InfoSec Final

The CISA credential is promoted by ISACA as the certification that is appropriate for all but which type of professionals? a. security b. accounting c. auditing d. networking

accounting

A(n) _____ is a document containing contact information for the people to be notified in the event of an incident. a. phone list b. alert roster c. call registry d. emergency notification system

alert roster

The _____ is typically considered the top information security officer in the organization. a. CISO b. CEO c. CTO d. CFO

CISO

_____ is the action of luring an individual into committing a crime to get a conviction. a. Enticement b. Entrapment c. Padding d. Intrusion

Entrapment

The bottom-up approach to information security has a higher probability of success than the top-down approach. a. True b. False

False

The community of interest made up of IT managers and skilled professionals in systems design, programming, networks, and other related disciplines is called _____. a. Organizational Management and Professionals b. Information Technology Management and Professionals c. Executive Management d. Information Security Management and Professionals

Information Technology Management and Professionals

Understanding the _____ context means understanding the impact of elements such as the business environment, the legal/regulatory/compliance environment, as well as the threat environment. a. design b. risk evaluation c. external d. internal

external

The model commonly used by large organizations places the information security department within the _____ department. a. financial b. information technology c. production d. management

information technology

Which type of organizations should prepare for the unexpected? a. organizations of every size and purpose b. large organizations which have many assets at risk c. only those without good insurance d. small organizations that can easily recover

organizations of every size and purpose

A table of hash values and their corresponding plaintext values used to look up password values if an attacker is able to steal a system's encrypted password file is known as a(n) _____. a. crib b. rainbow table c. dictionary d. crack file

rainbow table

A(n) _____ port, also known as a monitoring port, is a specially configured connection on a network device that is capable of viewing all of the traffic that moves through the entire device. a. IDSE b. SPAN c. NIDPS d. DPS

SPAN

A data custodian works directly with data owners and is responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of the information. a. True b. False

True

Good firewall rules include denying all data that is not verifiably authentic. a. True b. False

True

Good security programs begin and end with policy. a. True b. False

True

Technical mechanisms like digital watermarks and embedded code, copyright codes, and even the intentional placement of bad sectors on software media have been used to deter or prevent the theft of software intellectual property. a. True b. False

True

The Cybersecurity Analyst+ certification from _____ is an intermediate certification with both knowledge-based and performance-based assessments. a. SANS b. ISACA c. ACM d. CompTIA

CompTIA

The _____ is an intermediate area between a trusted network and an untrusted network. a. DMZ b. domain c. firewall d. perimeter

DMZ

Digital signatures should be created using processes and products that are based on the _____. a. NIST b. SSL c. HTTPS d. DSS

DSS

_____ are encrypted message components that can be mathematically proven to be authentic. a. MACs b. Message certificates c. Digital signatures d. Message digests

Digital signatures

Which of the following acts is a collection of statutes that regulate the interception of wire, electronic, and oral communications? a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act b. Economic Espionage Act c. Electronic Communications Privacy Act d. Financial Services Modernization Act

Electronic Communications Privacy Act

_____ is the process of converting an original message into a form that is unreadable to unauthorized individuals. a. Decryption b. Cryptology c. Cryptography d. Encryption

Encryption

"Knowing yourself" means identifying, examining, and understanding the threats facing the organization's information assets. a. True b. False

False

A brute force function is a mathematical algorithm that generates a message summary or digest (sometimes called a fingerprint) to confirm message identity and integrity. a. True b. False

False

A disaster is any adverse event that could result in loss of an information asset or assets but does not currently threaten the viability of the entire organization. a. True b. False

False

Accountability is the matching of an authenticated entity to a list of information assets and corresponding access levels. a. True b. False

False

An advance-fee fraud attack involves the interception of cryptographic elements to determine keys and encryption algorithms. a. True b. False

False

Discretionary access control is an organizational approach that specifies resource use based on the assignment of data classification schemes to resources and clearance levels to users. a. True b. False

False

Friendly departures include termination for cause, permanent downsizing, temporary lay-off, or some instances of quitting. a. True b. False

False

In a study on software license infringement, licenses from the United States were significantly more permissive than those from the Netherlands and other countries. a. True b. False

False

Incident detail assessment determines the impact from a breach of confidentiality, integrity, and availability on information and information assets. a. True b. False

False

Intrusion detection consists of procedures and systems that detect, identify, and limit intrusions before returning operations to a normal state. a. True b. False

False

Network security focuses on the protection of physical items, objects, or areas from unauthorized access and misuse. a. True b. False

False

Risk mitigation is the process of assigning a risk rating or score to each information asset. a. True b. False

False

The centralized IDPS implementation approach occurs when all detection functions are managed in a central location. a. True b. False

False

The general management community of interest must work with information security professionals to integrate solid information security concepts into the personnel management practices of the organization. a. True b. False

False

The key difference between laws and ethics is that ethics carry the authority of a governing body and laws do not. a. True b. False

False

The operational plan documents the organization's intended long-term direction and efforts for the next several years. a. True b. False

False

The primary mission of information security is to ensure that systems and their content retain their confidentiality. a. True b. False

False

The security framework is a more detailed version of the security blueprint. a. True b. False

False

To perform the Caesar cipher encryption operation, the pad values are added to numeric values that represent the plaintext that needs to be encrypted. a. True b. False

False

With the removal of copyright protection mechanisms, software can be easily and legally distributed and installed. a. True b. False

False

What is the subject of the Computer Security Act? a. Federal agency information security b. Telecommunications common carriers c. Cryptography software vendors d. All of the above

Federal agency information security

_____ functions are mathematical algorithms that generate a message summary or digest to confirm the identity of a specific message and to confirm that there have not been any changes to the content. a. MAC b. Hash c. Key d. Encryption

Hash

A(n) _____ works like a burglar alarm in that it detects a violation and activates an alarm. a. IDPS b. DoS c. WiFi d. UDP

IDPS

There are three general causes of unethical and illegal behavior: _____, Accident, or Intent. a. Curiosity b. Ignorance c. Revenge d. None of the above

Ignorance

A(n) _____ reviews the log files generated by servers, network devices, and even other IDPSs looking for patterns and signatures that may indicate an attack or intrusion is in process or has already occurred. a. stat IDPS b. HIDPS c. LFM d. AppIDPS

LFM

The EISP component of _____ provides information on the importance of information security in the organization and the legal and ethical obligation to protect critical information about customers, employees, and markets. a. Statement of Purpose b. Information Security Elements c. Information Security Responsibilities and Roles d. Need for Information Security

Need for Information Security

_____ is a hybrid cryptosystem that combines some of the best available cryptographic algorithms and has become the open-source de facto standard for encryption and authentication of e-mail and file storage applications. a. AH b. ESP c. PGP d. DES

PGP

_____ law regulates the structure and administration of government agencies and their relationships with citizens, employees, and other governments. a. Criminal b. Civil c. Public d. Private

Public

The _____ algorithm, developed in 1977, was the first public-key encryption algorithm published for commercial use. a. MAC b. RSA c. AES d. DES

RSA

_____ is a contractual document guaranteeing certain minimal levels of service provided by a vendor. a. Mutual agreement b. Service agreement c. Time-share agreement d. Memorandum of understanding

Service agreement

_____ is any technology that aids in gathering information about a person or organization without their knowledge. a. A worm b. A Trojan c. A bot d. Spyware

Spyware

_____ often function as standards or procedures to be used when configuring or maintaining systems. a. EISPs b. SysSPs c. ESSPs d. ISSPs

SysSPs

Which of the following versions of TACACS is still in use? a. TACACS v2 b. Extended TACACS c. TACACS+ d. All of these are correct

TACACS+

The _____ hijacking attack uses IP spoofing to enable an attacker to impersonate another entity on the network. a. FTP b. TCP c. HTTP d. WWW

TCP

_____ is the requirement that every employee be able to perform the work of another employee. a. Two-man control b. Task rotation c. Duty exchange d. Collusion

Task rotation

A breach of possession may not always result in a breach of confidentiality. a. True b. False

True

An HIDPS can monitor system logs for predefined events. a. True b. False

True

An organization should integrate security awareness education into a new hire's ongoing job orientation and make it a part of every employee's on-the-job security training. a. True b. False

True

Business impact analysis is a preparatory activity common to both CP and risk management. a. True b. False

True

Exposure factor is the expected percentage of loss that would occur from a particular attack. a. True b. False

True

For 802.11 wireless networks, a wireless security toolkit should include the ability to sniff wireless traffic and scan wireless hosts. a. True b. False

True

Laws, policies, and their associated penalties only provide deterrence if, among other things, potential offenders fear the probability of a penalty being applied. a. True b. False

True

Link encryption is a series of encryptions and decryptions between systems, where each system in a network decrypts the message sent to it, re-encrypts it using different keys, then sends it to the next neighbor. This process continues until the message reaches the final destination. a. True b. False

True

Packet-filtering firewalls scan network data packets looking for compliance or violations of the firewall's database rules. a. True b. False

True

Some policies may also need a sunset clause indicating their expiration date. a. True b. False

True

Steganography is a data hiding method that involves embedding information within other files, such as digital pictures or other images. a. True b. False

True

The Secret Service is charged with safeguarding the nation's financial infrastructure and payments systems to preserve the integrity of the economy. a. True b. False

True

The organization should adopt naming standards that do not convey information to potential system attackers. a. True b. False

True

The position of security analyst may be an entry-level position. a. True b. False

True

Using a service bureau is a BC strategy in which an organization contracts with a service agency to provide a facility for a fee. a. True b. False

True

Risk _____ defines the quantity and nature of risk that organizations are willing to accept as they evaluate the tradeoffs between perfect security and unlimited accessibility. a. acceptance b. benefit c. residual d. appetite

appetite

A threat _____ is an evaluation of the threats to information assets, including a determination of their likelihood of occurrence and potential impact of an attack. a. review b. investigation c. assessment d. search

assessment

SP 800-14, Generally Accepted Principles and Practices for Securing Information Technology Systems, provides best practices and security principles that can direct the security team in the development of a security _____. a. policy b. plan c. standard d. blueprint

blueprint

Most common data backup schemes involve _____. a. RAID b. disk-to-disk-to-cloud c. neither a nor b d. both a and b

both a and b

Human error or failure often can be prevented with training, ongoing awareness activities, and _____. a. controls b. paperwork c. hugs d. threats

controls

Which of the following is NOT a described IDPS control strategy? a. centralized b. fully distributed c. decentralized d. All of these are a described IDPS control strategy

decentralized

A crime involving digital media, computer technology, or related components is best called an act of _____. a. digital malfeasance b. digital abuse c. computer trespass d. computer theft

digital malfeasance

A server would experience a(n) _____ attack when a hacker compromises it to acquire information via a remote location using a network connection. a. software b. direct c. hardware d. indirect

direct

A _____ filtering firewall can react to an emergent event and update or create rules to deal with the event. a. stateless b. dynamic c. static d. stateful

dynamic

A short-term interruption in electrical power availability is known as a _____. a. fault b. lag c. blackout d. brownout

fault

What is the subject of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? a. privacy b. banking c. financial reporting d. trade secrets

financial reporting

In most cases, organizations look for a technically qualified information security _____ who has a solid understanding of how an organization operates. a. expert b. specialist c. internist d. generalist

generalist

Which of these is NOT a unique function of information security management? a. hardware b. policy c. programs d. planning

hardware

The protection of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets, whether in storage, processing, or transmission, via the application of policy, education, training and awareness, and technology is known as _____. a. information security b. physical security c. network security d. communications security

information security

The probability that a specific vulnerability within an organization will be attacked by a threat is known as _____. a. externality b. potential c. determinism d. likelihood

likelihood

The average amount of time until the next hardware failure is known as _____. a. mean time to repair (MTTR) b. mean time to diagnose (MTTD) c. mean time to failure (MTTF) d. mean time between failure (MTBF)

mean time to failure (MTTF)

Individuals who control and are responsible for the security and use of a particular set of information are known as data _____. a. users b. trustees c. owners d. custodians

owners

A _____ vulnerability scanner listens in on the network and identifies vulnerable versions of both server and client software. a. aggressive b. active c. passive d. secret

passive

The spheres of security are the foundation of the security framework and illustrate how information is under attack from a variety of sources, with far fewer protection layers between the information and potential attackers on the _____ side of the organization. a. operational b. technology c. Internet d. people

people

Information about a person's history, background, and attributes that can be used to commit identity theft is known as _____ information. a. privately held b. identity defined c. virtually interpreted d. personally identifiable

personally identifiable

The protection of tangible items, objects, or areas from unauthorized access and misuse is known as _____. a. network security b. physical security c. communications security d. information security

physical security

In most common implementation models, the content filter has two components: _____. a. rating and decryption b. filtering and encoding c. allow and deny d. rating and filtering

rating and filtering

The dominant architecture used to secure network access today is the _____ firewall. a. static b. unlimited c. screened subnet d. bastion

screened subnet

A computer is the _____ of an attack when it is used to conduct an attack against another computer. a. target b. facilitator c. subject d. object

subject

In _____ mode, the data within an IP packet is encrypted, but the header information is not. a. public b. tunnel c. symmetric d. transport

transport

_____ signifies how often you expect a specific type of attack to occur. a. ARO b. ALE c. CBA d. SLE

ARO

_____ risk treatment is a strategy to do nothing to protect a vulnerability and to accept the outcome of its exploitation. a. Transference b. Mitigation c. Acceptance d. Defense

Acceptance

A fundamental difference between a BIA and risk management is that risk management focuses on identifying threats, vulnerabilities, and attacks to determine which controls can protect information, while the BIA assumes that _____. a. controls have been bypassed b. controls have proven ineffective c. controls have failed d. All of the above

All of the above

Redundancy can be implemented at a number of points throughout the security architecture, such as in _____. a. firewalls b. proxy servers c. access controls d. All of the above

All of the above