Group Exercise Certification
DASH diet
Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension
body fat
A component of the body, the primary role of which is to store energy for later use.
Fiber
A form of complex carbohydrates from plants that humans cannot digest
Avulsion
A wound that occurs when tissue is separated from the body
Which of the following is ACCURATE about spot reduction?
Spot reduction is the notion that an individual can lose body fat in a specific area by performing exercise movements that target the area. Studies have shown spot reduction to be ineffective. Research suggests that regular exercise, including both cardiovascular and resistance training, coupled with a sensible diet, is the only way to truly eliminate excess body fat.
A group fitness instructor sees a participant who has asthma begin to wheeze during the conditioning segment of class. What is the MOST appropriate immediate course of action?
The first step to managing an asthma attack is to get the participant to feel comfortable and relaxed, and remaining seated for at least 10 minutes to see if the symptoms subside.
Catabolism
Metabolic pathways that break down molecules, releasing energy.
Which component of fitness is described as the ability to perform repeated or sustained muscular contractions over a period of time without fatigue?
Muscular endurance is defined as the muscle's ability to perform repeated or sustained contractions over a period of time without fatigue.
Which of the following is an example of a class that TYPICALLY uses music ONLY in the foreground?
Music is used in the foreground when moves are choreographed to the beat, as in step, kickboxing, and dance-based classes. Aquatic fitness and indoor cycling often combine music used in the foreground and background, while yoga primarily uses background music to create ambience.
Which of the following is encouraged by MyPlate (www.choosemyplate.gov)?
MyPlate is a great resource for healthy eating and disease prevention. While recommendations are personalized, the concept is to enjoy food without consuming extra calories.
Which of the following is the BEST description of a pre-choreographed class?
Pre-choreographed classes are scripted from start to finish with planned music, cues, and moves. Pre-planned classes provide guidelines for instructors, but they can make their individual choices from a longer list of options for exercises, music, etc.
Athletic Trainer
Responsible for injury evaluation and immediate care of athletic injuries
What kind of platform is used for GFI's
A raised platform particularly in large fish-bowl style studios
glycemic index
A ranking of carbohydrate on a scale from 0-100 according to the extent to which they raise blood sugar levels
Dehydration
A serious reduction in the body's water content
Which of the following participant arrangements is MOST appropriate for a dance-based group fitness class?
A stagger arrangement is suitable for large classes in which participants need to see the instructor demonstrations
exercise dependence
A state in which physical activity is extreme in frequency and duration, relatively resistant to change, and is associated with an irresistible impulse to continue exercise despite injury, illness, or fatigue.
Which of the following emergencies is caused by a lack of blood supply and oxygen to the brain?
A stroke is a cerebrovascular emergency caused by a lack of blood supply and oxygen to the brain.
Command style of teaching
A teaching style in which the instructor makes all decisions about rhythm, posture, and duration while participants follow the instructor's directions and movements.
Which of the following is a document signed by a participant to release the instructor and fitness center from ALL liability associated with the conduct of an exercise program and any resulting injuries?
A waiver is a legal document signed by participants in an exercise class, program, or at a facility. By signing a waiver, participants acknowledge their understanding of what they are signing and that they waive their right to sue the instructor and/or facility.
What is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for adults for percentage of calories from carbohydrates, proteins, and fats?
According to the AMDRs, adults should consume 45-65% of daily kilocalories from carbohydrates, 10-35% from protein, and 20-35% from fats.
Which of the following is TRUE about cueing?
Aerobic Q signs are visual cues that are especially beneficial for visual learners. "Go this way" and "hold this position" are verbal cues, so they would not be the best options for visual or kinesthetic learners. While kinesthetic learners benefit from appropriate cues that involve touch, the "physical touch" cue is incorrect because the instructor should ask permission first and would not provide kinesthetic touch cues often during class.
Which of the following documents should be shared with, and signed by, class participants prior to beginning an exercise program to make them aware of the risks and benefits associated with exercise?
An Informed consent is a document used to make the dangers and benefits of a program known to participants. Having participants sign an informed content prior to beginning an exercise program can provide additional measures of defense against lawsuits. When a person signs an informed consent, they acknowledge the assumption of risk of participating in the activity or class.
Five primary movement patterns
Bend-and-lift (squatting motion) single leg (walking, lunge) upper body pushing movement (e.g. pushing a door, putting something away on a tall shelf) upper body pulling movements (eg opening a car door) rotational movements (buckling seat belt across body) These movements should be incorporated in order to enhance how they move both inside and outside of the fitness environment
Carbohydrates
Body's main source of energy
Warm-up Ideas to Enhance Stability & Mobility
Cat/camel- promotes thoracic spine mobility bird/dog- to enhance stability of lumbar spine I,Y,W,O formations- improve shoulder stability and mobility Glutei bridge- enhance hip mobility Kneeling prisoner rotations- improve thoracic spine mobility standing ankle mobilization- promote ankle mobility arm circles- improve shoulder mobility
Which of the following BEST describes a certificate received after continuing education?
Certificates are awarded to individuals after successful completion of continuing education (course, workshop, etc.). It is an acknowledgement of participation in and successful completion of the continuing education, not proof of professional competence.
Which of the following BEST describes a professional certification?
Certifications are standalone credentials to work in a specific job role. To earn a certification, an individual must demonstrate that he or she has met or exceeded the minimum knowledge and skill required to enter the job role. This is typically demonstrated by passing one or more competency-based assessments.
Which of the following is a CHRONIC condition?
Chronic conditions progress over time and are typically exacerbated by exercise. Acute injuries are typically the result of a specific impact or traumatic event. Shin splints typically occur over time with repetitive loading of the lower extremities.
Which of the following actions is an example of a concentric contraction?
Concentric contraction refers to muscle shortening as it overcomes a resistance and causes a movement. Eccentric contraction refers to muscle lengthening as it is overcome by a resistance and can only slow the movement. Static holds refer to muscular contractions without movement, as the muscular force and resistance are equal (also known as isometric contractions). During the upward phase of the push-up, the pectoralis major, deltoids, and triceps contract concentrically to create the upward "pushing" movement.
Which of the following is among the common features of healthy eating patterns?
Consuming more oils than solid fats is a common feature of healthy eating patterns. Added sugars should be limited to <10%. A moderate amount of foods should be high in protein. The goal is not to consume any amount of trans fat.
Which skill-related component of fitness is described as the ability to smoothly and accurately perform complex movements?
Coordination is defined as the ability to smoothly and accurately perform complex movements.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate corrective feedback for a group fitness instructor to provide to participants having trouble keeping their heels on the ground during a squat exercise?
Corrective cues should provide no more than one action at a time. Cues should be positive and solution-based, avoiding negative words such as "don't" and "no."
A group fitness instructor who strives to keep classes diverse and enjoyable for participants exhibits which leadership quality?
Dedication to one's work describes someone who fully accepts his or her role, goes above and beyond, and is always striving to be the best.
DRILLS acronym
Direction Rhythm, Range of motion, Resistance, Repetitions Intensity, Impact Lever Length Stability
What is the name of the movement that involves raising the top of the foot towards the front of the lower leg?
Dorsiflexion occurs when the toes move towards the shin. Pointing the toes toward the ground describes plantar flexion.
Which of the following is an EARLY symptom of an insulin reaction?
Double vision, nausea, and pale and moist skin are late signs of an insulin reaction, while confusion is an early sign.
What is a MINIMUM recommendation for static stretching during the post-conditioning cool-down segment of a group fitness class?
Due to time constrains in a group fitness class, it is not always possible to follow the ACSM guidelines for static stretching: holding for two to four repetitions for 15 to 60 seconds. A GFI should incorporate at least one repetition of a stretch for each major muscle group, holding each for at least 15-30 seconds.
Which of the following is an exercise regression?
During a regression, the intensity or challenge of the exercise is decreased. Moving from a squat to a quarter squat provides a regression, as the quarter squat reduces the movement from a squat with thighs near parallel to the ground to a shallower squat with knees bent approximately 45 degrees. All other responses involve moving from an easier exercise to a more difficult exercise.
Hip abduction is the primary motion performed during the upward, or lifting, phase of which of the following exercises?
During the side-lying leg lift, the upper leg is lifted up, moving it away from the midline of the body. This is hip abduction. Hip extension is the primary hip motion performed during the upward phase of a reverse lunge or single-leg step-up, while hip flexion is the primary motion performed during the upward phase of supine leg lifts.
Which of the following elements of negligence refers to the act of an instructor failing to provide the requisite standard of care in a group fitness class setting?
Duty refers to the expectation and requirement of the instructor. The element of breech is apparent if the instructor does not uphold that duty.
Which dietary reference value refers to adequate intake in 50% of an age- and gender-specific group?
EAR (Estimated Average Requirement) refers to an adequate intake in 50% of an age- and gender-specific group.
Which class education strategy is being used when a group fitness instructor teaches participants how to adapt a yoga pose to be done behind a desk to help improve posture?
Educating participants on the behavioral and health aspects of exercise can help bridge the gap between fitness and wellness by building awareness about the health and wellness benefits participants can receive.
essential amino acids
Eight to 10 of the 23 different amino acids needed to make proteins. Called essential because the body cannot manufacture them; they must be obtained from the diet.
What type of transition is being used when a group fitness instructor has participants perform a grapevine immediately followed by single-leg curls?
A matching transition occurs when one exercise or movement ends and flows straight into another exercise or movement.
double time
A means of adding challenge to a choreographed workout routine that involves the performance of movement twice as fast as in an earlier section.
Which of the following changes during pregnancy warrants further evaluation by a physician?
A mild amount of edema is normal during pregnancy due to the increased fluid volume. Participants who experience excessive edema should be referred to their physician.
Attending a one-day workshop focused on teaching indoor cycling BEST describes which of the following types of credentials?
A modality certificate is awarded to individuals who attend and successfully complete a workshop focused on teaching a specific group exercise class format, such as indoor cycling.
Rehearsal moves
A movement typically performed during the warm-up in a group fitness class that mimics an upcoming conditioning exercise and helps prepare the neuromuscular system for increased intensity.
Feedback
internal response within a learner
ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
the high-energy molecule used by the body to perform energy-requiring activities
Eversion
turning the sole of the foot outward
Which of the following would be MOST important to look for when selecting a pre-exercise snack?
A pre-exercise snack should minimize gastrointestinal distress and facilitate gastric emptying. As a result, low-fat and low-fiber foods are recommended. A good pre-exercise snack should have a moderate amount of protein and be relatively high in carbohydrates.
Depression
A prolonged feeling of helplessness, hopelessness, and sadness The action of lowering a muscle or bone movement in an inferior or downward direction
What is the recommended repetition range for resistance exercises to improve muscular endurance?
8-12 repetitions is recommended to improve strength and power in most adults; 10-15 repetitions are effective in improving strength in middle-aged and older individuals starting exercise; and 15-20 repetitions are recommended to improve muscular endurance.
In what category would an adult participant with a blood pressure of 136/88 mmHg be classified?
A blood pressure (BP) of 136/88 mmHg is classified as Stage 1 for both systolic BP and diastolic BP.
Blanket License
A certificate or document granting permission that varies and applies to a number of situations.
Asthma
A chronic allergic disorder characterized by episodes of severe breathing difficulty, coughing, and wheezing.
Which injury requires activation of the emergency medical system (EMS) in ALL instances?
A compound fracture is an open wound caused by a fractured bone. It requires immediate activation of the EMS at all times. The other listed conditions can range from mild to severe and may require medical treatment. However, they would rarely require activating the EMS.
What is the CORRECT term for a credential comprised of a course or series of courses on a specific topic with an end-of-course assessment?
A curriculum-based certificate is issued after a participant completes an assessment on the specific course content. Examples of these include specialty certificates and modality- and equipment-based courses that end with assessments or practical demonstration.
cardiovascular disease
A general term for all diseases of the heart and blood vessels.
Which of the following participant arrangements is MOST appropriate for an instructor to see everyone's movement and coordination pattern in a synchronized fashion from all angles?
A horizontal line allows an instructor to see everyone's movement and coordination pattern in a synchronized fashion from all angles. Examples of classes where this may be applied include kettlebell, suspension training, barre, and small-to-moderate reformer classes.
Exercising in heat
A hot humid environment is the most stressful environment for exercising as it reduces the body's ability to lose heat. Excessive heat can result to a higher HR. Cooling may not occur in humid conditions because sweat will not evaporate readily.
Which of the following is an example of a landmark cue?
A landmark cue is used to provide participants with an end point that they can move to in order to improve their execution of an exercise. Example: An instructor placing a hand above a participant's low back during a plank exercise and then asking the participant to pull up toward the hand.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate way for an ACE Certified Group Fitness Instructor to use his or her hand as a landmark to cue a participant who is in a collapsed side plank?
A landmark cue marks the end range of motion for a movement. For a participant who is in a collapsed side plank, the hand would be placed at the desired height for the top hip so the participant can move to the desired position and receive the kinesthetic feedback from reaching the landmark.
active listening
Empathic listening in which the listener echoes, restates, and clarifies.
accent
Emphasize the note
Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
Estimated amount of a nutrient per day at which the needs of 50% of the population will be met.
Exercise room temperature
Good ventilation with a temp of 65 to 85 degrees
Pro's of having mirrors in GEX
Have mirrors across both the front and sides of the room for ppl to be able to observe their own exercise movements and postures. Ideally, mirrors can be covered by drapes at the instructors discretion when they prove inappropriate or a distraction
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?
Heat exhaustion typically occurs in hot, humid temperatures. In addition to weak, rapid pulse; profuse sweating; and dizziness, other signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include low blood pressure, fatigue, headache, weakness, cold and clammy skin, and dehydration. If heat exhaustion progresses to heat stroke, sweating ceases and the skin becomes hot and dry, and activation of the EMS is necessary.
What is the MOST appropriate ratio of fluid replacement to fluid lost following exercise?
Ideally exercisers should consume the same amount of fluid as they lost in sweat during exercise.
A yoga teacher notices that a new participant in class moves easily into each pose the first time it is announced. This participant appears to be in which stage of learning for yoga?
Individuals in the autonomous stage of learning can perform the activities without following the instructor and can detect their own errors, including moving upon hearing the instructor's cues.
Which of the following describes individuals who are currently in the contemplation stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change for physical-activity behaviors?
Individuals in the contemplation stage have not yet begun participating in the desired behavior (e.g., physical activity), but they realize it is important and have begun considering it.
Which strategy would be MOST beneficial for addressing an individual in the maintenance stage?
Individuals in the maintenance stage have been participating in the desired activity regularly for more than six months. The goal in working with them is to provide variety and help them to transition to intrinsic motivation to maintain motivation and avoid boredom or burnout.
Good warm up for those who sit at a desk all day.
Individuals who sit at the desk all day are at risk for shortened hip flexors and hamstrings, and decreased mobility of the upper spine. It is important to address this repeated posture first, and then include complete-ROM, rotational, and lateral movements.
Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED (not recommended) for individuals who have a history of low-back pain?
Individuals with low-back issues should avoid performing unsupported back hyperextension exercises.
Which of the following options is MOST appropriate for an instructor who teaches at multiple locations?
Instructors should check with facilities to see if their blanket license covers them. However, they should not rely on this level of coverage from the facilities. Independent contractors should take precautions to ensure that they are protected by obtaining a performance license for the music that they use in class.
A participant approaches a group fitness instructor after class to let the instructor know that the music was too loud. In addition to thanking the participant for the feedback, what is the MOST appropriate course of action for the instructor to take?
Instructors should make all attempts to make timely changes in response to reasonable requests and feedback from participants when feasible and appropriate. It would not be necessary to escalate the complaint to the manger or suggest attendance in more classes.
Which of the following voice care tip is RECOMMENDED for group fitness instructors?
Instructors should speak at a normal volume to protect their voices, avoid stressing the larynx, keep music at a level that doesn't require shouting, and take small frequent sips of water.
First Ventilatory Threshold (VT1)
Intensity of aerobic exercise at which ventilation starts to increase in a non-linear fashion in response to an accumulation of metabolic by-products in the blood.
A participant who feels that his or her hip is dipping during the birddog exercise and makes an adjustment based on this feeling is demonstrating which type of feedback?
Intrinsic feedback refers to information that participants receive from their own sensory systems (e.g., what they feel, see, or hear).
Isometric exercises are typically CONTRAINDICATED (not recommended) for clients who have which medical condition?
Isometric contractions elicit a significant rise in blood pressure (BP), placing extra stress on the cardiovascular system.
The talk-test, heart rate, and ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) are PRIMARILY used to monitor exercise intensity during which segment of a group fitness class?
It is important and necessary to monitor intensity during the conditioning segment of the class. The talk-test, heart rate, and RPE are primary methods for monitoring exercise intensity.
Which of the following is RECOMMENDED for people who have diabetes?
It is important to check blood glucose levels after exercise to make sure the participant does not become hypoglycemic. Individuals who have diabetes should not begin exercise if their blood glucose level is below 100 mg/dL. Consuming high-glycemic index (GI) foods, such as dried fruit, prior to exercise is not recommended for individuals who have diabetes.
Which of the following is the MOST important step before offering an outdoor bootcamp class at a local park?
It is important to inquire about any shared-use agreements and permits needed to offer instruction on public property. Every state and city has different requirements. GFIs should not assume they are able to use a shared space to offer fee-based or non-fee-based classes or programming.
Which of the following weight-management strategies is MOST appropriate for a child who is overweight?
It is not typically recommended to promote weight loss for children who are overweight, but rather to promote weight maintenance to allow their BMI to decrease as they grow taller.
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate exercise recommendation for a pregnant participant?
It is recommended to use the ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) or the talk test, rather than target heart rate, to monitor exercise intensity. It is recommended that women who exercise during pregnancy consume an extra 300 kilocalories per day, and they should not exercise on an empty stomach.
Which BEST describes the cueing needs of kinesthetic learners?
Kinesthetic learners must feel specific cues. Cues should offer kinesthetic participants the element of sensation. For inclusion of all participants, using a variety of kinesthetic, visual, and verbal cues is important, and practice helps to reinforce the movements learned.
Which of the following is the BEST cue for a kinesthetic learner performing a squat?
Kinesthetic learners must feel specific cues. Using words to help them imagine the correct movement and muscle activation is relatable to this type of learner. Asking them to concentrate on what not do is ineffective in teaching the movement.
Which postural deviation is characterized by an excessive posterior curvature of the thoracis spine?
Kyphosis involves an excessive posterior curvature of the thoracic spine.
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
Legislation passed in 1990 that prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities. Under this Act, discrimination against a disabled person is illegal in employment, transportation, public accommodations, communications and government activities.
When arriving to teach a suspension training class, an ACE Certified Group Fitness Instructor finds three suspension trainers have been removed. What is the BEST way for the GFI to proceed with class?
If participants are expecting a suspension training class, and suspension trainers are available, the instructor should pair the participants so the suspension trainers can be shared. Changing the class format is not necessary. It would not be appropriate to tell the participants to warm-up on their own while going out to search for more suspension trainers. GFIs should always be ready to adapt to unexpected situations.
When to incorporate plyometrics?
If power-type, explosive exercises (plyometrics & Heavy strength exercises) are incorporated in the class, these should be performed at the beginning of the workout after an appropriate warm-up, when energy and concentration levels are highest and fatigue level is lowest
Which stage of learning is associated with performing movements with a number of errors?
In the cognitive stage of learning, movements are new to the participant. Errors and imperfect form may be the norm.
Which of the following BEST describes the command style of teaching?
In the command style of teaching an instructor makes all of the decisions and provides uniformity. Practice style allows opportunities for individualization, as instructors do not need to remain stationary in the front of the room. The self-check style relies on participants to provide their own feedback.
A group fitness instructor asks the class a question and notices that MOST participants can respond, but talking is a little challenging. Based on this observation, in what zone of the three-zone intensity model are the participants currently exercising?
In zone 1, exercise intensity is low-to-moderate and the exercise participant can talk comfortably. As the exercise participant enters zone 2, which involves moderate-to-vigorous intensity aerobic exercise, talking becomes a little challenging. Zone 3 is where the exercise participant is engaged in vigorous to very vigorous exercise, and cannot talk comfortably. There is no Zone 3b in the three-zone intensity model.
Which of the following would be MORE characteristic of an independent contractor?
Independent contractors are paid for the job, rather than a salary or hourly wage. Independent contractors work for themselves and may work at multiple independent facilities, being hired for specific classes or programs.
What type of transition is being used when a group fitness instructor has participants perform an overhead press combined with a step-up?
Mending involves stringing two exercise movements together, such as performing a squat with a dumbbell swing.
Abduction
Movement away from the midline of the body
Adduction
Movement toward the midline of the body
Closed Kinetic Chain (CKC)
Movements where the distal segments is fixed. Generally considered more functional, as they mimic daily activities. Push ups and pull ups. The extremity remains in constant contact with an immobile surface
"Failure to act as a reasonable and prudent person would act under a similar circumstance" is a definition for what legal term?
Negligence is a failure to act on the part of the professional. This includes not doing something that should have been done, and also doing something that should not have been done.
What description of physical effort corresponds to a ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) score of 5 on the 0 to 10 point category ratio scale?
On the 0 to 10 point category ratio scale, a RPE = 5 is categorized as "strong" physical effort, whereas 3 = moderate, 4 = somewhat strong, and 7 = very strong.
Teaching participants how to first perform walking lunges and then perform torso rotations holding a medicine ball, before combining the two movements into a single exercise is an example of which teaching strategy?
Part-to-whole, also called the add-in strategy breaks down the skill and teaches them in isolation before integration.
During what portion of a shoulder press should the group fitness instructor cue participants to exhale?
Participants should be cued to exhale during the concentric phase of an exercise. During a shoulder press, the concentric phase occurs during the upward movement when the weight is being lifted.
Which of the following is a description of rapport?
Positive rapport involves mutual understanding and trust between two or more individuals. In a fitness setting, rapport between an exercise professional and a client/class participant can help with exercise program adherence.
Who has the primary responsibility for determining if a medical evaluation is warranted prior to an individual participating in group fitness classes based on the health-related information provided on his or her pre-participation form?
Pre-participation forms are typically completed upon enrollment at a fitness facility, or in a defined group fitness program. It is the facility operator's responsibility to have procedures in place for reviewing and responding to health-related information on the forms that warrants referral to an appropriate medical professional.
Anaerobic
Process that does not require oxygen
Which verbal skill can be used by an ACE Certified Group Fitness Instructor to empathize, reflect, and clarify the main points and feelings expressed by a participant?
Reflective listening can be used by exercise professionals to empathize, reflect, and clarify the main points and feelings expressed by participants.
What is the BEST reason to report equipment issues to a staff member prior to the beginning of a group fitness class where the equipment was to be used?
Reporting a damaged piece of equipment to a staff member is especially important in class formats where each participant needs a piece of equipment (e.g., indoor cycling). In a facility where classes can reach full capacity, the staff members can help inform potential participants that there is one less piece of equipment (e.g., bike) for class that day.
Which of the following intensity levels is MOST appropriate for novice to intermediate exercisers seeking to improve their strength?
Resistance exercise evidence-based recommendations include: Intensity: 60-70% of 1-RM for novice to intermediate exercisers to improve strength.
Abrasion
Scrape of the skin due to something abrasive
diabetic shock
Severe low blood sugar associated with diabetes, with symptoms that include fatigue, lightheadedness, or fainting.
Agreement to participate
Signed document that indicates that the client is aware of inherent risks and potential injuries that can occur from participation
A group fitness instructor notices that for the past few weeks she has been experiencing an increased resting heart rate, sleep loss, and fatigue. Based on these symptoms, what is the instructor MOST LIKELY experiencing?
Signs of overtraining include sleep loss, elevated resting heart rate, fatigue, and changes in weight.
Which teaching strategy is also known as layering?
Simple-to-complex is also called layering because the instructor starts with the basic movement or exercise (e.g., two step-touches) and then adds movement/exercise "layers" to increase the complexity of the movement (e.g., two step-touches then a four count grapevine to the right, followed by two step-touches and a four- count grapevine to the left).
Which of the following exercise combinations is an example of balanced program design in a group fitness class?
Single-leg balance/front planks and body-weight squats/squat on a BOSU are both combinations that apply the neuromuscular component of balance. Side lunges to the left side/side lunges to the right side apply to the training component of balance and working with sides of the body. Grapevines combined with forward and backward marching applies to the programming component of balance by including movement in multiple planes of motion.
extension
Straightening of a joint
heat stroke symptoms
Sudden collapse with usual loss of consciousness, flushed, hot skin, sweating about 75% of the time (some cases may have less sweating than seen with heat exhaustion), shallow breathing, and a rapid, strong pulse.
How can ACE Certified Group Fitness Instructors enhance their teaching abilities?
Taking classes taught by other well-qualified instructors can be refreshing and provide good learning experience to incorporate into one's own practice. The purpose is not to critique the instructors, but to learn from observing them.
A food label shows that the food has 8 servings per container, 90 calories per serving, and 2 grams of fat per serving. If an individual eats 3 servings of this food, what is the total number of calories from fat consumed?
The food label in the question is described as having 2 grams of fat per serving. Each gram of fat contains 9 calories of energy. Therefore, each serving of this food has 18 calories from fat (2 grams x 9 calories/gram). To calculate the number of calories in three servings, multiple the grams of fat per serving (18 g) by the number of servings consumed = 18 g x 3 = 54 grams of fat consumed.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding a food label?
The ingredients section of the food label lists the ingredients in decreasing order of substance weight. Therefore, the first ingredient makes up the largest part of the food's weight. This is important when teaching a participant how to read a food label, as those who are looking to improve their dietary intake will want to select foods that have healthful ingredients, especially early in the list.
The latissimus dorsi is a prime mover during which of the following exercises?
The latissimus dorsi produces primary actions that include extension, adduction, and horizontal abduction of the shoulder joint. The primary shoulder joint movement during bent-over rows is shoulder extension.
Which of the following joints is considered to be a section of the kinetic chain that favors stability over mobility?
The lumbar spine favors stability over mobility, providing a stable link between the more mobile joints of the thoracic spine and the hips. The ankle, thoracic spine, and hip all provide mobility within the kinetic chain.
Which of the following muscles is responsible for adduction of the scapulae?
The middle trapezius, along with the rhomboid major and minor, are the primary muscles responsible for adduction of the scapulae (squeezing the scapulae together). The pectoralis major is a prime mover for flexion, extension, horizontal adduction, and adduction of the shoulder joint. The posterior deltoids perform extension and horizontal abduction of the shoulder joint. The latissimus dorsi is a prime mover to extend, adduct, and horizontally abduct the shoulder joint.
Which of the following is BEST described as regular pulsations in music that have even rhythm and occur in a continuous pattern of strong and weak pulsations?
The music beat describes the collection of regular strong and weak pulsations that provide the music's rhythm. The downbeat describes the strong pulsation in the music, but does not include the week pulsation. A meter organizes beats into musical patterns or measures, while an accent is the first beat or downbeat in a measure.
Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)
The pressure in the arteries during the relaxation phase (diastole) of the cardiac cycle; indicative of total peripheral resistance.
During which of the following exercises is the quadratus lumborum engaged as a primary muscle for performing the exercise?
The quadratus lumborum is a prime mover for lateral flexion. The lateral flexors are the primary muscles responsible for lifting and holding the torso in the side plank position.
Which muscle causes knee extension and hip flexion as its primary joint actions?
The rectus femoris is one of the quadriceps muscle group that extends the knee. The rectus femoris also crosses the hip joint and causes hip flexion. The biceps femoris and semitendinosus are hamstring muscles that flex the knee and extend the hip, while the sartorious causes flexion at the hip and knee.
Downbeat
The regular strong pulsation in music occurring in a continuous pattern at an even rhythm.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding lapses?
When lapses are viewed as challenges that can be overcome rather than as failures that cannot be rectified, adherence is more likely. Not all lapses are predictable. Teaching participants to be flexible during the process and not to view them as failures is important to adherence.
At what point is an individual FIRST responsible for adhering to the ACE Code of Ethics?
When registering for an ACE certification exam, individuals must agree to begin adhering to the ACE Code of Ethics. If an individual violates the ACE Code of Ethics during the certification process (e.g., cheating on the certification exam), the individual's actions will be reviewed according to ACE's Professional Practices and Disciplinary Procedures.
Which of the following exercise guidelines is MOST appropriate for a participant with osteoarthritis?
While individuals with osteoarthritis should avoid vigorous exercise during flare-ups or periods of inflammation, they can participate in gentle range-of-motion exercises. In addition, it is recommended that participants with osteoarthritis perform bilateral exercises and then advance to unilateral, participate in aquatic exercise in pool temperatures between 83 and 88oF (28 to 31oC), and complete warm-ups lasting five to 10 minutes.
When helping a participant set up an indoor cycling bike, what is the RECOMMENDED knee position to help ensure that saddle height is appropriate?
While some individuals may self-select a slightly higher or lower saddle position, saddle height of an indoor cycling bike is at the recommended height when the knee is bent 25 to 35 degrees with the foot at the bottom of the pedal stroke (6 o'clock position). Once saddle height is set, the saddle position (forward-backward) should be adjusted to align the rider's front knee cap above and in line with the pedal spindle when the pedals are at the 3 and 9 o'clock positions.
Controls of lighting, temp, and sound connections
Wireless microphone receivers and transmitters, CD player, and digital music player connections- all within easy access of the GFI primary place of instruction
What kind of floor should be used for group classes?
Wooden or synthetic flooring designed to absorb shock from movement and control. Hardwood flooring can be suspended to provide additional shock absorption and reduce injury risk. It also offers good traction for dynamic movements and allows for lateral movements and pivoting.
Which class type would be MOST appropriate for a participant who wants to focus on a cardiorespiratory endurance workout?
Yoga and Pilates primarily improve flexibility, muscular strength and endurance, and balance. Group strength focuses primarily on increasing total-body muscular strength. Step is a cardio-based class.
Which of the following is MOST accurate about youth fitness classes?
Youth are more susceptible to heat-related illness as their thermoregulatory systems are less developed than adults. While RPE can be used with youth, it is not recommended for younger children (8 and under) due to differences in cognitive development. In addition, youth have higher heart rates than adults, and supervised resistance training can be performed by youth before puberty.
fascia
a band or sheet of fibrous connective tissue that covers, supports, and separates muscle
contract
a binding agreement between two or more persons that is enforceable by law
Emphysema
a condition in which the air sacs of the lungs are damaged and enlarged, causing breathlessness.
heat stroke
a dangerous condition in which the body loses its ability to cool itself through perspiration
Cholesterol
a fatlike substance found in the blood and body tissues and in certain foods. Cab accumulate in the arteries and lead to a narrowing of the vessels (atherosclerosis)
Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)
a generic term used to refer to three types of nutrient reference values: Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) and Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)
a range of intakes for a particular energy source that is associated with reduced risk of chronic disease while providing adequate intakes of essential nutrients
atrophy
a reduction in size or wasting away of an organ or cell resulting from disease or lack of use
Baroreceptors
a sensory nerve receptor that is stimulated by a change in pressure, perhaps blood pressure
dynamic flexibility
ability to move a joint through its range of motion with little resistance
cardiorespiratory fitness
ability to perform large muscle, dynamic, moderate to high intensity exercise for prolonged periods
cardiac output
amount of blood pumped by the heart per min
Defendant
an individual or group being sued or charged with a crime
AED
automated external defibrillator
Dorsiflexion
bending of the foot or the toes upward
deep vein thrombosis
blood clot forms in a large vein, usually in a lower limb
compound fracture
bone breaks through the skin
diabetes mellitus
disease of carb metabolism in which an absolute or relative deficiency of insulin results in an inability to metabolize carbs normally
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
disease with enlarged lung spaces, usually from smoking can cause shortness of breath
frontal plane
divides the body into anterior and posterior portions
fat
essential nutrient that provides energy, energy storage, insulation, and contour to the body. 1g of fat= 9kcal
Distal
farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk
essential fatty acids
fatty acids that the body needs but cannot make and so must be obtained from the diet Omega 3 & 6
Anterior
front of the body. same as ventral, opposite of posterior
Bursitis
inflammation of a bursa
arthritis
inflammation of a joint
cornorary heart disease
major form of cardiovascular disease; results when the coronary arteries are narrowed or occluded
glycemic load
measure of glycemic response to a food that takes serving size into consideration; GL= Glycemic index x grams of carb/100
diastasis recti
midline longitudinal ridge in the abdomen, a separation of abdominal rectus muscles
Casein
milk protein
eccentric
muscle lengthens
concentric
muscle shortens
Cognitive Domain
one of the three domains of learning; describes intellectual activities and involves the learning of knowledge
Affective Domain
one of the three domains of leaving: involves the learning of emotional behaviors
compilation
original sequences of a program of dance steps or exercise routines that may or may not be copyrightable individually
Water temp for aquatic fitness classes
ranges from 83 to 90 degrees. For traditional shallow or deep water strength and cardio-respiratory conditioning classes, the water is at the lower end of the spectrum. For mind-body classes and special populations classes water is at the higher end.
Beats
regular pulsations that have an even rhythm and occur in a continuous pattern of strong and weak pulsations
BMI (body mass index)
relative measure of body height to body weight used to determine levels for weight, from underweight to extreme obesity
Dyspnea
shortness of breath
contemplation stage
stage of change in which people are considering changing behavior in the next 6 months
allergen
substance that can cause an allergic reaction by stimulating type 1 hypersensitivity in genetically susceptible individuals
cardiorespiratory endurance
the ability of your heart, lungs, and blood vessels to send fuel and oxygen to your tissues during long periods of moderate to vigorous activity
cultural competence
the ability to interact effectively with people of different cultures
Flexion
the action of bending or the condition of being bent, especially the bending of a limb or joint.
Base of Support (BOS)
the area on which an object rests and that provides support for the object
Adequate Intake (AI)
the average daily amount of a nutrient that appears sufficient to maintain a specified criterion; a value used as a guide for nutrient intake when an RDA cannot be determined
fatigue
the decline in ability of a muscle to generate force
Glucose
the form of sugar that circulates in the blood and provides the major source of energy for body tissues. When its level is low, we feel hunger.
Antagonist
the muscle the acts in opposition to the contraction produced by an agonist (prime mover) muscle
body composition
the ratio of body fat to lean body tissue, including muscle, bone, water, and connective tissue such as ligaments, cartilage, and tendons
action
the stage of the transtheoretical model behavior change during which the individual is actively engaging in a behavior that was started less than six months ago
Which statement BEST describes what an individual experiences when his or her exercise intensity crosses the first ventilatory threshold (VT1)?
Up until VT1, an individual can talk comfortably and answer questions in complete sentences. As the individual crosses VT1, speaking becomes a bit challenging. However, the individual can still speak in shorter sentences.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding verbal cues?
Verbal cues should be specific and succinct and given at least four counts before the music is initiated. Participants need to process the cue before it is expected to be completed.
Cueing
Visual or verbal techniques, using hand signals or concise words, to inform participants of upcoming movements.
Anatomy
The study of body structure
Hyperthermia
Abnormally high body temperature
Which of the following is within the ACE Certified Group Fitness Instructor scope of practice?
ACE GFIs may educate participants on health and fitness based on established industry guidelines, included the USDA Dietary guidelines. Developing meal plans, treating injuries, and recommending the use of any medications is outside the ACE GFI's scope of practice.
The evidence-based recommendations for aerobic exercise include which of the following?
ACSM's guidelines for exercise programming include: Exercise bouts of <10 minutes may yield favorable adaptions for deconditioned individuals; >5 days/week of moderate exercise or >3 days/week of vigorous exercise, or a combination of moderate and vigorous exercise on >3-5 days/week
Which of the following is an example of an ACUTE injury?
An acute injury is something that happens abruptly and causes immediate symptoms of injury or distress. A chronic injury is ongoing. Tennis elbow, arthritis, and chronic low-back pain occur over time and require ongoing management.
anxiety
An emotional state of high energy, with the stress response as the body's reaction to it.
Certificant
An individual who has earned a credential awarded through a certification program.
Which of the following could be a sign of heat stroke requiring immediate medical attention?
An individual who has hot, dry skin has advanced beyond the point where his or her thermoregulatory system can dissipate internal heat through sweating. This occurs when an individual's core temperature exceeds 104o F (40o C), requiring immediate medical attention. Weak, rapid pulse; cold, clammy skin; and profuse sweating are signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion, and should be taken seriously. If not addressed, heat exhaustion can reach the point of heat stroke.
Which of the following actions would be MOST appropriate for a participant in a group fitness class who is experiencing hypoglycemia and then becomes unconscious?
An individual who is experiencing hypoglycemia and then becomes unconscious is most likely experiencing diabetic shock, an emergency situation that requires immediate attention and activation of the EMS.
Which of the following is an intrinsic risk factor that group fitness instructors should be aware of and prepared for when teaching a class of diverse participants?
An intrinsic factor is related to the individual participants, while an extrinsic risk factor is an external condition or element such as the number of repetitions and sets, the complexity and type of movement, and the appropriateness of the footwear worn by participants for the designed workout.
When inspecting equipment before class, an ACE Certified Group Fitness Instructor finds small tears in two resistance bands. What is the MOST appropriate action?
Any piece of equipment that has a malfunction or is damaged should not be used. They should be removed from the studio or locked in a cabinet. Instructors should not attempt to repair or make any quick fixes. While the manager should be made aware after class, removing them from use is the priority.
Which of the following is the MOST obvious sign of exercise fatigue?
As a participant begins to fatigue, he or she will have trouble performing the exercise correctly and a modification should be made. If a participant pushes him- or herself to the point where the energy systems are being taxed beyond tolerable levels, the participant can reach overexertion, where symptoms like dizziness, nausea, and loss of strength may occur.
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the Allied Healthcare Continuum?
As physicians are the gatekeepers of the allied healthcare continuum, they are assisted in their efforts, under their direction, by an number of other professionals. Physicians refer patients to other professionals, such as a physical therapist, registered dietitian, fitness professional, etc., based on the needs of the patient.
Which of the following is TRUE about on-the-spot indicators seen during a group fitness pre-class evaluation?
Exaggerated kyphosis is a common postural deviation that is seen visibly by an increased posterior curve of the thoracic spine, or upper back. To help participants with exaggerated kyphosis, the group fitness instructor can include exercises that extend the back and strengthen the scapular retractors (e.g., rhomboids, middle and upper trapezius). Lengthening the hip flexors and strengthening the abdominal muscles is important for a balanced program. However, these exercises are more targeted at exaggerated lordosis rather than exaggerated kyphosis. While new participants and older adults may need exercise regression options, it would not be inclusive to regress the entire class. In addition, a GFI should not immediately assume that new or older adult participants are not experienced with group exercise or fit enough to complete the class as planned.
Which of the following conditions has symptoms that can be instigated by physical activity?
Exercise and physical activity can induce an asthmatic response called exercise-induced asthma (EIA).
What has been the source of many of the biggest lawsuits in the fitness profession?
Exercise professionals must understand their scope of practice and what they can and cannot do within that scope. Acting outside the scope of practice is the root of the majority of legal issues in the fitness profession.
Which of the following should group fitness instructors secure as PRIMARY protection to specifically cover work within the health and fitness industry?
Exercise professionals, including group fitness instructors, should secure professional liability insurance that is specifically designed to cover work within the health and fitness industry. It is separate from health, auto, home, or any other insurance policy. GFIs should not assume that these other insurance policies extend to their professional work.
Which of the following considerations is TRUE about exercising in the cold?
Exercising in the cold can cause generalized vasoconstriction as a physiological response to preserve core temperature. Water on the skin is actually more detrimental than air, with heat loss in cold water being as much as four times faster than heat loss in cold air. Head coverings and moisture-wicking (not moisture-absorbing) clothing are important for keeping the body warm during exercise in the cold.
Which of the following should be included in group fitness classes specifically designed for older adults?
Extended warm-ups and cool-downs are recommended for older adults. In addition, exercise intensity should be monitored using ratings of perceived exertion (RPE), the dyspnea scale, or the talk test, and quick eccentric and standing movements should be avoided.
Square music is typically organized into how many count phrases?
Four phrases of 8 counts make up the 32-count square.
Dyspnea Scale
Four point scale +1: Mild, noticeable to patient but not observer +2: Mild, some difficulty, noticeable to observer +3: Moderate difficulty but can continue +4: Severe difficulty, cannot continue
A group fitness instructor notices a new participant who is not on the class roster coming into class five minutes late on the first day of an eight-week group challenge. What is the MOST appropriate approach to get this participant to sign a waiver?
GFIs should always have participants sign waivers BEFORE participating in a class or workout. It is not in the group fitness instructor's best interest to allow an individual to sign a waiver after participation. It is important to continue leading the class for those individuals who already signed the waiver while you get a signed waiver from the new participant.
Which leadership quality is BEST described by refraining from gossip and negative comments about others?
Punctuality and dependability refer to an instructor's assurance that he or she will arrive when necessary and start classes on time, in addition to planning for absences. Dedication involves maintaining one's certification, seeking out continuing education, and being available for participants before and after class.
Extrinsic feedback
Received from outside of the performer, eg from a coach.
Which of the following provides an example of an exercise progression based on the "LL" in the DRILLS acronym?
The "LL" in DRILLS stands for lever length. Raising the arms above the head increases the lever length.
Based on the range recommendations in the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), how many grams of protein should be consumed daily by an adult who consumes an average of 1,800 calories per day?
The AMDR range for protein intake for an adult is 10-35% of daily calories. To determine the grams of protein that should be consumed by an adult who consumes 1,800 calories per day, you must first calculate 10% and 35% of 1,800 calories (kcal), and then divide each calculated value by 4 cal/gram to get total grams recommended. Step 1: 10% of 1,800 kcal = 0.10 x 1,800 cal = 180 kcal protein, while 35% of 1,800 kcal = 0.35 x 1,800 cal = 630 kcal protein. Step 2: Convert calories to grams as follows: 180 kcal protein / 4 kcal per gram = 45 grams protein, and 630 kcal protein / 4 kcal per gram = 157.5 grams protein. ANSWER: The range for grams of protein = 45 to 158 grams per day.
Which of the following BEST describes NCCA accreditation?
The National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA) is a third-party accreditor of professional certification programs in healthcare, allied health, fitness, and other professions. Certification program accreditation is different from education program accreditation. It requires that a certification be a standalone assessment of an individual's competence to practice in a designated job role. The NCCA Standards are peer developed, approved, and enforced.
What are the components of the acronym RICE?
The acronym RICE is used for early intervention for most acute injuries and stands for rest or restricted activity, ice, compression, and elevation.
What is the daily protein requirement for an average person?
The average person requires 0.8 to 1.0 g/kg of body weight of protein per day (0.4-0.5 g/lb of body weight).
activities of daily living
The basic activities a person usually accomplishes during a normal day, such as eating, dressing, and bathing.
Which of the following is TRUE regarding measuring heart rate at the carotid pulse?
The carotid artery is just to the left of the larynx. Using light pressure with the first two fingers, lightly palpate one side to prevent a drop in blood pressure and/or decreased blood flow to the brain.
Evaporation
The change of a substance from a liquid to a gas
creatine phosphate system
The energy pathway that consists of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and phosphocreatine (PC); provides immediate energy (between 10 and 15 seconds) through the breakdown of these stored high-energy phosphates.
Aerobic System
The energy pathway that uses oxygen, fats, carbohydrate, and sometimes proteins for re-synthesizing adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for prolonged energy use.
adherence
The extent to which people stick to their plans or treatment recommendations. Exercise adherence is the extent to which people follow, or stick to, an exercise program.
Cognitive stage of learning
The first stage of learning a motor skill when performers make many gross errors and have extremely variable performances.
Which of the following exercises occurs PRIMARILY in the sagittal plane?
The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left halves. Forward and backward movements from an anatomical position occur primarily in the sagittal plane. Lateral lunges and grapevines occur primarily in the frontal plane. Horizontal shoulder adduction occurs in the transverse plane.
Associative stage of learning
The second stage of learning a motor skill, when performers have mastered the fundamentals and can concentrate on skill refinement.
Which of the following is an example of the slow-to-fast teaching strategy?
The slow-to-fast teaching strategy starts slow (half tempo) then builds to full tempo. This strategy helps build confidence with exercises and movements.
creatine phosphate (CP)
The storage molecule for excess ATP energy in resting muscle
ambient temperature
The temperature of the surrounding air; room temperature
Autonomous stage of learning
The third stage of learning a motor skill, when the skill has become habitual or automatic for the performer.
Convection
The transfer of heat by the movement of a fluid
heat exhaustion symptoms
The victim will collapse and have profuse sweating, pale skin, mildly elevated temperature (<102 degrees F), dizziness, hyperventilation, and a rapid pulse.
A warm-up should include which of the following goals?
The warm-up section of the classes begins preparing the participant for the conditioning segment. During the conditioning segment, an instructor will need to offer progressions and regressions for the various participant levels. Visualization techniques and keeping the arms below the heart are characteristics of the cool-down segment.
Which of the following is an environmental factor that influences exercise participation and adherence?
Time is an environmental factor that can influence participation in, and adherence to, an exercise program. Intensity and injury are physical-activity factors. Demographics is a personal attribute.
Exercise-Induced Bronchospasm
Transient and reversible airway narrowing triggered by vigorous exercise (AKA exercise-induced asthma)
fatty acids
chains of carbon atoms bonded to hydrogen atoms
carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)
compression of the median nerve as it passes between the ligament and the bones and tendons of the wrist
Atherosclerosis
condition in which fatty deposits called plaque build up on the inner walls of the arteries
heat exhaustion
condition resulting from exposure to heat and excessive loss of fluid through sweating
articular cartilage
covers the surfaces of bones where they come together to form joints
