function key on the keyboard of the laptop (or in the Device Manager), until it is configured to the user's liking. See Chapter 1, "Laptops, Part 1," for more information. Incorrect answers: Touchpad calibration is separate from screen calibration, which should not cause a problem with the cursor. Faulty software is a pretty vague answer. It's possible that third-party software that is used to configure the touchpad is where the issue lies, but more accurately, this would still be the touchpad settings. You don't know if the laptop uses Windows to configure the sensitivity of the touchpad, so the answer is not accurate enough. If a driver is unsigned, then Windows will ask for an administrator's permission to go ahead with the installation. If you can't provide the admin username and password (or you are not logged in as an admin), then the installation will fail. So, the driver either installs or it doesn't, but that has no bearing on the settings or calibration of the touchpad.

hich of the following describes the function of a switch in a network? Transmits packets it receives to specific connections Converts a packet for transmission from one network to another network Broadcasts packets it receives to all connections Determines whether a packet belongs on an internal or an external network

Transmits packets it receives to specific connections Explanation: A switch can be described as a network device that transmits packets it receives to specific connections. It does this by mapping systems' MAC addresses to physical ports on the switch. See Chapter 5, "Ports, Protocols, and Network Devices," for more information. Incorrect answers: A router would convert a packet for transmission from one network to another network. It also determines whether a packet belongs on an internal or an external network, though this process can be augmented by other devices. A hub broadcasts packets it receives to all connections.

Which of the following protocols does not depend on an acknowledgment of receipt from the sender? IP HTTPS UDP TCP

UDP Explanation: The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless protocol. Unlike the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), UDP does not need acknowledgment for each packet sent. It is used especially in the streaming of media. By the time an acknowledgment (ACK) receipt got back to the sender, it would be too late to re-send the packet because many other packets have already been streamed. UDP streaming sessions expect a percentage of bounced, dropped, and otherwise undeliverable packets as part of the technology. See Chapter 5, "ports, Protocols, and Network Devices" for more information Incorrect answers: HTTPS stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure, used to display website information within a browser program. IP is the Internet Protocol, the second half of TCP/IP that deals primarily with IP addresses and packets.

A fully functional touchscreen LCD monitor requires a DVI connection and a power connection. Which of the following is also required? Ethernet connection SAS connection USB connection Audio connection

USB Connection Explanation: A touchscreen LCD monitor also requires a USB connection. This kind of monitor is used by users who wish to tap on the screen or use a stylus; to input that information, the display must also have a USB connection to the computer. This might be used by AV editors, CAD/CAM operators, home users, at meetings, and so on. Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors" for more information Incorrect answers: Because a touchscreen LCD monitor connects directly to a PC, an Ethernet connection to the network is not necessary. SAS connections are often used for high-speed, efficient hard drives. An audio connection is not required to have a fully functional touchscreen, but a user might want it, especially if this monitor uses DVI for video, because DVI does not carry audio. The audio connection could manifest itself as a 1/8-inch cable or a USB connection. However, most touchscreen monitors will use HDMI, which can send video and audio signals.

Which of the following charging/data ports uses a bidirectional connector? Micro-USB USB-C USB Type A Mini-USB

USB-C Explanation: The USB-C connector is bidirectional, which means that it can be used to charge in either direction. For example, a smartphone with a USB-C connector can use that connector for charging the phone as well as for supplying power to a USB device, such as a USB flash drive. Bidirectional might also be referred to as nondirectional. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1" for more information Incorrect answers: Micro-USB, Mini-USB, and USB Type A are unidirectional when it comes to charging. For example, a Micro-USB port is used to charge a mobile device. A standard USB Type A port on a PC can be used to charge whatever is plugged into it.

Which of the following identifies the best utilization for a virtual machine running locally on a PC? Using the virtual machine on a PC with minimal RAM Using the virtual machine in a thick client configuration Using the virtual machine for patch testing before rollout Using the virtual machine in a gaming PC configuration

Using the virtual machine for patch testing before rollout. Explanation: Before rolling out patches to many computers on a network, it is best to test those patches on a single PC. A great way to do this is within a virtualized system. See Chapter 16, "Cloud Computing and Client-side Virtualization" for more information Incorrect answers: A thick client is simply a regular PC. Gaming PCs are powerful computers that normally do not run within a virtual machine and usually do not host virtual machines. PCs that are acting as virtualization workstations need to have a lot of RAM in order to support the VMs that will run on them. An individual VM might only use 2 GB of RAM, but chances are that the virtualization software will be supporting more than one VM.

Which of the following cable types would most likely experience degraded video signal quality over long distances? DisplayPort DVI HDMI VGA

VGA Explanation: VGA is an older standard that outputs analog signals to a monitor. Of the listed answers, it is the most susceptible to signal degradation. See Chapter 9, "Cables and Connectors," for more information. Incorrect answers: HDMI, DVI, and DisplayPort are designed to work best sending digital signals and can send them over longer distances than analog cables (such as VGA). Digital is inherently better as far as distance and signal quality goes.

You are attempting to install Hyper-V on a Windows computer. However, you receive an error that the software cannot be installed. Which of the following CPU characteristics should be checked? Virtualization support Number of cores Hyper-Threading Cache size

Virtulization Support × Explanation: You need to check whether the CPU has virtualization support enabled in the BIOS/UEFI. If this is not enabled, Windows will not allow the installation of Hyper-V to continue. You may receive an error message, or Windows will simply have a grayed-out area where you want to select Hyper-V in Programs and Features. See Chapter 11, "Motherboards and Add-on Cards," for more information. Incorrect answers: The number of cores, Hyper-Threading, and cache size will not cause an error in Windows. However, you should make sure that your system meets the minimum requirements to run Hyper-V. In most cases, if the system can run Windows, then it should be able to run Hyper-V.

You are working at a customer's home and are installing a wireless technology that operates at 900 MHz. Which of the following are you installing? 802.11ac Z-Wave Bluetooth 5G

Z-Wave Explanation: Z-Wave is a wireless protocol used with many devices such as home automation products. It operates within unlicensed frequencies such as 800 and 900 MHz. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols" for more information Incorrect answers: 802.11ac is a WLAN protocol that operates at 5 GHz. Bluetooth operates at 2.4 GHz. 5G is a cellular protocol that operates at a variety of higher frequencies including 3.5 GHz, 28 GHz, and beyond.

You are a technician for an accounting company. You have submitted a request for a new wireless access point. You receive and set up the new device and power it on, but the company router doesn't appear to recognize it. Which of the following statements best describes how to fix the problem? (Select the best answer.) You should perform an apt-get update. You should run Windows Update. You should install the firmware update. You should perform an RPM update.

You should install the firmware update. Explanation: Always check if there is a new firmware update available for your wireless access point or other networking device before configuring it and making it available for use. In the scenario, a protocol is probably not the correct version, so the router cannot see the wireless access point. In this case, updating the firmware is the right move. But always check your company policies before doing so. See Chapter 6, "SOHO Networks and Wireless Protocols," for more information. Incorrect answers: The apt-get command is used to install and update applications in Linux operating systems. Windows Update is the program used to update and patch Windows operating systems. A Red Hat Package Manager (RPM) update, now simply known as RPM Package Manager, is used to install software on Linux systems.

You are configuring a new Windows-based mobile device for a user who has had trouble reading text on the previous device. Which of the following is the best way to help the user see content on the screen better? Utilize text-to-speech. Increase the resolution. Use haptic feedback. Use the magnifier.

use the magnifier Explanation: One of things you can do to aid the user is to use the Magnifier program. This allows the user to quickly zoom in and zoom out the entire display or a selected area. You can open this by opening the Run prompt and typing magnify or by searching for "magnifier". You could also try increasing the brightness or decreasing the resolution. See Chapter 3, "Smartphones, Tablets, and Other Mobile Devices, Part 1" and Chapter 38, "Troubleshooting Mobile Operating Systems" for more information Incorrect answers: Haptic feedback is a way of communicating with a mobile device; it is done by touch—for example, through vibrations made by the device. Text-to-speech programs can be very helpful to users who can't see the text very well, but it doesn't help them see the content better, it helps them to hear the content. You might also consider the reverse: a speech-to-text program such as Dragon, or Microsoft's Dictate program, to allow the user to speak commands instead of typing them. Increasing the resolution means configuring a higher resolution, which would make all of the text and images smaller, and therefore harder to read. In this scenario you might consider decreasing the resolution to make the text bigger, or configuring scaling to 125 percent, 150 percent, or beyond.