Infection Elimination Qs

A)

The Causative agent of Tuberculosis is said to be: A Mycobacterium Tuberculosis B Hansen's Bacilli C Bacillus Anthracis D Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus

D. Strain all urine

Which intervention do you plan to include with a patient who has renal calculi? Maintain bed rest B. Increase dietary purines C. Restrict fluids D. Strain all urine

Correct Answer: C Rationale: When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, administration of vasopressor drugs is used to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and improve tissue perfusion. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Dobutamine will increase stroke volume, but it would also further decrease SVR. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR.

10. A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation, as evidenced by a decreasing BP and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. dobutamine (Dobutrex). c. norepinephrine (Levophed). d. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).

Answer: A Rationale: Although all the diagnoses are appropriate, the initial nursing actions should focus on relief of the acute pain. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1173 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. A patient with a history of renal calculi is hospitalized with gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain that radiates to his left testicle. In planning care for the patient, the nurse gives the highest priority to the nursing diagnosis of a. acute pain related to irritation by the stone. b. deficient fluid volume related to inadequate intake. c. risk for infection related to urinary system damage. d. risk for nausea related to pain and renal colic.

ANS: A The elevated serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all consistent with the patient's diagnosis of cardiogenic shock.

14. Which information obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicates that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient's serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient has crackles throughout both lung fields. d. The patient's extremities are cool and pulses are weak.

ANS: C Patients with neurogenic shock may have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

16. When the charge nurse is evaluating the skills of a new RN, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education in the care of patients with shock? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Decreasing the room temperature to 68° F for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside (Nipride) infusion rate for a patient with a high SVR

ANS: B Since patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information also will be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status.

17. When caring for a patient who has septic shock, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. BP 92/56 mm Hg b. Skin cool and clammy c. Apical pulse 118 beats/min d. Arterial oxygen saturation 91%

Low Pitched Bowel Sounds Abdominal Distention Paralytic Ileus An intestinal obstruction occurs when the contents of the gastrointestinal tract cannot pass through the intestines. Signs and symptoms of an obstruction include severe abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distention, high-pitched or absent bowel sounds, and increased or absent peristalsis (paralytic ileus).

A 40-year-old, female patient with Crohn's disease is in the emergency room with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. The nurse suspects a total intestinal obstruction. Which assessment findings would confirm the diagnosis? Select all that apply: Low Pitched Bowel Sounds Abdominal Distention Polyuria Hypotension Paralytic Ileus

(D) Supplemental oxygen and airway management. The initial evaluation of any critically ill patient in shock should include assessing and establishing an airway, evaluating breathing (which includes consideration of mechanical ventilator support), and restoring adequate circulation.2 Adequate oxygenation should be ensured with a goal of achieving an arterial oxygen saturation of 90% or greater.

A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency de- partment with a 2-day history of fever, chills, cough, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. On the day of admission, the patient's family noted that he was more lethargic and dizzy and was falling frequently. The patient's vital signs are: temperature, 101.5°F; heart rate, 120 bpm; respiratory rate, 30 breaths/min; blood pressure, 70/35 mm Hg; and oxygen saturation as measured by pulse oximetry, 80% without oxygen supplementation. A chest radiograph shows a right lower lobe infiltrate. What is the first step in the initial management of this patient? (A) Antibiotic therapy (B) β-Blocker therapy to control heart rate (C) Intravenous (IV) fluid resuscitation (D) Supplemental oxygen and airway management (E) Vasopressor therapy with dopamine

d. abdominal distention.

A 73-year-old patient with diverticulosis has a large bowel obstruction. The nurse will monitor for a. referred back pain. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. projectile vomiting. d. abdominal distention.

1,2,3,4 The nurse should first help the client ambulate to try to induce peristalsis; this may be effective and require the least amount of invasive procedures. I.V. fluid therapy can be done to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances (sodium and potassium), and normal saline or Ringer's Lactate to correct interstitial fluid deficit. Nasogastric (NG) decompression of G.I. tract to reduce gastric secretions and nasointestinal tubes may also be used. Hyperalimentation can be used to correct protein deficiency from chronic obstruction, paralytic ileus, or infection.

A client is admitted with a bowel obstruction. The client has nausea, vomiting, and crampy abdominal pain. The physician has written orders for the client to be up ad lib, to have narcotics for pain, to have a nasogastric tube inserted if needed, and for I.V. Ringer's Lactate and hyperalimentation fluids. The nurse should do the following in order of priority from first to last: 1. Assist with ambulation to promote peristalsis 2. Administer Ringer's Lactate 3. Insert a nasogastric tube. 4. Start and infusion of hyperalimentation fluids.

D) Continuing to have acid-fast bacilli in the sputum after 2 months indicated continued infection.

A client is diagnosed with active TB and started on triple antibiotic therapy. What signs and symptoms would the client show if therapy is inadequate? A Decreased shortness of breath B Improved chest x-ray C Nonproductive cough D Positive acid-fast bacilli in a sputum sample after 2 months of treatment

a) Some people carry dormant TB infections that may develop into active disease. In addition, primary sites of infection containing TB bacilli may remain inactive for years and then activate when the client's resistance is lowered, as when a client is being treated for cancer. There's no such thing as tertiary infection, and superinfection doesn't apply in this case.

A client was infected with TB 10 years ago but never developed the disease. He's now being treated for cancer. The client begins to develop signs of TB. This is known as which of the following types of infection? a) active infection b) primary infection c) super infection d) tertiary infection

A) The client is showing s/s of active TB and, because of the productive cough, is highly contagious. He should be admitted to the hospital, placed in respiratory isolation, and three sputum cultures should be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. He would most likely be given isoniazid and two or three other antitubercular antibiotics until the diagnosis is confirmed, then isolation and treatment would continue if the cultures were positive for TB. After 7 to 10 days, three more consecutive sputum cultures will be obtained. If they're negative, he would be considered non-contagious and may be sent home, although he'll continue to take the antitubercular drugs for 9 to 12 months.

A client with a productive cough, chills, and night sweats is suspected of having active TB. The physician should take which of the following actions? A Admit him to the hospital in respiratory isolation B Prescribe isoniazid and tell him to go home and rest C Give a tuberculin test and tell him to come back in 48 hours and have it read D Give a prescription for isoniazid, 300 mg daily for 2 weeks, and send him home

d) A primary TB infection occurs when the bacillus has successfully invaded the entire body after entering through the lungs. At this point, the bacilli are walled off and skin tests read positive. However, all but infants and immunosuppressed people will remain asymptomatic. The general population has a 10% risk of developing active TB over their lifetime, in many cases because of a break in the body's immune defenses. The active stage shows the classic symptoms of TB: fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats.

A client with latent TB infection can expect to develop which of the following conditions? a) Active TB within 2 weeks b) Active TB within 1 month c) A fever that requires hospitalization d) A positive skin test

2. The client is placed in a right side-lying position to facilitate movement of the mercury-weighted tube through the pyloric sphincter. After the tube is in the intestine, the client is turned from side to side or encouraged to ambulate to facilitate tube movement through the intestinal loops. Placing the client in the supine or semi-Fowler's position, or having the client sitting out of bed in a chair will not facilitate tube progression.

After insertion of a nasoenteric tube, the nurse should place the client in which position? 1. Supine. 2. Right side-lying. 3. Semi-Fowler's. 4. Upright in a bedside chair.

C) Isoniazid and rafampin are contraindicated in clients with acute liver disease or a history of hepatic injury.

Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) have been prescribed for a client with TB. A nurse reviews the medical record of the client. Which of the following, if noted in the client's history, would require physician notification? A Heart disease B Allergy to penicillin C Hepatitis B D Rheumatic fever

2. The client's pain may be indicative of peritonitis, and the nurse should assess for signs and symptoms, such as a rigid abdomen, elevated temperature, and increasing pain. Reassuring the client is important, but accurate assessment of the client is essential. The full assessment should occur before pain relief measures are employed. Repositioning the client to the left side will not resolve the pain.

The client with an intestinal obstruction continues to have acute pain even though the nasoenteric tube is patent and draining. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. Reassure the client that the nasoenteric tube is functioning. 2. Assess the client for a rigid abdomen. 3. Administer an opioid as ordered. 4. Reposition the client on the left side.

C. "I drink a glass of wine with dinner each night." Isoniazid can be hepatotoxic. It would not be advisable for the client to drink alcohol while on this medication; doing so could cause the client to develop medication-related hepatitis. The client should be educated about this concern.

The home care nurse evaluates a client diagnosed with tuberculosis and receiving isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which client statement requires further assessment by the nurse? A. "I have gained 5 pounds since I started taking the medication." B. "I cover my nose and mouth when I cough or sneeze." C. "I drink a glass of wine with dinner each night." D. "I have stopped eating tuna salad sandwiches."

Correct answer: d Rationale: Adequate tissue perfusion in a patient with multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome is assessed by the level of consciousness, urine output, capillary refill, peripheral sensation, skin color, extremity skin temperature, and peripheral pulses.

The most accurate assessment parameters for the nurse to use to determine adequate tissue perfusion in the patient with MODS are a. blood pressure, pulse, and respirations. b. breath sounds, blood pressure, and body temperature. c. pulse pressure, level of consciousness, and pupillary response. d. level of consciousness, urine output, and skin color and temperature.

Answer: C) Metabolic alkalosis Rational: This client's lab values indicate metabolic alkalosis. The client's pH is high, indicating alkalosis. The CO2 is normal, and the bicarbonate is high, which indicates a metabolic source. The nurse can conclude that the loss of acid is due to high output of the nasogastric tube. Regarding B, The client is losing acidic stomach contents, and the pH of the blood is alkaline, so it is not metabolic acidosis. Regarding C and D, there is no indication of a respiratory issue.

The nurse is caring for a client with a bowel obstruction. The client has a nasogastric tube in place set to low intermittent suctioning (LIS). The nurse notes an output of 750 mL during the first half of the shift. The nurse reviews the client's lab values and notes a pH of 7.48, CO2 of 35 mEq/L, and HCO3 of 28 mEq/L. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect? A. metabolic acidosis B. respiratory alkalosis C. metabolic alkalosis D. respiratory acidosis

D

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a urinary tract infection and sepsis. Which information obtained in the assessment indicates a need for a change in therapy? a. The patient is restless and anxious. b. The patient has a heart rate of 134. c. The patient has hypotonic bowel sounds. d. The patient has a temperature of 94.1° F.

ANS: A Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient's cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient's status

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Skin cool and clammy c. Blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg b. Heart rate of 118 beats/min d. O2 saturation of 93% on room air

B, D, and E

The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with TB how to avoid spreading the disease to family members. Which statement(s) by the client indicate(s) that he has understood the nurses instructions? Select all that apply. A "I will need to dispose of my old clothing when I return home." B "I should always cover my mouth and nose when sneezing." C "It is important that I isolate myself from family when possible." D "I should use paper tissues to cough in and dispose of them properly." E "I can use regular plate and utensils whenever I eat."

C This test would be classed as negative. A 5 mm raised area would be a positive result if a client was HIV+ or had recent close contact with someone diagnosed with TB. Indeterminate isn't a term used to describe results of a PPD test. If the PPD is reddened and raised 10mm or more, it's considered positive according to the CDC.

The right forearm of a client who had a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis is reddened and raised about 3mm where the test was given. This PPD would be read as having which of the following results? A) Indeterminate B) Needs to be redone C) Negative D) Positive

d

To assess whether there is any improvement in a patient's dysuria, which question will the nurse ask? a. "Do you have to urinate at night?" b. "Do you have blood in your urine?" c. "Do you have to urinate frequently?" d. "Do you have pain when you urinate?"

D Clinical manifestations of MODS include symptoms of respiratory distress, signs and symptoms of decreased renal perfusion, decreased serum albumin and prealbumin, decreased GI motility, acute neurologic changes, myocardial dysfunction, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and changes in glucose metabolism.

When caring for a critically ill patient who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse will astutely monitor for which of the following clinical manifestations of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? A) Increased gastrointestinal (GI) motility B) Increased serum albumin C) Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio D) Decreased respiratory compliance

A. adhesions C. tumors E. Crohn's disease

When the nurse is teaching a client about bowel obstructions, which conditions will be described as mechanical bowel obstructions. Select all that apply. A. adhesions B. paralytic ileus C. tumors D. functional obstruction E. Crohn's disease F. absent peristalsis

B. abdominal distension D. high-pitched bowel sounds E. abdominal rigidity F. cramping high-pitched bowel sounds because intestines are trying to push obstruction through

Which assessment findings will the nuse expect when a client is experiencing an early mechanical SBO? A. absence of bowel sounds B. abdominal distension C. visible peristaltic waves D. high-pitched bowel sounds E. abdominal rigidity F. cramping

ANS: B Rationale: The 68-year-old woman has several risk factors. First she is an older adult, and immune function decreases with age. The greatest risk factor is that she has just had bowel surgery. Not only does major surgery further reduce the immune response, the bowel cannot be "sterilized" for surgery. Therefore the usual bacteria of the bowel have the chance to escape the site and enter the bloodstream when the bowel is disrupted.

Which newly admitted client does the nurse consider to be at highest risk for development of sepsis? A. 75-year-old man with hypertension and early Alzheimer's disease B. 68-year-old woman 2 days postoperative from bowel surgery C. 80-year-old community-dwelling man with no other health problems undergoing cataract surgery D. 54-year-old woman with moderate asthma and severe degenerative joint disease of the right knee

C. Invasive procedures

Which of the following causes the majority of UTI's in hospitalized patients? A. Lack of fluid intake B. Inadequate perineal care C. Invasive procedures D. Immunosuppression

2. A nasoenteric tube has a small balloon at its tip that is weighted with mercury. The weight of the mercury helps advance the tube by gravity through the intestine. Nasoenteric tubes are attached to suction. A nasoenteric tube is not taped in position until it has reached the obstruction. Because the tube has a radiopaque strip, its progress through the intestinal tract can be followed by fluoroscopy.

Which of the following statements about nasoenteric tubes is correct? 1. The tube cannot be attached to suction. 2. The tube contains a soft rubber bag filled with mercury. 3. The tube is taped securely to the client's cheek after insertion. 4. The tube can have its placement determined only by auscultation.

b. keeping client in semi-Fowler position c. if ng tube is repositioned, confirming placement with an x-ray e. monitoring contents and drainage from ng tube f. irrigating ng tube w/ 30 mL of NS as prescribed check placement every 4 hours

which actions will RN take when providing care for a pt w/ a NG tube? a. assessing ng tube for placement every 8 hours b. keeping client in semi-Fowler position c. if ng tube is repositioned, confirming placement with an x-ray d. instructing client that feeling N is bc of ng tube e. monitoring contents and drainage from ng tube f. irrigating ng tube w/ 30 mL of NS as prescribed

ANS: A Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. The other orders are appropriate.

1. A patient with septic shock has a urine output of 20 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120 and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure are low. Which of these orders by the health care provider will the nurse question? a. Give furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 150 mL/hr. c. Administer hydrocortisone (SoluCortef) 100 mg IV. d. Prepare to give drotrecogin alpha (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg/hr.

b Checking for flank pain is best performed by percussion of the CVA and asking about pain.

How will the nurse assess for flank tenderness in a 30-year-old female patient with suspected pyelonephritis? a. Palpate along both sides of the lumbar vertebral column. b. Strike a flat hand covering the costovertebral angle (CVA). c. Push fingers upward into the two lowest intercostal spaces. d. Percuss between the iliac crest and ribs along the midaxillary line.

ANS: E, D, C, A, B The initial action for this hypotensive and hypoxemic patient should be to improve the oxygen saturation, followed by infusion of IV fluids and vasopressors to improve perfusion. Cultures should be obtained before administration of antibiotics.

1. The health care provider prescribes these actions for a patient who has possible septic shock with a BP of 70/42 mm Hg and oxygen saturation of 90%. In which order will the nurse implement the actions? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________ a. Obtain blood and urine cultures. b. Give vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 g IV. c. Infuse vasopressin (Pitressin) 0.01 units/min. d. Administer normal saline 1000 mL over 30 minutes. e. Titrate oxygen administration to keep O2 saturation >95%.

Answer: B Rationale: Pain with urination is a common symptom of a lower UTI. Urine output does not decrease, but frequency may be experienced. Flank pain and nausea are associated with an upper UTI. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1157 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. When assessing the patient who has a lower urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse will initially ask about a. flank pain. b. pain with urination. c. poor urine output. d. nausea.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: The patient who has received chemotherapy is immune compromised, and placing the patient in a private room will decrease the exposure to other patients and reduce infection/sepsis risk. Administration of medications through the central line increases the risk for infection and sepsis. There is no indication that the patient is neutropenic, and restricting the patient to cooked and processed foods is likely to decrease oral intake further and cause further malnutrition, a risk factor for sepsis and shock. Insertion of an NG tube is invasive and will not decrease the patient's nausea and vomiting.

11. A patient who is receiving chemotherapy is admitted to the hospital with acute dehydration caused by nausea and vomiting. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to best prevent the development of shock, systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. Administer all medications through the patient's indwelling central line. b. Place the patient in a private room. c. Restrict the patient to foods that have been well-cooked or processed. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feeding.

ANS: A Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate and should be initiated quickly as well.

15. A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dL. Which of these prescribed interventions will the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Infuse drotrecogin- (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) at 65 to 70 mm Hg.

Answer: B Rationale: The patient should save the stone for analysis of the stone composition, which will help in determining treatment. Reporting the pain level and recording the time the stone passed are not essential. Hematuria is common with urinary calculi, so it is not necessary to test the urine for blood. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1173 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. The nurse instructs a patient seen in the outpatient clinic with symptoms of renal calculi to strain all urine and to a. report the pain level when the stone passed. b. collect the stone and bring it to the clinic. c. record the time that the stone passed. d. save a urine specimen to check for blood.

Answer: A Rationale: Because lithotripsy breaks the stone into small sand, which could cause obstruction, it is important to monitor the urine output. The patient may have pain as the stones pass and bruising at the site, but these are not unexpected. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) is not associated with a risk for infection. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1172 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. A patient with a confirmed urinary stone in the proximal left ureter undergoes extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy. Which information is most important for the nurse to collect after lithotripsy? a. Urine output b. Pain level c. Appearance of the site d. Patient temperature

Correct Answer: D Rationale: Hypothermia is an indication that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock. The other data are consistent with compensated shock.

16. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a urinary tract infection and sepsis. Which information obtained in the assessment indicates a need for a change in therapy? a. The patient is restless and anxious. b. The patient has a heart rate of 134. c. The patient has hypotonic bowel sounds. d. The patient has a temperature of 94.1° F.

Answer: B Rationale: Organ meats and fish such as sardines increase purine levels and uric acid. Spinach, chocolate, and tomatoes should be avoided in patients who have oxalate stones. Milk, dairy products, legumes, and dried fruits may increase the incidence of calcium-containing stones. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1170-1171 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

17. The composition of a patient's renal calculus is identified as uric acid. To prevent recurrence of stones, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid a. spinach, chocolate, and tomatoes. b. organ meats and fish with fine bones. c. milk and dairy products. d. legumes and dried fruits.

Answer: C Rationale: To avoid displacing the ureteral catheter, the patient is usually on bed rest until the catheter is removed. Aspiration of the ureteral catheter might damage tissue in the renal pelvis. The catheter is not clamped. The patient is not usually discharged with a ureteral catheter in place. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1187 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

31. A patient undergoing a left ureterolithotomy returns to the surgical unit with a left ureteral catheter and a urethral catheter in place. When caring for the patient, the nurse will plan to a. aspirate the ureteral catheter if output decreases. b. clamp the ureteral catheter unless output from the urethral catheter stops. c. keep the patient on bed rest until the ureteral catheter is discontinued. d. teach the patient about home care for both catheters.

Answer: C Rationale: Patients should be taught that Pyridium will color the urine deep orange and stain underclothing. Urised may turn the urine blue or green. The medication can cause gastrointestinal distress and should be taken with food. Although an allergic reaction may occur, this is not common. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1158 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. To relieve the symptoms of a lower UTI for which the patient is taking prescribed antibiotics, the nurse suggests that the patient use the OTC urinary analgesic phenazopyridine (Pyridium) but cautions the patient that this preparation a. contains methylene blue, which turns the urine blue or green. b. should be taken on an empty stomach for maximum effect. c. causes the urine to turn reddish orange and can stain underclothing. d. frequently causes allergic reactions and should be stopped if a rash occurs.

Answer: B Rationale: Infection can easily spread from the kidney to the circulation, causing urosepsis. A patient with a urinary tract obstruction will be at risk for hydronephrosis. Acute renal failure is not a common complication of acute pyelonephritis unless urosepsis and septic shock develop. Chronic pyelonephritis may occur after recurrent upper UTIs. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1161 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. A 34-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus is hospitalized with fever, anorexia, and confusion. The health care provider suspects acute pyelonephritis when the urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. An appropriate collaborative problem identified by the nurse for the patient is potential complication a. hydronephrosis. b. urosepsis. c. acute renal failure. d. chronic pyelonephritis.

A) The client with HIV+ status is considered to have positive results on PPD skin test with an area greater than 5-mm of induration. The client with HIV is immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client.

A client who is HIV+ has had a PPD skin test. The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test. The nurse interprets the results as: A Positive B Negative C Inconclusive D The need for repeat testing

C) If the lesions are large enough, the chest x-ray will show their presence in the lungs. Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-negative skin test results. A chest x-ray can't determine if this is a primary or secondary infection.

A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest x-ray. For which of the following reasons is this done? A To confirm the diagnosis B To determine if a repeat skin test is needed C To determine the extent of the lesions D To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection

D) Because of the increased incidence of resistant strains of TB, the disease must be treated for up to 24 months in some cases, but treatment typically lasts for 9-12 months. Isoniazid is the most common medication used for the treatment of TB, but other antibiotics are added to the regimen to obtain the best results.

A client with a positive skin test for TB isn't showing signs of active disease. To help prevent the development of active TB, the client should be treated with isoniazid, 300 mg daily, for how long? A 10 to 14 days B 2 to 4 weeks C 3 to 6 months D 9 to 12 months

B) One of the first pulmonary symptoms includes a slight cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum.

A community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding TB. The nurse tells the group that one of the first symptoms associated with TB is: A A bloody, productive cough B A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum C Chest pain D Dyspnea

a

A female patient being admitted with pneumonia has a history of neurogenic bladder as a result of a spinal cord injury. Which action will the nurse plan to take first? a. Ask about the usual urinary pattern and any measures used for bladder control. b. Assist the patient to the toilet at scheduled times to help ensure bladder emptying. c. Check the patient for urinary incontinence every 2 hours to maintain skin integrity. d. Use intermittent catheterization on a regular schedule to avoid the risk of infection.

B) INH competes with the available vitamin B6 in the body and leaves the client at risk for development of neuropathies related to vitamin deficiency. Supplemental vitamin B6 is routinely prescribed.

INH treatment is associated with the development of peripheral neuropathies. Which of the following interventions would the nurse teach the client to help prevent this complication? A Adhere to a low cholesterol diet B Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) C Get extra rest D Avoid excessive sun exposure

D- A patient with peritonitis is at high risk for developing sepsis. In addition, a patient with diabetes is at high risk for infections and impaired healing. Sepsis and septic shock are the most common causes of MODS. Individuals at greatest risk for developing MODS are older adults and persons with significant tissue injury or preexisting disease. MODS can be initiated by any severe injury or disease process that activates a massive systemic inflammatory response.

The nurse is assisting in the care of several patients in the critical care unit. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a-22-year-old patient with systemic lupus erythematosus who is admitted with a pelvic fracture after a motor vehicle accident b-48-year-old patient with lung cancer who is admitted for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone and hyponatremia c-65-year-old patient with coronary artery disease, dyslipidemia, and primary hypertension who is admitted for unstable angina d-82-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease who is admitted for peritonitis related to a peritoneal dialysis catheter infection

B- Hyperglycemia in patients with no history of diabetes is a diagnostic criterion for sepsis. Oliguria, not diuresis, typically accompanies sepsis along with tachypnea and tachycardia.

The nurse would recognize which clinical manifestation as suggestive of sepsis? a- Sudden diuresis unrelated to drug therapy b- Hyperglycemia in the absence of diabetes c-Respiratory rate of seven breaths per minute d-Bradycardia with sudden increase in blood pressure

D. severe pain major symptom of kidney stones is renal colic so pain meds should be given to control pain ?????????????

What is the priority nursing concern when a client is admitted with a history of kidney stones and presents with severe flank pain, N, V, pallor, and diaphoresis? A. possible hemorrhage B. urinary elimination blockage C. impaired tissue perfusion D. severe pain

A. strain urine to monitor for passage of stone fragments

Which essential nursing intervention will the nurse implement when a client returns from ESWL? A. strain urine to monitor for passage of stone fragments B. report bruising on affected side immediately to urologist C. apply a local anesthetic cream to the skin on the affected side D. continuously monitor heart pattern for dysrhythmias

a NSAIDs are nephrotoxic and should be avoided in patients with impaired renal function

Which medication taken at home by a 47-year-old patient with decreased renal function will be of most concern to the nurse? a. ibuprofen (Motrin) b. warfarin (Coumadin) c. folic acid (vitamin B9) d. penicillin (Bicillin LA)

C) The sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the only method of confirming the diagnosis. Lesions in the lung may not be big enough to be seen on x-ray. Skin tests may be falsely positive or falsely negative.

Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB? A Chest x-ray B Mantoux test C Sputum culture D Tuberculin test

D) Elderly persons are believed to be at higher risk for contracting TB because of decreased immunocompetence. Other high-risk populations in the US include the urban poor, AIDS, and minority groups.

Which of the following family members exposed to TB would be at highest risk for contracting the disease? A 45-year-old mother B 17-year-old daughter C 8-year-old son D 76-year-old grandmother

E) Vasopressor-dependent septic shock. An inappropriate cortisol response is not uncommon in patients with septic shock. Low-dose IV corticosteroids (hydrocortisone 200-300 mg/day) are recommended

Which of the following is an indication for using corticosteroids in septic shock? (A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) (B) Necrotizing pneumonia (C) Peritonitis (D) Sepsis responding well to fluid resuscitation (E) Vasopressor-dependent septic shock

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Answer: C Rationale: A fluid intake of 2000 to 3000 ml daily is recommended help flush out minerals before stones can form. Patients are not advised to avoid all calcium-containing foods and a high calcium intake may decrease the incidence of some types of stones. Coffee tends to increase stone recurrence. There is no need for a patient to strain all urine routinely after a stone has passed, and this will not prevent stones. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1172 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. To prevent the recurrence of renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to a. avoid all sources of dietary calcium. b. drink diuretic fluids such as coffee. c. drink 2000 to 3000 ml of fluid a day. d. use a filter to strain all urine.

ANS: D The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock.

19. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Decreased bowel sounds b. Apical pulse 110 beats/min c. Pale, cool, and dry extremities d. New onset of confusion and agitation

Answer: A Rationale: Although an initial infection may be treated with a shorter course of antibiotics, the patient with a recurrent infection should take the antibiotic for 7 days. Success of treatment is evaluated by resolution of symptoms rather than by a repeat culture. Acidifying the urine when a patient is taking sulfa antibiotics may lead to stone formation. The patient is instructed to take all the antibiotics. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1157 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) BID for 7 days is ordered for a patient who has a recurrent relapse of an Escherichia coli UTI. The nurse instructs the patient to a. take the antibiotic for the full 7 days, even if symptoms improve in a few days. b. return to the clinic in 3 days so that a urine culture can be done to evaluate the effectiveness of the drug. c. increase the effectiveness of the drug by taking it with cranberry juice to acidify the urine. d. take two of the pills a day for 5 days, and reserve the rest of the pills to take if the symptoms reappear.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Because of the low systemic vascular resistance (SVR) associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions are also appropriate and should be initiated quickly as well.

22. A patient who has just been admitted with septic shock has a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dl. Which order will the nurse accomplish first? a. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dl. b. Give normal saline IV at 500 ml/hr. c. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP at 65 to 70 mm Hg. d. Infuse drotrecogin- (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg.

Correct Answer: A Rationale: In the early stages of septic shock, the cardiac output is high. The other hemodynamic changes would indicate that the patient had developed progressive or refractory septic shock.

23. A patient in compensated septic shock has hemodynamic monitoring with a pulmonary artery catheter and an arterial catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the patient is still in the compensatory stage of shock? a. The cardiac output is elevated. b. The central venous pressure (CVP) is increased. c. The systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is high. d. The PAWP is high.

ANS: B Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient's diagnosis and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate a need for a change in therapy.

23. Which information about a patient who is receiving vasopressin (Pitressin) to treat septic shock is most important for the nurse to communicate to the heath care provider? a. The patient's heart rate is 108 beats/min. b. The patient is complaining of chest pain. c. The patient's peripheral pulses are weak. d. The patient's urine output is 15 mL/hr.

Answer: A Rationale: Exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles will help reduce stress incontinence. The Credé maneuver is used to help empty the bladder for patients with overflow incontinence. Placing the commode close to the bedside and assisting the patient to the bathroom are helpful for functional incontinence. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1181-1184 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

25. After her bath, a 62-year-old patient asks the nurse for a perineal pad, saying that she uses them because sometimes she leaks urine when she laughs or coughs. Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan for the patient? a. Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises. b. Demonstrate how to perform Credé's maneuver. c. Place commode at the patient's bedside. d. Assist the patient to the bathroom q3hr.

Answer: A Rationale: Environmental changes can make it easier for the patient to avoid incontinence for patients with urinary incontinence. Checking for residual urine and performing the Credé maneuver are interventions for overflow incontinence. Kegel exercises are useful for stress incontinence. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1181 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

27. A patient in the hospital has a history of urinary incontinence. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Place a bedside commode near the patient's bed. b. Use an ultrasound scanner to check urine residual after the patient voids. c. Demonstrate the use of the Credé maneuver to the patient. d. Teach the use of Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: The best data for assessing the adequacy of cardiac output are those that provide information about end-organ perfusion such as urine output by the kidneys. The low urine output is an indicator that renal tissue perfusion is inadequate and the patient is in the progressive stage of shock. The low BP, increase in pulse, and low-normal O2 saturation are more typical of compensated septic shock.

27. When caring for a patient who has just been admitted with septic shock, which of these assessment data will be of greatest concern to the nurse? a. BP 88/56 mm Hg b. Apical pulse 110 beats/min c. Urine output 15 ml for 2 hours d. Arterial oxygen saturation 90%

Answer: D Rationale: Patients who are at home can use a clean technique for intermittent self-catheterization and change the catheter every 7 days. There is no need to use a new catheter every day, to use sterile catheters, or to take prophylactic antibiotics. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1188 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

28. After the home health nurse teaches a patient with a neurogenic bladder how to use intermittent catheterization for bladder emptying, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will need to buy seven new catheters weekly and use a new one every day." b. "I will use a sterile catheter and gloves for each time I self-catheterize." c. "I will need to take prophylactic antibiotics to prevent any urinary tract infections." d. "I will wash the catheter with soap and water before and after each catheterization."

Answer: A Rationale: Voiding every 3 to 4 hours is recommended to prevent UTIs. Use of vaginal sprays is discouraged. The bladder should be emptied before and after intercourse, but cleaning with soap and water is not necessary. A quart of fluids is insufficient to provide adequate urine output to decrease risk for UTI. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1161 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

3. The nurse determines that instruction regarding prevention of future UTIs for a patient with cystitis has been effective when the patient states, a. "I will empty my bladder every 3 to 4 hours during the day." b. "I can use vaginal sprays to reduce bacteria." c. "I will wash with soap and water before sexual intercourse." d. "I will drink a quart of water or other fluids every day."

Answer: D Rationale: CVA tenderness is characteristic of pyelonephritis. The other symptoms are characteristic of lower UTI and are likely to be present if the patient also has an upper UTI. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1161 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. A 72-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia and a history of frequent UTIs is admitted to the hospital with chills, fever, and nausea and vomiting. To determine whether the patient has an upper UTI, the nurse will assess for a. suprapubic pain. b. foul-smelling urine. c. bladder distension. d. costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness.

Answer: B Rationale: High-potency multiple vitamins may irritate the bladder and increase symptoms. The other patient statements indicate good understanding of the teaching. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1164 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. After teaching a patient with interstitial cystitis about management of the condition, the nurse determines that further instruction is needed when the patient says, a. "I will have to stop having coffee and orange juice for breakfast." b. "I should start taking a high-potency multiple vitamin every morning." c. "I should call the doctor about increased bladder pain or odorous urine." d. "I will buy some calcium glycerophosphate (Prelief) at the pharmacy."

D) Severe sepsis. The patient fulfills criteria for severe sepsis, defined as sepsis with evidence of organ dysfunction, hypoperfusion, or hypotension. SIRS is defined as an inflammatory response to insult manifested by 2 of the following: temperature greater than 38°C (100.4°F) or less than 36°C (96.8°F), heart rate greater than 90 bpm, respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths/min, and white blood cell count greater that 12 × 103/μL, less than 4 × 103/μL, or 10% bands. A diagnosis of sepsis is given if infec- tion is present in addition to meeting criteria for SIRS. Septic shock includes sepsis-induced hypotension (despite fluid resuscitation) along with evidence of hypoperfusion. MODS is the presence of altered organ function such that hemostasis cannot be maintained without intervention.1 This patient's lack of fluid resuscitation classifies him as having severe sepsis rather than septic shock.

A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, chills, cough, and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. On the day of admission, the patient's family noted that he was more lethargic and dizzy and was falling frequently. The patient's vital signs are: temperature, 101.5°F; heart rate, 120 bpm; respiratory rate, 30 breaths/min; blood pressure, 70/35 mm Hg; and oxygen saturation as measured by pulse oximetry, 80% without oxygen supplementation. A chest radiograph shows a right lower lobe infiltrate. This patient's condition can best be defined as which of the following? (A) Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) (B) Sepsis (C) Septic shock (D) Severe sepsis (E) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

Correct answer: b Rationale: Septic shock is the presence of sepsis with hypotension despite fluid resuscitation along with the presence of inadequate tissue perfusion. To meet the diagnostic criteria for sepsis, the patient's temperature must be higher than 100.9° F (38.3° C), or the core temperature must be lower than 97.0° F (36° C). Hemodynamic parameters for septic shock include elevated heart rate; decreased pulse pressure, blood pressure, systemic vascular resistance, central venous pressure, and pulmonary artery wedge pressure; normal or elevated pulmonary vascular resistance; and decreased, normal, or increased pulmonary artery pressure, cardiac output, and mixed venous oxygen saturation.

A 78-year-old man has confusion and temperature of 104° F (40° C). He is a diabetic with purulent drainage from his right heel. After an infusion of 3 L of normal saline solution, his assessment findings are BP 84/40 mm Hg; heart rate 110; respiratory rate 42 and shallow; CO 8 L/minute; and PAWP 4 mm Hg. This patient's symptoms are most likely indicative of: a. sepsis. b. septic shock. c. multiple organ dysfunction syndrome. d. systemic inflammatory response syndrome.

b The patient's age and diagnosis indicate a likelihood of nocturia

A 79-year-old man has been admitted with benign prostatic hyperplasia. What is most appropriate to include in the nursing plan of care? a. Limit fluid intake to no more than 1000 mL/day. b. Leave a light on in the bathroom during the night. c. Ask the patient to use a urinal so that urine can be measured. d. Pad the patient's bed to accommodate overflow incontinence.

D)

A chest x-ray should a client's lungs to be clear. His Mantoux test is positive, with a 10mm if induration. His previous test was negative. These test results are possible because: A He had TB in the past and no longer has it. B He was successfully treated for TB, but skin tests always stay positive C He's a "seroconverter", meaning the TB has gotten to his bloodstream D He's a "tuberculin converter," which means he has been infected with TB since his last skin test

C) The client with active TB is highly contagious until three consecutive sputum cultures are negative, so he's put in respiratory isolation in the hospital.

A client diagnosed with active TB would be hospitalized primarily for which of the following reasons? A To evaluate his condition B To determine his compliance C To prevent spread of the disease D To determine the need for antibiotic therapy

B) A positive PPD test indicates that the client has been exposed to tubercle bacilli. Exposure does not necessarily mean that active disease exists.

A client has a positive reaction to the PPD test. The nurse correctly interprets this reaction to mean that the client has: A Active TB B Had contact with Mycobacterium tuberculosis C Developed a resistance to tubercle bacilli D Developed passive immunity to TB

B) Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be present from coughing, but isn't usual. Clients with TB typically have low-grade fevers, not higher than 102*F. Nausea, headache, and photophobia aren't usual TB symptoms.

A client has active TB. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit? A) Chest and lower back pain B) Chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis C) Fever of more than 104*F and nausea D) Headache and photophobia

b

A female patient with a suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) is to provide a clean-catch urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. To obtain the specimen, the nurse will a. have the patient empty the bladder completely, then obtain the next urine specimen that the patient is able to void. b. teach the patient to clean the urethral area, void a small amount into the toilet, and then void into a sterile specimen cup. c. insert a short sterile "mini" catheter attached to a collecting container into the urethra and bladder to obtain the specimen. d. clean the area around the meatus with a povidone-iodine (Betadine) swab, and then have the patient void into a sterile container.

c A red-orange color in the urine is normal with some over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium).

A male patient in the clinic provides a urine sample that is red-orange in color. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Teach correct midstream urine collection. c. Ask the patient about current medications. d. Question the patient about urinary tract infection (UTI) risk factors.

1, 4, 5. Signs and symptoms of intestinal obstructions in the small intestine may include projectile vomiting and rapidly developing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The client will also have increased bowel sounds, usually high-pitched and tinkling. The client would not normally have diarrhea and would have minimal abdominal distention. Pain is intermittent, being relieved by vomiting. Intestinal obstructions in the large intestine usually evolve slowly, produce persistent pain, and vomiting is less common. Clients with a large-intestine obstruction may develop obstipation and significant abdominal distention.

A nurse is assessing a client who has been admitted with a diagnosis of an obstruction in the small intestine. The nurse should assess the client for? Select all that apply. 1. Projectile vomiting. 2. Significant abdominal distention. 3. Copious diarrhea. 4. Rapid onset of dehydration. 5. Increased bowel sounds.

D) The client with TB usually experiences cough (non-productive or productive), fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, dyspnea, hemoptysis, chest discomfort or pain, chills and sweats (which may occur at night), and a low-grade fever.

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with TB. Which assessment, if made by the nurse, would not be consistent with the usual clinical presentation of TB and may indicate the development of a concurrent problem? A Nonproductive or productive cough B Anorexia and weight loss C Chills and night sweats D High-grade fever

B AND C

A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation, as evidenced by a decreasing BP and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of a. nitroglycerine (Tridil). b. dobutamine (Dobutrex). c. norepinephrine (Levophed). d. sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).

B

A patient who has just been admitted with septic shock has a BP of 70/46, pulse 136, respirations 32, temperature 104.0° F, and blood glucose 246 mg/dl. Which order will the nurse accomplish first? a. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dl. b. Give normal saline IV at 500 ml/hr. c. Titrate norepinephrine (Levophed) to keep MAP at 65 to 70 mm Hg. d. Infuse drotrecogin- (Xigris) 24 mcg/kg.

B

A patient who is receiving chemotherapy is admitted to the hospital with acute dehydration caused by nausea and vomiting. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to best prevent the development of shock, systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), and multiorgan dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. Administer all medications through the patient's indwelling central line. b. Place the patient in a private room. c. Restrict the patient to foods that have been well-cooked or processed. d. Insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feeding.

ANS: A Because of the decreased preload associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104°F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure above 90 mm Hg

C- Patients in septic shock require large amounts of crystalloid fluid replacement. Nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers are most often used in the treatment of patients in cardiogenic shock. Epinephrine is indicated in anaphylactic shock, and insulin infusion is not normally necessary in the treatment of septic shock (but can be).

A patient's localized infection has progressed to the point where septic shock is now suspected. What medication is an appropriate treatment modality for this patient? a-Insulin infusion b- IV administration of epinephrine c- Aggressive IV crystalloid fluid resuscitation d- Administration of nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers

B Patients in septic shock require large amounts of fluid replacement. Nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers are most often used in the treatment of patients in cardiogenic shock. Epinephrine is indicated in anaphylactic shock, and insulin infusion is not normally necessary in the treatment of septic shock (but can be).

A patient's localized infection has progressed to the point where septic shock is now suspected. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment modality for this patient? A) Insulin infusion B) Aggressive fluid resuscitation C) Intravenous administration of epinephrine D) Administration of nitrates and β-adrenergic blockers

4. Considering that there is usually 1 L of insensible fluid loss, this client's output exceeds his intake (intake, 2,000 mL; output, 2,200 mL), indicating deficient fluid volume. The kidneys are concentrating urine in response to low circulating volume, as evidenced by a urine output of less than 30 mL/ hour. This indicates that increased fluid replacement is needed. Decreasing urine output can be a sign of decreased renal function, but the data provided suggest that the client is dehydrated. Pain does not affect urine output. There are no data to suggest that the obstruction has worsened.

Before abdominal surgery for an intestinal obstruction, the nurse monitors the client's urine output and finds that the total output for the past 2 hours was 35 mL. The nurse then assesses the client's total intake and output over the last 24 hours and notes that he had 2,000 mL of I.V. fluid for intake, 500 mL of drainage from the nasogastric tube, and 700 mL of urine for a total output of 1,200 mL. This would indicate which of the following? 1. Decreased renal function. 2. Inadequate pain relief. 3. Extension of the obstruction. 4. Inadequate fluid replacement.

A) The most commonly used technique to identify tubercle bacilli is acid-fast staining. The bacilli have a waxy surface, which makes them difficult to stain in the lab. However, once they are stained, the stain is resistant to removal, even with acids. Therefore, tubercle bacilli are often called acid-fast bacilli.

The nurse obtains a sputum specimen from a client with suspected TB for laboratory study. Which of the following laboratory techniques is most commonly used to identify tubercle bacilli in sputum? A Acid-fast staining B Sensitivity testing C Agglutination testing D Dark-field illumination

D) INH and rifampin are hepatotoxic drugs. Clients should be warned to limit intake of alcohol during drug therapy. Both drugs should be taken on an empty stomach. If antacids are needed for GI distress, they should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after these drugs are administered. Clients should not double the dosage of these drugs because of their potential toxicity. Clients taking INH should avoid foods that are rich in tyramine, such as cheese and dairy products, or they may develop hypertension.

The nurse should include which of the following instructions when developing a teaching plan for clients receiving INH and rifampin for treatment for TB? A Take the medication with antacids B Double the dosage if a drug dose is forgotten C Increase intake of dairy products D Limit alcohol intake

B Hyperglycemia in patients with no history of diabetes is a diagnostic criterion for sepsis. Oliguria, not diuresis, typically accompanies sepsis along with tachycardia and tachypnea.

The nurse would recognize which of the following clinical manifestations as suggestive of sepsis? A) Respiratory rate of seven breaths per minute B) Hyperglycemia in the absence of diabetes C) Sudden diuresis unrelated to drug therapy D) Bradycardia with sudden increase in blood pressure

1. Intestinal decompression is accomplished with a Cantor, Harris, or Miller-Abbott tube. These 6- to 10-foot tubes are passed into the small intestine to the obstruction. They remove accumulated fluid and gas, relieving the pressure. The client will not have an adequate bowel movement until the obstruction is removed. The pressure from the distended intestine should not obstruct urinary output. While the client may be able to more easily sit up, and the pain caused by the intestinal pressure will be less, these are not the primary indicators for successful intestinal decompression.

The physician orders intestinal decompression with a Cantor tube for a client with an intestinal obstruction. In order to determine effectiveness of intestinal decompression the nurse should evaluate the client to determine if: 1. Fluid and gas have been removed from the intestine. 2. The client has had a bowel movement. 3. The client's urinary output is adequate. 4. The client can sit up without pain.

A) Question 59 Explanation: Directly observed therapy (DOT) can be implemented with clients who are not compliant with drug therapy. In DOT, a responsible person, who may be a family member or a health care provider, observes the client taking the medication. Visiting the client, changing the prescription, or threatening the client will not ensure compliance if the client will not or cannot follow the prescribed treatment.

The public health nurse is providing follow-up care to a client with TB who does not regularly take his medication. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client? A Ask the client's spouse to supervise the daily administration of the medications. B Visit the clinic weekly to ask him whether he is taking his medications regularly. C Notify the physician of the client's non-compliance and request a different prescription. D Remind the client that TB can be fatal if not taken properly.

A. Finish entire course of antibiotics to prevent infection C. Balance regular exercise w/ adequate sleep and rest. D. Drink at the very least 3 L of fluids every day. E. Your urine may appear bloody for a few days after the procedure.

What info will the nurse include when teaching a client self-care measures after ESWL? A. Finish entire course of antibiotics to prevent infection B. Pain in the region of the kidneys or bladder is to be expected. C. Balance regular exercise w/ adequate sleep and rest. D. Drink at the very least 3 L of fluids every day. E. Your urine may appear bloody for a few days after the procedure. F. Watch for and immediately report any bruising to the urologist.

c- some medications may give false-positive readings.

When a patient's urine dipstick test indicates a small amount of protein, the nurse's next action should be to a. send a urine specimen to the laboratory to test for ketones. b. obtain a clean-catch urine for culture and sensitivity testing. c. inquire about which medications the patient is currently taking. d. ask the patient about any family history of chronic renal failure.

B- Clinical manifestations of MODS include symptoms of respiratory distress, signs and symptoms of decreased renal perfusion, decreased serum albumin and prealbumin, decreased GI motility, acute neurologic changes, myocardial dysfunction, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and changes in glucose metabolism.

When caring for a critically ill patient who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse will astutely monitor for which clinical manifestation of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a- Increased serum albumin b- Decreased respiratory compliance c- Increased gastrointestinal (GI) motility d- Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio

B Septic shock is characterized by a decreased circulating blood volume. Volume expansion with the administration of intravenous fluids is the cornerstone of therapy. The administration of diuretics is inappropriate. VADs are useful for cardiogenic shock, not septic shock. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) may be used for anaphylactic shock, but would not be helpful with septic shock.

When caring for a patient in acute septic shock, the nurse would anticipate A) Administering osmotic and/or loop diuretics. B) Infusing large amounts of intravenous fluids. C) Administering intravenous diphenhydramine (Benadryl). D) Assisting with insertion of a ventricular assist device (VAD).

A- Septic shock is characterized by a decreased circulating blood volume. Volume expansion with the administration of IV fluids is the cornerstone of therapy. The administration of diuretics is inappropriate. VADs are useful for cardiogenic shock not septic shock. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) may be used for anaphylactic shock but would not be helpful with septic shock.

When caring for a patient in acute septic shock, what should the nurse anticipate? a- Infusing large amounts of IV fluids b- Administering osmotic and/or loop diuretics c- Administering IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d- Assisting with insertion of a ventricular assist device (VAD)

A

When caring for a patient in acute septic shock, what should the nurse anticipate? A. Infusing large amounts of IV fluids B. Administering osmotic and/or loop diuretics C. Administering IV diphenhydramine (Benadryl) D. Assisting with insertion of a ventricular assist device (VAD)

(D) Continuous infusion at low doses reduces the catecholamine infusion requirement. Vasopressin is a peptide synthesi zed in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. Vasopressin produces a wide range of physiologic effects, including blood pressure maintenance. Acting through vascular V1receptors, the endogenous hormone directly induces vasoconstriction in hypotensive patients but does not significantly alter vascular smooth muscle constriction in humans with normal blood pressure. Landry and colleagues8 demonstrated that patients with septic shock had inappropriately low levels of serum vasopressin compared with patients with cardiogenic shock, who had normal or elevated levels. In addition, they demonstrated that supplementing a low-dose infusion of vasopressin in septic shock patients allowed for the reduction or removal of the other catecholamine vasopressors. This was seen de- spite a reduction in cardiac output. Although these results were duplicated in subsequent studies, none evaluated outcomes such as length of stay or mortal- ity until recently. A randomized double-blind study comparing vasopressin versus norepinephrine for the treatment of septic shock demonstrated no dif- ference in 28-day mortality between the 2 treatment groups.9 Subgroup analysis of patients with severe septic shock, defined as requiring 15 μg/min of norepinephrine or its equivalent, also did not demonstrate a mortality benefit. However, patients with less severe septic shock (ie, requiring 5-15 μg/min of norepinephrine) experienced a trend toward lower mortality when treated with low-dose (0.01-0.03 U/min) vasopressin.

Which of the following is true of vasopressin in septic shock? (A) Continuous infusion at low doses improves 28-day overall mortality (B) Continuous infusion at low doses improves mortality in patients with severe septic shock (C) Continuous infusion at low doses increases cardiac output (D) Continuous infusion at low doses reduces the catecholamine infusion requirement

Suggested Responses: 1. What risk factors does this patient have for sepsis? Risk factors include older age, diabetes mellitus, poor mobility and self-care problems, a known urinary tract infection within the past 30 days, and an open skin area on a lower extremity. 2. What manifestations does she have that are consistent with sepsis and systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? Manifestations include elevated temperature, a heart rate of more than 90 beats/min, a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths/min, a blood glucose level above 120 mg/dL, a recent known infection, decreasing oxygen saturation, and confusion. 3. What assessment should you perform immediately? Assess the color of her skin and mucous membranes, capillary refill, and capnography. Obtain an order for a serum lactate level and a complete blood count with differential. Also obtain an order to insert a Foley catheter for accurate urine output assessment. 4. What would be the most likely source of infection? The two most likely sources of infection are the leg wound (even though the red area is adjacent to the scrape, it is an indication of cellulitis) and the urinary tract. 5. Should you express concern about the possibility of sepsis and SIRS to the emergency department intensivist? Why or why not? Absolutely; this patient meets multiple criteria for sepsis with SIRS and she is older. Her condition could worsen rapidly to severe sepsis and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). She needs immediate intervention to save her life.

p. 825, Patient-Centered Care; Evidence-Based Practice The patient is an 82-year-old woman who has been a resident in an extended-care facility for the past year because of poor mobility and self-care problems. Today she is brought to the emergency department because she does not recognize her son and does not know where she is. She completed drug therapy for a urinary tract infection 1 week ago. Her skin is thin, and she has many bruises. In addition, she has a healing wound on her left shin, which her son tells you occurred 3 days ago when she scraped the area trying to get out of bed alone. The skin immediately surrounding the wound appears normal; however, about 3 inches to the right of the wound the skin is red, firm, and warm to the touch. These are her vital signs: T, 100.8 F (38.2 C); P, 112 beats/min; R, 24 breaths/min; BP, 118/80; SpO2, 92%. Oxygen at 3 L/min is applied until the neurologist can evaluate her, and an IV with normal saline is started at 100 mL/hr. Her son is concerned because she was given her oral antidiabetic drug this morning (5 hours ago) but has not eaten breakfast or lunch. When you check her blood glucose level, it is 131 mg/dL. When you assess her 15 minutes later, her oxygen saturation is 90%. 1. What risk factors does this patient have for sepsis? 2. What manifestations does she have that are consistent with sepsis and systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)? 3. What assessment should you perform immediately? 4. What would be the most likely source of infection? 5. Should you express concern about the possibility of sepsis and SIRS to the emergency department intensivist? Why or why not?