MLT ASCP Review 2
Uric acid is the final breakdown product of what two purines? - Adenine and thymine - Thymine and Cytosine - Adenine and guanine - Guanine and thymine
Adenine and Guanine
Which of the following blood tests is used in the evaluation of hepatic disease? - Amylase - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT) - Creatinine - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT or SGPT)
The production of neutral 17-ketosteroids is a measure of which of the following? - Cholesterol production - Androgen production - Estrogen production - Growth hormone
Androgen production
What is the term used to describe chest pain caused by inadequate supply of oxygen to heart myocardium? - Acute myocardial infarction - Angina - Congestive heart failure (CHF) - Myocardial ischemia
Angina
Which of the following arthropods are an important part of the life cycle of Plasmodium species? - Glossina - Pediculus - Anopheles - Ixodes
Anopheles
Which antibody identified in prenatal specimens is never a cause of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? - Anti-D - Anti-c - Anti-E - Anti-I
Anti-I
A nitrate test is performed on a glucose nonfermenter. When the nitrate reagents were added, no color change occurs. When zinc dust was added, no color develops. How should this test be reported? - Positive for nitrite and negative for molecular nitrogen - Negative for molecular nitrogen and negative for nitrate production - Positive for molecular nitrogen and negative for nitrite production - Negative for nitrate and negative for nitrite reduction
Positive for molecular nitrogen and negative for nitrite production
Which of the following laboratory tests is used as an indicator of inflammation? - C-reactive protein - RPR - Complement - Alpha fetoprotein
C-Reactive protein (CRP)
An elevated level of which of the following hormones will inhibit pituitary secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)? - Aldosterone - Cortisol - Testosterone - Progesterone
Cortisol
Which test uses a vaginal fluid specimen to differentiate amniotic fluid from urine and other body fluids? - Optical density (OD) of bilirubin - Osmolality - Fern test - Amine (Whiff) test
Fern test
The Rh nomenclature which uses the letters DCE is found in which of the following genetic models? - Wiener - Shorthand - Fisher-Race - Rosenfield
Fisher-Race
Significantly increased levels of ketones are typically detected in the urine with all of the following conditions EXCEPT? - Diabetic acidosis - Excessive carbohydrate loss - Starvation - Following a low-impact exercise routine
Following a low-impact exercise routine
The parent's blood types are AB and O. What could be the only possible blood type(s) of their children?
Group A or B only
If the red cell count is known, which of the following must be known in order to calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV)? - Hemoglobin - Leukocyte count - Reticulocyte count - Hematocrit
Hematocrit
A reagent test strip test for hemoglobin has been reported positive. Microscopic examination fails to yield red blood cells. This patient's urine condition can be called: - Hematuria - Hemoglobinuria - Oliguria - Hemosidernuria
Hemoglobinuria
A secondary immune response is generally associated with which of the following antibodies? - IgG - IgA - IgM - IgD
IgG
All of the following conditions are associated with a polyclonal (broadbased) increase in gamma globulins EXCEPT? - Liver disease - Chronic inflammation - Immune reaction - Immunodeficiency
Immunodeficiency
Which of the following errors could most likely occur in the preanalytical phase? - Incorrectly collected sample - Wrong test method used - Incorrectly performed instrument calibration - Inaccurately handled critical test value
Incorrectly collected sample
When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's Disease diagnosis, low values of plasma ceruloplasmin would be expected along with: - Decreased urine copper - Increased urine copper - Normal urine copper - Increased serum copper
Increased urine copper
Nitric oxide is associated with the prevention of vaso-occlusion by decreasing cellular adherence to endothelium. Which amino acid is decreased in patients with sickle cell disease and is needed as a substrate to produce nitric oxide? - L-arginine - L-glutamine - L-lysine - L-tyrosine
L-arginine
Laser light can be described by all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: - Intensity and concentration - Used in flow cytometry for cell sorting and identification of cells - LASER is an acronym for light amplified by stimulated energy radiation - Monochromaticity
LASER is an acronym for light amplified by stimulated energy radiation
Which of the following statements is true regarding lymphocyte cytoplasmic granules? - Lymphocytes never contain granules in the cytoplasm - Lymphocytes contain fine primary or non-specific granules in the cytoplasm - Lymphocytes contain large secondary or specific granules in the cytoplasm - Lymphocytes may contain a few azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm
Lymphocytes may contain a few azurophilic granules in the cytoplasm
When testing for ethanol, what is actually measured in the enzymatic reaction, that is proportional to ethanol concentration? - NADH - Acetaldeyde - Acetone - NAD
NADH
Can you use and alcohol wipe to cleanse the venipuncture site prior to obtaining a sample for ethanol testing? - Yes, as long as the site is completely air dry before venipuncture - Yes, you do not need to wait for the site to dry - Yes, because the wipes use a different alcohol than what is being tested - No, alcohol wipes must be avoided when testing for ethanol levels
No, alcohol wipes must be avoided when testing for ethanol levels
Eosinophilia is commonly found in which of the following disorders? - Pernicious anemia - Liver disease - Parasitic infections - Infectious mononucleosis
Parasitic infections
A patient has a history of repeated spontaneous abortion. Coagulation studies reveal an elevated APTT, normal PT, normal platelet function, and normal thrombin time. Schistocytes were seen on the peripheral blood smear. Which test should be performed to determine if the patient has lupus anticoagulant? - Factor VIII assay - Mixing studies with factor deficient plasmas - Antinuclear antibody test - Platelet neutralization test
Platelet neutralization test
A false-positive result can be observed in a rheumatoid factor latex agglutination procedure reaction due to: - Poor specimen quality - Antigen excess - Excessive complement levels - Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Poor specimen quality
Which of the following best describes the Westgard multirule 2 2s? - Two control data points fall within the 95.5% confidence interval - One control data point falls outside +2 SD and a second data point falls outside -3 SD - Two consecutive data points fall outside +2 SD or -2 SD limits - One data point from two days ago fell outside +2 SD and today one data point for the same assay fell outside +2 SD
Two consecutive data points fall outside +2 SD or -2 SD limits
Which of the following is the most common type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia? - Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia - Cold agglutinin disease - Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria -Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia
Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A gram negative rod exhibiting bipolar staining was isolated from SBA after 24 hours of incubation. It is oxidase negative, urease negative, catalase positive, and indole negative. What is the probable species? - Brucella spp - Yersinia pestis - Bacillus anthracis - Francisella tularensis
Yersinia pestis
How much time must elapse between apheresis red blood cell donations? - 48 hours - 7 days - 8 weeks - 16 weeks
16 weeks
How soon must granulocyte concentrates be administered after dontation? - 12 hours - 24 hours - 3 days - 30 days
24 hours
What transferrin saturation level would be indicative to investigate further for hereditary hemochromatosis? - 40% - 45% - 35% - 25%
45%
Which best describes an A1 individual? - A antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in serum, which may contain anti-A1 antibodies - A, A1, and B antigens on RBCs and NO antibodies in serum - B antigens on RBCs and anti-A antibodies in serum - A and A1 antigens on RBCs and anti-B antibodies in serum
A and A1 antigens on RBC's and anti-B antibodies in serum
Which of the following is considered an accrediting agency for quality and safety in the blood industry? - FDA - CMS - AABB - ASCP
AABB
A false-negative reaction while performing the DAT technique may be the result of: - Red cell/AHG tube is over centrifuged - Blood collected in tube containing silicone gel - Saline used for wash stored in glass or metal container - AHG addition delayed for 40 or more minutes
AHG addition delayed for 40 or more minutes
Which of the following is the immediate precursor of the mature neutrophil?
Band
All of the following are directly responsible for setting and monitoring competency requirements for laboratory personnel, EXCEPT: - CAP - HCFA - Joint Commission (formerly JCAHO) - CLSI
CLSI
A potentially pathogenic yeast that is usually found as normal flora in the oropharyngeal cavity and may produce thrush is called: - Aspergillus fumigatus - Candida albicans - Cryptococcus neoformans - Candida vaginalis
Candida albicans
Four specimens are received in the laboratory at the same time. The specimens are: - Urine in a specimen cup for urine culture - Feces in preservative for stool culture - Cerebrospinal fluid for culture - Synovial fluid for culture Which specimen should be processed first?
Cerebrospinal fluid
What changes in potassium and sodium serum results may occur with diuretic use? - Decrease in both - Increase in both - Increase in potassium and decrease in sodium - Decrease in potassium and increase in sodium
Decrease in both
Disorders affecting the thyroid, pituitary, and adrenal glands can all lead to anemia (mild to moderate). This is most often associated to which of the following? - Increase in direct effector hormones - Increase in tropic hormones - Decrease in erythropoietin (EPO) - Decrease in tropic hormones
Decrease in erythropoietin (EPO)
The presence of erythrocytes with altered morphology (Schistocytes) has a close association with which of the following conditions? - Extensive burns - Babesiosis - Sickle cell disease - Type I von Willebrand's disease
Extensive burns
A laboratory labels it's secondary containers of hazardous chemicals using a color coded system, with a different color representing each different type of hazard. The coding system follows the color-coding used by the National Fire Protection Agency's "fire diamond". What hazard would be represented by the yellow section on the hazard label? - Health hazard - Fire hazard - Reactivity hazard - Special hazards
Reactivity hazard
The presence of increased levels of protein in the protein may be an early indicator of which of the following conditions? - Renal disease - Diabetes - Hepatitis - Pharyngitis
Renal disease
Edwardsiella tarda is known to be associated with which of the following animals? - Poultry - Cockroaches - Reptiles - Rats and other rodents
Reptiles
The ONPG (ortho-nitrophenyl-Beta-D-galactopyranoside) test is used to: - Separate gram positive cocci based on production of catalase - Separate late lactose fermenters from lactose negative bacteria based on the production of beta-galactosidase - Differentiate alpha hemolytic streptococci based on bile solubility - Differentiate gram negative bacilli based on cytochrome oxidase production
Separate late lactose fermenters from lactose negative bacteria based on the production of beta-galactosidase
All of the following are considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract EXCEPT: - Lactobacillus - Clostridium - Peptostreptococcus - Shigella
Shigella
In which of the following conditions would one see Pappenheimer bodies on the peripheral blood smear? - Iron deficiency anemia - Malarial infections - G6PD deficiency - Splenectomies
Splenectomies
In an emergency release, why do blood bankers seldom encounter patients who have experienced hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR) from transfusion of uncrossmatched packed RBCs? - The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low - They usually receive group O Rh negative red blood cells; a hemolytic transfusion reaction will never occur if O Rh negative red blood cells are transfused - They hemorrhage so severely that incompatible donor red cells "bleed out" before a reaction occurs - Some patients have cold-reactive antibodies that will not react at body temperature
The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low
If an autologous blood component is shipped from the donor center without the completion of infectious disease testing, the unit must be labeled with: - A blue sticker indicating which tests are in process - The phrase "Donor Untested" - A statement from the ordering physician requesting the release - A red warning tag
The phrase "Donor Untested"
The range between a drug's effective dose and it's toxic dose is called: - Drug half-life - Therapeutic window - Pharmacokinetics - Pharmacogenomics
Therapeutic window
pH alteration of normal blood in a closed vessel standing at 37˚C for 1 hour is approximately: - 0.01 to 0.02 pH units - 0.02 to 0.04 pH units - 0.04 to 0.08 pH units - 0.08 to 0.12 pH units
0.04 to 0.08 pH units
When collecting routine blood product donations, the venipuncture site is first cleaned with: - 70% isopropyl alcohol - 50% iodine - 0.7% iodophor compound - 2% cholrhexidine
0.7% Iodophor compound
Each of the following tests below are appropriately matched with a chemical responsible for producing a positive result, EXCEPT: - ONPG - Beta-galactosidase - Citrate - Alpha naphthol - Indole production - Dimenthylaminobenzaldehyde - H2S production - Sodium thiosulfate
Citrate - Alpha naphthol (Citrate - Bromothymol blue)
A 46-year old known alcoholic with liver damage is brought to the ER unconscious. One would expect his lipid values to be affected in what way? - Increased - Decreased - Normal - Unaffected by the alcoholism
Increased
The colonies growing on the surface of a thiosulfate citrate bile sucrose (TCBS) agar plate (the green color indicates lack of sucrose fermentation) were identified as Vibrio vulnificus. The serious complication of infections with this bacterial species is: - Life-threatening septicemia - Cholera-like diarrheal syndrome - Severe electrolyte imbalance - Progressive cellulitis and gas gangrene
Life-threatening septicemia
Which of the following conditions would be suggested by a jaundiced patient experiencing a marked rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP), conjugated bilirubin, and a slight rise in alanine aminotransferase (ALT)? - Cardiovascular disease - Hepatitis - Post-hepatic cholestasis - Renal failure
Post-hepatic cholestasis
In the Coombs phase of a crossmatch, what is the proper procedure to follow if the Check Cells give a negative reaction? - Repeat procedure with new AHG reagent and check the cell washer - Add additional Check Cells and dilute with 100% distilled water - Add additional AHG reagent plus proteolytic enzymes to enhance the reaction - Accept the crossmatch results as correct-nothing further needs to be done
Repeat procedure with new AHG reagent and check the cell washer
With the widespread use of the pneumococcal vaccine, there has been a decline in the incidence of community-acquired pneumonia by which of the following organisms? - Mycoplasma pneumoniae - Haemophilus influenzae - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Chlamydia pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A tech is working on a culture and accidentally enters an incorrect organism. The tech quickly issues a corrected report which includes both the incorrect result and the new, correct result. The tech completes the report and moves on to the next patient culture. What part of the corrected report process is missing or incorrect? - The physician was not called to be notified of the corrected report - The incorrect result does not need to be included on the corrected report - The tech did not need to issue a corrected report for an incorrect organsim - The supervisor should be notified
The physician was not called to be notified of the corrected report
When collecting a urine specimen for workplace drug testing, which of the following situations may indicate that the specimen has been tampered with or adulterated? - The temperature of the specimen reads 34*C - The specific gravity test result is 1.001 - The color of the specimen is amber - The specific gravity test result is 1.020
The specific gravity test result is 1.001
Deficiency of which of the following vitamins is associated with Beriberi? - Thiamine - Vitamin C - Vitamin A - Vitamin D
Thiamine
The type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammation is: - Type I Anaphylactic (immediate hypersensitivity) - Type II Cytotoxic (antibody mediated and antibody dependent, complement mediated hypersensitivity) - Type III Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity - Type IV Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T-cell dependent)
Type IV Cell-mediated hypersensitivity (T-cell dependent)
Serum TSH levels five times the upper limit of normal in the presence of a low T4 and low T3 uptake could mean which of the following: - The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism - The thyroid is ruled out as the cause of hypothyroidism - The pituitary has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism - The diagnosis is consistent with secondary hyperthyroidism
The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism
Which two of the following crystalline elements are found in acidic urine? - Cystine and calcium carbonate - Triple phosphate and calcium carbonate - Calcium phosphate and uric acid - Tyrosine and cystine
Tyrosine and cystine
Which of the following conditions is hypersegmentation of granulocytes most commonly associated with? - Inherited trait or lipid storage disease - Iron deficiency - Viral infection - Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency
Vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency
Hemoglobin H (HbH) bodies are tetramers of which globin chain? - Alpha - Beta - Delta - Gamma
Beta
Estrogen (ERs) and progesterone (PRs) receptors used as tumor markers are most commonly employed to provide prognostic information about: - Breast cancer - Uterine cancer - Menopause - Cervical cancer
Breast cancer
When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's Disease diagnosis, low values of plasma ceruloplasmin would be expected along with: - Decreased urine copper - Increased urine copper - Normal urine copper - Decreased serum copper
Decreased serum copper
Organisms such as coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, and alpha Streptococcus species are all found on the skin and represent normal skin flora. All of the following are functions of normal skin flora EXCEPT? - They provide substances that are toxic to other organisms - They inhibit growth of more harmful microorganisms - they provide a level of immunity to protect against the formation of infections - They aid in the transmission of nosocomial infections
They aid in the transmission of nosocomial infections
