Kaplan Full Length 2 Revision

Based on the PPVs obtained in the passage, which factor most likely contribute to amyloid aggregation A. hydrogen bond B. hydrophobicity C. disulfide bonds D. covalent cross-linking

B. hydrophobicity ex: based on the passage, nonpolar amino acids promote amyloid aggregation, and nonpolar amino acids interact through hydrophobic interactions (while polar groups ex. asparagine and glutamine have no effect. ie hydrophobicity of these amino acids play an important role in amyloid aggregation)

If 11 grams of H2O were consumed in photosynthesis, how many grams of glucose would be produced? A. (11 * 6 * 180) g B. (11 * 1/6 * 180) g C. (11/18 * 1/6 * 180) g D. (11/18 * 6 * 180) g

C. (11/18 * 1/6 * 180)g ex: the amount of water must be converted from grams into moles, then the # of moles of glucose that'd be produced must be calculated, then converted BACK to grams mass of C6H12O12 = 11 H2O * 1 mol H2O / 18 gg H2O

In the microarray experiment, which of the following steps does gene preparation most likely involve? A. mRNA created by RNA polymerase II B. rRNA created by RNA polymerase I C. cDNA created by reverse transcriptase D. DNA created by DNA polymerase

C. cDNA created by reverse transcriptase ex: the passage describes the conversion of RNA to DNA, which can be performed by reverse transcriptase. when this occurs, the final product DNA is called cDNA (reverse transcribing mRNA to cDNA)

An object at room temperature sinks through a layer of linseed oil (specific gravity 0.89 at 25°C) and into a layer of water. As it passes from one liquid to the other: A. the buoyant force acting on the object decreases B. the buoyant force acting on the object remains the same C. the buoyant force acting on the object increases D. the change in the buoyant force acting on the object cannot be predicted without knowing its density

C. the buoyant force acting on the object increases ex: since water is denser than linseed of oil, and buoyant force equals densisty of fluid multiplied by the volume of fluid displaced, the buoyant force will increase as the object enters the water

Experimenters isolate a biological sample believed to be composed entirely of glycine. In order to confirm their belief, they can hydrolyze the peptide and then: A. use separation techniques to determine if the sample contains amino acids with hydrophobic R groups B. raise the pH of the sample and apply an electric field to test for the presence of zwitterions C. titrate the sample NaOH to determine if it contains amino acids with acidic R groups D. use polarized light in order to determine whether or not the sample is optically active

D. use polarized light in order to determine whether or not the sample is optically active ex: glycine is the only achiral amino acid, and as such will not exhibit optical activity. testing a sample for the presence or absence of optical activity will thus determine whether or not glycine is the only amino acid in the peptide

A researcher attempts to syntheize methamphetamine from pseudoephedrine (according to the reaction shown below), and analyzes his product with infrared spectroscopy. Which of the following would provide the best evidence that he successfully completed the conversion? A. The appearance of a broad absorption peak in the region of 3300 cm^-1 B. The appearance of a sharp absorption peak in the region of 1700 cm-1 C. The disappearance of a broad absorption peak in the region of 3300 cm^-1 D. The disappearance of a sharp absorption peak in the region of 1700 cm^-1

A broad peak at 3300 cm^-1 indicates the presence of a hydroxyl group (OH), - methamptetamine which lacks the OH group would not- and this peak should disappear to indicate successful conversion of reactant to product

A scientist is planning to study the effects of osmotic pressure on membrane transport processes. The scientist wants to create a solution of NaCl that exerts 1 atmosphere of osmotic pressure at 25°C. What concentration of NaCl is needed to accomplish this? [Note: the ideal gas constant R= 0.0821 L*atm*mol^-1*K^-1] A. 0.02 M B. 0.04 M C. 0.08 M D. 56 M

A. 0.02 ex: molarity is related to osmotic pressure using the following formula: II=iMRT. solving for molarity yields M=II/(i*R*T). M = 1 atm/(2*0.0821*300) = 0.02 M

An 80 kg human body uses about 14 MJ of energy per day. What is the average power of the human body? A. 162 W B. 591 W C. 9.72 kW D. 583 kW

A. 162 W ex: This result is obtained by correctly using the equation power equals energy/time, with units of J/sec 1 day = 24 hr * 60 min/ 1 hr * 60 sec / 1 min = 86,400 sec = 90,000 sec power= 14*10^6 J / 9 * 10^4 sec = 1.5 * 10^2 W = 150 W this is some bullshit

The non-covalent interactions occurring between these functional groups and OGT are most likely: A. hydrogen bonds B. glycosidic bonds C. ionic salt bridges D. hydrophobic interactions

A. Hydrogen bonds ex: para 4 states hydroxyl groups (OH) in C4 and C6 are crucial for binding. OH groups participate in hydrogen bonding, which likely contributes to the interaction btwn OGT and the functional groups

A new peptidase is discovered that recognizes a phenol in its enzymatic site. Which of the following peptides is a likely substrate of this peptidase? A. LKDYKSL B. DDEFVLR C. AAWLSG D. QAHRPNT

A. LKDYKSL ex: Tyrosine is the only amino acid with the phenol side chain necessary to be recognized by this peptidase. choice A. is the only answer with a tyrosine in the peptide (single letter code Y)

Which atom is most likely involved in the coordination of the cobalt ion found in block A of vitamin B12? A. Nitrogen B. Carbon C. Oxygen D. Hydrogen

A. Nitrogen ex: a coordination complex consists of a central ion bound to nonmetal atoms by dative bonds; firgure 1 shows cobalt is surrounded by nitrogen atoms

After the administration of 0.6 nM Shh, which cellular enzyme would most likely exhibit the greatest increase in activity? A. RNA polymerase B. DNA ligase C. ATP synthase D. RNA reverse transcriptase

A. RNA polymerase ex: Shh is involved in transcriptional activity, which requires RNA polymerase

Which of the following statements correctly describes the bond catalyzed by OGT? A. a glycosidic bond between a polar amino acid residue and C1 of GlcNAc B. A glycosidic bond between a polar amino acid residue and C2 of GlcNAc C. A glycosidic bond between a non-polar amino acid and C2 of GlcNAc D. A glycosidic bond between a non-polar amino acid and C6 of GlcNAc

A. a glycosidic bond between a polar amino acid residue and C1 of GlcNAc ex: According to Reaction 1, OGT adds GlcNAc via C1 to either serine or threonine, creating a glycosidic bond both of these amino acids are polar

According to the passage, how does the author describe equal-opportunity feminism? A. a woman has to play by traditional rules in order to become a successful professional B. the commitment to caring and cooperation is bankrupt as a feminist strategy C. the marketplace will become more humane as more women gain positions of power D. woman have finally attained equality with men in the marketplace

A. a woman has to play by traditional rules in order to become a successful professional ex: in paragraph 5, the author makes the point that women have to adapt to the masculine workplace in order to succeed

The author seems LEASR inclined to attribute Welles's difficulty in directing Citizen Kane to his: A. ability as an actor B. direction of Citizen Kane in the style of a grand opera C. difficulty in "hitting his own chalk marks" D. inexperience as a director

A. ability as an actor ex: Welles ability to suit his performance to the needs of the audience is a mark of an experienced and successful actor

Which of the following, if true, would most challenge the author's view about the American public's ideology? A. americans have always favored equality above all other political values B. americans have always believed in the economic principle of unequal wealth C. americans are willing to support the taxation of the rich in order to assist the poor D. americans have grown increasingly tolerant of minority political views since the twentieth century

A. americans have always favored equality above all other political values ex: consistent belief in one principle runs counter to the "fundamental conflicts of values that are a traditional element of american politics"

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used by MR-1 as a terminal electron acceptor? A. ammonia B. nitrate C. thiosulfate D. dimethyl sulfoxide

A. ammonia ex: ammonia (NH3) is an electron donor, not acceptor, so it would be least likely to be used by MR-1 as a terminal electron acceptor

Which of the following experiments would best clarify the role of neutrophils in H. pylori infection? Infect neutrophil-depleted and wild-type mice with H. pylori and: A. compare the extent of gut tissue damage B. measure the change in morphology in infected tissue C. determine the change in the activity of urease D. analyze the extent of angiogenesis

A. compare the extent of gut tissue damage ex: urease released from H. pylori can activate neutrophils, which release reactive oxygen species that cause tissue damage

Hydrophobic interactions between water and nonpolar side chains result in the formation of solvation layers. The formation solvation layers in water resultss in a(n): A. decrease in entropy B. increase in entropy C. decrease in hydrogen bonding D. increase in protein misfolding

A. decrease in entropy ex: solvation layers lead to an increase in organization, meaning there is a decrease in entropy

The graph below shows hydrogen emission spectra of Barnard's star, observed from the international space station (ISS), and of the sun, as seen from earth. What is the best explanation of the difference between them? A. dopppler shift caused by the relative motion of the star and ISS toward one another B. doppler shift caused by the relative motion of the star and ISS away from one another C. refraction by the atmosphere of the sun's light as seen from the earth D. diffraction by the atmosphere of the sun's light as seen from the earth

A. dopppler shift caused by the relative motion of the star and ISS toward one another ex: when an observer and a source move toward one another, waves emitted by the source have shortened apparent wavelengths as seen by the observer

Which of the following best explains why gastric pH is regulated between a pH of 1.5 and 4 A. gastric enzymes are most active at a low pH B. high gastric pH stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions C. low intracellular pH is necessary for proper parietal cell function D. gastric juices create the optimal environment for nutrient absorption in the large intestine

A. gastric enzymes are most active at a low pH ex: gastric proteases require a low pH to function optimally in the stomach (gastric enzymes = proteins, extreme acidity can cause denaturation of proteins, which is why there is a complex negative feedback system that lowers the pH on the stomach when food is present or expected

The author uses the hypothetical example of "a world of dictators" para 5 in order to: A. illustrate a flaw in a deliberative universalism B. indicate an obstacle in the search for moral principles C. point out the innate desire for power in human beings D. argue that deliberative universalism is the most practical moral theory

A. illustrate a flaw in a deliberative universalism ex: the example of dictators illustrates that certain features are shared by all societies, but there are still reasons to reject those features (para 5), which is one of the flaws in the concept of deliberative universalism -B points to an example of a flaw in deliberative universalism, not an obstacle in the search for universal values

Based on the passage, anaerobic conditions would have which effect of cAMP levels in MR-1? Anaerobic conditions would: A. increase cAMP levels in Cya B. increase cAMP levels via CpdA C. decrease cAMP levels via Cya D. decrease cAMP levels via CpdA

A. increase cAMP levels in Cya ex: the passage suggests Cya is expressed under anaerobic conditions. Cya increases cAMP levels, so anaerobic conditions would increase cAMP levels via Cya

An amino acid is subjected to electrophoresis at pH 8.5 and is observed to migrate to the anode. The isoelectric point of this amino acid: A. is less than 8.5 B. is more than 8.5 C. is equal to 8.5 D. cannot be determined without more information

A. is less than 8.5 ex: in electrolytic cells, the anode is positively charged, meaning that the amino acid that is migrating to the anode is negatively charged. when the amino acid stops moving, it will be at the isoelectric point. to prevent a negatively charged amino acid from migrating, positive charges must be added to the ammonium ion, meaning that the isoelectric point is below the current pH of 8.5

Based on the results in Figure 1, what effect does a low-therapeutic does (0.5 mM) of lithium have on GSK3 activity? A. lithium decreases GSK3 activity via elevated serine phosphorylation B. lithium decreases GSK3 activity via depressed serine phosphorylation C. lithium increases GSK3 activity via elevated serine phosphorylation D. lithium increases GSK3 activity via depressed serine phosphorylation

A. lithium decreases GSK3 activity via elevated serine phosphorylation ex: a low therapeutic dose of LiCl increases serine phosphorylatino of GSK3a and GSK3B, which in turn decreases GSK3 activity

Glucose in the patient's urine is most likely due to: A. low insulin levels and decreased glucose reabsorption at the proximal convoluted tubule B. low insulin levels and increased glucose reabsorption at the collecting duct C. high insulin levels and increased glucose reabsorption at the collecting duct D. high insulin levels and decreased glucose reabsorption at the proximal convoluted tubule

A. low insulin levels and decreased glucose reabsorption at the proximal convoluted tubule ex: since the patient has poorly controlled Type I diabetes (low insulin levels) and CKD, which is characterized by nephron loss, the patient will have high blood glucose and decreased reabsorption of glucose

Suppose that the next film Welles made after Citizen Kane was a light-hearted comedy. The passage suggests that this would likely indicate that Welles: A. now had become more comfortable with film timing B. was discouraged by his attempt to direct a drama C. felt that he could be more spontaneous in a genre less dependent on timing D. did not want to be perceived as a director of dramatic films only

A. now had become more comfortable with film timing ex: if Wellles was now directing a film very dependent on pacing, he must have been more at ease with it than when directing Citizen Kane i think thats mad presumptuous but okay

In addition to affecting gene transcription, B-catenin also plays a role in adherenns junctions and desmosomes. Which of the following functions is NOT likely performed by these structures? A. nuclear envelope formation B. cell anchoring C. cell-to-cell adhesion D. coordination with cytoskeleton

A. nuclear envelope formation ex: adherens junctions and desmosomes are not involved in nuclear envelope formation

When an acyl halide reacts with a primary alcohol, which of the following will form? A. an ester B. an ether C. a secondary alcohol D. a carboxylic acid

A. nucleophilic attack by an alcohol on the carbonyl of an acyl halide will result in the halide leaving and an ester product forming The oxygen of the alcohol's OH group acts as the nucleophile and attacks, pushing up electrons from the double bond onto the carbonyl oxygen. the halide is a good leaving group, and it leaves as the carbonyl reforms. lastly, the oxygen from the alcohol group losses its proton (and positive charge) and the resulting functional group is an ESTER

The author's conclusion that the parable and tale are inferior narrative forms for conveying instruction depends on the assumption that: A. readers learn most successfully when instruction is integrated within an entertaining narrative framework B. a descriptive narrative relies too heavily on the author's creative powers of imagination C. a focus on historical accuracy can interfere with the instructional purpose of a story D. most authors are not sufficiently trained in the art of persuasion to communicate a moral lesson effectively

A. readers learn most successfully when instruction is integrated within an entertaining narrative framework ex: in the 1st para the author states that "stories have the unique ability to bring home information, and instruction it in a way a mere recitation of the facts cannot" it can be inferred that this is because of the entertainment provided by tales, parables, and fables

If the belt of Diver 2 is switched with one of equal volume but made of brass (density: 8.7 g/cm^3), the buoyant force will: A. stay the same B. increase C. decrease D. increase, then decrease

A. stay the same ex: changing the density and mass of the belt with no change in volume will NOT change the buoyant force buoyant force = Pfluid * g * Vobject

Researchers found that CRP positively regulates the cyd operon in MR-1. The most likely result of a ^crp mutant anaerobically grown with fumarate as electron acceptors and pyruvate as the sole carbon source is: A. the ^crp mutant is completely deficient in anaerobic growth B. the ^crp mutant is slightly deficient in anaerobic growth C. the growth of ^crp mutant is faster than that type of the wild type D. the growth of ^crp mutant is indistinguishable from that of the wild type

A. the ^crp mutant is completely deficient in anaerobic growth ex: based on the passage, CRP switches on anaerobic respiration, thus a ^crp mutant would be completely deficient in anaerobic growth

In Figure 1, the sharp increase in amyloid formation seen between hours 10 to 20 for WT-Sup35 is best explained by: A. the chaperone-like behavior of misfolded WT-Sup35 B. competitive inhibition from the +2HydB C. cooperative binding of fluorescent Thioflavin T to WT-Sup35 D. an increase in translation of WT-Sup35

A. the chaperone-like behavior of misfolded WT-Sup35 ex: prions induce misfolding of normal proteins by actin like protein chaperones, thus exhibiting autocatalysis. this would lead to the sharp increase in amyloid formation after an initial lag for WT-Sup35

What is the ^Hrxn for the combustion of a quanity of black powder containing one mole of sulfur atoms, according to Reaction 1? Assume the combustion reaction occurs at 25 °C A. -2831 kJ/mol B. -953 kJ/mol C. 953 kJ/mol D. 2831 kJ/mol

B. -953 kJ/mol ex: this correctly calculates the enthalpy of the combustion of black powder containing one mole of sulfur, according to Reaction 1 ^Hrxn = ^H products - ^H reactants = [2(-380.7 kJ/mol) + 0 kJ/mol + 3 (-393.5 kJ/mol)] - [2(-494.5 kJ/mol) + 0 kJ/mol + 0 kJ/mol] = (-1941.9) - (-989 kJ/mol) = -952.9 kJ

A mixture of leucine and arginine is analyzed by thin layer chromatography with a relatively more polar mobile phase compared to the stationary phase. what is the approximate Rf value of arginine? A. 0.30 B. 0.90 C. 3 D. 9

B. 0.90 ex: This is the Rf for the higher spot, which corresponds to arginine, because it is more polar than leucine. Arginine has a side chain that is more polar than leucine's side chain . Rf is equal to the distance traveled by the solvent front. arginine traveled nine units while the solvent front traveled ten units giving an Rf of 9/10 = 0.90

In 4-nitroanailine (pKbh+ = 1) was used as a base indicator to determine the acidity function of fluorosulfuric acid, what would be expected conjugate acid to base ratio of this indicator? A. 10^15 : 1 B. 10^16 : 1 C. 1 : 10^15 D. 1 : 10^16

B. 10^16 : 1 ex: the correct ratio can be calculated by subbing the H0 value from Table 1 and pKbh+ value from the question stem into Equation 1 H0 = pKbh+ + log [B]/[BH+] -15 = 1 + log [B]/[BH+] -16 = log [B]/[BH+] 1/10^16 = [B]/[BH+]

Which of the following will increase the yield of carboxylic acid formed from a nitrile group-containing compound, using a mechanism similar to the Strecker synthesis? A. use a stronger nucleophile, like a Grignard reagent, instead of H2O B. attach an electron withdrawing group to the carbon of the nitrile group C. use a stronger electrophile, like a Grignard reagent, instead of H2O D. Attach an electron donating group to the carbon of the nitrile group

B. Attach an electron withdrawing group to the carbon of the nitrile group ex: activating the carbon in the -CN group by adding another electron withdrawing group will make the nitrile carbon more electrophilic increasing the yield of carboxylic acid

Based on the information in the passage, which description of a diving suit is most likely correct? A. wetsuits are more useful in water below 7°C because water conducts heat faster than air B. Drysuits are more useful in water below 7 °C becuase air conducts heat more slowly than air C. wetsuits are more useful in water above 21°C because water conducts heat more slowly than air D. drysuits are more useful in water above 21 °C because air conducts heat faster than water

B. Drysuits are more useful in water below 7 °C becuase air conducts heat more slowly than air ex: air conducts heat more slowly than water and is thus the better insulator. this means that drysuits are better suited to cooler temperatures than wetsuits

An experimenter working with the apparatus shown in Figure 1 uses a voltmeter and calculates the potential difference between points d and f as V. If the resistance of R2 = 1/R1 then what is the current through point e ? A. I = V/R1 B. I = VR1/[(R1)^2 + 1] C. I = VR1 + V/R1 D. I = V/2R1

B. I = VR1/[(R1)^2 + 1] ex: the current flowing through e will be equal to the current following through d and f, since these points all occur in series. The resistance across these points in R1 + R2. Thus, I = V/(R1 + R2). Substituting 1/R1 for R2 and simplifying algebraically yields I = VR1/[(R1)2 + 1]

Which of the following is/are true about reaction 1? I. The reaction is not spontaneous II. There is an overall decrease in entropy during the reaction III. The reaction is exothermic Reaction 1 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + light --> C6H12O6 + 6 O2 A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

B. I and II only ex: Reaction 1 has a positive ^G, so statement I is true, and 6 moles of gaseous and 6 moles of liquid reactants, but only 7 moles of products (6 of which are gaseous, and one solid), implying a decrease in entropy, making statement II true as well

A male child with healthy parents is diagnosed with disease X. Which of the following could be disease X? I. Huntington's disease, an autosomal dominant disease II. Farber disease, an autosomal recessive disease III. Retinitis pigmentosa, an X-linked dominant disease IV. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive disease A. II only B. II and IV only C. II, III, and IV only D. I, II, III, and IV

B. II and IV only ex: bc both parents are healthy this indicates that the disease cannot be autosomal or X-linked dominant; otherwise, at lease one of the parents would also be affected. However, the disease could be autosomal recessive, where both parents are carriers of the mutated gene, or X-linked recessive, where the mother caries a mutation on one of her two X chromosomes

Based on the two stereoisomers of alanine shown below, which of the following is true about alanine? A. D-alanine rotates polarized light to the right B. L-alanine could also be called (S) alanine C. D-alanine could also be called (+) - alanine D. D-alanine and L-alanine are epimers

B. L-alanine could also be called (S) alanine ex: Since L-alanine has the (S) configuration its correct

A weight hanging from a spring oscillates in simple harmonic motion (k is the spring constant and d is displacement of the weight from its equilibrium position). which of the following is NOT true? A. the force exerted on the spring by the weight always equals k x d B. The period of oscillation is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of the weight C. the potential energy stored in the spring always equals (K x d^2) / 2 D. The weight attains its maximum velocity when d = 0

B. The period of oscillation is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass of the weight ex: the frequency of oscillation of the spring is inversely proportional to the square root of the weight's mass, but since period is the reciprocal of frequency, the square root of the weight's mass and the period of oscillation are directly proportional to each other

Assuming that the sound waves illustrated in the figure are traveling through a person's ear, which of the following most probably describes these sound waves at point B? A. they are traveling through the air B. they are traveling through the bone C. they are traveling through endolymph D. they are traveling through the external auditory canal

B. They are traveling through the bone ex: Sound travels more quickly through solids (including bone) than it does through liquids or gases

A researcher can most effectively increase the degradation of cyanocobalamin in an aqueous solution by doing which of the following? A. eliminating exposure of the solution to light B. adding both B1 and B6 to the solution C. removing water to concentrate the solution D. storing the solution at refrigerated temperatures

B. adding both B1 and B6 to the solution ex: The figures indicate that adding both B1 and B6 leads to a loss of cyanocobalamin

Excluding analogs unrecognized by OGT, whcih substrate has the lowest catalytic efficiency in the studied reaction? (Assume enzyme concentrations were identical for all experiments) A. analog A B. analog B C. analog C D. UDP-GlcNAc

B. analog B ex: relative catalytic efficiency is proportional to Vmax/Km. this value for analog B, which is equal to 3.2/369, is smaller than the relative catalytic efficiencies for analogs A and C, or UDP-GlcNAc (the highest Km value will indicate the lowest catalytic efficiency

The author holds that one should not necessarily defer to the traditions and customs of other people. Which of the following assertions made in the passage provides the strongest support for this claim? A. customs are based on experiences in the past, which fundamentally differ from modern experiences B. customs can hinder one's individual development C. customs are often suitable for uncustomary characters D. traditions and customs are usually the result of misinterpreted experiences

B. customs can hinder one's individual development ex: it is quite possible that unquestioning adherence to custom could interfere with an individual's development since the person "gains no practice either in discerning or desiring what is best" (para 4)

The author's primary purpose is to: A. argue that the legal system should treat negative and positive desert equally B. discuss the variant social and institutional responses to positive and negative desert C. decry the relative lack of theorization of positive desert by policy makers D. question the ethics of basing systems of punishment and reward upon mere intention

B. discuss the variant social and institutional responses to positive and negative desert ex: the entire passage in concerned with the differences between positive and negative desert, and how to determine them - its not D bc the author does not question ethics but instead examines the asymmetry between assigning + and - intent

Suppose that classical Mendelian genetics predicts that the probability of inheriting two alleles, which are 5 centiMorgans apart is 25%. The actual frequency with which the two alleles are inherited together is expected to be: A. lower than 25% B. greater than 25% C. equal to 25% D. fluctuating around 25%

B. greater than 25% ex: linked alleles, or alleles that are situated near each other on a chromosome, are more likely to be inherited together than originally predicted by Mendelian Genetics. therefore, these alleles are expected to be inherited together at a frequency greater than 25%

Based on the passage, critics of deliberative universalism could plausibly claim that it: A. presents a dogmatic defense of culturally specific values B. incorporates the problems of two extreme positions C. offers too broad a conception of universal values D. ignores the issue of core human rights

B. incorporates the problems of two extreme positions ex: in para 4 the author states that deliberative universalism is a "grey" position that fits in between these two extremes" and thus reflects some of the problems related to both comprehensive universalism & cultural relativism

Based on Figure 2, what effect would Tr ablation most likely have on couplon proteins? A. loss of Tr leads to a dysfunctional Cav in the T-tubular membrane, preventing it from undergoing a conformational change B. loss of Tr induces a. conformational change in the a1 subunit of Cav to constitutively activate RyR1 C. loss of Tr upregulates CSQ to accumulate Ca^2+ binding in T-tubules D. loss of Tr downregulates muscle contraction, stimulating SERCA expression to compensate

B. loss of Tr induces a. conformational change in the a1 subunit of Cav to constitutively activate RyR1 ex: based on Figure 2 Cav and downstream RyR1 expression are increased. a conformational change that constitutively activates RyR1 would likely result in this increased expression

In virtro, intracellular glucose concentration in muscle cells varies as a function of the composition of the growth media. Based on the graph below, which of the following conclusions can most reasonably be drawn? A. insulin decreases intracellular glucose concentration in muscle cells B. muscle cell membranes are practically impermeable to glucose C. glucose transport across muscle cell membranes requires ATP D. insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose into glycogen in almost all body tissues

B. muscle cell membranes are practically impermeable to glucose ex: according to the graph, w/o insulin, intracellular glucose levels stay constant independent of the extracellular glucose concentration. this suggests glucose is unable to get into the cells unless in the presence of insulin

If a neuron is first measured at normal resting potential, but later is found to require application of +3 mA of current to return to -60mV, which of the following could explain the neuron's net ion flow between the two measurements? A. positive ions flowed into the cell B. positive ions flowed out of the cell C. negative ions flowed out of the cell D. sodium ions flowed into the cell

B. positive ions flowed out of the cell ex: the voltage clamp counteracts the current produced by the cell. positive voltage clamp current indicates negative membrane (ionic) current. Negative membrane current could result from either negative ions flowing into the cell or positive ions flowing out of the cell

Suppose that a country implements a legal system that mirrors the author's example of positive desert in a capitalist market. Which of the following would most probably be true of such a legal system? A. the country's economic markets would be left completely unregulated B. premeditated murder and accidental manslaughter would carry the same punishment C. citizens would be rewarded merely for attempting to engage in prosocial behavior D. there would be no punishment for assaulting someone without killing them

B. premeditated murder and accidental manslaughter would carry the same punishment ex: since the example illustrates that result, not intent, determines desert, murder, whether premeditated or accidental, still inflicts the same amount of harm and would be punish to the same extent its not C since intentions don't matter in the ex. it would be expected that the legal system would not reward merely attempted behavior

Which of the following statements regarding recombination frequency is supported by information in the passage? A. double-crossovers occur more frequently than single-crossovers B. recombination can underestimate the distance between loci C. loci with recombination frequencies of 1.5% are more common than those with a recombination frequency of 1.0% D. recombination frequency increases when introns are spliced out between two loci

B. recombination can underestimate the distance between loci ex: para 3 states that even number of crossovers events during recombination can give "the false appearance that no recombination had occurred," making alleles look closer together than they are (if a crossover even occurs an even number of times the recombination frequency will appear to be zero)

What is the nature of the asymmetry between negative and positive desert referred to in para 4? A. that we punish criminal attempts but generally do not reward attempts to do good B. that we diminish punishment if intent was not present, but do not diminish rewards similarly C. that legal systems and penal codes are more prepared to settle issues dealing with negative rather than positive desert D. that positive desert takes the form of material rewards, but negative desert results in loss of person freedom

B. that we diminish punishment if intent was not present, but do not diminish rewards similarly ex: as the author states in para 6, "because there is no area of the law concerned with measuring appropriate rewards, we are left to rely on our accumulated moral sensibilities about who deserves more and who deserves less"

Suppose that multiple newly created amino acids interact to build a small protein molecule. The primary structure of that protein is formed when: A. the R-group of one amino acid forms intermolecular attractions with the R-group of another B. the amino-terminus of one amino acid attacks the carboxy-terminus of another C. the amino-terminus of one amino acid forms H-bonds with the carboxy terminus of another D. the carboxy-terminus of one amino acid attacks the amino terminus of another

B. the amino-terminus of one amino acids attacks the carboxy-terminus of another ex: The primary structure of a polypeptide is the order in which amino acids are connected to one another. those connections consist of peptide bonds, which occur when the lone pair of electrons on the amino terminus of one amino acid undertakes a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl carbon of another amino acid's carboxy-terminus

What is the ^H for Reaction 1? Reaction 1 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + light --> C6H12O6 + 6 O2 A. -5350.3 kJ/mol B. -2801.3 kJ/mol C. +2801.3 kJ/mol D. +5350.3 kJ/mol

C. +2801.3 kJ/mol ex: ^H = ^Hf(products) - ^Hf(reactants) ^H = [^Hf(C6H12O6) + 6^Hf(O2)] - [6^Hf(CO2) + 6^Hf(H2O)] ^H = [-1300 kJ + 0 kJ] - [6(-400 kJ) + 6 (-300 kJ)] ^H = -1300 kJ - [6 *(-400 kJ - 300 kJ)] ^H = -1300 kJ - [6(-700 kJ)] ^H= -1300 kJ - (-4200 kJ) ^H = -1300 kJ + 4200 kJ = 2900 kJ This is closest to +2801.3 kJ to 2900

What is the oxidation number carried by nitrogen in potassium nitrate as seen in Reaction 2? 10 KNO3 (s) + 3 S (s) + 8 C (s) --> 2 K2CO3 (s) + 3K2SO4 (s) + 6 CO2 (g) + 5 N2 (g) A. 0 B. +1 C. +5 D. -2

C. +5 ex: the cumulative charge of the oxygen and potassium atoms is -5, the charge on the nitrogen atom is therefore +5

Given R1 = 3 Ω and R2 = 1 Ω, and that the potential between d and f is -25 mV, how many electrons pass through point f in 4 seconds and in which direction? (the charge of an electron is -1.6 * 10^-19 C.) A. 3.54 * 10^-28 away from the axon B. 2.04 * 10^16 toward the axon C. 1.56 * 10^17 away from the axon D. 1.84 * 10-=^-27 toward the axon

C. 1.56 * 10^17 away from the axon ex: the total electrons passing through point f can be determined from the current, which is derived from Ohm's law (l= V/R, or -0.025/4). current is change per second; multiply by 4 to calculate the total charge that moves through point f over 4 seconds (-0.025*4/4). to determine how mnay electrons are required to carry that charge, divide by the charge of an electron, yielding 1.56 * 10^17

Which of the following conclusions about CrpB and CrpC can be drawn? A. both CrpB and CrpC are required for a cell to grow aerobically B. aerobic growth is not inhibited by the loss of CrpB and CprC C. CrpB and CrpC are functionally redundant D. the loss of CrpB cannot be compensated by CrpC

C. CrpB and CrpC are functionally redundant ex: according to the passage, "single ^cprB and ^crpC mutants do not exhibit aerobic growth deficiency," so the loss of one gene can be compensated by the other gene performing the same function. A double knockout is unable to grow aerobically, so one of the two genes is needed. complementation of single ^CrpB and CrpC mutants confirms CrpB and CrpC are functionally redundant bc the culture produced the normal phenotype

If proinsulin were treated with each of the following reagents separately, which one is the least likely to lead to linkage of the A- and B-chains? A. I2 B. O2 C. H2 D. H2O2

C. H2 ex:

When phosphoric acid is titrated with a strong base, which of the following is the predominant compound present at the third equivalence point? A. Hydrogen phosphate B. Dihydrogen phosphate C. Phosphate ion D. Phosphoric acid

C. Phosphate ion ex: phosphate ion phosphoric acid (H3PO4) is a triprotic acid, which loses a hydrogen ion at each EP, at the 3rd EP all 3 hydrogens are dissociated resulting in a phosphate ion (PO4^3-)

A student hypothesized that muscle relaxation might be affected by the size of the motor unit pool. Is this student's hypothesis reasonable? A. No; muscle relaxation is primarily regulated by the binding of acetylcholine at the musculoskeletal junction independent of motor unit recruitment B. No; muscle relaxation is soley dependent on voltage sensing of Cav at T-tubules C. Yes; the number of motor units recruited impacts the rate of Ca^2+ reuptake from the SR D. Yes; larger motor units pools have a greater capacity to store ATP in the SR

C. Yes; the number of motor units recruited impacts the rate of Ca^2+ reuptake from the SR ex: increasing the number of motor units recruited will increase the amount of Ca^2+ that is released by muscle cells as they contract. increased levels of Ca^2+ released would impact the muscle's ability to relax, requiring more reuptake of Ca^2+ -when motor units are activated, calcium is release from the SR. the # of motor units recruited affects the amount of calcium released.

To purify RNA from cells, it must be separated from DNA. What property of RNA can be used to accurately separate it from DNA? A. a continuous stretch of noncoding nucleotides B. a phosphodiester backbone C. a polyadenylic acid tail D. a pentose in the nucleoside structure

C. a polyadenylic acid tail ex: uniquely mature mRNA gets a polyadenylic acid tail (poly-A tail) as part of its post-transcriptional modifications. as DNA does not help us differentiate between the two types of nucleic acids based on their structure

What does the author likely mean to convey through "a great teacher, a corrector of morals, a censor of vice, and a commander of virtue" (para 5)? A. a suggestion that the fabulist is the primary judge of morality B. a recommendation that fabulists be honored above other writers C. an appreciation for the potential of the ideal Fable D. an alternative to their primary argument in the passage

C. an appreciation for the potential of the ideal Fable ex: The quote outlines the goals of the fabulist and infers that fables have great potential to instruct. an admirable purpose

After several weeks of taking an ACE inhibitor, the patient develops a hacking cough, a common side-effect of these medications. Which alternative type of medication could the physician prescribe to lower the patient's blood pressure? A. vasopressin B. epinephrine C. angiotensin receptor blocker D. angiotensin receptor agonist

C. angiotensin receptor blocker ex: angiotensin receptor blockers would competitively antagonize circulating angiotensin II, which would mitigate high blood pressure and mimic the effect of an ACE inhibitor -angiotensin receptor blockers will competitively antagonize circulating angiotensin II at their receptors and prevent vasoconstriction, which will lower bp

Assume that a medical resident is given a memory test at the beginning and end of a 36-hour shift, which she stayed awake through, and that her score is found to be lower at the end of the shift. The author's likely response would be to say that: A. sleep deprivation affects memory function but doesn't provide information as to how this occurs on a molecular level B. memory capacity decreased because the resident was required to retain a lot of new information and wasn't able to review and reorganize it during sleep C. because many factors could have affected the resident's memory over the course of the shift, it cannot be concluded that the memory deficit was the result of sleep deprivation D. the resident's memory should have been tested during the work-shift as well as before and after

C. because many factors could have affected the resident's memory over the course of the shift, it cannot be concluded that the memory deficit was the result of sleep deprivation ex: in para 5 the author indicates that identifying the effects of sleep deprivation on performance (ex. memory) is limited because multiple factors affect the performance task

someone who agrees with the author would be LEAST likely to approve of: A. scolding a young boy seen bullying a classmate B. defending an accused murderer on the grounds that he acted in self-defense C. confiscating a person's chewing tobacco to help them avoid negative health consequences D. publishing an editorial that attacks a local businessman's hiring practices

C. confiscating a person's chewing tobacco to help them avoid negative health consequences ex: using chewing tobacco does harm only to the user, not to others, so does not qualify as an action requiring confiscating the drug

The author of the passage believes that acting in accordance with a custom observed by a past culture: A. is not appropriate outside of that culture B. is appropriate if the custom is correctly interpreted C. could be appropriate for some people living today D. was appropriate in the past, but not today

C. could be appropriate for some people living today ex: by listing both circumstances under which following customs is counterproductive and that customes are "worthy of consideration", the author suggests that customs could be suitable for some but not all, people living today

Which of the following processes would NOT occur in response to reduced blood insulin levels? A. decreased uptake of blood glucose by muscle cells B. increased conversion of glycogen into muscle glucose C. increase utilization of glucose as fuel D. increased utilization of fatty acid as fuel

C. increase utilization of glucose as fuel ex: when insulin levels are low, glucose is not the primary fuel source. instead, the body will utilize fatty acids and proteins as a fuel source. increased utilization of glucose as fuel would be expected when insulin levels, not decrease

The standards of justice in Country X are radically different from those in Country Y. The author would most likely cite this as evidence of the: A. need for cultural relativism B. failure of deliberative universalism C. obstacle to finding objective morals D. key to comprehensive universalism

C. obstacle to finding objective morals ex: if standards of justice radically differed from country to country, this would make it very difficult to define any objective morals

If leptin serves the same function in humans as it does in mice, which of the following groups of people is LEAST likely to lose weight due to daily administration of leptin? A. individuals with normal body weight B. overweight individuals with mutations in the leptin gene C. overweight individuals with mutations in the leptin receptor gene D. overweight individuals with no mutations in the leptin pathway

C. overweight individuals with mutations in the leptin receptor gene ex: Figure 1 shows no weight loss for Ob2 mice

The author uses the term "enemy" (para 2) to refer to those who: A. oppose the development of libertarian ideals B. promote the equitable redistribution of wealth C. prioritize the maintaining of the status quo D. advocate for libertarian over egalitarian ideals

C. prioritize the maintaining of the status quo ex: the word "enemy" does not specifically reference those who believe in a particular ideology, but to those who maintain the status quo of whichever group is in the ascendency

Suppose researchers suspected that the side chain of T560 located in OGT's active site interacted with the hydroxyl groups of C4 and C6 of UDP-GlcNAc. The results of which of the following experiments could disprove the researcher's suspicion? A. repeat the substrate specificity experiments in the absence of OGT B. repeat the substrate specificity experiments with a T560S varient of OGT C. repeat the substrate specificity experiments with a T560A variant of OGT D. repeat the substrate specificity experiments with substrate analogs differing form UDP-GlcNAc at C1, C3, and C5

C. repeat the substrate specificity experiments with a T560A variant of OGT ex: The T560A mutation would turn the polar amino acid threonine into the non-polar amino acid alanine. this mutation would test whether binding between OGT and UDP-GlcNAc is mediated by polar interactions with a hydroxyl group if there is no change in affinity

What is the most likely reason why the *xGBSFF-luciferase protein was added to neural tissue cultures in the presence of Shh? A. to introduce Gli transcription factor to the chick embryonic tissue sample B. to upregulate Shh signaling of luciferase translation C. to identify Gli activity in neural fold induction D. to identify Shh effects on the luciferase protein

C. to identify Gli activity in neural fold induction ex: the bioluminescent protein was used to measure Gli transcription factor location and activity in order to track the effects of Shh exposure on Gli activity

Oxygen-15 undergoing B+ decay yields: A. 15Cl, electron, and neutrino B. 14Cl, electron, and neutrino C. 14N, positron, and neutrino D. 15N, positron, and neutrino

D. 15N, positron, and neutrino ex: B+ decay yields a positron. it involves conversion of a proton into a neutron, which transforms oxygen (atomic number 8) into nitrogen (atomic number 7). Because the positron has virtually no mass, atomic mass, remains unchanged at 15

In Reaction 1, HF is a(n): A. Lewis acid B. Arrhenius base C. Bronsted-Lowry acid D. Bronsted-Lowry base

D. Bronsted-Lowry base ex: in Reaction 1, HF acts as a Bronsted-Lowry base by accepting a proton to become a fluoronium ion (H2F+)

Which of the following components is part of the cyanocobalamin structure? A. Thymine analog B. Uracil analog C. D-deoxyribose moiety D. D-ribose moiety

D. D-ribose moiety ex: the structure of cyanocobalamin is analogous to a purine, and cyanocobalamin contains ribose

Which compound is oxidized in Reaction 1? A. CO2 B. C6H12O6 C. O2 D. H2O

D. H2O ex: oxidation involves the loss of electrons, and the recipient of the electrons is reduced. para 2 "electrons are taken from the H of the H2O, so water must be oxidized.

Which of the following amino acid insertions would be most analogous with the Sup35 insertions shown in Table 1? A. I and K B. I and C C. L and Q D. L and A

D. L and A ex: the only nonpolar amino acids were used to create the Sup35 variants. Therefore, insertions of nonpolar amino acids like leucine (L) and alanine (A) would be analogous to those seen in Table 1

Which of the following is true of gases in the alveoli? A. Pco2 in the alveoli > Pco2 in the alveolar capillaries B. Pco2 in the alveoli >Po2 in the alveoli C. Po2 in the alveolar capillaries > Po2 in the alveoli D. Po2 in the alveoli > Po2 in the alveolar capillaries

D. Po2 in the alveoli > Po2 in the alveolar capillaries ex: for oxygen to passively dissolve from the air in the alveoli to the alveolar capillaries, the partial pressure of oxygen in the aveoli must be greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar capillaries

Which of the following best characterizes the main idea from the passage? A. Welles's Citizen Kane demonstrated his impressive abilities as both actor and director B. Some of the best performers in a theatrical setting were disappointing when on camera C. Pacing is more difficult for film than for the stage D. Though accomplished at directing himself on stage, Welles had difficulties doing so in film

D. Though accomplished at directing himself on stage, Welles had difficulties doing so in film ex: almost every paragraph discusses the problems Welles had directing himself in film, making this the primary idea of the passage

Which of the following methods would NOT have been a reasonable method of visualization of the DNA strands in Figure 1? A. labeling the deoxyribose sugar in the primer and dNTPs with 14C B. using labeled complementary DNA sequences to the original primers C. Staining the gel with a fluorescent molecule that inserts between nucleotide base pairs D. Using 32P-labeled primers and dNTPs with y-phosphate 32P

D. Using 32P-labeled primers and dNTPs with y-phosphate 32P ex: the beta- and y-phosphate groups in dNTPs are not incorporated into the growing polynucleotide. only the alpha-phosphate group (or the phosphate group directly connected to the sugar of the nucleotide) is incorporated into the growing DNA chain

If the loss of function of a protein that inhibits GSK3 activity leads to a behavior abnormalities in mice, which of the following events is most likely to occur when the protein becomes overactive? A. a decrease in levels of B catenin B. a reduction in levels of inositol C. an increase in GSK3 activity D. a reduction in phosphorylation of B-catenin

D. a reduction in phosphorylation of B-catenin ex: Since GS3K3 normally phosphorylates B-catenin, inhibiting GSK3 would decrease phosphorylation pf B-catenin

If lithium is administered to a patient with BD, the effect will be: A. a decrease in the levels of serine in GSK3B in the brain B. an increase in the levels of serine in GSK3B in the brain C. a decrease in the levels of B-catenin proteins in the brain D. an increase in the levels of B-catenin proteins in the brain

D. an increase in the levels of B-catenin proteins in the brain ex: Figure 1B shows B-catenin content is greater when lithium is present, so lithium most likely increases, not decreases, B-catenin levels

Based on the passage, reducing a criminal's punishment if he is insane: A. contradicts the principle of not giving out rewards or punishments on thought alone B. exemplifies how desert is determined by general societal judgements rather than well-codified rules of law C. is justified if the criminal attempt fails and does not lead to actual harm to others D. demonstrates how intent has been incorporated into our determination of negative desert

D. demonstrates how intent has been incorporated into our determination of negative desert ex: in the third paragraph, the author states that "if at the time of the homicide, the offender suffers from partial insanity- called 'diminished responsibility' in the law- the degree of his culpability is reduced"

Which of the following is NOT derived from the neural crest? A. adrenal medulla B. schwann cells C. melanocyte cells D. erthyrocyte cells

D. erthyrocyte cells ex: erthyrocytes, aka RBCs, are derived from the mesoderm. bc the neural crest derives from the ectoderm, erthrocytes cannot be derived from neural crest cells

Suppose a local politician is the victim of a physical assault. When asked for the reason behind the crime, the assailant refers to a magazine article attacking the politician's policy decisions. How would this relate to the opinions expressed in the passage? A. it would support the author's claim about when those expressing themselves should be held to blame B. it would support the author's claim about the limitations that should be put on liberty C. it would challenge the author's claim about the usefulness of different opinions D. it would challenge the author's claim about opinions published through the press

D. it would challenge the author's claim about opinions published through the press ex: since the opinion described in the question stem was expressed in the press and resulted in harm to a person, it contradicts the author's claim that opinions presented in this format do not warrant punishment

Which of the following amino acids are most likely to be found clustered around the disulfide bonds in the core of a protein? A. tryptophan and histidine B. glutamine and glutamic acid C. arginine and lysine D. leucine, valine, and phenylalanine

D. leucine, valine, phenylalanine ex: histidine, arginine, and lysine are basic and positively charged, while glutamic acid is negatively charged. becuase these residues are very hydrophilic, none of them will likely be found clustered sround the hydrophobic core, HOWEVER D. contains only hydrophobic amino acids and is correct

Which are the hybridization states of C2, C4, and C6 of GlcNAc, respectively? A. sp2, sp2, and sp B. sp2, sp2, and sp3 C. sp3, sp3, and sp D. sp3, sp3, and sp3

D. sp3, sp3, and sp3 ex: C2, C4, C6 of GlcNAc, as seen in Figure 1 and reaction 1, are always bound to four other atoms. Thus all three carbons have sp3 hybridization

An independent study carried out on breast tissue from patients A, B, and C finds that all three patients have a TP53 missense mutation. Which of the following reasons best explains the expression ratio results for TP53 in Table 2? A. the absence of HER-2 suppresses transcriptional expression of TP53 in all three patients B. the mutation abolishes DNA-binding capabilities in p53 C. over-expression of MYC causes transcriptional activation of TP53, despise the presence of the mutation D. the mutation does not change the transcriptional expression of TP53 in all three patients compared to normal tissue

D. the mutation does not change the transcriptional expression of TP53 in all three patients compared to normal tissue ex: Table 2 indicates that the fluorescent expression of TP53 in cancerous tissue is not different from that in normal tissue. This would suggest that the mutation does not alter the gene transcription, but only its protein product

Assume the truth of the view discussed in the passage in which intention has no bearing on desert. Which of the following could NOT then be a justification for punishing those who attempt murder but do not succeed? A. a person who attempts murder is much more likely to hurt other people in the future B. the victims of murder attempts are almost always damaged significantly by the act C. murder attempts cause widespread panic which undermines citizen's quality of life D. those who attempt murder commit themselves to doing evil even when they fail

D. those who attempt murder commit themselves to doing evil even when they fail ex: if punishment is determined by the actual harm inflicted, and if harm was intended but not inflicted, the person could not be punished

What is the most likely reason for wearing a diving mask? A. to form a region below atmospheric pressure by creating a vacuum around the eyes B. to trap air inside the mask, which increases the refractive index C. to illuminate objects by reflecting light rays as they pass through a diving mask D. to avoid refraction error by creating an air space in front of the cornea

D. to avoid refraction error by creating an air space in front of the cornea ex: allowing light to pass through a layer of air before it reaches the diver's eyes will allow light to refract as it does when the diver is on land, allowing the diver to see clearly

When comparing the life cycles of viruses and prokaryotic organisms, which of the following identifies traits that are unique to viruses? A. viruses can be cultured in vitro in the absence of other organisms B. viruses can have a double-stranded DNA genome C. viruses can trigger aggregation of host cellular proteins D. viruses contain genomic information bundled in a protein coat

D. viruses contain genomic information bundled in a protein coat ex: viruses have genomic information bundled in a protein coat. prokaryotes keep their genomic information free-floating in the cytoplasm

When blood is donated, it is important that no active antibodies are transferred along with the red blood cells. in order to accomplish this a reducing agent, which breaks the disulfied bonds that maintain the quaternary structure of antibodies, is added to donated blood. this is effective because: A. the structure of an antibody is maintained by weak intermolecular forces that can be disrupted by a reducing agent B. without the proper distribution of a alpha-helices and beta-sheets, the function of an antibody is compromised C. histidine, arginine, and lysine are all basic amino acids found in high % within antibodies D. when cystine accepts electrons, it separates into two cysteine groups that are located on separate polypeptides

D. when cystine accepts electrons, it separates into two cysteine groups that are located on separate polypeptides ex: reducing agents break disulfide bonds, also known as cystines, and separate them into two separate thiols. this allows disruption of quaternary structure of the antibody

CHEM/PHYS

section 1

CARS

section 2

BIO/BIOCHEM

section 3

PSYCH/SOC

section 4