Im so ded

: Knowledge/Comprehension Figure 5.1 15) If 2 molecules of the general type shown in Figure 5.1 were linked together, carbon 1 of one molecule to carbon 4 of the other, the single molecule that would result would be A) maltose. B) fructose. C) glucose. D) galactose. E) sucrose.

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of the following statements is false for the class of biological molecules known as lipids? A) They are soluble in water. B) They are an important constituent of cell membranes. C) They contain more energy than proteins and carbohydrates. D) They are not true polymers. E) They contain waxes and steroids.

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.3

: Application/Analysis 38) The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires which of the following? A) removal of a water molecule B) addition of a water molecule C) formation of an ionic bond D) formation of a hydrogen bond E) both A and C

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.4

: Application/Analysis 47) Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein? A) peptide bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) disulfide bonds D) phosphodiester bonds E) A, B, and C

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires A) the release of a water molecule. B) the release of a carbon dioxide molecule. C) the addition of a nitrogen atom. D) the addition of a water molecule. E) both B and C

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Which bond is closest to the N-terminus of the molecule?

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) Figure 5.7 best illustrates the A) secondary structure of a polypeptide. B) tertiary structure of a polypeptide. C) quaternary structure of a protein. D) double helix structure of DNA. E) primary structure of a polysaccharide.

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 82 4) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The probability that amino acids with nonpolar side chains are hydrophobic. (B) The probability that amino acids with side chains containing a carboxyl group are hydrophobic. A) Item (A) is greater than item (B). B) Item (A) is less than item (B). C) Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B). D) Item (A) may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 96 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 61) Roger Kornberg used this method for elucidating the structure of RNA polymerase. A) X-ray crystallography B) bioinformatics C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments D) NMR spectroscopy E) high-speed centrifugation

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The number of purines in the DNA strand 5ʹ-AAGAGGAGAAA-3ʹ (B) The number of pyrimidines in the DNA strand 5ʹ-AAGAGGAGAAA-3ʹ A) Item (A) is greater than item (B). B) Item (A) is less than item (B). C) Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B). D) Item (A) may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells? A) DNA → RNA → proteins B) RNA → proteins → DNA C) proteins → DNA → RNA D) RNA → DNA → proteins E) DNA → proteins → RNA

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 114 Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 20) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell? A) rough ER B) lysosomes C) plasmodesmata D) Golgi vesicles E) tight junctions

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that A) at least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope. B) the nuclear envelope is not part of the endomembrane system. C) the nuclear envelope is physically continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum. D) small vesicles from the Golgi fuse with the nuclear envelope. E) nuclear pore complexes contain proteins.

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.4

: Application/Analysis 38) Which of the following are capable of converting light energy to chemical energy? A) chloroplasts B) mitochondria C) leucoplasts D) peroxisomes E) Golgi bodies

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) The mitochondrion, like the nucleus, has two or more membrane layers. How is the innermost of these layers different from that of the nucleus? A) The inner mitochondrial membrane is highly folded. B) The two membranes are biochemically very different. C) The space between the two layers of the nuclear membrane is larger. D) The inner membrane of the mitochondrion is separated out into thylakoids. E) The inner mitochondrial membrane is devoid of nearly all proteins.

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 120 Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 45) Cells can be described as having a cytoskeleton of internal structures that contribute to the shape, organization, and movement of the cell. Which of the following are part of the cytoskeleton? A) the nuclear envelope B) mitochondria C) microfilaments D) lysosomes E) nucleoli

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Of the following, which cell structure would most likely be visible with a light microscope that has been manufactured to the maximum resolving power possible? A) mitochondrion B) microtubule C) ribosome D) largest microfilament E) nuclear pore

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.6

: Synthesis/Evaluation 52) Which of the following possesses a microtubular structure similar to a basal body? A) centriole B) lysosome C) nucleolus D) peroxisome E) ribosome

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.6

: Synthesis/Evaluation 65) Recent evidence shows that the extracellular matrix can take part in regulating the expression of genes. A likely possibility for this might be which of the following? A) Mechanical signals of the ECM can alter the cytoskeleton, which can alter intracellular signaling. B) Intracellular signals might cause changes in the fibronectin binding to the cell surface. C) Orientation of microfilaments to the ECM can change the gene activity. D) Fibronectin binds to integrins built into the plasma membrane. E) Proteoglycans in the ECM become large enough in aggregate to force genetic alteration.

wer: A Topic: Concept 6.7

: Application/Analysis 11) The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals A) enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops. B) enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids. C) enables the animal to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids. D) makes the membrane less flexible, allowing it to sustain greater pressure from within the cell. E) makes the animal more susceptible to circulatory disorders.

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.1

: Application/Analysis 16) Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures? A) The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, forcing adjacent lipids to be further apart. B) Unsaturated fatty acids have a higher cholesterol content and therefore more cholesterol in membranes. C) Unsaturated fatty acids permit more water in the interior of the membrane. D) The double bonds block interaction among the hydrophilic head groups of the lipids. E) The double bonds result in shorter fatty acid tails and thinner membranes.

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids? A) They can move laterally along the plane of the membrane. B) They frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other. C) They occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane. D) They are free to depart from the membrane and dissolve in the surrounding solution. E) They have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane.

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of the following is one of the ways that the membranes of winter wheat are able to remain fluid when it is extremely cold? A) by increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane B) by increasing the percentage of cholesterol molecules in the membrane C) by decreasing the number of hydrophobic proteins in the membrane D) by co-transport of glucose and hydrogen E) by using active transport

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Who proposed that membranes are a phospholipid bilayer between two layers of hydrophilic proteins? A) H. Davson and J. Danielli B) I. Langmuir C) C. Overton D) S. Singer and G. Nicolson E) E. Gorter and F. Grendel

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which of the following span the phospholipids bilayer, usually a number of times? A) transmembrane proteins B) integral proteins C) peripheral proteins D) integrins E) glycoproteins

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) fiber of the extracellular matrix

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.1

: Application/Analysis 32) Which of the following would likely move through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly? A) CO2 B) an amino acid C) glucose D) K+ E) starch

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.2

: Application/Analysis 47) Which line represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose?

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) The sodium-potassium pump in animal cells requires cytoplasmic ATP to pump ions across the plasma membrane. When the proteins of the pump are first synthesized in the rough ER, what side of the ER membrane will the ATP binding site be on? A) It will be on the cytoplasmic side of the ER. B) It will be on the side facing the interior of the ER. C) It could be facing in either direction because the orientation of proteins is scrambled in the Golgi apparatus. D) It doesnʹt matter, because the pump is not active in the ER.

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 143 56) In most cells, there are electrochemical gradients of many ions across the plasma membrane even though there are usually only one or two electrogenic pumps present in the membrane. The gradients of the other ions are most likely accounted for by A) cotransport proteins. B) ion channels. C) carrier proteins. D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.4

: Application/Analysis 146 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 68) The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that A) pinocytosis brings only water into the cell, but receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well. B) pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma membrane surface area. C) pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis offers more selectivity. D) pinocytosis requires cellular energy, but receptor-mediated endocytosis does not. E) pinocytosis can concentrate substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptor-mediated endocytosis cannot.

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) Familial hypercholesterolemia is characterized by which of the following? A) defective LDL receptors on the cell membranes B) poor attachment of the cholesterol to the extracellular matrix of cells C) a poorly formed lipid bilayer that cannot incorporate cholesterol into cell membranes D) inhibition of the cholesterol active transport system in red blood cells E) a general lack of glycolipids in the blood cell membranes

wer: A Topic: Concept 7.5

: Application/Analysis 10) The organization of organisms has become increasingly complex with time. This statement A) is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics. B) requires that due to evolution, the entropy of the universe increased. C) is based on the fact that organisms function as closed systems. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which of the following is considered an open system? A) an organism B) liquid in a corked bottle C) a sealed terrarium D) food cooking in a pressure cooker

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics? A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. B) The entropy of the universe is decreasing. C) The entropy of the universe is constant. D) Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter. E) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 151 9) Which of the following types of reactions would decrease the entropy within a cell? A) dehydration reactions B) hydrolysis C) respiration D) digestion E) catabolism

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.1

: Application/Analysis 20) A chemical reaction that has a positive △G is correctly described as A) endergonic. B) endothermic. C) enthalpic. D) spontaneous. E) exothermic.

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.2

: Application/Analysis 47) What is the purpose of using malonic acid in this experiment? A) It is a competitive inhibitor. B) It blocks the binding of fumarate. C) It is a noncompetitive inhibitor. D) It is able to bind to succinate. E) It replaces the usual enzyme.

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which of the following statements is (are) true about enzyme-catalyzed reactions? A) The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme. B) The free energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction in the absence of the enzyme. C) The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical equilibrium. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 163 51) Which of the following bests describes the reaction? A) negative △G, spontaneous B) positive △G, nonspontaneous C) positive △G, exergonic D) negative △G, endergonic E) △G of zero, chemical equilibrium

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.4

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 165 58) Competitive inhibitors block the entry of substrate into the active site of an enzyme. On which of the following properties of an active site does this primarily depend? A) the ability of an enzyme to form a template for holding and joining molecules B) the enzymeʹs ability to stretch reactants and move them toward a transition state C) the enzyme providing an appropriate microenvironment conducive to a reactionʹs occurrence D) the enzyme forming covalent bonds with the reactants E) the enzyme becoming too saturated because of the concentration of substrate

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 70) Among enzymes, kinases catalyze phosphorylation, while phosphatases catalyze removal of phosphate(s). A cellʹs use of these enzymes can therefore function as an on-off switch for various processes. Which of the following is probably involved? A) the change in a proteinʹs charge leading to a conformational change B) the change in a proteinʹs charge leading to cleavage C) a change in the optimal pH at which a reaction will occur D) a change in the optimal temperature at which a reaction will occur E) the excision of one or more peptides

wer: A Topic: Concept 8.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by A) substrate-level phosphorylation. B) electron transport. C) photophosphorylation. D) chemiosmosis. E) oxidation of NADH to NAD+.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Which of the following statements describes the results of this reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy A) C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced. B) O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced. C) CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized. D) C6H12O6 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized. E) O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 173 8) Which of the following statements describes NAD+? A) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. B) NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH. C) NAD+ is reduced by the action of hydrogenases. D) NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation. E) In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.1

: Application/Analysis 176 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 19) Which step consists of a phosphorylation reaction in which ATP is the phosphate source?

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.2

: Application/Analysis 18) Which step involves an endergonic reaction?

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 180 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 34) How many carbon atoms are fed into the citric acid cycle as a result of the oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) A young animal has never had much energy. He is brought to a veterinarian for help and is sent to the animal hospital for some tests. There they discover his mitochondria can use only fatty acids and amino acids for respiration, and his cells produce more lactate than normal. Of the following, which is the best explanation of his condition? A) His mitochondria lack the transport protein that moves pyruvate across the outer mitochondrial membrane. B) His cells cannot move NADH from glycolysis into the mitochondria. C) His cells contain something that inhibits oxygen use in his mitochondria. D) His cells lack the enzyme in glycolysis that forms pyruvate. E) His cells have a defective electron transport chain, so glucose goes to lactate instead of to acetyl CoA.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Refer to Figure 9.2, showing the citric acid cycle, as a guide to answer the following questions. Figure 9.2 35) Starting with one molecule of isocitrate and ending with fumarate, what is the maximum number of ATP molecules that could be made through substrate-level phosphorylation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 11 D) 12 E) 24

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 31) How does pyruvate enter the mitochondrion? A) active transport B) diffusion C) facilitated diffusion D) through a channel E) through a pore

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.3

: Application/Analysis Use the following to answer the following questions. Exposing inner mitochondrial membranes to ultrasonic vibrations will disrupt the membranes. However, the fragments will reseal ʺinside out.ʺ These little vesicles that result can still transfer electrons from NADH to oxygen and synthesize ATP. If the membranes are agitated still further however, the ability to synthesize ATP is lost. 65) After the first disruption, when electron transfer and ATP synthesize still occur, what must be present? A) all of the electron transport proteins as well as ATP synthase B) all of the electron transport system and the ability to add CoA to acetyl groups C) the ATP synthase system is sufficient D) the electron transport system is sufficient E) plasma membranes like those bacteria use for respiration

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.4

: Application/Analysis Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 193 82) Glycolysis is thought to be one of the most ancient of metabolic processes. Which statement supports this idea? A) Glycolysis is the most widespread metabolic pathway. B) Glycolysis neither uses nor needs O2. C) Glycolysis is found in all eukaryotic cells. D) The enzymes of glycolysis are found in the cytosol rather than in a membrane-enclosed organelle. E) Ancient prokaryotic cells, the most primitive of cells, made extensive use of glycolysis long before oxygen was present in Earthʹs atmosphere.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 192 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 78) In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of A) ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol). B) ATP, CO2, and lactate. C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate. D) ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen. E) ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 79) In alcohol fermentation, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH during which of the following? A) reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (ethyl alcohol) B) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA C) reduction of pyruvate to form lactate D) oxidation of NAD+ in the citric acid cycle E) phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 87) You have a friend who lost 7 kg (about 15 pounds) of fat on a ʺlow carbʺ diet. How did the fat leave her body? A) It was released as CO2 and H2O. B) Chemical energy was converted to heat and then released. C) It was converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat. D) It was broken down to amino acids and eliminated from the body. E) It was converted to urine and eliminated from the body.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension 89) Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, an early step of glycolysis. In the presence of oxygen, an increase in the amount ATP in a cell would be expected to A) inhibit the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. B) activate the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. C) inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. D) activate the enzyme and increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. E) inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rate of glycolysis and the concentration of citrate.

wer: A Topic: Concept 9.6

: Application/Analysis 240 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 17) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80

wer: A Topic: Concepts 12.1, 12.2

: Application/Analysis 52) Which of the following sets of materials are required by both eukaryotes and prokaryotes for replication? A) double-stranded DNA, 4 kinds of dNTPs, primers, origins B) topoisomerases, telomerase, polymerases C) G-C rich regions, polymerases, chromosome nicks D) nucleosome loosening, 4 dNTPs, 4 rNTPs E) ligase, primers, nucleases

wer: A Topic: Concepts 16.2 and 16.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Large organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement? A) a steroid B) cellulose C) DNA D) an enzyme E) a contractile protein

wer: A Topic: Concepts 5.1-5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 74) Which of the following normally occurs whether or not oxygen (O2) is present? A) glycolysis B) fermentation C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) citric acid cycle E) oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)

wer: A Topic: Concepts 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 75) Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell? A) glycolysis and fermentation B) fermentation and chemiosmosis C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) citric acid cycle E) oxidative phosphorylation

wer: A Topic: Concepts 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the following? A) reducing NADP+ B) splitting the water molecules C) chemiosmosis D) the electron transfer system of photosystem I E) the electron transfer system of photosystem II

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) The reaction-center chlorophyll of photosystem I is known as P700 because A) there are 700 chlorophyll molecules in the center. B) this pigment is best at absorbing light with a wavelength of 700 nm. C) there are 700 photosystem I components to each chloroplast. D) it absorbs 700 photons per microsecond. E) the plastoquinone reflects light with a wavelength of 700 nm.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I? A) harvesting of light energy by ATP B) receiving electrons from plastocyanin C) P680 reaction-center chlorophyll D) extraction of hydrogen electrons from the splitting of water E) passing electrons to plastoquinone

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 204 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 20) Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be A) to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts. B) to test for liberation of O2 in the light. C) to test for CO2 fixation in the dark. D) to do experiments to generate an action spectrum. E) to test for production of either sucrose or starch.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 206 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 28) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration? A) Respiration is the reversal of the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis. B) Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, while respiration releases it. C) Photosynthesis occurs only in plants and respiration occurs only in animals. D) ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis and used up in respiration. E) Respiration is anabolic and photosynthesis is catabolic.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Reduction of oxygen which forms water occurs during A) photosynthesis. B) respiration. C) both photosynthesis and respiration. D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration. E) photorespiration.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon? A) They have a direct, linear relationship. B) They are inversely related. C) They are logarithmically related. D) They are separate phenomena. E) They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are being absorbed by this pigment? A) red and yellow B) blue and violet C) green and yellow D) blue, green, and red E) green, blue, and yellow

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 11) If you ran the same experiment without passing light through a prism, what would you predict? A) There would be no difference in results. B) The bacteria would be relatively evenly distributed along the algal filaments. C) The number of bacteria present would decrease due to an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration. D) The number of bacteria present would increase due to an increase in the carbon dioxide concentration. E) The number of bacteria would decrease due to a decrease in the temperature of the water.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 38) Some photosynthetic bacteria (e.g., purple sulfur bacteria) have photosystem I but not II, while others (e.g. cyanobacteria) have both PSI and PSII. Which of the following might this observation imply? A) Photosystem II must have been selected against in some species. B) Photosystem I must be more ancestral. C) Photosystem II may have evolved to be more photoprotective. D) Cyclic flow must be more primitive than linear flow of electrons. E) Cyclic flow must be the most necessary of the two processes.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 203 15) In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules? A) split water and release oxygen to the reaction-center chlorophyll B) harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyll C) synthesize ATP from ADP and Pi D) transfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPH E) concentrate photons within the stroma

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 209 40) Carotenoids are often found in foods that are considered to have antioxidant properties in human nutrition. What related function do they have in plants? A) They serve as accessory pigments. B) They dissipate excessive light energy. C) They cover the sensitive chromosomes of the plant. D) They reflect orange light. E) They take up toxins from the water.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.2

: Application/Analysis 55) If the carbon atom of the incoming CO2 molecule is labeled with a radioactive isotope of carbon, where will the radioactivity be measurable after one cycle? A) in C only B) in E only C) in C, D, and E D) in A, B, and C E) in B and C

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Requires ATP A) light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Requires CO2 A) light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 211 49) Produces three-carbon sugars A) light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.3

: Application/Analysis 61) In which cell would you expect photorespiration? A) Cell I B) Cell II C) Cell I at night D) Cell II at night E) neither Cell I nor Cell II

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.4

: Application/Analysis 63) Why are C4 plants able to photosynthesize with no apparent photorespiration? A) They do not participate in the Calvin cycle. B) They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix CO2. C) They are adapted to cold, wet climates. D) They conserve water more efficiently. E) They exclude oxygen from their tissues.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) Photorespiration lowers the efficiency of photosynthesis by preventing the formation of A) carbon dioxide molecules. B) 3-phosphoglycerate molecules C) ATP molecules. D) ribulose bisphosphate molecules. E) RuBP carboxylase molecules.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 215 60) Referring to Figure 10.3, oxygen would inhibit the CO2 fixation reactions in A) cell I only. B) cell II only. C) neither cell I nor cell II. D) both cell I and cell II. E) cell I during the night and cell II during the day.

wer: B Topic: Concept 10.4

: Application/Analysis 236 5) For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote -like cell division rather than binary fission? A) Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms. B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes. C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission. D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication. E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) What is a chromatid? A) a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle B) a replicate chromosome C) a chromosome found outside the nucleus D) a special region that holds two centromeres together E) another name for the chromosomes found in genetics

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.1

: Application/Analysis 26) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells? A) kinetochores B) Golgi-derived vesicles C) actin and myosin D) centrioles and basal bodies E) cyclin-dependent kinases

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis 33) The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divide by which process? A) meiosis B) mitosis C) replication D) cytokinesis alone E) binary fission

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis 59) Which number represents DNA synthesis? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 241 20) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells? A) centromere B) centrosome C) centriole D) chromatid E) kinetochore

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 251 60) Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Which term describes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 237 Use the following information to answer the questions below. The lettered circle in Figure 12.1 shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated. Choose the correct chromosomal conditions for the following stages. Figure 12.1 7) at prometaphase of mitosis

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 39) Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis? A) The chromosomes are ʺreeled inʺ by the contraction of spindle microtubules. B) Motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules. C) Non-kinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 245 36) Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis? A) to increase their potential energy B) to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking C) to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope D) to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached E) to provide for the structure of the centromere

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation Use the following to answer the questions below. Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times. 41) Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method? A) How many cells are produced by the culture per hour? B) What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle? C) When is the S chromosome synthesized? D) How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle? E) When do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis 66) Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following? A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce control factors. B) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells and they stop dividing. C) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor. D) As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the S phase of the cell cycle. E) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing down metabolism.

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.3

: Application/Analysis 70) The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors, including healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long-term bacterial infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation after pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the women teenagers and significantly lower in each of the elderly persons. They repeated the study with a larger number of samples but got the same results. What might be among their conclusions? A) The young women showed these results because they have poorer nutrition. B) The elderly personsʹ samples demonstrated their lowered immune responses. C) The young men had higher response because they are generally healthier. D) The patient samples should have had the lowest response but did not, so the experiment is invalid. E) The elderly donor samples represent cells no longer capable of any cell division.

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Which of the following triggers the cellʹs passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) The ʺrestriction pointʺ occurs here: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 43) If mammalian cells receive a go-ahead signal at the G1 checkpoint, they will A) move directly into telophase. B) complete the cycle and divide. C) exit the cycle and switch to a nondividing state. D) show a drop in MPF concentration. E) complete cytokinesis and form new cell walls.

wer: B Topic: Concept 12.3

: Application/Analysis 19) Which of the life cycles is typical for most fungi and some protists? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) I and III

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis 20) In part III of Figure 13.1, the progression of events corresponds to which of the following series? A) Zygote, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis B) Sporophyte, meiosis, spore, mitosis, gametophyte, mitosis, gametes, fertilization C) Fertilization, mitosis, multicellular haploid, mitosis, spores, sporophyte D) Gametophyte, meiosis, zygote, spores, sporophyte, zygote E) Meiosis, fertilization, zygote, mitosis, adult, meiosis

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis 260 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 16) Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations? A) A grandparent and grandchild each has dark hair, but the parent has blond hair. B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte). C) A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization to produce a diploid zygote. D) A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis. E) A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Referring to a plant sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes? A) Sporophyte meiosis B) Gametophyte mitosis C) Gametophyte meiosis D) Sporophyte mitosis E) Alternation of generations

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype? A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase E) Interphase

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 24) A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42 chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following? A) 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs B) 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3 C) 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids D) 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis 34) A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically different. A) The statement is true for mitosis only. B) The statement is true for meiosis I only. C) The statement is true for meiosis II only. D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis 41) Which sample might represent an animal cell in G2 phase of the cell cycle? A) I B) II C) III D) Both I and II E) Both II and III

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis 45) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? A) Chromosome replication B) Synapsis of chromosomes C) Production of daughter cells D) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator E) Condensation of chromatin

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs. A) The statement is true for mitosis only. B) The statement is true for meiosis I only. C) The statement is true for meiosis II only. D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs. A) The statement is true for mitosis only. B) The statement is true for meiosis I only. C) The statement is true for meiosis II only. D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Which of the steps take place in both mitosis and meiosis? A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 2 and 3 only E) 2, 3, and 5

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension For the following questions, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below. I. Prophase IV. Prophase II II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II 29) Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines independent assortment. A) I B) II C) IV D) VII E) VIII

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 49) A tetrad includes which of the following sets of DNA strands? A) Two single-stranded chromosomes that have synapsed B) Two sets of sister chromatids that have synapsed C) Four sets of sister chromatids D) Four sets of unique chromosomes E) Eight sets of sister chromatids

wer: B Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 321 4) The following scientists made significant contributions to our understanding of the structure and function of DNA. Place the scientistsʹ names in the correct chronological order, starting with the first scientist(s) to make a contribution. I. Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod II. Griffith III. Hershey and Chase IV. Meselson and Stahl V. Watson and Crick A) V, IV, II, I, III B) II, I, III, V, IV C) I, II, III, V, IV D) I, II, V, IV, III E) II, III, IV, V, I

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) When T2 phages infect bacteria and make more viruses in the presence of radioactive sulfur, what is the result? A) The viral DNA will be radioactive. B) The viral proteins will be radioactive. C) The bacterial DNA will be radioactive. D) both A and B E) both A and C

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe? A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections. B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form. C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic. D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains. E) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Phage with labeled proteins or DNA was allowed to infect bacteria. It was shown that the DNA, but not the protein, entered the bacterial cells, and was therefore concluded to be the genetic material. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 6) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not. C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. E) RNA includes ribose, while DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.1

: Application/Analysis 24) A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life-form that has DNA. You grow the cells in 15N medium for several generations and then transfer them to 14N medium. Which pattern in Figure 16.1 would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner?

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of these reasons? A) The prokaryotic chromosome has histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not. B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many. C) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes. D) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not. E) Prokaryotes have telomeres, and eukaryotes do not.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) What is meant by the description ʺantiparallelʺ regarding the strands that make up DNA? A) The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands. B) The 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction of the other strand. C) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands. D) One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged. E) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) Which of the following best describes the addition of nucleotides to a growing DNA chain? A) A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. B) A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 3ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. C) A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. D) A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 3ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. E) A nucleoside monophosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 327 27) In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation? A) No proofreading will occur. B) No replication fork will be formed. C) The DNA will supercoil. D) Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone. E) Replication will require a DNA template from another source.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 35) Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise? A) replication followed by mitosis B) replication without separation C) meiosis followed by mitosis D) fertilization by multiple sperm E) special association with histone proteins

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.2

: Application/Analysis 53) A typical bacterial chromosome has ~4.6 million nucleotides. This supports approximately how many genes? A) 4.6 million B) 4.4 thousand C) 45 thousand D) about 400

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 334 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 54) Studies of nucleosomes have shown that histones (except H1) exist in each nucleosome as two kinds of tetramers: one of 2 H2A molecules and 2 H2B molecules, and the other as 2 H3 and 2 H4 molecules. Which of the following is supported by this data? A) DNA can wind itself around either of the two kinds of tetramers. B) The two types of tetramers associate to form an octamer. C) DNA has to associate with individual histones before they form tetramers. D) Only H2A can form associations with DNA molecules. E) The structure of H3 and H4 molecules is not basic like that of the other histones.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect? A) There would be an increase in the amount of ʺsatelliteʺ DNA produced during centrifugation. B) The cellʹs DNA couldnʹt be packed into its nucleus. C) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase. D) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones. E) Pseudogenes would be transcribed to compensate for the decreased protein in the cell.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 55) When DNA is compacted by histones into 10 nm and 30 nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity? A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1 B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 61) Which of the following statements describes histones? A) Each nucleosome consists of two molecules of histone H1. B) Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead it is involved in the formation of higher-level chromatin structures. C) The carboxyl end of each histone extends outward from the nucleosome and is called a ʺhistone tail.ʺ D) Histones are found in mammals, but not in other animals or in plants. E) The mass of histone in chromatin is approximately nine times the mass of DNA.

wer: B Topic: Concept 16.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called? A) a covalent bond B) a hydrogen bond C) an ionic bond D) a hydrophilic bond E) a hydrophobic bond

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) An example of a hydrogen bond is the bond between A) C and H in methane (CH4). B) the H of one water molecule and the O of another water molecule. C) Na+and Cl- in salt. D) the two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of hydrogen gas (H2). E) Mg+and Cl- in MgCl2.

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.1

: Application/Analysis 22) The molecular mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose? A) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of solution is 1 L. B) Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L. C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L. D) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in 1 L of water. E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water.

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 24) How many grams of the molecule in Figure 3.2 would be required to make 1 L of a 0.5 M solution of the molecule? (Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1) A) 29 B) 30 C) 60 D) 150 E) 342

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 7) Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink? A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase. B) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases. C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink. D) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases. E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 43 13) At what temperature is water at its densest? A) 0°C B) 4°C C) 32°C D) 100°C E) 212°C

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water? A) Lakes donʹt freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures. B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond. C) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions. D) Water can act as a solvent. E) The pH of water remains exactly neutral.

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 27) Identical heat lamps are arranged to shine on identical containers of water and methanol (wood alcohol), so that each liquid absorbs the same amount of energy minute by minute. The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are non-polar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. Which of the following graphs correctly describes what will happen to the temperature of the water and the methanol? A) B) 48 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment C) D) E)

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 31) Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong acid? A) NaOH B) HCl C) NH3 D) H2CO3 E) CH3COOH

wer: B Topic: Concept 3.3

1) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The number of alpha glucose 1-4 linkages in cellulose (B) The number of alpha glucose 1-4 linkages in starch A) Item (A) is greater than item (B). B) Item (A) is less than item (B). C) Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B). D) Item (A) may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions? A) C18H36O18 B) C18H30O15 C) C6H10O5 D) C18H10O15 E) C3H6O3

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true except A) They are more common in animals than in plants. B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids. C) They generally solidify at room temperature. D) They contain more hydrogen than saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms. E) They are one of several factors that contribute to atherosclerosis.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a A) carbohydrate. B) fatty acid. C) protein. D) nucleic acid. E) hydrocarbon.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The number of cis double bonds in saturated fatty acids (B) The number of cis double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids A) Item (A) is greater than item (B). B) Item (A) is less than item (B). C) Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B). D) Item (A) may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids? A) They are essential components of cell membranes. B) They are steroids, which are not soluble in water. C) They are made of fatty acids. D) They are hydrophilic compounds. E) They contribute to atherosclerosis.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 82) Which of the following is a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules? A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 87 25) What is a triacylglycerol? A) a protein with tertiary structure B) a lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol C) a lipid that makes up much of the plasma membrane D) a molecule formed from three alcohols by dehydration reactions E) a carbohydrate with three sugars joined together by glycosidic linkages

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein? A) peptide bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) disulfide bonds D) ionic bonds E) phosphodiester bonds

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is —CH2OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid alanine is —CH3. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution? A) Serine would be in the interior, and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. B) Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. C) Both serine and alanine would be in the interior of the globular protein. D) Both serine and alanine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. E) Both serine and alanine would be in the interior and on the exterior of the globular protein.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Which of the following uses the amino acid sequences of polypeptides to predict a proteinʹs three-dimensional structure? A) X-ray crystallography B) bioinformatics C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments D) NMR spectroscopy E) high-speed centrifugation

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other proteins? A) tertiary protein B) chaperonin C) enzyme protein D) renaturing protein E) denaturing protein

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 93 50) The α helix and the β pleated sheet are both common polypeptide forms found in which level of protein structure? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) all of the above

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Figure 5.5 37) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 5.5? A) It is a hydrolysis reaction. B) It results in a peptide bond. C) It joins two fatty acids together. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.4

: Application/Analysis 73) A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This DNA molecule could be composed of A) 120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules. B) 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules. C) 120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules. D) 240 adenine and 240 cytosine molecules. E) 240 guanine and 240 thymine molecules.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 100 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 79) A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism A) is more closely related to humans than to frogs. B) is more closely related to frogs than to humans. C) may have evolved from gibbons but not rats. D) is more closely related to humans than to rats. E) may have evolved from rats but not from humans and gibbons.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) Which of the following statements about the 5ʹ end of a polynucleotide strand of DNA is correct? A) The 5ʹ end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. B) The 5ʹ end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. C) The 5ʹ end has thymine attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. D) The 5ʹ end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. E) The 5ʹ end is the fifth position on one of the nitrogenous bases.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) Of the following functions, the major purpose of RNA is to A) transmit genetic information to offspring. B) function in the synthesis of protein. C) make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity. D) act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA. E) form the genes of higher organisms.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 71) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the purine type? A) cytosine and guanine B) guanine and adenine C) adenine and thymine D) thymine and uracil E) uracil and cytosine

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 77) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5ʹATTGCA3ʹ, the other complementary strand would have the sequence A) 5ʹTAACGT3ʹ. B) 3ʹTAACGT5ʹ. C) 5ʹUAACGU3ʹ. D) 3ʹUAACGU5ʹ. E) 5ʹUGCAAU3ʹ.

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 78) What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate? A) sugar-phosphate backbone B) complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases C) disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes D) twisting of the molecule to form an α helix E) three-component structure of the nucleotides

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 98 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 70) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type? A) guanine and adenine B) cytosine and uracil C) thymine and guanine D) ribose and deoxyribose E) adenine and thymine

wer: B Topic: Concept 5.5

: Application/Analysis 10) Why is it important to know what microscopy method was used to prepare the images you wish to study? A) so that you can judge whether the images you are seeing are of cells or of organelles B) so that you can make a judgment about the likelihood of artifacts having been introduced in the preparation C) so that you can decide whether the image is actually of the size described D) so that you can know whether to view the image in color or not E) so that you can interpret the correct biochemical process that is occurring

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 110 4) In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is A) the relative solubility of the component. B) the size and weight of the component. C) the percentage of carbohydrates in the component. D) the number of enzymes in the fraction. E) the presence or absence of lipids in the component.

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.1

: Application/Analysis 27) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells? A) rough ER B) smooth ER C) Golgi apparatus D) Nuclear envelope E) Transport vesicles

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Which of the following is a compartment that often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 115 24) In animal cells, hydrolytic enzymes are packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles functions in this compartmentalization? A) chloroplast B) lysosome C) central vacuole D) peroxisome E) glyoxysome

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Grana, thylakoids, and stroma are all components found in A) vacuoles. B) chloroplasts. C) mitochondria. D) lysosomes. E) nuclei.

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 119 41) Why isnʹt the mitochondrion classified as part of the endomembrane system? A) It only has two membrane layers. B) Its structure is not derived from the ER. C) It has too many vesicles. D) It is not involved in protein synthesis. E) It is not attached to the outer nuclear envelope.

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 200 4) Where does the Calvin cycle take place? A) stroma of the chloroplast B) thylakoid membrane C) cytoplasm surrounding the chloroplast D) chlorophyll molecule E) outer membrane of the chloroplast

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.1

: Application/Analysis 14) Compared with the lines for chlorophyll a in the figure, where would you expect to find the lines to differ for chlorophyll b? A) The absorption spectrum line would be lowest for chlorophyll b somewhat to the right of that for chlorophyll a (500—600). B) The rate of photosynthesis line for chlorophyll b would be lowest from 600—700 nm. C) The lines for the two types of chlorophyll would be almost completely opposite. D) The lines for the two types of chlorophyll would be almost completely identical. E) The peaks of the line for absorbance of b would be shifted to the left, and for rate of photosynthesis would be shifted to the right.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 205 24) What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve? A) establishment of a proton gradient B) diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane C) reduction of water to produce ATP energy D) movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma E) formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) What wavelength of light in the figure is most effective in driving photosynthesis? A) 420 mm B) 475 mm C) 575 mm D) 625 mm E) 730 mm

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Suppose the interior of the thylakoids of isolated chloroplasts were made acidic and then transferred in the dark to a pH-8 solution. What would be likely to happen? A) The isolated chloroplasts will make ATP. B) The Calvin cycle will be activated. C) Cyclic photophosphorylation will occur. D) Only A and B will occur. E) A, B, and C will occur.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) Where are the molecules of the electron transport chain found in plant cells? A) thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts B) stroma of chloroplasts C) inner membrane of mitochondria D) matrix of mitochondria E) cytoplasm

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Reduction of NADP+ occurs during A) photosynthesis. B) respiration. C) both photosynthesis and respiration. D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration. E) photorespiration.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) Produces NADPH A) light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension For the following questions, compare the light reactions with the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis in plants. 45) Produces molecular oxygen (O2) A) light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 39) Cyclic electron flow may be photoprotective (protective to light-induced damage). Which of the following experiments could provide information on this phenomenon? A) using mutated organisms that can grow but that cannot carry out cyclic flow of electrons and compare their abilities to photosynthesize in different light intensities B) using plants that can carry out both linear and cyclic electron flow, or only one or another of thee processes, and measuring their light absorbance C) using bacteria that have only cyclic flow and look for their frequency of mutation damage D) using bacteria with only cyclic flow and measuring the number and types of photosynthetic pigments they have in their membranes E) using plants with only photosystem I operative and measure how much damage occurs at different wavelengths.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle? A) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the cycle returns ADP, Pi, and NADP+ to the light reactions. B) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions. C) The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars, and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP. D) The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow, and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split. E) There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take place? A) stroma of the chloroplast B) thylakoid membranes C) outer membrane of the chloroplast D) electron transport chain E) thylakoid space

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 214 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 58) The pH of the inner thylakoid space has been measured, as have the pH of the stroma and of the cytosol of a particular plant cell. Which, if any, relationship would you expect to find? A) The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma. B) The pH of the stroma is higher than that of the other two measurements. C) The pH of the stroma is higher than that of the thylakoid space but lower than that of the cytosol. D) The pH of the thylakoid space is higher than that anywhere else in the cell. E) There is no consistent relationship.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.3

: Application/Analysis 62) In an experiment studying photosynthesis performed during the day, you provide a plant with radioactive carbon (14C) dioxide as a metabolic tracer. The 14C is incorporated first into oxaloacetate. The plant is best characterized as a A) C4 plant. B) C3 plant. C) CAM plant. D) heterotroph. E) chemoautotroph.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.4

: Application/Analysis Figure 10.3 59) Which of the following statements is true concerning Figure 10.3? A) It represents cell processes involved in C4 photosynthesis. B) It represents the type of cell structures found in CAM plants. C) It represents an adaptation that maximizes photorespiration. D) It represents a C3 photosynthetic system. E) It represents a relationship between plant cells that photosynthesize and those that cannot.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 216 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 64) CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they A) fix CO2 into organic acids during the night. B) fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells. C) fix CO2 into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells. D) use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO2. E) use photosystems I and II at night.

wer: A Topic: Concept 10.4

1) The centromere is a region in which A) chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase. B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate. C) chromosomes are grouped during telophase. D) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis. E) new spindle microtubules form at either end.

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.1

: Application/Analysis 4) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there? A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.1

: Application/Analysis 58) G1 is represented by which number(s)? A) I and V B) II and IV C) III D) IV E) V

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis Use the data in Table 12.1 to answer the following questions. The data were obtained from a study of the length of time spent in each phase of the cell cycle by cells of three eukaryotic organisms designated beta, delta, and gamma. Cell Type G1 S G2 M Beta 18 24 12 16 Delta 100 0 0 0 Gamma 18 48 14 20 Table 12.1: Minutes Spent in Cell Cycle Phases 18) Of the following, the best conclusion concerning the difference between the S phases for beta and gamma is that A) gamma contains more DNA than beta. B) beta and gamma contain the same amount of DNA. C) beta contains more RNA than gamma. D) gamma contains 48 times more DNA and RNA than beta. E) beta is a plant cell and gamma is an animal cell.

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, taxol must affect A) the fibers of the mitotic spindle. B) anaphase. C) formation of the centrioles. D) chromatid assembly. E) the S phase of the cell cycle.

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes: A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) The MPF protein complex turns itself off by A) activating a process that destroys cyclin component. B) activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin. C) binding to chromatin. D) exiting the cell. E) activating the anaphase-promoting complex.

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 247 44) Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase? A) G0 B) G2 C) G1 D) S E) M

wer: A Topic: Concept 12.3

1) What is a genome? A) The complete complement of an organismʹs genes B) A specific set of polypeptides within each cell C) A specialized polymer of four different kinds of monomers D) A specific segment of DNA that is found within a prokaryotic chromosome E) An ordered display of chromosomes arranged from largest to smallest

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The human genome is minimally contained in which of the following? A) Every human cell B) Each human chromosome C) The entire DNA of a single human D) The entire human population E) Each human gene

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.1

: Application/Analysis 21) In a life cycle such as that shown in part III of Figure 13.1, if the zygoteʹs chromosome number is 10, which of the following will be true? A) The sporophyteʹs chromosome number per cell is 10 and the gametophyteʹs is 5. B) The sporophyteʹs chromosome number per cell is 5 and the gametophyteʹs is 10. C) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 10 chromosomes per cell. D) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 5 chromosomes per cell. E) The sporophyte and gametophyte each have 20 chromosomes per cell.

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis Refer to the life cycles illustrated in Figure 13.1 to answer the following questions. Figure 13.1 17) Which of the life cycles is typical for animals? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) I and III

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis 28) When does the synaptonemal complex disappear? A) Late prophase of meiosis I B) During fertilization or fusion of gametes C) Early anaphase of meiosis I D) Mid-prophase of meiosis II E) Late metaphase of meiosis II

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis 40) Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II E) Either II or III

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 264 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 30) Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs; crossing over may occur. A) I B) II C) IV D) VI E) VII

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? A) Homologous chromosomes are separated. B) The chromosome number per cell is conserved. C) Sister chromatids are separated. D) Four daughter cells are formed. E) The sperm cells elongate to form a head and a tail end.

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 269 46) If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following? A) At most, 2 alleles for that gene B) Up to 18 chromosomes with that gene C) Up to 18 genes for that trait D) A haploid number of 9 chromosomes E) Up to, but not more than, 18 different traits

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis 56) Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of A) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I. B) the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm. C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II. D) the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes. E) All of the above

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) How does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species? A) By allowing independent assortment of chromosomes B) By allowing fertilization C) By increasing gene stability D) By conserving chromosomal gene order E) By decreasing mutation frequency

wer: A Topic: Concept 13.4

1) For a couple of decades, biologists knew the nucleus contained DNA and proteins. The prevailing opinion was that the genetic material was proteins, and not DNA. The reason for this belief was that proteins are more complex than DNA. What was the basis of this thinking? A) Proteins have a greater variety of three-dimensional forms than does DNA. B) Proteins have two different levels of structural organization; DNA has four. C) Proteins are made of 40 amino acids and DNA is made of four nucleotides. D) Some viruses only transmit proteins. E) A and B are correct.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.1

: Application/Analysis 12) Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? A) 12 B) 24 C) 31 D) 38 E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.1

: Application/Analysis Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 325 19) Mendel and Morgan did not know about the structure of DNA; however, which of the following of their contributions was (were) necessary to Watson and Crick? A) the particulate nature of the hereditary material B) dominance vs. recessiveness C) sex-linkage D) genetic distance and mapping E) the usefulness of peas and Drosophila

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter? A) Purines pair with pyrimidines. B) C nucleotides pair with A nucleotides. C) Deoxyribose sugars bind with ribose sugars. D) Nucleotides bind with nucleosides. E) Nucleotides bind with nucleoside triphosphates.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix? A) hydrogen B) ionic C) covalent D) sulfhydryl E) phosphate

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following? A) sequence of bases B) phosphate-sugar backbones C) complementary pairing of bases D) side groups of nitrogenous bases E) different five-carbon sugars

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 324 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 14) Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA? A) the diameter of the helix B) the rate of replication C) the sequence of nucleotides D) the bond angles of the subunits E) the frequency of A vs. T nucleotides

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 330 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 38) You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments. B) lagging strands and Okazaki fragments. C) Okazaki fragments and RNA primers. D) leading strands and RNA primers. E) RNA primers and mitochondrial DNA.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) Which of the following separates the DNA strands during replication? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that A) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose. B) the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups. C) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two. D) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleoside triphosphates are found in all animal and plant cells. E) triphosphate monomers are active in the nucleoside triphosphates, but not in ATP.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) The leading and the lagging strands differ in that A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction. B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3ʹ end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5ʹ end. C) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together. D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) What is the function of topoisomerase? A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork B) elongation of new DNA at a replication fork by addition of nucleotides to the existing chain C) the addition of methyl groups to bases of DNA D) unwinding of the double helix E) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 33) In an experiment, DNA is allowed to replicate in an environment with all necessary enzymes, dATP, dCTP, dGTP, and radioactively labeled dTTP ( 3H thymidine) for several minutes and then switched to nonradioactive medium. It is then viewed by electron microscopy and autoradiography. The drawing below represents the results. Grains represent radioactive material within the replicating eye. Figure 16.2 Which is the most likely interpretation? A) There are two replication forks going in opposite directions. B) Thymidine is only being added where the DNA strands are furthest apart. C) Thymidine is only added at the very beginning of replication. D) Replication proceeds in one direction only.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 336 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 62) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged. C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. E) Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Which of the following represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? A) nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain B) looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome C) looped domain, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber D) nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber E) 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain

wer: A Topic: Concept 16.3

: Application/Analysis 44 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 16) Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are A) nonpolar substances that repel water molecules. B) nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules. C) polar substances that repel water molecules. D) polar substances that have an affinity for water. E) charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 47 26) A small birthday candle is weighed, then lighted and placed beneath a metal can containing 100 mL of water. Careful records are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Data from this experiment are shown on the graph. What amount of heat energy is released in the burning of candle wax? A) 0.5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned B) 5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned C) 10 kilocalories per gram of wax burned D) 20 kilocalories per gram of wax burned E) 50 kilocalories per gram of wax burned

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 49 29) The molecular weight of water is 18 daltons. What is the molarity of 1 liter of pure water? A) 55.6M B) 18M C) 37M D) 0.66M E) 1.0M

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis The following question is based on Figure 3.1: solute molecule surrounded by a hydration shell of water. Figure 3.1 15) Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule is most likely A) positively charged. B) negatively charged. C) without charge. D) hydrophobic. E) nonpolar.

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 36) What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion [OH-] concentration of 10-12 M? A) pH 2 B) pH 4 C) pH 10 D) pH 12 E) pH 14

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 38) Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions [H +]? A) gastric juice at pH 2 B) vinegar at pH 3 C) tomato juice at pH 4 D) black coffee at pH 5 E) household bleach at pH 12

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 47) One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid H2CO3. Carbonic acid is a weak acid that when placed in an aqueous solution dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+). Thus, H2CO3 ↔ HCO3- + H+ If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of H2O. B) an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of H2O. C) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H2O. D) an increase in the concentration of HCO3- and a decrease in the concentration of H2O. E) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of both H2CO3 and H2O.

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 54 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 48) Assume that acid rain has lowered the pH of a particular lake to pH 4.0. What is the hydroxyl ion concentration of this lake? A) 1 × 10-10 mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of lake water B) 1 × 10-4 mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of lake water C) 10.0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion concentration D) 4.0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion concentration E) both B and D

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 53) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O → H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO2. What prediction can we make about the pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells? A) Blood pH will decrease slightly. B) Blood pH will increase slightly. C) Blood pH will remain unchanged. D) Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO2 combines with hemoglobin. E) Blood pH will first decrease, then increase sharply as CO2 combines with hemoglobin.

wer: A Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 6) Which of the following is not a polymer? A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) chitin E) DNA

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.1

: Application/Analysis 84 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 12) The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the α form. Which of the following could amylase break down? A) glycogen B) cellulose C) chitin D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) On food packages, to what does the term ʺinsoluble fiberʺ refer? A) cellulose B) polypeptides C) starch D) amylopectin E) chitin

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) All of the following are polysaccharides except A) glycogen B) starch C) chitin D) cellulose E) amylopectin

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose? A) They are both polymers of glucose. B) They are geometric isomers of each other. C) They can both be digested by humans. D) They are both used for energy storage in plants. E) They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.

wer: A Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 121 Use the following to answer the following questions. All three are involved in maintenance of cell shape. Property Microtubules (tubulin polymers) Microfilaments (actin filaments) Intermediate filaments Structure Hollow tubes; wall consists of 13 columns of tubulin molecules Two intertwined strands of actin, each a polymer of actin subunits Fibrous proteins supercoiled into thicker cables Diameter 25 nm with 15-nm lumen 7 nm 8-12 nm Main functions Cell motility Cell motility Anchorage 48) Tubulin is a dimer, made up of 2 slightly different polypeptides, alpha and beta. Given the structure above, what is the most likely consequence to the structure of the microtubule? A) One ʺhalf-pipeʺ side of the tubule must be heavier in alpha and the other in beta subunits. B) One end of a microtubule can grow or release dimers at a faster rate than the other. C) Microtubules grow by adding a complete circular layer at a time rather than spiraling. D) Microtubules in cilia must never grow or become shorter. E) Tubulin molecules themselves must be rigid structures.

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is correct? A) cell wall: support, protection B) chloroplasts: chief sites of cellular respiration C) chromosomes: cytoskeleton of the nucleus D) ribosomes: secretion E) lysosomes: formation of ATP

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.7

: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Which of the following makes it necessary for animal cells, although they have no cell walls, to have intercellular junctions? A) Cell membranes do not distinguish the types of ions and molecules passing through them. B) Large molecules, especially proteins, do not readily get through one, much less two adjacent cell membranes. C) Cell-to-cell communication requires physical attachment of one cell to another. D) Maintenance of connective tissue shape requires cells to adhere to one another. E) The relative shapelessness of animal cells requires a mechanism for keeping the cells aligned.

wer: B Topic: Concept 6.7

: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane would likely be impaired in which function? A) transporting ions against an electrochemical gradient B) cell-cell recognition C) maintaining fluidity of the phospholipid bilayer D) attaching to the cytoskeleton E) establishing the diffusion barrier to charged molecules

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) The formulation of a model for a structure or for a process serves which of the following purposes? A) It asks a scientific question. B) It functions as a testable hypothesis. C) It records observations. D) It serves as a data point among results. E) It can only be arrived at after years of experimentation.

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) glycolipid

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily? A) large and hydrophobic B) small and hydrophobic C) large polar D) ionic E) monosaccharides such as glucose

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) Which of the following would you expect to be a problem for someone with nonfunctional chloride channeling? A) inadequate secretion of mucus B) buildup of excessive secretions in organs such as lungs C) buildup of excessive secretions in glands such as the pancreas D) sweat that includes no NaCl E) mental retardation due to low salt levels in brain tissue

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 135 30) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane? A) It is a peripheral membrane protein. B) It exhibits a specificity for a particular type of molecule. C) It requires the expenditure of cellular energy to function. D) It works against diffusion. E) It has few, if any, hydrophobic amino acids.

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.2

: Application/Analysis 50) In which of the following would there be the greatest need for osmoregulation? A) an animal connective tissue cell bathed in isotonic body fluid B) a terrestrial animal such as a snake C) a red blood cell surrounded by plasma D) a lymphocyte before it has been taken back into lymph fluid E) a plant being grown hydroponically (in a watery mixture of designated nutrients)

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 139 Refer to Figure 7.3 to answer the following questions. The solutions in the arms of a U-tube are separated at the bottom of the tube by a selectively permeable membrane. The membrane is permeable to sodium chloride but not to glucose. Side A is filled with a solution of 0.4 M glucose and 0.5 M sodium chloride (NaCl), and side B is filled with a solution containing 0.8 M glucose and 0.4 M sodium chloride. Initially, the volume in both arms is the same. Figure 7.3 43) At the beginning of the experiment, A) side A is hypertonic to side B. B) side A is hypotonic to side B. C) side A is isotonic to side B. D) side A is hypertonic to side B with respect to glucose. E) side A is hypotonic to side B with respect to sodium chloride.

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 141 48) Which line or lines represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at the end of 60 minutes? A) A and B B) B C) C D) D E) D and E

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process? A) exocytosis B) phagocytosis C) pinocytosis D) osmosis E) receptor-mediated exocytosis

wer: B Topic: Concept 7.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics? A) The energy content of an organism is constant. B) The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment. C) The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity. D) Organisms are unable to transform energy. E) Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.1

: Application/Analysis 19) When glucose monomers are joined together by glycosidic linkages to form a cellulose polymer, the changes in free energy, total energy, and entropy are as follows: A) +△G, +△H, +△S B) +△G, +△H, -△S C) +△G, -△H, -△S D) -△G, +△H, +△S E) -△G, -△H, -△S

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions? A) The products have more total energy than the reactants. B) The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy. C) Some reactants will be converted to products. D) A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed. E) The reactions are nonspontaneous.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Which of the following best describes enthalpy (H)? A) the total kinetic energy of a system B) the heat content of a chemical system C) the systemʹs entropy D) the cellʹs energy equilibrium E) the condition of a cell that is not able to react

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 154 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 22) Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism? A) Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions. B) It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions. C) Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that when hydrolyzed releases free energy. D) Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two. E) A, B, C, and D

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 155 26) Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways? A) They combine molecules into more energy-rich molecules. B) They are usually coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in the form of ATP. C) They are endergonic. D) They are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis. E) They build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.3

: Application/Analysis 158 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 38) The active site of an enzyme is the region that A) binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme. B) is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme. C) binds the products of the catalytic reaction. D) is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 162 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism The following questions are based on the reaction A + B → C + D shown in Figure 8.2. Figure 8.2 48) Which of the following terms best describes the reaction? A) endergonic B) exergonic C) anabolic D) allosteric E) nonspontaneous

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 36) Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true? A) Enzymes decrease the free energy change of a reaction. B) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction. C) Enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions. D) Enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyze. E) Enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentrations.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 57) In order to attach a particular amino acid to the tRNA molecule that will transport it, an enzyme, an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, is required, along with ATP. Initially, the enzyme has an active site for ATP and another for the amino acid, but it is not able to attach the tRNA. What must occur in order for the final attachment to occur? A) The ATP must first have to attach to the tRNA. B) The binding of the first two molecules must cause a 3-dimensional change that opens another active site on the enzyme. C) The hydrolysis of the ATP must be needed to allow the amino acid to bind to the synthetase. D) The tRNA molecule must have to alter its shape in order to be able to fit into the active site with the other two molecules. E) The 3ʹ end of the tRNA must have to be cleaved before it can have an attached amino acid.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 61) How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction? A) by binding at the active site of the enzyme B) by changing the shape of a reactant C) by changing the free energy change of the reaction D) by acting as a coenzyme for the reaction E) by decreasing the activation energy of the reaction

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 157 34) Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reactionʹs A) entropy. B) activation energy. C) endothermic level. D) heat content. E) free-energy content.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a △G of -20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the △G for the new reaction? A) -40 kcal/mol B) -20 kcal/mol C) 0 kcal/mol D) +20 kcal/mol E) +40 kcal/mol

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Which of the following represents the activation energy required for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Which of the following is likely to lead to an increase in the concentration of ATP in a cell? A) an increase in a cellʹs anabolic activity B) an increase in a cellʹs catabolic activity C) an increased influx of cofactor molecules D) an increased amino acid concentration E) the cellʹs increased transport of materials to the environment

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 63) Substance A functions as A) a coenzyme. B) an allosteric inhibitor. C) the substrate. D) an intermediate. E) a competitive inhibitor.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.5

: Application/Analysis 64) The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is known as A) metabolic inhibition. B) feedback inhibition. C) allosteric inhibition. D) noncooperative inhibition. E) reversible inhibition.

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.5

: Synthesis/Evaluation 71) Besides turning enzymes on or off, what other means does a cell use to control enzymatic activity? A) cessation of all enzyme formation B) compartmentalization of enzymes into defined organelles C) exporting enzymes out of the cell D) connecting enzymes into large aggregates E) hydrophobic interactions

wer: B Topic: Concept 8.5

1) What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules? A) anabolic pathways B) catabolic pathways C) fermentation pathways D) thermodynamic pathways E) bioenergetic pathways

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? A) glycolysis B) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain C) the citric acid cycle D) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA E) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) An electron loses potential energy when it A) shifts to a less electronegative atom. B) shifts to a more electronegative atom. C) increases its kinetic energy. D) increases its activity as an oxidizing agent. E) attaches itself to NAD+.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 172 4) Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen to produce CO2 and water release free energy? A) The covalent bonds in organic molecules are higher energy bonds than those in water and carbon dioxide. B) Electrons are being moved from atoms that have a lower affinity for electrons (such as C) to atoms with a higher affinity for electrons (such as O). C) The oxidation of organic compounds can be used to make ATP. D) The electrons have a higher potential energy when associated with water and CO2 than they do in organic compounds. E) The covalent bond in O2 is unstable and easily broken by electrons from organic molecules.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 174 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 12) Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent? A) electron transport B) glycolysis C) the citric acid cycle D) oxidative phosphorylation E) chemiosmosis

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in a redox or oxidation-reduction reaction A) gains electrons and gains energy. B) loses electrons and loses energy. C) gains electrons and loses energy. D) loses electrons and gains energy. E) neither gains nor loses electrons, but gains or loses energy.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate A) 2 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced. B) 2 molecules of ATP are used and 4 molecules of ATP are produced. C) 4 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced. D) 2 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced. E) 6 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 175 Refer to Figure 9.1 to answer the following questions. Figure 9.1 illustrates some of the steps (reactions) of glycolysis in their proper sequence. Each step is lettered. Use these letters to answer the questions. Figure 9.1 15) Which step shows a split of one molecule into two smaller molecules?

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 24) Starting with one molecule of glucose, the ʺnetʺ products of glycolysis are A) 2 NAD+, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 H2O. B) 2 NADH, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 H2O. C) 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, 4 ATP, and 2 H2O. D) 6 CO2, 6 H2O, 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate. E) 6 CO2, 6 H2O, 36 ATP, and 2 citrate.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.2

: Application/Analysis 182 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 40) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration? A) glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle C) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation D) oxidative phosphorylation and fermentation E) fermentation and glycolysis

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 183 44) During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill in which sequence? A) food → citric acid cycle → ATP → NAD+ B) food → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen C) glucose → pyruvate → ATP → oxygen D) glucose → ATP → electron transport chain → NADH E) food → glycolysis → citric acid cycle → NADH → ATP

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 43) Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy from which of the following? A) substrate-level phosphorylation B) chemiosmotic phosphorylation C) converting oxygen to ATP D) transferring electrons from organic molecules to pyruvate E) generating carbon dioxide and oxygen in the electron transport chain

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.3

: Application/Analysis 63) What is proton-motive force? A) the force required to remove an electron from hydrogen B) the transmembrane proton concentration gradient C) movement of hydrogen into the intermembrane space D) movement of hydrogen into the mitochondrion E) the addition of hydrogen to NAD+

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.4

: Application/Analysis 69) Which of the following most accurately describes what is happening along this chain? A) Chemiosmosis is coupled with electron transfer. B) Each electron carrier alternates between being reduced and being oxidized. C) ATP is generated at each step. D) Energy of the electrons increases at each step. E) Molecules in the chain give up some of their potential energy.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 184 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 48) The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to A) yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain. B) act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water. C) combine with carbon, forming CO2. D) combine with lactate, forming pyruvate. E) catalyze the reactions of glycolysis.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 186 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 56) It is possible to prepare vesicles from portions of the inner membrane of the mitochondrial components. Which one of the following processes could still be carried on by this isolated inner membrane? A) the citric acid cycle B) oxidative phosphorylation C) glycolysis and fermentation D) reduction of NAD+ E) both the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 191 73) Which of the following describes ubiquinone? A) a protein in the electron transport chain B) a small hydrophobic coenzyme C) a substrate for synthesis of FADH D) a vitamin needed for efficient glycolysis E) an essential amino acid

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 77) The ATP made during fermentation is generated by which of the following? A) the electron transport chain B) substrate-level phosphorylation C) chemiosmosis D) oxidative phosphorylation E) aerobic respiration

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 85) When muscle cells are oxygen deprived, the heart still pumps. What must the heart cells be able to do? A) derive sufficient energy from fermentation B) continue aerobic metabolism when skeletal muscle cannot C) transform lactate to pyruvate again D) remove lactate from the blood E) remove oxygen from lactate

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.5

: Synthesis/Evaluation 83) Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? A) It produces much less ATP than does oxidative phosphorylation. B) It is found in the cytosol, does not involve oxygen, and is present in most organisms. C) It is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells. D) It relies on chemiosmosis which is a metabolic mechanism present only in the first cells-prokaryotic cells. E) It requires the presence of membrane-enclosed cell organelles found only in eukaryotic cells.

wer: B Topic: Concept 9.5

: Synthesis/Evaluation 272 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 57) When pairs of homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I, A) the maternal chromosomes all move to the same daughter cell. B) the sister chromatids remain attached to one another. C) recombination is not yet complete. D) the synaptonemal complex is visible under the light microscope.

wer: B Topic: Concepts 13.3, 13.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 97 65) DNAase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would first happen to DNA molecules treated with DNAase? A) The two strands of the double helix would separate. B) The phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose sugars would be broken. C) The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars. D) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars. E) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.

wer: B Topic: Concepts 5.1, 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Polysaccharides, lipids, and proteins are similar in that they A) are synthesized from monomers by the process of hydrolysis. B) are synthesized from monomers by dehydration reactions. C) are synthesized as a result of peptide bond formation between monomers. D) are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions. E) all contain nitrogen in their monomer building blocks.

wer: B Topic: Concepts 5.1-5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) All of the following contain amino acids except A) hemoglobin. B) cholesterol. C) antibodies. D) enzymes. E) insulin.

wer: B Topic: Concepts 5.3, 5.4

: Synthesis/Evaluation 18) Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a predominance of free ribosomes? A) a cell that is secreting proteins B) a cell that is producing cytoplasmic enzymes C) a cell that is constructing its cell wall or extracellular matrix D) a cell that is digesting food particles E) a cell that is enlarging its vacuole

wer: B Topic: Concepts 6.3, 6.4

: Application/Analysis 57) You have two beakers. One contains a solution of HCl at pH = 1.0. The other contains a solution of NaOH at pH = 13. Into a third beaker, you slowly and cautiously pour 20 mL of the HCL and 20 mL of the NaOH. After complete stirring, the pH of the mixture will be A) 2.0. B) 12.0. C) 7.0. D) 5.0. E) 9.0.

wer: C

: Application/Analysis Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 55 52) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O → H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. If CO2 is bubbled into a beaker containing pure, freshly-distilled water, which of the following graphs correctly describes the results? A) B) C) D) E)

wer: C 56 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 21) What are the products of linear photophosphorylation? A) heat and fluorescence B) ATP and P700 C) ATP and NADPH D) ADP and NADP E) P700 and P680

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 201 Use the following information to answer the questions below. Theodor W. Engelmann illuminated a filament of algae with light that passed through a prism, thus exposing different segments of algae to different wavelengths of light. He added aerobic bacteria and then noted in which areas the bacteria congregated. He noted that the largest groups were found in the areas illuminated by the red and blue light. 9) What did Engelmann conclude about the congregation of bacteria in the red and blue areas? A) Bacteria released excess carbon dioxide in these areas. B) Bacteria congregated in these areas due to an increase in the temperature of the red and blue light. C) Bacteria congregated in these areas because these areas had the most oxygen being released. D) Bacteria are attracted to red and blue light and thus these wavelengths are more reactive than other wavelengths. E) Bacteria congregated in these areas due to an increase in the temperature caused by an increase in photosynthesis.

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by the Calvin cycle in 1 hour. You find 30,000 molecules of ATP consumed, but only 20,000 molecules of NADPH. Where did the extra ATP molecules come from? A) photosystem II B) photosystem I C) cyclic electron flow D) linear electron flow E) chlorophyll

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) In mitochondria, chemiosmosis translocates protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from A) the stroma to the photosystem II. B) the matrix to the stroma. C) the stroma to the thylakoid space. D) the intermembrane space to the matrix. E) ATP synthase to NADP+ reductase.

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during A) photosynthesis. B) respiration. C) both photosynthesis and respiration. D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration. E) photorespiration.

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs during A) photosynthesis. B) respiration. C) both photosynthesis and respiration. D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration. E) photorespiration.

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) In a protein complex for the light reaction (a reaction center), energy is transferred from pigment molecule to pigment molecule, to a special chlorophyll a molecule, and eventually to the primary electron acceptor. Why does this occur? A) The action spectrum of that molecule is such that it is different from other molecules of chlorophyll. B) The potential energy of the electron has to go back to the ground state. C) The molecular environment lets it boost an electron to a higher energy level and also to transfer the electron to another molecule. D) Each pigment molecule has to be able to act independently to excite electrons. E) These chlorophyll a molecules are associated with higher concentrations of ATP.

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) The alternative pathways of photosynthesis using the C4 or CAM systems are said to be compromises. Why? A) Each one minimizes both water loss and rate of photosynthesis. B) C4 compromises on water loss and CAM compromises on photorespiration. C) Each one both minimizes photorespiration and optimizes the Calvin cycle. D) CAM plants allow more water loss, while C4 plants allow less CO2 into the plant. E) C4 plants allow less water loss but Cam plants but allow more water loss.

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) If plant gene alterations cause the plants to be deficient in photorespiration, what would most probably occur? A) Cells would carry on more photosynthesis. B) Cells would carry on the Calvin cycle at a much slower rate. C) Less ATP would be generated. D) There would be more light-induced damage to the cells. E) More sugars would be produced.

wer: C Topic: Concept 10.4

: Application/Analysis 35) In order for anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur? A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores. B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other. C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically. D) Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate. E) Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants A) the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do not contain microfibrils. B) sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals. C) a cell plate begins to form at telophase, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage. D) chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase. E) spindle poles contain centrioles, whereas spindle poles in animals do not.

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis? A) prometaphase B) telophase C) prophase D) metaphase E) anaphase

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which term describes two centrosomes arranged at opposite poles of the cell? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 249 53) DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 42) The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results. B) their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned. C) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly. D) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly. E) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis 61) MPF reaches its threshold concentration at the end of this stage. A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.3

: Application/Analysis 62) An enzyme that attaches a phosphate group to another molecule is called a A) phosphatase. B) phosphorylase. C) kinase. D) cyclase. E) ATPase.

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Which is a general term for enzymes that activate or inactivate other proteins by phosphorylating them? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 253 69) A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with a cyclin-dependent kinase called Cdk 2. This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct? A) The amount of cyclin E is greatest during the S phase. B) The amount of Cdk 2 is greater during G1 compared to the S phase. C) The amount of cyclin E is highest during G1. D) The amount of Cdk 2 is greatest during G1. E) The activity of the cyclin E/Cdk 2 complex is highest during G2.

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 71) Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur? A) Cancer cells are no longer density dependent. B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent. C) Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints. D) Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism. E) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 72) Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor? A) metastasis B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages C) lack of appropriate cell death D) inability to form spindles E) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate

wer: C Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 257 4) If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants? A) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits. B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits. C) Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one. D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one. E) Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) A geneʹs location along a chromosome is known as which of the following? A) Allele B) Sequence C) Locus D) Variant E) Trait

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.1

: Application/Analysis Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 259 12) Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common? I. Alternation of generations II. Meiosis III. Fertilization IV. Gametes V. Spores A) I, IV, and V B) I, II, and IV C) II, III, and IV D) II, IV, and V E) All of the above

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 261 18) Which of the life cycles is typical for plants and some algae? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) I and III

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell. B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell. C) Each cell has 8 homologous pairs. D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes. E) A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in A) spores. B) gametophytes. C) zygotes. D) sporophytes. E) clones.

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 25) A karyotype results from which of the following? A) A natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus B) An inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves C) The ordering of human chromosome images D) The cutting and pasting of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array E) The separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis 268 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 42) Which sample might represent a sperm cell? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II E) Either II or III

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis 51) If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, she will produce which of the following egg types? A) Only blue gene eggs B) Only orange gene eggs C) 1/2 blue and 1/2 orange gene eggs D) 3/4 blue and 1/4 orange gene eggs E) An indeterminate frequency of blue and orange gene eggs

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 267 You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in Figure 13.3. Refer to the graph to answer the following questions. Figure 13.3 39) If the cells were from a plant, which sample might represent a gametophyte cell? A) I B) II C) III D) Either I or II E) Either II or III

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 38) You have in your possession a microscope slide with meiotic cells on it and a light microscope. What would you look for if you wanted to identify metaphase I cells on the slide? A) A visible nuclear envelope B) Separated sister chromatids at each pole of the cell C) Tetrads lined up at the center of the cell D) A synaptonemal complex E) A cleavage furrow

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 265 Refer to the drawings in Figure 13.2 of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis, and answer the following questions. Figure 13.2 33) Which diagram represents prophase I of meiosis? A) I B) II C) IV D) V E) VI

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 47) Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesions. Such molecules must have which of the following properties? A) They must persist throughout the cell cycle. B) They must be removed before meiosis can begin. C) They must be removed before anaphase can occur. D) They must reattach to chromosomes during G1. E) They must be intact for nuclear envelope reformation.

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 48) Experiments with cohesions have found that A) cohesions are protected from destruction throughout meiosis I and II. B) cohesions are cleaved from chromosomes at the centromere before anaphase I. C) cohesions are protected from cleavage at the centromere during meiosis I. D) a protein cleaves cohesions before metaphase I. E) a protein that cleaves cohesions would cause cellular death.

wer: C Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis 13) Chargaffʹs analysis of the relative base composition of DNA was significant because he was able to show that A) the relative proportion of each of the four bases differs within individuals of a species. B) the human genome is more complex than that of other species. C) the amount of A is always equivalent to T, and C to G. D) the amount of ribose is always equivalent to deoxyribose. E) transformation causes protein to be brought into the cell.

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.1

: Application/Analysis 8) Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Chemicals from heat-killed S cells were purified. The chemicals were tested for the ability to transform live R cells. The transforming agent was found to be DNA. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? A) A = C B) A = G and C = T C) A + C = G + T D) G + C = T + A

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.1

: Application/Analysis 28) Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5ʹ → 3ʹ direction? A) primase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase III D) topoisomerase E) helicase

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.2

: Application/Analysis 37) What is the function of DNA polymerase III? A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands C) to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules E) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements? A) primase, polymerase, ligase B) 3ʹ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5ʹ C) 5ʹ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3ʹ D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III E) 5ʹ DNA to 3ʹ

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication? A) the particular DNA polymerase catalyzing the reaction B) the relative amounts of the four nucleoside triphosphates in the cell C) the nucleotide sequence of the template strand D) the primase used in the reaction E) the arrangement of histones in the sugar phosphate backbone

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following? A) The evolution of telomerase enzyme B) DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5ʹ end C) Gaps left at the 5ʹ end of the lagging strand because of the need for a 3ʹ onto which nucleotides can attach D) Gaps left at the 3ʹ end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer E) The ʺno endsʺ of a circular chromosome

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Which of the following covalently connects segments of DNA? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication? A) synthesize RNA nucleotides to make a primer B) catalyze the lengthening of telomeres C) join Okazaki fragments together D) unwind the parental double helix E) stabilize the unwound parental DNA

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.2

: Application/Analysis 56) About how many more genes are there in the haploid human genome than in a typical bacterial genome? A) 10 X B) 100 X C) 1000 X D) 10,000 X E) 100,000 X

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 64) Which of the following statements is true of chromatin? A) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA. B) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the cytoplasm. C) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact. D) Euchromatin is not transcribed, whereas heterochromatin is transcribed. E) Only euchromatin is visible under the light microscope.

wer: C Topic: Concept 16.3

1) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by A) hydrogen bonds. B) nonpolar covalent bonds. C) polar covalent bonds. D) ionic bonds. E) van der Waals interactions.

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.1

: Application/Analysis 4) Water is able to form hydrogen bonds because A) oxygen has a valence of 2. B) the water molecule is shaped like a tetrahedron. C) the bonds that hold together the atoms in a water molecule are polar covalent bonds. D) the oxygen atom in a water molecule has a weak positive charge. E) each of the hydrogen atoms in a water molecule is weakly negative in charge.

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.1

: Application/Analysis 10) Waterʹs high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the A) small size of the water molecules. B) high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms. C) absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form. D) fact that water is a poor heat conductor. E) inability of water to dissipate heat into dry air.

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 46 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment Figure 3.2 23) How many grams of the molecule in Figure 3.2 would be equal to 1 mol of the molecule? (Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1) A) 29 B) 30 C) 60 D) 150 E) 342

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 12) Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon? A) the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid B) reactions with other atmospheric compounds C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds D) the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds E) the high surface tension of water

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 45 20) When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in water the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into individual sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl-). In contrast, the atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g., glucose, sucrose, glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution. Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the greatest number of particles (molecules or ions)? A) 1 L of 0.5 M NaCl B) 1 L of 0.5 M glucose C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl D) 1 L of 1.0 M glucose E) C and D will contain equal numbers of particles.

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 28) You have a freshly-prepared 0.1M solution of glucose in water. Each liter of this solution contains how many glucose molecules? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 3.01 × 1023 C) 6.02 × 1024 D) 12.04 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1022

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 30) You have a freshly-prepared 1M solution of glucose in water. You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that solution. How many glucose molecules are included in that 100 mL sample? A) 6.02 × 1023 B) 3.01 × 1023 C) 6.02 × 1024 D) 12.04 × 1023 E) 6.02 × 1022

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 51) Pure, freshly-distilled water has a pH of 7. This means that A) there are no H+ ions in the water. B) there are no OH- ions in the water. C) the concentration of H+ ions in the water equals the concentration of OH- ions in the water. D) the concentration of H+ ions in the water is 7 times the concentration of OH- ions in the water. E) The concentration of OH- ions in the water is 7 times the concentration of H+ ions in the water.

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 52 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 41) If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the A) concentration of H+ is twice (2X) what it was at pH 5. B) concentration of H+ is half (1/2) what it was at pH 5. C) concentration of OH- is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5. D) concentration of OH- is one-hundredth (0.01X) what it was at pH 5. E) concentration of H+ is 100 times greater and the concentration of OH- is one-hundredth what they were at pH 5.

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) A given solution contains 0.0001(10-4) moles of hydrogen ions [H+] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? A) acidic: H+ acceptor B) basic: H+ acceptor C) acidic: H+ donor D) basic: H+ donor E) neutral

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 55) Equal volumes of vinegar from a freshly-opened bottle are added to each of the following solutions. After complete mixing, which of the mixtures will have the highest pH? A) 100 mL of pure water B) 100 mL of freshly-brewed coffee C) 100 mL of household cleanser containing 0.5M ammonia D) 100 mL of freshly-squeezed orange juice E) 100 mL of tomato juice

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 57 56) You have two beakers; one contains pure water, the other contains pure methanol (wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen. A) Equal amounts of NaCl crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol. B) NaCl crystals will NOT dissolve in either water or methanol. C) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in methanol. D) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but will not dissolve in water. E) When the first crystals of NaCl are added to water or to methanol, they will not dissolve; but as more crystals are added, the crystals will begin to dissolve faster and faster.

wer: C Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers? A) phosphodiester linkages B) hydrolysis C) dehydration reactions D) ionic bonding of monomers E) the formation of disulfide bridges between monomers

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 83 8) How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers long? A) 12 B) 11 C) 10 D) 9 E) 8

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The probability of finding chitin in fungal cell walls (B) The probability of finding chitin in arthropod exoskeletons A) Item (A) is greater than item (B). B) Item (A) is less than item (B). C) Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B). D) Item (A) may stand in more than one of the above relations to item (B).

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 86 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 21) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because A) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose. B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the beta (β) glycosidic linkages of starch but not the alpha (α) glycosidic linkages of cellulose. C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the alpha (α) glycosidic linkages of starch but not the beta (β) glycosidic linkages of cellulose. D) humans harbor starch-digesting bacteria in the digestive tract. E) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is maltose.

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids? A) They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil. B) They have double bonds between carbon atoms of the fatty acids. C) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter. D) They are usually liquid at room temperature. E) They are usually produced by plants.

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 88 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules Figure 5.3 28) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.3? A) It is a saturated fatty acid. B) A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis. C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature. D) A and B only E) A, B and C

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 89 Figure 5.4 32) What is the structure shown in Figure 5.4? A) starch molecule B) protein molecule C) steroid molecule D) cellulose molecule E) phospholipid molecule

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein? A) 101 B) 100 C) 99 D) 98 E) 97

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Which bond is a peptide bond?

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most important? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) all of the above

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) What method did Frederick Sanger use to elucidate the structure of insulin? A) X-ray crystallography B) bioinformatics C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments D) NMR spectroscopy E) high-speed centrifugation

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 90 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 36) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another? A) different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon B) different amino groups attached to an alpha (α) carbon C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha (α) carbon D) different alpha (α) carbons E) different asymmetric carbons

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 94 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 53) The tertiary structure of a protein is the A) bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds. B) order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain. C) unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide. D) organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheet. E) overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits.

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 101 84) Enzymes are A) carbohydrates. B) lipids. C) proteins. D) nucleic acids.

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: Knowledge/Comprehension Refer to Figure 5.6 to answer the following questions. Figure 5.6 42) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acid?

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides? A) a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group B) a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar C) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar D) a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil E) a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 72) If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 80 E) impossible to tell from the information given

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 99 75) Which of the following statements best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA? A) RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid. B) DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid. C) DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides. D) RNA is a double helix, but DNA is single-stranded. E) A and D are correct.

wer: C Topic: Concept 5.5

1) When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use A) a light microscope. B) a scanning electron microscope. C) a transmission electronic microscope. D) A and B E) B and C

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.1

: Application/Analysis 7) If a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the nanometer level, as opposed to the best light microscope, this is due to which of the following? A) The focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer. B) Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal. C) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light. D) The electron microscope has much greater ratio of image size to real size. E) The electron microscope cannot image whole cells at one time.

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that A) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy. B) light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy. C) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells. D) A and B E) B and C

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 9) A newspaper ad for a local toy store indicates that a very inexpensive microscope available for a small child is able to magnify specimens nearly as much as the much more costly microscope available in your college lab. What is the primary reason for the price difference? A) The ad agency is misrepresenting the ability of the toy microscope to magnify. B) The toy microscope does not have the same fine control for focus of the specimen. C) The toy microscope magnifies a good deal, but has low resolution and therefore poor quality images. D) The college microscope produces greater contrast in the specimens. E) The toy microscope usually uses a different wavelength of light source.

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 112 Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 12) The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that A) plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells. B) plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane than animal cells. C) plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm. D) animal cells are more spherical, while plant cells are elongated. E) the basic functions of plant cells are very different from those of animal cells.

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules? A) lipids B) starches C) proteins D) steroids E) glucose

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 113 16) The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you expect to be the most likely consequence? A) the loss of all nuclear function B) the inability of the cell to withstand enzymatic digestion C) a change in the shape of the nucleus D) failure of chromosomes to carry genetic information E) inability of the nucleus to keep out destructive chemicals

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.3

: Application/Analysis 19) Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids? A) ribosome B) lysosome C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondrion E) contractile vacuole

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.4

: Application/Analysis 26) Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition? A) the endoplasmic reticulum B) the Golgi apparatus C) the lysosome D) mitochondria E) membrane-bound ribosomes

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by A) the physical separation of most membranes from each other. B) the transportation of membrane among the endomembrane system by small membrane vesicles. C) the function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting membrane components. D) the modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination. E) the synthesis of lipids and proteins in each of the organelles of the endomembrane system.

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein disposal from prokaryotic cells? A) Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to excrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system. B) The mechanism of protein excretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes. C) Proteins that are excreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane. D) In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are used for the synthesis of secreted proteins are located outside of the cell. E) Prokaryotes contain large pores in their plasma membrane that permit the movement of proteins out of the cell.

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Which is one of the main energy transformers of cells? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following contains its own DNA and ribosomes? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is true? A) The dynamic aspect of cytoskeletal function is made possible by the assembly and disassembly of a large number of complex proteins into larger aggregates. B) Microfilaments are structurally rigid and resist compression, while microtubules resist tension (stretching). C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other. D) Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would cause little effect on the cellʹs metabolism E) Transport vesicles among the membranes of the endomembrane system produce the cytoskeleton.

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.6

: Application/Analysis 124 Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 59) When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion? A) plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm → tonoplast B) secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm → tonoplast C) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → tonoplast D) primary cell wall → plasma membrane → tonoplast → cytoplasm → vacuole E) tonoplast → primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.7

: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in their composition? A) microtubules B) microfilaments C) plant cell walls D) intermediate filaments E) nuclear lamina

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.7

: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells? A) peroxisomes B) desmosomes C) gap junctions D) extracellular matrix E) tight junctions

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.7

: Synthesis/Evaluation 66) Of the following molecules of the ECM, which is capable of transmitting signals between the ECM and the cytoskeleton? A) fibronectin B) proteoglycans C) integrins D) collagen E) middle lamella

wer: C Topic: Concept 6.7

: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the following is true of integral membrane proteins? A) They lack tertiary structure. B) They are loosely bound to the surface of the bilayer. C) They are usually transmembrane proteins. D) They are not mobile within the bilayer. E) They serve only a structural role in membranes.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane? A) phospholipids and cellulose B) nucleic acids and proteins C) phospholipids and proteins D) proteins and cellulose E) glycoproteins and cholesterol

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) microfilament of the cytoskeleton

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: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 131 14) In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to be which of the following? A) hydrophilic B) hydrophobic C) amphipathic D) completely covered with phospholipids E) exposed on only one surface of the membrane

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: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 133 22) Which of these are not embedded in the lipid bilayer at all? A) transmembrane proteins B) integral proteins C) peripheral proteins D) integrins E) glycoproteins

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: Synthesis/Evaluation 134 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 26) Cell membranes are asymmetrical. Which of the following is a most likely explanation? A) The cell membrane forms a border between one cell and another in tightly packed tissues such as epithelium. B) Cell membranes communicate signals from one organism to another. C) Cell membrane proteins are determined as the membrane is being packaged in the ER and Golgi. D) The ʺinnernessʺ and ʺouternessʺ of membrane surfaces are predetermined by genes. E) Proteins can only span cell membranes if they are hydrophobic.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 28) Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes? A) The interior of the membrane is filled with liquid water. B) There are no covalent bonds between lipid and protein in the membrane. C) Hydrophilic portions of the lipids are in the interior of the membrane. D) There are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane. E) Molecules such as cellulose can pull them in various directions.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.1

: Application/Analysis 33) Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion? A) It is very rapid over long distances. B) It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell. C) It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. D) It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration. E) It requires integral proteins in the cell membrane.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension The following information should be used to answer the following questions. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease in humans in which chloride ion channels in cell membranes are missing or nonfunctional. 35) Chloride ion channels are membrane structures that include which of the following? A) gap junctions B) aquaporins C) hydrophilic proteins D) carbohydrates E) sodium ions

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.2

: Application/Analysis 138 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 40) A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled water, equal to the volume of blood lost, is transferred directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion? A) It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria. B) The patientʹs red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is hypotonic compared to the cells. C) The patientʹs red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid is hypotonic compared to the cells. D) The patientʹs red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is hypertonic compared to the cells. E) The patientʹs red blood cells will burst because the blood fluid is hypertonic compared to the cells.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis 39) After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed? A) The molarity of sucrose and glucose are equal on both sides. B) The molarity of glucose is higher in side A than in side B. C) The water level is higher in side A than in side B. D) The water level is unchanged. E) The water level is higher in side B than in side A.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis 41) Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are A) hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution. B) hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solution. C) hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution. D) hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution. E) isotonic with fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 137 Use the diagram of the U-tube in Figure 7.2 to answer the questions that follow. The solutions in the two arms of this U-tube are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose. Initially, the liquid levels on both sides are equal. Figure 7.2 38) Initially, in terms of tonicity, the solution in side A with respect to that in side B is A) hypotonic. B) plasmolyzed. C) isotonic. D) saturated. E) hypertonic.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Read the following information and refer to Figure 7.4 to answer the following questions. Five dialysis bags, constructed from a semi-permeable membrane that is impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed) and the percent change in mass of each bag was graphed. Figure 7.4 46) Which line represents the bag that contained a solution isotonic to the 0.6 molar solution at the beginning of the experiment?

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: Application/Analysis 142 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 52) Which of the following membrane activities require energy from ATP hydrolysis? A) facilitated diffusion. B) movement of water into a cell C) Na+ ions moving out of the cell D) movement of glucose molecules E) movement of water into a paramecium

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.4

: Application/Analysis 55) What is the voltage across a membrane called? A) water potential B) chemical gradient C) membrane potential D) osmotic potential E) electrochemical gradient

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: Application/Analysis 59) The movement of potassium into an animal cell requires A) low cellular concentrations of sodium. B) high cellular concentrations of potassium. C) an energy source such as ATP or a proton gradient. D) a cotransport protein. E) a gradient of protons across the plasma membrane.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it A) pumps equal quantities of Na+ and K+ across the membrane. B) pumps hydrogen ions out of the cell. C) contributes to the membrane potential. D) ionizes sodium and potassium atoms. E) is used to drive the transport of other molecules against a concentration gradient.

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 69) In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis? A) on the outside of vesicles B) on the inside surface of the cell membrane C) on the inside surface of the vesicle D) on the outer surface of the nucleus E) on the ER

wer: C Topic: Concept 7.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways? A) They do not depend on enzymes. B) They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions. C) They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers. D) They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 152 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 14) The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a system is △G =△H-T△S. Which of the following is (are) correct? A) △S is the change in enthalpy, a measure of randomness. B) △H is the change in entropy, the energy available to do work. C) △G is the change in free energy. D) T is the temperature in degrees Celsius.

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 153 18) Which of the following shows the correct changes in thermodynamic properties for a chemical reaction in which amino acids are linked to form a protein? A) +△H, +△S, +△G B) +△H, -△S, -△G C) +△H, -△S, +△G D) -△H, -△S, +△G E) -△H, +△S, +△G

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.2

: Application/Analysis 24) Which of the following is most similar in structure to ATP? A) an anabolic steroid B) a DNA helix C) an RNA nucleotide D) an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached E) a phospholipid

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.3

: Application/Analysis 29) A number of systems for pumping across membranes are powered by ATP. Such ATP-powered pumps are often called ATPases although they donʹt often hydrolyze ATP unless they are simultaneously transporting ions. Small increases in calcium ions in the cytosol trigger a number of different intracellular reactions, so the cells must keep the calcium concentration quite low. Muscle cells also transport calcium from the cytosol into the membranous system called the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). If a muscle cell cytosol has a free calcium ion concentration of 10-7 in a resting cell, while the concentration in the SR can be 10-2, then how is the ATPase acting? A) The ATP must be powering an inflow of calcium from the outside of the cell into the SR. B) ATP must be transferring Pi to the SR to enable this to occur. C) ATPase activity must be pumping calcium from the cytosol to the SR against the concentration gradient. D) The calcium ions must be diffusing back into the SR along the concentration gradient. E) The route of calcium ions must be from SR to the cytosol, to the cellʹs environment.

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) What term is used to describe the transfer of free energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic pathways? A) feedback regulation B) bioenergetics C) energy coupling D) entropy E) cooperativity

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: Application/Analysis 43) Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following? A) denaturization of the enzyme B) allosteric inhibition C) competitive inhibition D) saturation of the enzyme activity E) insufficient cofactors

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 60) When you have a severe fever, what may be a grave consequence if this is not controlled? A) destruction of your enzymesʹ primary structure B) removal of amine groups from your proteins C) change in the folding of enzymes D) removal of the amino acids in active sites E) binding of enzymes to inappropriate substrates

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 161 Use the following information to answer the following questions. Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. 46) Based on this information, which of the following is correct? A) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate. B) Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate. C) Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product. D) Fumarate is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor. E) Malonic acid is the product, and fumarate is a competitive inhibitor.

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) Sucrose is a disaccharide, composed of the monosaccharides glucose and fructose. The hydrolysis of sucrose by the enzyme sucrase results in A) bringing glucose and fructose together to form sucrose. B) the release of water from sucrose as the bond between glucose and fructose is broken. C) breaking the bond between glucose and fructose and forming new bonds from the atoms of water. D) production of water from the sugar as bonds are broken between the glucose monomers. E) utilization of water as a covalent bond is formed between glucose and fructose to form sucrase.

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to form a solution of simple sugars because A) the starch solution has less free energy than the sugar solution. B) the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic. C) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot be surmounted. D) starch cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water. E) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous.

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 159 Refer to Figure 8.1 to answer the following questions. Figure 8.1 40) Which curve represents the behavior of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher? A) curve 1 B) curve 2 C) curve 3 D) curve 4 E) curve 5

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 166 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism The next questions are based on the following information. A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. 62) What is substance X? A) a coenzyme B) an allosteric inhibitor C) a substrate D) an intermediate E) the product

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 168 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 69) Which of the following is an example of cooperativity? A) the binding of an end product of a metabolic pathway to the first enzyme that acts in the pathway B) protein function at one site affected by binding at another of its active sites C) a molecule binding at one unit of a tetramer allowing faster binding at each of the other three D) the effect of increasing temperature on the rate of an enzymatic reaction E) binding of an ATP molecule along with one of the substrate molecules in an active site

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 65) Which of the following statements describes enzyme cooperativity? A) A multi-enzyme complex contains all the enzymes of a metabolic pathway. B) A product of a pathway serves as a competitive inhibitor of an early enzyme in the pathway. C) A substrate molecule bound to an active site affects the active site of several subunits. D) Several substrate molecules can be catalyzed by the same enzyme. E) A substrate binds to an active site and inhibits cooperation between enzymes in a pathway.

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 72) An important group of peripheral membrane proteins are enzymes, such as the phospholipases that attack the head groups of phospholipids leading to the degradation of damaged membranes. What properties must these enzymes exhibit? A) resistance to degradation B) independence from cofactor interaction C) water solubility D) lipid solubility E) membrane spanning domains

wer: C Topic: Concept 8.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation-reduction reaction, the molecule becomes A) dehydrogenated. B) hydrogenated. C) oxidized. D) reduced. E) an oxidizing agent.

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) When a molecule of NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom (not a hydrogen ion) the molecule becomes A) hydrogenated. B) oxidized. C) reduced. D) redoxed. E) a reducing agent.

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: Application/Analysis 16) In which step is an inorganic phosphate added to the reactant?

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: Application/Analysis 17) In which reaction does an intermediate pathway become oxidized?

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: Application/Analysis 21) During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolized to pyruvate, most of the energy of glucose is A) transferred to ADP, forming ATP. B) transferred directly to ATP. C) retained in the pyruvate. D) stored in the NADH produced. E) used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose-6-phosphate.

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis? A) CO2 and H2O B) CO2 and pyruvate C) NADH and pyruvate D) CO2 and NADH E) H2O, FADH2, and citrate

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 177 23) The free energy for the oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water is -686 kcal/mole and the free energy for the reduction of NAD+ to NADH is +53 kcal/mole. Why are only two molecules of NADH formed during glycolysis when it appears that as many as a dozen could be formed? A) Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose is used in the production of ATP in glycolysis. B) Glycolysis is a very inefficient reaction, with much of the energy of glucose released as heat. C) Most of the free energy available from the oxidation of glucose remains in pyruvate, one of the products of glycolysis. D) There is no CO2 or water produced as products of glycolysis. E) Glycolysis consists of many enzymatic reactions, each of which extracts some energy from the glucose molecule.

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 27) Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis? A) an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell B) an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized D) an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD+ E) an agent that blocks the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.2

: Application/Analysis 37) How many molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2) would be produced by five turns of the citric acid cycle? A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12 E) 60

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: Application/Analysis 38) How many reduced dinucleotides would be produced with four turns of the citric acid cycle? A) 1 FADH2 and 4 NADH B) 2 FADH2 and 8 NADH C) 4 FADH2 and 12 NADH D) 1 FAD and 4 NAD+ E) 4 FAD+ and 12 NAD+

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 179 30) Why is coenzyme A, a sulfur containing molecule derived from a B vitamin, added? A) because sulfur is needed for the molecule to enter the mitochondrion B) in order to utilize this portion of a B vitamin which would otherwise be a waste product from another pathway C) to provide a relatively unstable molecule whose acetyl portion can readily bind to oxaloacetate D) because it drives the reaction that regenerates NAD+ E) in order to remove one molecule of CO2

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.3

: Application/Analysis 45) Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located? A) cytosol B) mitochondrial outer membrane C) mitochondrial inner membrane D) mitochondrial intermembrane space E) mitochondrial matrix

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: Application/Analysis 57) Each time a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized via aerobic respiration, how many oxygen molecules (O2) are required? A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 12 E) 38

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: Application/Analysis 71) What happens at the end of the chain? A) The 2 original electrons combine with NAD+. B) The 2 original electrons combine with oxygen. C) 4 electrons combine with oxygen and protons. D) 4 electrons combine with hydrogen and oxygen atoms. E) 1 electron combines with oxygen and hydrogen.

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 188 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 64) In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about 5 X the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes, and about 17 X that of the cellʹs plasma membrane. What purpose must this serve? A) It allows for increased rate of glycolysis. B) It allows for increased rate of the citric acid cycle. C) It increases the surface for oxidative phosphoryation. D) It increases the surface for substrate-level phosphorylation. E) It allows the liver cell to have fewer mitochondria.

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) During oxidative phosphorylation, H2O is formed. Where does the oxygen for the synthesis of the water come from? A) carbon dioxide (CO2) B) glucose (C6H12O6) C) molecular oxygen (O2) D) pyruvate (C3H3O3-) E) lactate (C3H5O3-)

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Recall that the complete oxidation of a mole of glucose releases 686 kcal of energy (Δ G = -686 kcal/mol). The phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP stores approximately 7.3 kcal per mole of ATP. What is the approximate efficiency of cellular respiration for a ʺmutantʺ organism that produces only 29 moles of ATP for every mole of glucose oxidized, rather than the usual 36-38 moles of ATP? A) 0.4% B) 25% C) 30% D) 40% E) 60%

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 80) One function of both alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to A) reduce NAD+ to NADH. B) reduce FAD+ to FADH2. C) oxidize NADH to NAD+. D) reduce FADH2 to FAD+. E) none of the above

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.5

: Synthesis/Evaluation 84) Muscle cells, when an individual is exercising heavily and when the muscle becomes oxygen deprived, convert pyruvate to lactate. What happens to the lactate in skeletal muscle cells? A) It is converted to NAD+. B) It produces CO2 and water. C) It is taken to the liver and converted back to pyruvate. D) It reduces FADH2 to FAD+. E) It is converted to alcohol.

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 93) Where do the catabolic products of fatty acid breakdown enter into the citric acid cycle? A) pyruvate B) malate or fumarate C) acetyl CoA D) α-ketoglutarate E) succinyl CoA

wer: C Topic: Concept 9.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) In any ecosystem, terrestrial or aquatic, what group(s) is (are) always necessary? A) autotrophs and heterotrophs B) producers and primary consumers C) photosynthesizers D) autotrophs E) green plants

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.1

: Application/Analysis 202 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis Figure 10.1 12) Figure 10.1 shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different? A) Green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths. B) Bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments. C) Oxygen given off during photosynthesis interferes with the absorption of light. D) Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a. E) Aerobic bacteria take up oxygen which changes the measurement of the rate of photosynthesis.

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.2

: Application/Analysis 23) Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes? A) the splitting of water B) the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll C) the flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I D) the synthesis of ATP E) the reduction of NADP+

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) An outcome of this experiment was to help determine A) the relationship between heterotrophic and autotrophic organisms. B) the relationship between wavelengths of light and the rate of aerobic respiration. C) the relationship between wavelengths of light and the amount of heat released. D) the relationship between wavelengths of light and the oxygen released during photosynthesis. E) the relationship between the concentration of carbon dioxide and the rate of photosynthesis.

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II? A) Light energy excites electrons in the electron transport chain in a photosynthetic unit. B) The excitation is passed along to a molecule of P700 chlorophyll in the photosynthetic unit. C) The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of protons to NADPH, which is thus converted to NADP+. D) The electron vacancies in P680 are filled by electrons derived from water. E) The splitting of water yields molecular carbon dioxide as a by-product.

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located? A) thylakoid membrane B) plasma membrane C) inner mitochondrial membrane D) A and C E) A, B, and C

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) In thylakoids, protons travel through ATP synthase from the stroma to the thylakoid space. Therefore the catalytic ʺknobsʺ of ATP synthase would be located A) on the side facing the thylakoid space. B) on the ATP molecules themselves. C) on the pigment molecules of PSI and PSII. D) on the stroma side of the membrane. E) built into the center of the thylkoid stack (granum).

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 207 33) The splitting of carbon dioxide to form oxygen gas and carbon compounds occurs during A) photosynthesis. B) respiration. C) both photosynthesis and respiration. D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration. E) photorespiration.

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 208 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 37) P680+ is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Why? A) It is the receptor for the most excited electron in either photosystem. B) It is the molecule that transfers electrons to plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron transfer system. C) NADP reductase will then catalyze the shift of the electron from Fd to NADP+ to reduce it to NADPH. D) This molecule results from the transfer of an electron to the primary electron acceptor of photosystem II and strongly attracts another electron. E) This molecule is found far more frequently among bacteria as well as in plants and plantlike Protists.

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.2

: Application/Analysis 56) Which molecule(s) of the Calvin cycle is/are most like molecules found in glycolysis? A) A, B, C, and E B) B, C, and E C) A only D) C and D only E) E only

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Produces NADH A) light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Requires glucose A) light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) occurs in the chloroplast but is not part of photosynthesis

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) The sugar that results from three ʺturnsʺ of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P). Which of the following is a consequence of this? A) Formation of a molecule of glucose would require 9 ʺturns.ʺ B) G3P more readily forms sucrose and other disaccharides than it does monosaccharides. C) Some plants would not taste sweet to us. D) The formation of starch in plants involves assembling many G3P molecules, with or without further rearrangements. E) G3P is easier for a plant to store.

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 212 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 53) In the process of carbon fixation, RuBP attaches a CO2 to produce a 6 carbon molecule, which is then split in two. After phosphorylation and reduction, what more needs to happen in the Calvin cycle? A) addition of a pair of electrons from NADPH B) inactivation of RuBP carboxylase enzyme C) regeneration of ATP from ADP D) regeneration of rubisco E) a gain of NADPH

wer: D Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32 E) 64

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.1

: Application/Analysis 19) The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells A) contain no DNA. B) contain no RNA. C) contain only one chromosome that is very short. D) are actually in the G0 phase. E) divide in the G1 phase.

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis 22) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with A) a single large nucleus. B) high concentrations of actin and myosin. C) two abnormally small nuclei. D) two nuclei. E) two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA.

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis 244 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 32) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have __________ picograms at the end of the S phase and __________ picograms at the end of G 2. A) 8; 8 B) 8; 16 C) 16; 8 D) 16; 16 E) 12; 16

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 239 14) A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes? A) 12 B) 16 C) 23 D) 46 E) 92

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Application/Analysis Figure 12.2 15) If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure 12.2 continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next? A) cell membrane synthesis B) spindle fiber formation C) nuclear envelope breakdown D) formation of telophase nuclei E) synthesis of chromatids

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which is the longest of the mitotic stages? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested? A) anaphase B) prophase C) telophase D) metaphase E) interphase

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 246 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 40) Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores? A) maintaining an appropriate spacing among the moving chromosomes B) producing a cleavage furrow when telophase is complete C) providing the ATP needed by the fibers attached to kinetochores D) maintaining the region of overlap of fibers in the cellʹs center E) pulling the poles of the spindles closer to one another

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 250 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle The following questions are based on Figure 12.3. Figure 12.3 57) In the figure above, mitosis is represented by which number? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during mitosis? A) seedless plants B) dinoflagellates C) diatoms D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that A) reduces cyclin concentrations. B) increases cyclin concentrations. C) prevents elongation of microtubules. D) prevents shortening of microtubules. E) prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 34) Imagine looking through a microscope at a squashed onion root tip. The chromosomes of many of the cells are plainly visible. In some cells, replicated chromosomes are aligned along the center (equator) of the cell. These particular cells are in which stage of mitosis? A) telophase B) prophase C) anaphase D) metaphase E) prometaphase

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 31) Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle was the nucleus with 6 picograms of DNA? A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation The following applies to the questions below. Several organisms, primarily Protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization. 37) These Protists are intermediate in what sense? A) They reproduce by binary fission in their early stages of development and by mitosis when they are mature. B) They never coil up their chromosomes when they are dividing. C) They use mitotic division but only have circular chromosomes. D) They maintain a nuclear envelope during division. E) None of them form spindles.

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 248 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 49) Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle? A) an increase in production once the restriction point is passed B) the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk C) the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome D) its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a cyclin E) the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface

wer: D Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect? A) Genes correspond to segments of DNA. B) Many genes contain the information needed for cells to synthesize enzymes and other proteins. C) During fertilization, both the sperm and the ovum contribute genes to the resulting fertilized egg. D) One gene only is used in a specific cell type. E) Genetic differences can result from changes in the DNA called mutations.

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 5) Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs? A) Natural selection B) Cloning C) Crossing over D) Mutation E) Environmental change

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) The human X and Y chromosomes A) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike. B) are of approximately equal size and number of genes. C) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names. D) include genes that determine an individualʹs sex. E) include only genes that govern sex determination.

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of these statements is false? A) In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal chromosome. B) In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is female (XX) or male (XY). C) Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote. D) At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis. E) Sexual life cycles differ with respect to the relative timing of meiosis and fertilization.

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis 52) A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosomes and a maternal set comprised of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis? A) All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations. B) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations. C) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations. D) Each egg has 1/4 chance of having blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations. E) Each egg has a 3/4 chance of having blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 271 53) Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is occurring? A) Asexual reproduction B) Meiosis II C) Anaphase II D) Crossing over E) Separation of homologs

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and are just about to begin meiosis? A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA. E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 270 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles Refer to the following information and Figure 13.4 to answer the following questions. A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes, and has either long or short antennae as the result of a second gene, as shown in Figure 13.4. Figure 13.4 50) A certain femaleʹs chromosomes 12 both have the blue gene and chromosomes 19 both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following? A) Either two chromosomes 12 with blue genes or two with orange genes B) Either two chromosomes 19 with long genes or two with short genes C) Either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long and one short gene D) One chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 263 26) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid. D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids. E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) Natural selection and recombination due to crossing over during meiosis I are related in which of the following ways? A) Recombinants are usually selected against. B) Non-recombinant organisms are usually favored by natural selection if there is environmental change. C) Most recombinants reproduce less frequently than do non-recombinants. D) Recombinants may have combinations of traits that are favored by natural selection. E) Recombination does not affect natural selection.

wer: D Topic: Concept 13.4

: Application/Analysis 25) Once the pattern found after one round of replication was observed, Meselson and Stahl could be confident of which of the following conclusions? A) Replication is semi-conservative. B) Replication is not dispersive. C) Replication is not semi-conservative. D) Replication is not conservative. E) Replication is neither dispersive nor conservative.

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living non-phosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait? A) DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. B) Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. C) The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright. D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent. E) Both DNA and protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 323 10) Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.1

: Application/Analysis 326 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance Use Figure 16.1 to answer the following questions. Figure 16.1 23) In the late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing ʺheavyʺ nitrogen (15N) and then transferred them to a medium containing 14N. Which of the results in Figure 16.1 would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of 14N?

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.2

: Application/Analysis 39) Which of the following removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3ʹ end of Okazaki fragments? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Which of the following help to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated? A) primase B) ligase C) DNA polymerase D) single-strand binding proteins E) exonuclease

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: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Which would you expect of a eukaryotic cell lacking telomerase? A) a high probability of becoming cancerous B) production of Okazaki fragments C) inability to repair thymine dimers D) a reduction in chromosome length E) high sensitivity to sunlight

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 333 50) Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum are hypersensitive to sunlight. This occurs because their cells have which impaired ability? A) They cannot replicate DNA. B) They cannot undergo mitosis. C) They cannot exchange DNA with other cells. D) They cannot repair thymine dimers. E) They do not recombine homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 328 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 31) The enzyme telomerase solves the problem of replication at the ends of linear chromosomes by which method? A) adding a single 5ʹ cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases B) causing specific double strand DNA breaks that result in blunt ends on both strands C) causing linear ends of the newly replicated DNA to circularize D) adding numerous short DNA sequences such as TTAGGG, which form a hairpin turn E) adding numerous GC pairs which resist hydrolysis and maintain chromosome integrity

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 329 34) At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3ʹ C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5ʹ An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? A) 5ʹ G C C T A G G 3ʹ B) 3ʹ G C C T A G G 5ʹ C) 5ʹ A C G T T A G G 3ʹ D) 5ʹ A C G U U A G G 3ʹ E) 5ʹ G C C U A G G 3ʹ

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.2

: Application/Analysis 57) In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis? A) These oocytes have no histones. B) Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility. C) Phosphorylation of all proteins in the cell must result. D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation. E) Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome? A) It is composed of DNA alone. B) The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit. C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an organism. D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA. E) Active transcription occurs on heterochromatin.

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 335 58) In a linear eukaryotic chromatin sample, which of the following strands is looped into domains by scaffolding? A) DNA without attached histones B) DNA with H1 only C) the 10 nm chromatin fiber D) the 30 nm chromatin fiber E) the metaphase chromosome

wer: D Topic: Concept 16.3

: Application/Analysis 11) Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize? A) ionic bonds B) nonpolar covalent bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) covalent bonds

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 25) How many grams of the molecule in Figure 3.2 would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution of the molecule? (Carbon = 12, Oxygen = 16, Hydrogen = 1) A) 29 B) 30 C) 60 D) 150 E) 342

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 8) Which of the following statements correctly defines a kilocalorie? A) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°F B) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1°C C) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°F D) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C E) the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1,000 g of water by 1°F

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Why does ice float in liquid water? A) The liquid water molecules have more kinetic energy and thus support the ice. B) The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking. C) Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat. D) Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water. E) The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 42 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 9) The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one were to burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius? A) 0.2°C B) 1.0°C C) 2.0°C D) 10.0°C E) 20.0°C

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules? A) hydrophobic interactions B) nonpolar covalent bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) both A and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 42) One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H+) than 1 L of a solution of pH 6? A) 4 times more B) 400 times more C) 4,000 times more D) 10,000 times more E) 100,000 times more

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 44) Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions? A) They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them. B) They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them. C) They maintain a constant pH of exactly 7 in all living cells and biological fluids. D) They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them. E) They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 49) Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by A) buffering aquatic systems such as lakes and streams. B) decreasing the H+ concentration of lakes and streams. C) increasing the OH- concentration of lakes and streams. D) washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential nutrients for plant growth. E) both B and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 51 37) What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion [H+] concentration of 10-8 M? A) pH 2 B) pH 4 C) pH 6 D) pH 8 E) pH 10

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and a hydrogen ion (H+). Thus, H2CO3 ↔ HCO3- + H+ If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3-. B) the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH-) to increase. C) the concentration of bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) to increase. D) the HCO3- to act as a base and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3. E) the HCO3- to act as an acid and remove excess H+ with the formation of H2CO3.

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 50 Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 33) Which of the following statements is completely correct? A) H2CO3 is a weak acid, and NaOH is a weak base (alkali). B) H2CO3 is a strong acid, and NaOH is a strong base (alkali). C) NH3 is a weak base (alkali), and H2CO3 is a strong acid. D) NH3 is a weak base (alkali), and HCl is a strong acid. E) NH3 is a strong base (alkali), and HCl is a weak acid.

wer: D Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen? A) starch B) glycogen C) cellulose D) chitin E) amylopectin

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified? A) as a pentose B) as a hexose C) as a monosaccharide D) as a disaccharide E) as a polysaccharide

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Which of the following is true of cellulose? A) It is a polymer composed of sucrose monomers. B) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells. C) It is a storage polysaccharide for energy in animal cells. D) It is a major structural component of plant cell walls. E) It is a major structural component of animal cell plasma membranes.

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Figure 5.2 27) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.2? A) It is a saturated fatty acid. B) A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis. C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature. D) A and B only E) A, B and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 95 57) Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded proteins? A) Alzheimerʹs B) Parkinsonʹs C) diabetes D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet structures of proteins? A) hydrophobic interactions B) nonpolar covalent bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) peptide bonds

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) A strong covalent bond between amino acids that functions in maintaining a polypeptideʹs specific three-dimensional shape is a (an) A) ionic bond. B) hydrophobic interaction. C) van der Waals interaction. D) disulfide bond. E) hydrogen bond.

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Figure 5.7 51) The structure depicted in Figure 5.7 shows the A) 1-4 linkage of the α glucose monomers of starch. B) 1-4 linkage of the β glucose monomers of cellulose. C) double helical structure of a DNA molecule. D) α helix secondary structure of a polypeptide. E) β pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide.

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 83) Which of the following store and transmit hereditary information? A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids

wer: D Topic: Concept 5.5

: Application/Analysis 6) Quantum dots are small (15—30 nm diameter), bright particles visible using light microscopy. If the dots can be specifically bound to individual proteins on a plasma membrane of a cell, which of the following correctly describes the advantage of using quantum dots in examining proteins? A) The dots permit the position of the proteins to be determined more precisely. B) The dots permit the average distance between the proteins to be determined more precisely. C) The dots permit the size of the proteins to be determined more precisely. D) The dots permit the motion of the proteins to be determined more precisely. E) The dots permit visualization of proteins interacting with lipids.

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) A primary objective of cell fractionation is to A) view the structure of cell membranes. B) identify the enzymes outside the organelles. C) determine the size of various organelles. D) separate the major organelles so that their particular functions can be determined. E) crack the cell wall so the cytoplasmic contents can be released.

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.1

: Application/Analysis 14) Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells? A) the evolution of larger cells after the evolution of smaller cells B) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes C) the evolution of eukaryotes after the evolution of prokaryotes D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to allow the cellʹs function E) the observation that longer cells usually have greater cell volume

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 116 Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 28) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.4

: Application/Analysis 43) How does the cell multiply its peroxisomes? A) They bud off from the ER. B) They are brought into the cell from the environment. C) They are built de novo from cytosol materials. D) They split in two after they are too large. E) The cell synthesizes hydrogen peroxide and encloses it in a membrane.

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 118 Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 37) A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, while organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively, A) mitochondria and chloroplasts. B) chloroplasts and peroxisomes. C) peroxisomes and chloroplasts. D) chloroplasts and mitochondria. E) mitochondria and peroxisomes.

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA include A) ribosomes. B) mitochondria. C) chloroplasts. D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) The chemical reactions involved in respiration are virtually identical between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. Where are the corresponding reactions likely to occur in prokaryotic respiration? A) in the cytoplasm B) on the inner mitochondrial membrane C) on the endoplasmic reticulum D) on the inner plasma membrane E) on the inner nuclear envelope

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from A) a bacterium. B) an animal, but not a plant. C) a plant, but not an animal. D) a plant or an animal. E) any kind of organism.

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.5

: Synthesis/Evaluation 42) The peroxisome gets its name from its interaction with hydrogen peroxide. If a liver cell is detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, it does so by removal of hydrogen from the molecules. What, then, do the enzymes of the peroxisome do? A) combine the hydrogen with ATP B) use the hydrogen to break down hydrogen peroxide C) transfer the harmful substances to the mitochondria D) transfer the hydrogens to oxygen molecules

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures? A) sites of energy production in cellular respiration B) membrane proteins C) ribosomes D) cytoskeletons E) cellulose fibers in the cell wall

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules? A) cilia B) centrioles C) flagella D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.6

: Synthesis/Evaluation 122 Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 51) If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which organs or tissues would you expect dysfunction? A) limbs, hearts, areas with a good deal of contraction B) microvilli, alveoli, and glomeruli C) all ducts, such as those from salivary or sebaceous glands D) sperm, larynx, and trachea E) egg cells (ova), uterus, and kidneys

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.6

: Application/Analysis 60) A cell lacking the ability to make and secrete glycoproteins would most likely be deficient in its A) nuclear DNA. B) extracellular matrix. C) Golgi apparatus. D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.7

: Application/Analysis Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 123 55) Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella? A) centrosomes B) ribosomes C) actin D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.7

: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic of all of these extracellular structures? A) They must block water and small molecules in order to regulate the exchange of matter and energy with their environment. B) They must permit information transfer between the cellʹs cytoplasm and the nucleus. C) They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area to volume. D) They are constructed of materials that are largely synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell. E) They are composed of a mixture of lipids and carbohydrates.

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.7

: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following? A) gap junctions B) the nucleus C) DNA and RNA D) integrins E) plasmodesmata

wer: D Topic: Concept 6.7

: Application/Analysis 20) In the years since the proposal of the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, which of the following observations has been added to the model? A) The membrane is only fluid across a very narrow temperature range. B) Proteins rarely move, even though they possibly can do so. C) Unsaturated lipids are excluded from the membranes. D) The concentration of protein molecules is now known to be much higher. E) The proteins are known to be made of only acidic amino acids.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 129 For the following questions, match the labeled component of the cell membrane (Figure 7.1) with its description. Figure 7.1 5) peripheral protein

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) Which of these are attached to the extracellular matrix? A) transmembrane proteins B) integral proteins C) peripheral proteins D) integrins E) glycoproteins

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Who proposed that the membrane is a mosaic of protein molecules bobbing in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids? A) H. Davson and J. Danielli B) I. Langmuir C) C. Overton D) S. Singer and G. Nicolson E) E. Gorter and F. Grendel

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 15) When a membrane is freeze-fractured, the bilayer splits down the middle between the two layers of phospholipids. In an electron micrograph of a freeze-fractured membrane, the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are A) peripheral proteins. B) phospholipids. C) carbohydrates. D) integral proteins. E) cholesterol molecules.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 27) Which of the following is true of the evolution of cell membranes? A) Cell membranes have stopped evolving now that they are fluid mosaics. B) Cell membranes cannot evolve if proteins do not. C) The evolution of cell membranes is driven by the evolution of glycoproteins and glycolipids. D) As populations of organisms evolve, different properties of their cell membranes are selected for or against. E) An individual organism selects its preferred type of cell membrane for particular functions.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.1

: Application/Analysis 37) If a young male child has cystic fibrosis, which of the following would affect his fertility? A) inability to make sperm B) incomplete maturation of the testes C) failure to form genital structures appropriately D) incorrect concentrations of ions in semen E) abnormal pH in seminal fluid

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) After a membrane freezes and then thaws, it often becomes leaky to solutes. The most reasonable explanation for this is that A) transport proteins become nonfunctional during freezing. B) the lipid bilayer loses its fluidity when it freezes. C) aquaporins can no longer function after freezing. D) the integrity of the lipid bilayer is broken when the membrane freezes. E) the solubility of most solutes in the cytoplasm decreases on freezing.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.2

: Application/Analysis 140 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 45) Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal tonicity conditions for typical plant and animal cells? A) The animal cell is in a hypotonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution. B) The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypertonic solution. C) The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in an isotonic solution. D) The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution. E) The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis 44) If you examine side A after 3 days, you should find A) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level. B) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl, an increase in water level, and no change in the concentration of glucose. C) no net change in the system. D) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level. E) no change in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis 49) You are working on a team that is designing a new drug. In order for this drug to work, it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells. Which of the following would be a factor that determines whether the molecule enters the cell? A) blood or tissue type of the patient B) non-polarity of the drug molecule C) lack of charge on the drug molecule D) similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells E) lipid composition of the target cellsʹ plasma membrane

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis 63) Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every kingdom of organisms. What does this most probably mean? A) Proton pumps must have evolved before any living organisms were present on the earth. B) Proton pumps are fundamental to all cell types. C) The high concentration of protons in the ancient atmosphere must have necessitated a pump mechanism. D) Cells with proton pumps were maintained in each Kingdom by natural selection. E) Proton pumps are necessary to all cell membranes.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 144 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 60) Ions diffuse across membranes down their A) chemical gradients. B) concentration gradients. C) electrical gradients. D) electrochemical gradients. E) A and B are correct.

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.4

: Application/Analysis 65) An organism with a cell wall would have the most difficulty doing which process? A) diffusion B) osmosis C) active transport D) phagocytosis E) facilitated diffusion

wer: D Topic: Concept 7.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy? A) a boy mowing grass B) water rushing over Niagara Falls C) a firefly using light flashes to attract a mate D) a food molecule made up of energy-rich macromolecules E) an insect foraging for food

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? A) If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe. B) If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe. C) Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment. D) Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe. E) Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 150 5) Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics? A) Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must increase with time. B) Life obeys the second law of thermodynamics because the decrease in entropy as the organism grows is balanced by an increase in the entropy of the universe. C) Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics. D) As a consequence of growing, organisms create more disorder in their environment than the decrease in entropy associated with their growth. E) Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 6) Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the A) free energy of the system. B) free energy of the universe. C) entropy of the system. D) entropy of the universe. E) enthalpy of the universe.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 8) Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics? A) Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some gain of free energy. B) Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work. C) Without an input of energy, organisms would tend toward decreasing entropy. D) Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization. E) Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Chemical equilibrium is relatively rare in living cells. Which of the following could be an example of a reaction at chemical equilibrium in a cell? A) a reaction in which the free energy at equilibrium is higher than the energy content at any point away from equilibrium B) a chemical reaction in which the entropy change in the reaction is just balanced by an opposite entropy change in the cellʹs surroundings C) an endergonic reaction in an active metabolic pathway where the energy for that reaction is supplied only by heat from the environment D) a chemical reaction in which both the reactants and products are only used in a metabolic pathway that is completely inactive E) There is no possibility of having chemical equilibrium in any living cell.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat generated? A) It is used to power yet more cellular work. B) It is used to store energy as more ATP. C) It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors. D) It is lost to the environment. E) It is transported to specific organs such as the brain.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 28) When ATP releases some energy, it also releases inorganic phosphate. What purpose does this serve (if any) in the cell? A) It is released as an excretory waste. B) It can only be used to regenerate more ATP. C) It can be added to water and excreted as a liquid. D) It can be added to other molecules in order to activate them. E) It can enter the nucleus to affect gene expression.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.3

: Application/Analysis 41) Which curve was most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach where conditions are strongly acid? A) curve 1 B) curve 2 C) curve 3 D) curve 4 E) curve 5

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 44) Which of the following is true of enzymes? A) Enzymes may require a nonprotein cofactor or ion for catalysis to take speed up more appreciably than if the enzymes act alone. B) Enzyme function is increased if the three-dimensional structure or conformation of an enzyme is altered. C) Enzyme function is independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature. D) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by lowering activation energy barriers.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 49) Which of the following represents the △G of the reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 56) Assume that the reaction has a △G of -5.6 kcal/mol. Which of the following would be true? A) The reaction could be coupled to power an endergonic reaction with a △G of +6.2 kcal/mol. B) The reaction could be coupled to power an exergonic reaction with a △G of +8.8 kcal/mol. C) The reaction would result in a decrease in entropy (S) and an increase in the total energy content (H) of the system. D) The reaction would result in an increase in entropy (S) and a decrease in the total energy content (H) of the system. E) The reaction would result in products (C + D) with a greater free-energy content than in the initial reactants (A + B).

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 164 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 55) Which best describes the reaction? A) The amount of free energy initially present in the reactants is indicated by ʺa.ʺ B) The amount of free energy present in the products is indicated by ʺe.ʺ C) The amount of free energy released as a result of the noncatalyzed reaction is indicated by ʺc.ʺ D) The amount of free energy released as a result of the catalyzed reaction is indicated by ʺd.ʺ E) The difference between ʺbʺ and ʺcʺ is the activation energy added by the presence of the enzyme.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) How can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A) Increase the activation energy needed. B) Cool the reactants. C) Decrease the concentration of the reactants. D) Add a catalyst. E) Increase the entropy of the reactants.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of the following is correct? A) The binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site. B) Some enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the enzyme. C) A competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate for the active site. D) The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzymeʹs active site. E) The active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as a(n) A) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme. B) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. C) allosteric activator of the enzyme. D) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity. E) coenzyme derived from a vitamin.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Which of the following would be the same in an enzyme-catalyzed or noncatalyzed reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) Which of the following represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reaction and the free-energy content of the products? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 167 Use Figure 8.3 to answer the following questions. Figure 8.3 66) Which of the following is the most correct interpretation of the figure? A) Inorganic phosphate is created from organic phosphate. B) Energy from catabolism can be used directly for performing cellular work. C) ADP + Pi are a set of molecules that store energy for catabolism. D) ATP is a molecule that acts as an intermediary to store energy for cellular work. E) Pi acts as a shuttle molecule to move energy from ATP to ADP.

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.5

: Synthesis/Evaluation 68) Some enzymatic regulation is allosteric. In such cases, which of the following would usually be found? A) cooperativity B) feedback inhibition C) both activating and inhibitory activity D) an enzyme with more than one subunit E) the need for cofactors

wer: D Topic: Concept 8.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) Why are carbohydrates and fats considered high energy foods? A) They have a lot of oxygen atoms. B) They have no nitrogen in their makeup. C) They can have very long carbon skeletons. D) They have a lot of electrons associated with hydrogen. E) They are easily reduced.

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 178 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 26) A molecule that is phosphorylated A) has been reduced as a result of a redox reaction involving the loss of an inorganic phosphate. B) has a decreased chemical reactivity; it is less likely to provide energy for cellular work. C) has been oxidized as a result of a redox reaction involving the gain of an inorganic phosphate. D) has an increased chemical reactivity; it is primed to do cellular work. E) has less energy than before its phosphorylation and therefore less energy for cellular work.

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.2

: Application/Analysis 39) Starting with citrate, which of the following combinations of products would result from three turns of the citric acid cycle? A) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2 B) 2 ATP, 2 CO2, 1 NADH, and 3 FADH2 C) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 D) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2 E) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.3

: Application/Analysis Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 181 36) Carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis are supplied by intermediates of the citric acid cycle. Which intermediate would supply the carbon skeleton for synthesis of a five-carbon amino acid? A) succinate B) malate C) citrate D) α-ketoglutarate E) isocitrate

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following intermediary metabolites enters the citric acid cycle and is formed, in part, by the removal of a carbon (CO2) from one molecule of pyruvate? A) lactate B) glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate C) oxaloacetate D) acetyl CoA E) citrate

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Use the following information to answer the next questions. In the presence of oxygen, the three-carbon compound pyruvate can be catabolized in the citric acid cycle. First, however, the pyruvate 1) loses a carbon, which is given off as a molecule of CO2, 2) is oxidized to form a two-carbon compound called acetate, and 3) is bonded to coenzyme A. 29) These three steps result in the formation of A) acetyl CoA, O2, and ATP. B) acetyl CoA, FADH2, and CO2. C) acetyl CoA, FAD, H2, and CO2. D) acetyl CoA, NADH, H+, and CO2. E) acetyl CoA, NAD+, ATP, and CO2.

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.3

: Application/Analysis 66) After the second agitation of the membrane vesicles, what must be lost from the membrane? A) the ability of NADH to transfer electrons to the first acceptor in the electron transport chain B) the prosthetic groups like heme from the transport system C) cytochromes D) ATP synthase, in whole or in part E) the contact required between inner and outer membrane surfaces

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Application/Analysis Figure 9.3 68) The accompanying figure shows the electron transport chain. Which of the following is the combination of substances that is initially added to the chain? A) oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water B) NAD+ , FAD, and electrons C) NADH, FADH2, and protons D) NADH, FADH2, and electrons 190 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy E) Oxygen and electrons

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) Which of the following describes the sequence of electron carriers in the electron transport chain, starting with the least electronegative? A) ubiquinone (Q), cytochromes (Cyt), FMN, Fe•S B) cytochromes (Cyt), FMN, ubiquinone, Fe•S C) Fe•S, FMN, cytochromes (Cyt), ubiquinone D) FMN, Fe•S, ubiquinone, cytochromes (Cyt) E) cytochromes (Cyt), Fe•S, ubiquinone, FMN

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) In chemiosmotic phosphorylation, what is the most direct source of energy that is used to convert ADP + Pi to ATP? A) energy released as electrons flow through the electron transport system B) energy released from substrate-level phosphorylation C) energy released from ATP synthase pumping hydrogen ions from the mitochondrial matrix D) energy released from movement of protons through ATP synthase E) No external source of energy is required because the reaction is exergonic.

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) The direct energy source that drives ATP synthesis during respiratory oxidative phosphorylation is A) oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water. B) the thermodynamically favorable flow of electrons from NADH to the mitochondrial electron transport carriers. C) the final transfer of electrons to oxygen. D) the difference in H+ concentrations on opposite sides of the inner mitochondrial membrane. E) the thermodynamically favorable transfer of phosphate from glycolysis and the citric acid cycle intermediate molecules of ADP.

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into the intermembrane space, the result is the A) formation of ATP. B) reduction of NAD+. C) restoration of the Na+/K+ balance across the membrane. D) creation of a proton gradient. E) lowering of pH in the mitochondrial matrix.

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) Where is ATP synthase located in the mitochondrion? A) cytosol B) electron transport chain C) outer membrane D) inner membrane E) mitochondrial matrix

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 185 52) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location? A) cytosol B) mitochondrial outer membrane C) mitochondrial inner membrane D) mitochondrial intermembrane space E) mitochondrial matrix

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 187 60) Assume a mitochondrion contains 58 NADH and 19 FADH2. If each of the 77 dinucleotides were used, approximately how many ATP molecules could be generated as a result of oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)? A) 36 B) 77 C) 173 D) 212 E) 1102

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 76) Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation? A) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) the citric acid cycle C) oxidative phosphorylation D) glycolysis E) chemiosmosis

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.5

: Synthesis/Evaluation 194 Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 86) When muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is now known to be caused by A) buildup of pyruvate. B) buildup of lactate. C) increase in sodium ions. D) increase in potassium ions. E) increase in ethanol.

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 195 90) Even though plants carry on photosynthesis, plant cells still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyruvate. When and where will this occur? A) in photosynthetic cells in the light, while photosynthesis occurs concurrently B) in non-photosynthesizing cells only C) in cells that are storing glucose only D) in photosynthesizing cells in dark periods and in other tissues all the time E) in photosynthesizing cells in the light and in other tissues in the dark

wer: D Topic: Concept 9.6

: Synthesis/Evaluation 6) How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle? A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. D) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA. E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.

wer: D Topic: Concepts 12.1

: Application/Analysis 80) Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis? A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water B) the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water C) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the utilization of water E) the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base with the production of a molecule of water

wer: D Topic: Concepts 5.1-5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of the following is true of metabolism in its entirety? A) Metabolism depends on a constant supply of energy from food B) Metabolism depends on an organismʹs adequate hydration C) Metabolism utilizes all of an organismʹs resources D) Metabolism is a property of organismal life E) Metabolism manages the increase of entropy in an organism

wer: D Topic: Concepts 8.1, 8.5

1) If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with CO2 synthesized with heavy oxygen (18O), later analysis will show that all but one of the following compounds produced by the algae contain the 18O label. That one is A) PGA. B) PGAL. C) glucose. D) RuBP. E) O2.

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.1

: Application/Analysis 2) Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle? A) CO2 and glucose B) H2O and O2 C) ADP, Pi, and NADP+ D) electrons and H+ E) ATP and NADPH

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) What are the products of the light reactions that are subsequently used by the Calvin cycle? A) oxygen and carbon dioxide B) carbon dioxide and RuBP C) water and carbon D) electrons and photons E) ATP and NADPH

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.1

: Synthesis/Evaluation 6) In autotrophic bacteria, where are the enzymes located that can carry on organic synthesis? A) chloroplast membranes B) nuclear membranes C) free in the cytosol D) along the outer edge of the nucleoid E) along the inner surface of the plasma membrane

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Which of the events listed below occur in the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) NADP is produced. B) NADPH is reduced to NADP+. C) carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA. D) ATP is phosphorylated to yield ADP. E) light is absorbed and funneled to reaction-center chlorophyll a.

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.2

: Application/Analysis Use the following figure and the stages labeled A, B, C, D, and E to answer the following questions. Figure 10.2 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 213 54) If ATP used by this plant is labeled with radioactive phosphorus, in which molecules will the radioactivity be measurable after one ʺturnʺ of the cycle? A) in B only B) in B and C only C) in B, C, and D only D) in B and E only E) in B, C, D, and E

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 210 Chapter 10, Photosynthesis 44) What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle? A) use ATP to release carbon dioxide B) use NADPH to release carbon dioxide C) split water and release oxygen D) transport RuBP out of the chloroplast E) synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) In metabolic processes of cell respiration and photosynthesis, prosthetic groups such as heme and iron-sulfur complexes are encountered. What do they do? A) donate electrons B) act as reducing agents C) act as oxidizing agents D) transport protons within the mitochondria and chloroplasts E) both oxidize and reduce during electron transport

wer: E Topic: Concept 10.3

: Application/Analysis 38) What is the most probable hypothesis about these intermediate forms of cell division? A) They represent a form of cell reproduction which must have evolved completely separately from those of other organisms. B) They demonstrate that these species are not closely related to any of the other Protists and may well be a different Kingdom. C) They rely on totally different proteins for the processes they undergo. D) They may be more closely related to plant forms that also have unusual mitosis. E) They show some of the evolutionary steps toward complete mitosis but not all.

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it have during anaphase? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 16

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 238 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 10) Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells? A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 242 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 24) The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re-forming at opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this? A) an animal cell in metaphase B) an animal cell in telophase C) an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis D) a plant cell in metaphase E) a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) This is the shortest part of the cell cycle: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 243 28) During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids? A) from interphase through anaphase B) from G1 of interphase through metaphase C) from metaphase through telophase D) from anaphase through telophase E) from G2 of interphase through metaphase

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 252 Chapter 12, The Cell Cycle 65) A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation? A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase. B) The cell would never leave metaphase. C) The cell would never enter metaphase. D) The cell would never enter prophase. E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active? A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) The cyclin component of MPF is destroyed toward the end of this phase: A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called A) ATPases. B) kinetochores. C) centrioles. D) proton pumps. E) cyclins.

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 67) Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells? A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture. B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle. C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls. D) B and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)? A) Cdk is inactive, or ʺturned off,ʺ in the presence of cyclin. B) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle. C) Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins. D) Both A and B are true. E) Both B and C are true.

wer: E Topic: Concept 12.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction differ in all but which of the following ways? A) Individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny, whereas individuals reproducing sexually transmit only 50%. B) Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents, whereas sexual reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring. C) Asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves two. D) Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always involves meiosis. E) Asexual reproduction is utilized only by fungi and protists, whereas sexual reproduction is utilized only by plants and animals.

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.1

: Application/Analysis 262 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 22) The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following? A) Mitosis in her ovary B) Metaphase I of one meiotic event C) Telophase II of one meiotic event D) Telophase I of one meiotic event E) Either anaphase I or II

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 258 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 8) What is a karyotype? A) The set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual B) The collection of all the mutations present within the genome of an individual C) The combination of chromosomes found in a gamete D) A system of classifying cell nuclei E) A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 23) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the following? A) It must be human. B) It must be a primate. C) It must be an animal. D) It must be sexually reproducing. E) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.2

: Application/Analysis The following questions refer to the essential steps in meiosis described below. 1. Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus 2. Alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate 3. Separation of sister chromatids 4. Separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere 5. Synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs 43) From the descriptions above, which of the following is the order that most logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis? A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 D) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3 E) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 266 Chapter 13, Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 36) Chromatids are separated from each other. A) The statement is true for mitosis only. B) The statement is true for meiosis I only. C) The statement is true for meiosis II only. D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate. A) II B) III C) IV D) V E) VII

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 55) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? A) 23 B) 46 C) 460 D) 920 E) About 8 million

wer: E Topic: Concept 13.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) What does transformation involve in bacteria? A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell

wer: E Topic: Concept 16.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 322 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 7) For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why wonʹt this experiment work? A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen. B) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long. C) Avery et al. have already concluded that this experiment showed inconclusive results. D) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive. E) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

wer: E Topic: Concept 16.1

: Application/Analysis 32) The DNA of telomeres has been found to be highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. What does this most probably reflect? A) the inactivity of this DNA B) the low frequency of mutations occurring in this DNA C) that new evolution of telomeres continues D) that mutations in telomeres are relatively advantageous E) that the critical function of telomeres must be maintained

wer: E Topic: Concept 16.2

: Application/Analysis 36) To repair a thymine dimmer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act? A) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase B) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase

wer: E Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base? A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive. C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive. D) Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine. E) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

wer: E Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 332 Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 46) A new DNA strand elongates only in the 5ʹ to 3ʹ direction because A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5ʹ end of the template. B) Okazaki fragments prevent elongation in the 3ʹ to 5ʹ direction. C) the polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3ʹ end. D) replication must progress toward the replication fork. E) DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the free 3ʹ end.

wer: E Topic: Concept 16.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 16, The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 331 42) Which of the following synthesizes short segments of RNA? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase

wer: E Topic: Concept 16.2

: Application/Analysis 21) The molecular mass of glucose is 180 g. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose? A) Dissolve 1 g of glucose in 1 L of water. B) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water. C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 100 g of water. D) Dissolve 180 mg (milligrams) of glucose in 1 L of water. E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) One mole (mol) of a substance is A) 6.02 × 1023 molecules of the substance. B) 1 g of the substance dissolved in 1 L of solution. C) the largest amount of the substance that can be dissolved in 1 L of solution. D) the molecular mass of the substance expressed in grams. E) A and D only

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) How many molecules of glucose (C6H2O6 molecular mass =180 daltons) would be present in one mole of glucose? A) 24 B) 342 C) 23 × 1014 D) 180 × 1014 E) 6.02 × 1023

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) How many molecules of glycerol (C3H8O3) would be present in 1 L of a 1 M glycerol solution? A) 1 B) 14 C) 92 D) 1 × 107 E) 6.02 × 1023

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.2

: Application/Analysis 35) A solution contains 0.0000001(10-7) moles of hydroxyl ions [OH-] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? A) acidic: H+ acceptor B) basic: H+ acceptor C) acidic: H+ donor D) basic: H+ donor E) neutral

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 40) If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the A) concentration of H+ has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9. B) concentration of H+ has increased 10-fold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9. C) concentration of OH- has increased 10-fold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9. D) concentration of OH- has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9. E) Both B and D are correct.

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Application/Analysis 43) One liter of a solution pH 9 has how many more hydroxyl ions (OH-) than 1 L of a solution of pH 4? A) 5 times more B) 100 times more C) 1,000 times more D) 10,000 times more E) 100,000 times more

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 32) Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base (alkali)? A) NaCl B) HCl C) NH3 D) H2CO3 E) NaOH

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Which of the following solutions has the greatest concentration of hydroxyl ions [OH-]? A) lemon juice at pH 2 B) vinegar at pH 3 C) tomato juice at pH 4 D) urine at pH 6 E) seawater at pH 8

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH of 7. From this information, we can reasonably conclude that A) solution Y has no free hydrogen ions (H+). B) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 30 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y. C) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y is 1,000 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X. D) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 3 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y. E) None of the other answer choices correctly describes these solutions.

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 3, Water and the Fitness of the Environment 53 45) Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by A) releasing H+ in acidic solutions. B) donating H+ to a solution when they have been depleted. C) releasing OH- in basic solutions. D) accepting H+ when the are in excess. E) Both B and D are correct.

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 54) A 100 mL beaker contains 10 mL of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician carefully pours into the beaker, 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the results of this mixing? A) The concentration of Na+ ion rises. B) The concentration of Cl- ion falls. C) The concentration of undissociated H2O molecules remains unchanged. D) The pH of the beakerʹs contents rises. E) The pH of the beakerʹs contents falls.

wer: E Topic: Concept 3.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis? A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers. B) Macromolecular synthesis occurs through the removal of water and digestion occurs through the addition of water. C) Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis. D) Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down polymers. E) A and B are correct.

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 14) A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) monosaccharide D) A and B only. E) A, B, and C.

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 85 16) Which of the following descriptors is true of the molecule shown in Figure 5.1? A) hexose B) fructose C) glucose D) A and B only E) A and C only

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) The molecule shown in Figure 5.3 is a A) polysaccharide. B) polypeptide. C) saturated fatty acid. D) triacylglycerol. E) unsaturated fatty acid.

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) The hydrogenation of vegetable oil results in which of the following? A) saturated fats and unsaturated fats with trans double bonds B) an increased contribution to artherosclerosis C) the oil (fat) being a solid at room temperature D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) How many different kinds of polypeptides, each composed of 12 amino acids, could be synthesized using the 20 common amino acids? A) 412 B) 1220 C) 125 D) 20 E) 2012

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) What would be an unexpected consequence of changing one amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids? A) The primary structure of the protein would be changed. B) The tertiary structure of the protein might be changed. C) The biological activity or function of the protein might be altered. D) Only A and C are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct.

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Altering which of the following levels of structural organization could change the function of a protein? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) all of the above

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 63) The function of each protein is a consequence of its specific shape. What is the term used for a change in a proteinʹs three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds? A) hydrolysis B) stabilization C) destabilization D) renaturation E) denaturation

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 92 Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 45) Which bond is closest to the carboxyl end of the molecule?

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.4

: Application/Analysis 74) The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA A) is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar. B) can form a double-stranded molecule. C) has a six-membered ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms. D) can attach to a phosphate. E) contains one less oxygen atom.

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 76) In the double helix structure of nucleic acids, cytosine hydrogen bonds to A) deoxyribose. B) ribose. C) adenine. D) thymine. E) guanine.

wer: E Topic: Concept 5.5

: Application/Analysis Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 111 8) A biologist is studying kidney tubules in small mammals. She wants specifically to examine the juxtaposition of different types of cells in these structures. The cells in question can be distinguished by external shape, size, and 3-dimensional characteristics. Which would be the optimum method for her study? A) transmission electron microscopy B) cell fractionation C) light microscopy using stains specific to kidney function D) light microscopy using living unstained material E) scanning electron microscopy

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge? A) ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria B) chloroplasts, ribosomes, vacuoles C) nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts D) vacuoles, ribosomes, nucleus E) nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.1

: Application/Analysis 11) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except A) DNA. B) a cell wall. C) a plasma membrane. D) ribosomes. E) an endoplasmic reticulum.

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 13) A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 μm. What does its size tell you about how it might be classified? A) It must be a single celled protist. B) It must be a single celled fungus. C) It could be almost any typical bacterium. D) It could be a typical virus. E) It could be a very small bacterium.

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.2

: Synthesis/Evaluation 17) Recent evidence shows that individual chromosomes occupy fairly defined territories within the nucleus. Given the structure and location of the following parts of the nucleus, which would be more probably involved in chromosome location? A) nuclear pores B) the nucleolus C) the outer lipid bilayer D) the nuclear lamina E) the nuclear matrix

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity? A) Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite side. B) Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. C) Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. D) Soluble proteins in the cisternae (interior) of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. E) All of the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function.

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 117 33) Which of the following contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.5

: Application/Analysis 49) The differences among the three categories of cytoskeletal elements would suggest that each of the following has specialized roles. Which of the following is a correct match? A) microfilaments and the nuclear lamina B) microtubules and cleavage furrow formation C) microfilaments and ciliary motion D) intermediate filaments and cytoplasmic streaming E) microtubules and chromosome movement

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.6

: Application/Analysis 50) Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural elements and arrangements. This leads us to which of the following as a probable hypothesis? A) Disruption of one of these types of structure should necessarily disrupt each of the others as well. B) Loss of basal bodies should lead to loss of all cilia, flagella, and centrioles. C) Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved before any of these four kinds of structure. D) Evolution of motility, of cells or of parts of cells, must have occurred only once. E) Natural selection for motility must select for microtubular arrays in circular patterns.

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Microfilaments are well known for their role in which of the following? A) ameboid movement B) formation of cleavage furrows C) contracting of muscle cells D) A and B only E) A, B, and C

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 6, A Tour of the Cell 125 63) Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through A) plasmodesmata. B) intermediate filaments. C) tight junctions. D) desmosomes. E) gap junctions.

wer: E Topic: Concept 6.7

1) Who was/were the first to propose that cell membranes are phospholipid bilayers? A) H. Davson and J. Danielli B) I. Langmuir C) C. Overton D) S. Singer and G. Nicolson E) E. Gorter and F. Grendel

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 130 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 10) When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that A) the integral membrane proteins are not strong enough to hold the bilayer together. B) water that is present in the middle of the bilayer freezes and is easily fractured. C) hydrophilic interactions between the opposite membrane surfaces are destroyed on freezing. D) the carbon-carbon bonds of the phospholipid tails are easily broken. E) the hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this point.

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 132 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 18) Of the following functions, which is most important for the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes? A) facilitated diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients B) active transport of molecules against their concentration gradients C) maintaining the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane D) maintaining membrane fluidity at low temperatures E) a cellʹs ability to distinguish one type of neighboring cell from another

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Which of these often serve as receptors or cell recognition molecules on cell surfaces? A) transmembrane proteins B) integral proteins C) peripheral proteins D) integrins E) glycoproteins

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) cholesterol

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 136 Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 34) Water passes quickly through cell membranes because A) the bilayer is hydrophilic. B) it moves through hydrophobic channels. C) water movement is tied to ATP hydrolysis. D) it is a small, polar, charged molecule. E) it moves through aquaporins in the membrane.

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.2

: Application/Analysis 42) A cell whose cytoplasm has a concentration of 0.02 molar glucose is placed in a test tube of water containing 0.02 molar glucose. Assuming that glucose is not actively transported into the cell, which of the following terms describes the tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell? A) turgid B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) flaccid E) isotonic

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 51) When a plant cell, such as one from a peony stem, is submerged in a very hypotonic solution, what is likely to occur? A) the cell will burst B) the cell membrane will lyse C) plasmolysis will shrink the interior D) the cell will become flaccid E) the cell will become turgid

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.3

: Application/Analysis 53) What are the membrane structures that function in active transport? A) peripheral proteins B) carbohydrates C) cholesterol D) cytoskeleton filaments E) integral proteins

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Using this information, which transport mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells? A) simple diffusion B) phagocytosis C) active transport pumps D) exocytosis E) facilitated diffusion

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) If a membrane protein in an animal cell is involved in the cotransport of glucose and sodium ions into the cell, which of the following is most likely true? A) The sodium ions are moving down their electrochemical gradient while glucose is moving up. B) Glucose is entering the cell along its concentration gradient. C) Sodium ions can move down their electrochemical gradient through the cotransporter whether or not glucose is present outside the cell. D) Potassium ions move across the same gradient as sodium ions. E) A substance that blocked sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein would also block the transport of glucose.

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) What mechanisms do plants use to load sucrose produced by photosynthesis into specialized cells in the veins of leaves? A) an electrogenic pump B) a proton pump C) a contransport protein D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.4

: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 7, Membrane Structure and Function 145 64) Several seriously epidemic viral diseases of earlier centuries were then incurable because they resulted in severe dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhea. Today they are usually not fatal because we have developed which of the following? A) antiviral medications that are efficient and work well with all viruses B) antibiotics against the viruses in question C) intravenous feeding techniques D) medication to prevent blood loss E) hydrating drinks that include high concentrations of salts and glucose

wer: E Topic: Concept 7.4

1) Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? A) catalysis B) metabolism C) anabolism D) dehydration E) catabolism

wer: E Topic: Concept 8.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 15) What is the change in free energy of a system at chemical equilibrium? A) slightly increasing B) greatly increasing C) slightly decreasing D) greatly decreasing E) no net change

wer: E Topic: Concept 8.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 23) When 10,000 molecules of ATP are hydrolyzed to ADP and Pi in a test tube, about twice as much heat is liberated as when a cell hydrolyzes the same amount of ATP. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation? A) Cells are open systems, but a test tube is a closed system. B) Cells are less efficient at heat production than nonliving systems. C) The hydrolysis of ATP in a cell produces different chemical products than does the reaction in a test tube. D) The reaction in cells must be catalyzed by enzymes, but the reaction in a test tube does not need enzymes. E) Reactant and product concentrations are not the same

wer: E Topic: Concept 8.3

: Synthesis/Evaluation 156 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 30) What must be the difference (if any) between the structure of ATP and the structure of the precursor of the A nucleotide in DNA and RNA? A) The sugar molecule is different. B) The nitrogen-containing base is different. C) The number of phosphates is three instead of one. D) The number of phosphates is three instead of two. E) There is no difference.

wer: E Topic: Concept 8.3

: Application/Analysis 160 Chapter 8, An Introduction to Metabolism 42) Which curve was most likely generated from an enzyme that requires a cofactor? A) curve 1 B) curve 2 C) curve 4 D) curve 5 E) It is not possible to determine whether an enzyme requires a cofactor from these data.

wer: E Topic: Concept 8.4

: Application/Analysis 67) In coupled reactions, in which direction would the endergonic reaction be driven relative to the clockwise direction of the ATP reaction above and shown in the figure? A) from left to right at the top of the figure B) under the symbol for energy doing cellular work in the figure C) from right to left at the bottom of the figure D) it would be shown separately after the figure E) it would be shown in a clockwise direction at the top of the figure

wer: E Topic: Concept 8.5

: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) When electrons move closer to a more electronegative atom, what happens? A) Energy is released. B) Energy is consumed. C) The more electronegative atom is reduced. D) The more electronegative atom is oxidized. E) A and C are correct.

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.1

: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Where does glycolysis takes place? A) mitochondrial matrix B) mitochondrial outer membrane C) mitochondrial inner membrane D) mitochondrial intermembrane space E) cytosol

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.1

: Application/Analysis 20) Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed during glycolysis? A) 0% B) 2% C) 10% D) 38% E) 100%

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.2

: Application/Analysis 28) Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase? A) It both splits molecules and assembles molecules. B) It attaches and detaches phosphate groups. C) It uses glucose and generates pyruvate. D) It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion. E) It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP.

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.2

: Knowledge/Comprehension 33) During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location? A) cytosol B) mitochondrial outer membrane C) mitochondrial inner membrane D) mitochondrial intermembrane space E) mitochondrial matrix

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.3

: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) For each molecule of glucose that is metabolized by glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, what is the total number of NADH + FADH2 molecules produced? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 10 E) 12

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.3

: Application/Analysis 61) Approximately what percentage of the energy of glucose (C6H12O6) is transferred to storage in ATP as a result of the complete oxidation of glucose to CO2 and water in cellular respiration? A) 2% B) 4% C) 10% D) 25% E) 40%

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Application/Analysis 70) The parts of the figure labeled with Roman numerals symbolize what concept? A) different inner mitochondrial membranes B) different mitochondria functioning together C) molecules with different attached metal ions D) carbohydrate framework holding the molecules in place E) multimeric groups of proteins in 4 complexes

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Application/Analysis 72) Which of the following couples chemiosmosis to energy storage? A) NADH B) FADH2 C) cytochromes D) electron transport E) ATP synthase

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Application/Analysis Chapter 9, Cellular Respiration: Harvesting Chemical Energy 189 67) It should be possible to reconstitute the abilities of the vesicles if which of the following is added? A) cytochromes B) extra NADH C) a second membrane surface D) more electrons E) intact ATP synthase

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) During aerobic respiration, which of the following directly donates electrons to the electron transport chain at the lowest energy level? A) NAD+ B) NADH C) ATP D) ADP + Pi E) FADH2

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway? A) glycolysis → NADH → oxidative phosphorylation → ATP → oxygen B) citric acid cycle → FADH2 → electron transport chain → ATP C) electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → ATP → oxygen D) pyruvate → citric acid cycle → ATP → NADH → oxygen E) citric acid cycle → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2) and water? A) glycolysis B) fermentation C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) citric acid cycle E) oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) Approximately how many molecules of ATP are produced from the complete oxidation of two molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) in cellular respiration? A) 2 B) 4 C) 15 D) 38 E) 76

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.4

: Application/Analysis 81) An organism is discovered that consumes a considerable amount of sugar, yet does not gain much weight when denied air. Curiously, the consumption of sugar increases as air is removed from the organismʹs environment, but the organism seems to thrive even in the absence of air. When returned to normal air, the organism does fine. Which of the following best describes the organism? A) It must use a molecule other than oxygen to accept electrons from the electron transport chain. B) It is a normal eukaryotic organism. C) The organism obviously lacks the citric acid cycle and electron transport chain. D) It is an anaerobic organism. E) It is a facultative anaerobe.

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.5

: Application/Analysis 88) Phosphofructokinase is an important control enzyme in the regulation of cellular respiration. Which of the following statements describes a function of phosphofructokinase? A) It is activated by AMP (derived from ADP). B) It is activated by ATP. C) It is inhibited by citrate, an intermediate of the citric acid cycle. D) It catalyzes the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate, an early step of glycolysis. E) It is an allosteric enzyme.

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.6

: Synthesis/Evaluation 91) In vertebrate animals, brown fat tissueʹs color is due to abundant mitochondria. White fat tissue, on the other hand, is specialized for fat storage and contains relatively few mitochondria. Brown fat cells have a specialized protein that dissipates the proton-motive force across the mitochondrial membranes. Which of the following might be the function of the brown fat tissue? A) to increase the rate of oxidative phosphorylation from its few mitochondria B) to allow the animals to regulate their metabolic rate when it is especially hot C) to increase the production of ATP synthase D) to allow other membranes of the cell to perform mitochondrial function E) to regulate temperature by converting energy from NADH oxidation to heat

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.6

: Synthesis/Evaluation 92) What is the purpose of beta oxidation in respiration? A) oxidation of glucose B) oxidation of pyruvate C) feedback regulation D) control of ATP accumulation E) breakdown of fatty acids

wer: E Topic: Concept 9.6

: Knowledge/Comprehension 81) The element nitrogen is present in all of the following except A) proteins. B) nucleic acids. C) amino acids. D) DNA. E) monosaccharides.

wer: E Topic: Concepts 5.1-5.4

: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 5, The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 91 40) Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds? A) triacylglycerides B) polysaccharides C) proteins D) A and C only E) A, B, and C

wer: E Topic: Concepts 5.1-5.4